PREPARING FOR IESO 2008

Unit 1: Earth's Materials

Chapter 1: Introduction to Earth Science
Chapter 2: Minerals
Chapter 3: Rocks
Chapter 4: Earth's Resources
Unit 2: Sculpturing Earth's Surface
Chapter 5: Weathering, Soil, and Mass Movements
Chapter 6: Running Water and Groundwater
Chapter 7: Glaciers, Deserts, and Wind
Unit 3: Forces Within
Chapter 8: Earthquakes and Earth's Interior
Chapter 9: Plate Tectonics
Chapter 10: Volcanoes and Other Igneous Activity
Chapter 11: Mountain Building
Chapter 11A: Earth System Profile
Unit 4: Historical Geology
Chapter 12: Geologic Time
Chapter 13: Earth's History
Unit 5: Oceanography
Chapter 14: The Ocean Floor
Chapter 15: Ocean Water and Ocean Life
Chapter 16: The Dynamic Ocean
Unit 6: Meteorology
Chapter 17: The Atmosphere: Structure and Temperature
Chapter 18: Moisture, Clouds, and Precipitation
Chapter 19: Air Pressure and Wind
Chapter 20: Weather Patterns and Severe Storms
Chapter 21: Climate
Unit 7: Astronomy
Chapter 22: Origin of Modern Astronomy
Chapter 23: Touring Our Solar System
Chapter 24: Studying the Sun
Chapter 25: Beyond Our Solar System

SELF-ASSESSMENT
Chapter 1: Introduction to Earth Science
1. For a scientific theory to be valid, it must
a. be well tested.
b. be widely accepted.
c. explain the observable facts.
d. all of the above
2. Lines of longitude are measured in degrees
a. east or west of the equator.
b. north or south of the equator.
c. north or south of the prime meridian.
d. east or west of the prime meridian.
3. The sun's energy drives which of the following processes or events?
a. volcanic eruptions
b. hurricanes
c. earthquakes
d. mountain building
4. A group of interacting parts that form a complex whole is
a. a theory.
b. a system.
c. a hypothesis.
d. the plate tectonic theory.
5. What science deals with the history and origin of the universe?
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a. geology
b. oceanography
c. astronomy
d. meteorology
6. Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resource?
a. cotton for clothing
b. trees for paper
c. soybeans
d. copper ore
7. Earth's crust, mantle, and core make up the
a. geosphere.
b. biosphere.
c. atmosphere.
d. lithosphere.
8. The hypothesis that proposes that the solar system formed from a swirling cloud of gases is
called
a. the nebular hypothesis.
b. the Earth-centered hypothesis.
c. plate tectonics.
d. the universe hypothesis.
9. To navigate a sailboat across the North Atlantic Ocean you would probably use what type of map
projection?
a. Mercator projection
b. gnomonic projection
c. conic projection
d. Robinson projection
10. On a topographic map, contour lines that are widely separated indicate a
a. steep slope.
b. hill.
c. gentle slope.
d. depression.

Chapter 2: Minerals
11. What is the smallest particle of matter that contains the characteristics of an element?
a. an ion
b. a molecule
c. an atom
d. an electron
12. The tendency of a mineral to break along flat, even surfaces is known as
a. hardness.
b. cleavage.
c. fracture.
d. streak.
13. The total mass of an atom expressed in atomic mass units is known as the
a. mass number.
b. atomic number.
c. isotopic number.
d. covalent number.
14. If the atomic number of potassium is 19, how many protons occur in the nucleus of a potassium
atom?
a. 38
b. 19
c. 9
d. 10
15. Groundwater that contains dissolved calcium carbonate and drips from a cavern roof would form
minerals as the result of
a. crystallization from magma.
b. precipitation.
c. changes in temperature and pressure.
d. the cooling of hydrothermal solutions.
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16. The way in which light is reflected from a mineral's surface is known as
a. luster.
b. streak.
c. cleavage.
d. crystal form.
17. Which of the following would not be classified as a mineral?
a. a quartz crystal
b. a salt crystal
c. a sugar crystal
d. a calcite crystal
18. Compounds that are ductile and excellent conductors of electricity have
a. covalent bonds.
b. ionic bonds.
c. isotopic bonds.
d. metallic bonds.
19. Which of the following minerals will NOT scratch glass?
a. quartz
b. orthoclase feldspar
c. topaz
d. fluorite
20. The mineral zircon (ZrSiO4) is a(n)
a. oxide.
b. carbonate.
c. silicate.
d. sulfate.

Chapter 3: Rocks
21. Heat from Earth's interior provides energy for processes that form
a. igneous and metamorphic rocks.
b. igneous and sedimentary rocks.
c. metamorphic and sedimentary rocks.
d. sandstones and conglomerates.
22. What is the texture of igneous rocks that cool very rapidly?
a. coarse-grained
b. porphyritic
c. glassy
d. foliated
23. A fossiliferous limestone would be classified as a
a. clastic sedimentary rock.
b. biochemical sedimentary rock.
c. chemical metamorphic rock.
d. biochemical igneous rock.
24. Which of the following is NOT an example of an igneous rock?
a. granite
b. sandstone
c. basalt
d. rhyolite
25. Which of the following is a fine-grained, light-colored extrusive igneous rock?
a. rhyolite
b. granite
c. gneiss
d. slate
26. What processes are involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks from loose sediments?
a. erosion and melting
b. compaction and crystallization
c. cementation and rapid cooling
d. compaction and cementation
27. What are the main agents of metamorphism?
a. compaction, cementation, and heat
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b. heat, pressure, and hydrothermal solutions

c. heat, pressure, and erosion
d. heat, weathering, and erosion

28. Rocks that form from cooling magma deep within Earth are classified as
a. sedimentary rocks.
b. metamorphic rocks.
c. extrusive igneous rocks.
d. intrusive igneous rocks.
29. Marble is an example of a
a. foliated metamorphic rock.
b. nonfoliated sedimentary rock.
c. nonfoliated metamorphic rock.
d. intrusive igneous rock.
30. Igneous rocks are classified by
a. composition and age.
b. composition and texture.
c. texture and size.
d. texture and presence of fossils.

Chapter 4: Earth's Resources

31. What is one of the drawbacks to the use of solar energy for generating electricity?
a. Solar energy is expensive.
b. Solar energy can't be converted to electricity.
c. The needed equipment is expensive.
d. Solar energy produces large amounts of air pollution.
32. Geothermal energy is used to generate electricity by harnessing
a. falling water.
b. ocean tides.
c. wind.
d. underground steam and hot water.
33. What law was passed that requires companies to properly dispose of hazardous wastes?
a. Clean Air Act
b. Safe Drinking Water Act
c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
d. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
34. Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?
a. uranium ore
b. petroleum
c. coal
d. natural gas
35. Which of the following is an example of nonpoint source pollution?
a. runoff of pesticides from farm fields
b. outflow from a sewage treatment plant
c. a leaking gasoline tank at a service station
d. sulfuric acid leaking from an abandoned factory
36. What substance in the upper atmosphere blocks ultraviolet radiation from the sun, making life on
land possible?
a. carbon dioxide
b. methane
c. water vapor
d. ozone
37. A renewable resource is one that
a. takes millions of years to replace.
b. has finite supplies.
c. can never be replaced.
d. can be replaced in a relatively short time.
38. What law is the most important legislation that protects the air quality?
a. Clean Air Act
b. Superfund act
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c. Safe Air Act

d. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

39. What is the largest source of air pollution?

a. power plants
b. transportation
c. solid waste disposal
d. industrial processes
40. A useful metallic mineral that can be mined at a profit is known as a(n)
a. metal.
b. ore.
c. industrial mineral.
d. placer deposit.

Chapter 5: Weathering, Soil, and Mass Movements

41. What factor usually has the greatest effect on soil formation?
a. climate
b. time
c. parent material
d. slope
42. What occurs when a rock is broken into smaller pieces without a change in the rock's mineral
composition?
a. chemical weathering
b. erosion
c. physical weathering
d. mass movement
43. The slowest type of mass movement is known as
a. creep.
b. a slump.
c. a rockfall.
d. a mudslide.
44. What type of mass movement occurs when rocks fall freely through the air?
a. creep
b. a rockslide
c. a rockfall
d. an earthflow
45. The part of the layer of rock and mineral fragments at Earth's surface that supports the growth of
plants is known as
a. regolith.
b. sediment.
c. humus.
d. soil.
46. What force is responsible for all mass movements?
a. moving water
b. earthquakes
c. steep slopes
d. gravity
47. In well-developed soil profiles, which horizon contains partially weathered parent material?
a. A horizon
b. B horizon
c. C horizon
d. topsoil horizon
48. What is the most important agent of chemical weathering?
a. a steep slope
b. water
c. carbon dioxide
d. oxygen
49. Which of the following minerals or rocks would be most resistant to weathering?
a. calcite
b. marble
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c. quartz
d. olivine
50. Which of the following areas would be most likely to have a thick, well-developed soil?
a. steep slope in an arid area
b. stream valley in a warm area with abundant rainfall
c. valley in a cold polar area
d. area of bare granite on the top of a mountain

Chapter 7: Glaciers, Deserts, and Wind

1. Where do crevasses form on a glacier?
a. along the bottom layer of a glacier
b. in the uppermost brittle zone of a glacier
c. in the part of a glacier that flows plastically
d. within a glacier, near its base
52. What types of sand dunes form parallel to the wind direction, where sand supplies are moderate
and the prevailing wind direction varies slightly?
a. barchan
b. transverse
c. longitudinal
d. star
53. Fine-grained, windblown silt is called
a. sand.
b. rock flour.
c. till.
d. loess.
54. What are the two ways that wind erodes in deserts?
a. abrasion and deflation
b. abrasion and plucking
c. deflation and plucking
d. basal slip and plastic flow
55. What agent or process causes the majority of erosion in desert environments?
a. glacial ice
b. running water
c. wind
d. chemical weathering
56. A rocky surface layer formed by deflation in a desert is called
a. desert pavement.
b. an alluvial fan.
c. a playa.
d. an outwash plain.
57. Sediment deposited directly by glacial ice is called
a. unsorted till.
b. sorted glacial drift.
c. stratified drift.
d. rock flour.
58. A dry, flat lake bed in a desert is known as a(n)
a. outwash plain.
b. alluvial fan.
c. playa.
d. desert pavement.
59. Which of the following is NOT an example of a landform created by glacial erosion?
a. horn
b. arte
c. cirque
d. end moraine
60. A glacier will retreat if
a. more ice accumulates than melts.
b. it gains ice at the same rate that ice melts.
c. more ice melts than accumulates.
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d. the ice melts slower than it accumulates.

Chapter 8: Earthquakes and Earth's Interior

6
1. What type of seismic waves cause material to vibrate at right angles to the direction in which the
waves travel?
a. S waves
b. surface waves
c. transverse waves
d. P waves
62. What material makes up Earth's outer core?
a. peridotite
b. basalt
c. a liquid iron-nickel alloy
d. a solid iron-nickel alloy
63. What type of seismic waves have the highest velocity?
a. S waves
b. surface waves
c. transverse waves
d. P waves
64. Smaller earthquakes that precede a major earthquake are called
a. aftershocks.
b. tsunamis.
c. foreshocks.
d. P waves.
65. A trace produced during an earthquake that records the ground motion is called a
a. seismogram.
b. seismograph.
c. Richter scale.
d. seismologist.
66. When rocks are under stress, energy is stored in the form of
a. chemical energy.
b. elastic energy.
c. earthquakes.
d. plastic energy.
67. What is a fault?
a. the point inside Earth at which an earthquake occurs
b. the point on Earth's surface directly above the earthquake focus
c. a fracture in Earth along which movement has occurred
d. a fracture in Earth along which NO movement has occurred
68. What normally causes tsunamis?
a. unusually high tides
b. underwater earthquakes or landslides
c. when water-saturated sediments liquefy
d. when the ground subsides near an earthquake epicenter
69. The distance of an earthquake epicenter from a seismic station is determined by the difference in
the
a. arrival times of the first P and S waves.
b. arrival times of the first P and surface waves.
c. magnitudes of the P and S waves.
d. arrival times of the first S and surface waves.
70. A weak, easily deformed layer in the mantle is called the
a. lithosphere.
b. lower mantle.
c. ocean crust.
d. asthenosphere.
Chapter 9: Plate Tectonics
71. Paleomagnetism in rocks preserved the position of Earth's magnetic field when
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a. magnetic minerals in the rocks melted.

b. nonmagnetic minerals in the rocks cooled.
c. magnetic minerals in the rocks cooled.
d. nonmagnetic minerals in the rocks melted.
72. The rigid crust and uppermost mantle forms the
a. asthenosphere.
b. continental crust.
c. oceanic crust.
d. lithosphere.
73. Which of the following was NOT evidence Wegener used to support continental drift?
a. seafloor spreading
b. puzzle-like fit of Africa and South America
c. matching rock types and structures on separate continents
d. ancient climate evidence
74. What force ultimately drives plate motion in the theory of plate tectonics?
a. the sun's energy
b. ridge-push
c. slab-pull
d. unequal distribution of heat within Earth
75. How does the age of seafloor sediments change with respect to the ocean ridges?
a. Ocean sediments are oldest close to the ridges.
b. Ocean sediments are youngest close to the ridges.
c. Ocean sediments are youngest farther from the ridges.
d. There is no pattern to the age of seafloor sediments.
76. What is thought to be the major mechanism involved in convective flow downwards into the
mantle?
a. slab-pull
b. ridge-push
c. mantle plumes
d. transform faulting
77. What types of plate boundaries form where two plates grind past each other without constructing
or destroying lithosphere?
a. convergent boundaries
b. transform fault boundaries
c. divergent boundaries
d. No such boundaries exist.
78. What scientific hypothesis proposed that the continents had once been joined to form the
supercontinent Pangaea?
a. plate tectonics
b. seafloor spreading
c. continental drift
d. paleomagnetism
79. New oceanic lithosphere is produced
a. in subduction zones.
b. along transform fault boundaries.
c. at ocean ridges.
d. at continental-continental convergent boundaries.
80. Which of the following are produced at oceanic-oceanic convergent boundaries?
a. continental volcanic arcs
b. volcanic island arcs
c. ocean ridges
d. transform faults
Chapter 10: Volcanoes and Other Igneous Activity
81. Which types of volcanoes are formed by the eruption of fluid basaltic lavas?
a. cinder cones
b. composite volcanoes
c. stratovolcanoes
d. shield volcanoes
82. Where does most magma originate?
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at the core-mantle boundary

in the inner core
in the crust and upper mantle where rock partially melts
from the cooling of "dry" rock
83. The largest intrusive igneous bodies are called
a. stocks.
b. dikes.
c. sills.
d. batholiths.
84. What sheetlike intrusive igneous bodies cut across preexisting rock layers?
a. lava flows
b. dikes
c. sills
d. volcanic necks
85. Which of the following volcanoes formed at a convergent boundary?
a. Kilauea in Hawaii
b. a volcano in Iceland
c. Kilimanjaro in the East African Rift
d. Mount St. Helens
86. What is the plate tectonic setting for the volcanoes in the Hawaiian islands?
a. intraplate volcanism
b. a divergent plate boundary
c. oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundary
d. oceanic-continental convergent plate boundary
87. What type of magma has the highest viscosity?
a. basaltic magma
b. rhyolitic magma
c. andesitic magma
d. low-silica magma
88. Which of the following is NOT a type of pyroclastic material?
a. lahar
b. lapilli
c. cinders
d. volcanic bomb
89. The collapse of the top of a composite volcano after an eruption can form a huge depression
called a
a. vent.
b. caldera.
c. volcanic neck.
d. batholith.
90. What factors determine whether a volcanic eruption is explosive or relatively quiet?
a. age of volcano, size of volcano, and location of volcano
b. magma composition, magma age, and magma color
c. magma composition, magma temperature, and amount of dissolved gases in magma
d. amount of dissolved gases in magma, age of volcano, and magma composition
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chapter 11A: Earth System Profile

91. What factors determine whether a volcanic eruption is explosive or relatively quiet?
a. age of volcano, size of volcano, and location of volcano
b. magma composition, magma age, and magma color
c. magma composition, magma temperature, and amount of dissolved gases in magma
d. amount of dissolved gases in magma, age of volcano, and magma composition
92. What sheetlike intrusive igneous bodies cut across preexisting rock layers?
a. lava flows
b. dikes
c. sills
d. volcanic necks
93. Where does most magma originate?
a. at the core-mantle boundary
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b. in the inner core

c. in the crust and upper mantle where rock partially melts
d. from the cooling of "dry" rock

94. Which types of volcanoes are formed by the eruption of fluid basaltic lavas?
a. cinder cones
b. composite volcanoes
c. stratovolcanoes
d. shield volcanoes
95. What is the plate tectonic setting for the volcanoes in the Hawaiian islands?
a. intraplate volcanism
b. a divergent plate boundary
c. oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundary
d. oceanic-continental convergent plate boundary
96. Which of the following volcanoes formed at a convergent boundary?
a. Kilauea in Hawaii
b. a volcano in Iceland
c. Kilimanjaro in the East African Rift
d. Mount St. Helens
97. The largest intrusive igneous bodies are called
a. stocks.
b. dikes.
c. sills.
d. batholiths.
98. Which of the following is NOT a type of pyroclastic material?
a. lahar
b. lapilli
c. cinders
d. volcanic bomb
99. What type of magma has the highest viscosity?
a. basaltic magma
b. rhyolitic magma
c. andesitic magma
d. low-silica magma
100. The collapse of the top of a composite volcano after an eruption can form a huge depression
called a
a. vent.
b. caldera.
c. volcanic neck.
d. batholith.
Chapter 11: Mountain Building
101. Movement along a fault is an example of what type of deformation?
a. ductile deformation
b. elastic deformation
c. brittle deformation
d. high-temperature deformation
102. The subsidence of the crust beneath a sedimentary basin in which thick layers of sediments are
accumulating is an example of
a. brittle deformation.
b. accretion.
c. isostasy.
d. shear stress.
103. An accumulation of sedimentary and metamorphic rocks scraped off a subducting plate during
ocean-continental convergence forms a(n)
a. accretionary wedge.
b. volcanic island arc.
c. accretionary basin.
d. monocline.
104. What types of mountains are formed by large-scale normal faulting and tensional stresses?
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folded mountains
volcanic mountains
uplifted mountains
fault-block mountains
105. A high-angle fault that forms when the hanging wall moves down relative to the footwall is
called a
a. reverse fault.
b. thrust fault.
c. strike-slip fault.
d. normal fault.
106. What is the primary type of stress involved in the formation of folded mountains?
a. tensional stress
b. compressional stress
c. shear stress
d. brittle stress
107. What is a dome?
a. an upwarped structure with the youngest rocks in the center
b. an upwarped structure with the oldest rocks in the center
c. a downwarped structure with the youngest rocks in the center
d. a downwarped structure with the oldest rocks in the center
108. What type of fold is formed when rock layers are folded into an arch?
a. anticline
b. basin
c. syncline
d. reverse fold
109. Which of the following mountain belts were formed by continental-continental convergence?
a. Andes Mountains
b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge
c. Himalayas
d. volcanoes of the Hawaiian islands
110. The change in shape or volume of a rock body during deformation is known as
a. stress.
b. strain.
c. confining pressure.
d. elasticity.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chapter 12: Geologic Time

111. Which era means "recent life"?
a. Precambrian
b. Paleozoic
c. Mesozoic
d. Cenozoic
112. What principle or law states that in an undisturbed sequence of sedimentary rocks, the
youngest rocks are at the top of the sequence?
a. superposition
b. cross-cutting relationships
c. original horizontality
d. inclusions
113. An unconformity separating older metamorphic rocks from younger sedimentary rocks is called
a(n)
a. angular unconformity.
b. nonconformity.
c. disconformity.
d. angular disconformity.
114. What are the three eras that make up the Phanerozoic eon?
a. Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic
b. Precambrian, Paleozoic, and Mesozoic
c. Mesozoic, Paleozoic, and Quaternary
d. Mesozoic, Proterozoic, and Archean
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115. The statement "the present is the key to the past" most closely represents what geologic
principle?
a. cross-cutting relationships
b. superposition
c. radiometric dating
d. uniformitarianism
116. Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil?
a. petrified wood
b. insect in amber
c. dinosaur footprint
d. mold of a clam shell
117. The element that results from the decay of a radioactive element is called
a. the half-life.
b. the parent isotope.
c. the daughter product.
d. carbon-14.
118. What conditions are more likely to preserve an organism as a fossil?
a. organism with hard parts and slow burial
b. soft-bodied organism and rapid burial
c. organism with hard parts and exposure to erosion and scavengers
d. organism with hard parts and rapid burial
119. The Devonian period is a unit within the
a. Cenozoic era.
b. Paleozoic era.
c. Mesozoic era.
d. Jurassic era.
120. Which of the following radioactive isotopes would be most useful in dating an Egyptian
mummy?
a. carbon-14
b. lead-206
c. uranium-238
Chapter 13: Earth's History
121. What periods make up the Mesozoic era?
a. Quaternary and Tertiary
b. Cretaceous, Jurassic, and Triassic
c. Hadean, Archean, and Proterozoic
d. Permian, Mississippian, and Pennsylvanian
122. When did the Precambrian end?
a. 540 million years ago
b. 540 billion years ago
c. 4.5 billion years ago
d. 248 million years ago
123. The Cenozoic era is sometimes called the
a. "age of fishes."
b. "age of gymnosperms."
c. "age of insects."
d. "age of mammals."
124. What were the dominant land plants in the Cenozoic era?
a. scale trees
b. gymnosperms
c. seed ferns
d. angiosperms
125. When was the formation of Pangaea completed?
a. by the Devonian period
b. by the Mississippian period
c. by the Cretaceous period
d. by the Permian period

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126. What adaptation was important in helping reptiles become the dominant group of animals on
land over amphibians?
a. shell-covered egg
b. wings
c. armor-plating
d. lungs
127. Why was iron oxide not found on Earth until approximately 2.5 billion years ago?
a. Iron was not deposited until 2 billion years ago.
b. There was no carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
c. There was no free oxygen in the atmosphere.
d. There was no water vapor in the atmosphere.
128. What type of organism was dominant in the seas during the Cambrian period?
a. dinosaurs
b. trilobites
c. amphibians
d. fish
129. The largest mass extinction event occurred at the end of the
a. Cambrian period.
b. Permian period.
c. Cretaceous period.
d. Ordovician period.
130. Which of the following units of geologic time spans the largest amount of time?
a. Mesozoic
b. Paleozoic
c. Precambrian
d. Cenozoic
Chapter 14: The Ocean Floor
13
1. The measurement of ocean depths and the charting of the topography of the ocean floor are
called
a. oceanography.
b. geology.
c. bathymetry.
d. mowing the lawn.
132. Energy resources associated with ocean basins include
a. sand and gravel.
b. manganese nodules and gas hydrates.
c. oil, natural gas, and evaporative salts.
d. oil, natural gas, and gas hydrates.
133. Radiolarians and diatoms are organisms that make up sediments on the ocean floor known as
a. calcareous ooze.
b. siliceous ooze.
c. hydrogenous sediment.
d. terrigenous sediment.
134. Which ocean basin is the deepest on average?
a. Atlantic Ocean
b. Arctic Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
d. Pacific Ocean
135. What type of seafloor sediment is eroded from the continents?
a. calcareous ooze
b. siliceous ooze
c. hydrogenous sediment
d. terrigenous sediment
136. Satellites measure the shape of the ocean surface using
a. light waves.
b. radar.
c. ultraviolet radiation.
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d. temperature probes.

137. The longest mountain range on Earth is formed by the

a. ocean trench system.
b. ocean ridge system.
c. continental shelves.
d. continental rises.
138. New ocean floor is formed
a. at ocean trenches.
b. on the continental slopes.
c. at mid-ocean ridges.
d. on the continental shelves.
139. Mineral resources found on the ocean floors that are rich in manganese, nickel, iron, and cobalt
are known as
a. guyots.
b. seamounts.
c. manganese nodules.
d. evaporative salts.
140. The largest percentage of the ocean floor consists of
a. the ocean basin floor.
b. mid-ocean ridges.
c. the continental shelves.
d. the continental slopes.
Chapter 15: Ocean Water and Ocean Life
14
1. The measurement of ocean depths and the charting of the topography of the ocean floor are
called
a. oceanography.
b. geology.
c. bathymetry.
d. mowing the lawn.
142. Energy resources associated with ocean basins include
a. sand and gravel.
b. manganese nodules and gas hydrates.
c. oil, natural gas, and evaporative salts.
d. oil, natural gas, and gas hydrates.
143. What type of seafloor sediment is eroded from the continents?
a. calcareous ooze
b. siliceous ooze
c. hydrogenous sediment
d. terrigenous sediment
144. The longest mountain range on Earth is formed by the
a. ocean trench system.
b. ocean ridge system.
c. continental shelves.
d. continental rises.
145. Radiolarians and diatoms are organisms that make up sediments on the ocean floor known as
a. calcareous ooze.
b. siliceous ooze.
c. hydrogenous sediment.
d. terrigenous sediment.
146. New ocean floor is formed
a. at ocean trenches.
b. on the continental slopes.
c. at mid-ocean ridges.
d. on the continental shelves.
147. Satellites measure the shape of the ocean surface using
a. light waves.
b. radar.
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c. ultraviolet radiation.
d. temperature probes.

148. The largest percentage of the ocean floor consists of

a. the ocean basin floor.
b. mid-ocean ridges.
c. the continental shelves.
d. the continental slopes.
149. Which ocean basin is the deepest on average?
a. Atlantic Ocean
b. Arctic Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
d. Pacific Ocean
150. Mineral resources found on the ocean floors that are rich in manganese, nickel, iron, and cobalt
are known as
a. guyots.
b. seamounts.
c. manganese nodules.
d. evaporative salts.
Chapter 16: The Dynamic Ocean
151. A structure built by people at right angles to a beach to trap sand is known as a
a. seawall.
b. groin.
c. breakwater.
d. tombolo.
152. Salinity increases in the ocean around Antarctica when
a. evaporation decreases.
b. sea ice forms.
c. temperatures increase.
d. sea ice melts.
153. Tides are daily changes in the elevation of the ocean surface caused by
a. underwater earthquakes.
b. the gravitational attraction of the sun alone on Earth.
c. the gravitational attraction of the moon and sun on Earth.
d. the Coriolis effect.
154. The climate of the British Isles is warmer than would be expected from their latitude. What
causes this?
a. coastal upwelling
b. the warm Gulf Stream and North Atlantic currents
c. the warm California Current
d. warm density currents from the Arctic Ocean
155. Winds blowing across the ocean surface cause friction which results in
a. neap tides.
b. density currents.
c. surface currents.
d. the Coriolis effect.
156. Which tides have the greatest tidal range?
a. neap tides
b. spring tides
c. diurnal tides
d. semidiurnal tides
157. The horizontal distance between adjacent wave troughs is called the
a. wavelength.
b. wave period.
c. wave height.
d. fetch.
158. Which of the following is an example of a depositional shoreline feature?
a. sea stack
b. sea arch
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c. wave-cut platform
d. tombolo

159. A longshore current flowing southwards along a coast will primarily transport sediment
perpendicular to the shoreline.
a. northwards parallel to the shoreline.
b. southwards parallel to the shoreline.
c. to the east, out to sea.
160. The density of ocean water can be decreased by a
a. temperature decrease.
b. salinity increase.
c. temperature decrease or salinity decrease.
Chapter 17: The Atmosphere: Structure and Temperature
161. The date of September 22 or 23 is the
a. summer equinox.
b. winter solstice.
c. autumnal equinox.
d. autumnal solstice.
162. The state of the atmosphere at a given time and place is known as
a. climate.
b. weather.
c. meteorology.
d. climatology.
163. At which of the following locations would a city generally have a higher average temperature
throughout the year?
a. low latitude and low altitude
b. low latitude and high altitude
c. high latitude and low altitude
d. high latitude and high altitude
164. If clouds covered most of the sky during both the day and night hours, what would be the most
likely result compared to a clear day and night?
a. The daytime maximum temperature would be higher on the cloudy day.
b. The daytime maximum temperature would be lower on the cloudy day.
c. The nighttime minimum temperature would be lower on the cloudy night.
d. The daily temperature range would be greater on the cloudy day and night.
165. The energy transferred from a hotter object to a cooler object is
a. temperature.
b. heat.
c. convection.
d. scattering.
166. The transfer of heat by circulation within a fluid or gas is known as
a. convection.
b. radiation.
c. temperature.
d. conduction.
167. How does temperature change in the mesosphere?
a. It increases with increasing altitude.
b. It decreases with increasing altitude.
c. It remains constant to about 20 km, then decreases.
d. It remains constant throughout the layer.
168. The upper layer of the atmosphere is the
a. troposphere.
b. mesosphere.
c. stratosphere.
d. thermosphere.
169. What is the fraction of total radiation that is reflected by any surface called?
a. the greenhouse effect
b. scattering
c. albedo
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d. conduction

170. Which primary pollutant has the highest concentration by weight in the atmosphere?
a. nitrogen oxides
b. volatile organic compounds
c. carbon monoxide
d. sulfur dioxides
Chapter 18: Moisture, Clouds, and Precipitation
171. Stable air will
a. be warmer and less dense than the surrounding air.
b. rise easily.
c. resist horizontal movement.
d. resist vertical movement.
172. At which temperature would an air mass at saturation be capable of holding the most water
vapor?
a. 15C
b. 10C
c. 10C
d. 25C
173. Violent thunderstorms are most likely to form from what type of clouds?
a. cirrus clouds
b. cumulonimbus clouds
c. cumulus clouds
d. altostratus clouds
174. Which of the following is NOT a process that lifts air?
a. divergence
b. convergence
c. orographic lifting
d. frontal wedging
175. What prefix is used to identify clouds that appear from 2000 to 6000 meters above the surface?
a. cirrob. nimboc. stratod. alto176. What process is primarily responsible for the formation of precipitation in warm clouds?
a. collision-coalescence process
b. Bergeron process
c. sublimation process
d. wet adiabatic process
177. What instrument is used to measure relative humidity?
a. barometer
b. thermometer
c. rain gauge
d. sling psychrometer
178. The heat that melts ice without producing an increase in the temperature is known as
a. heat of vaporization.
b. latent heat.
c. adiabatic heat.
d. orographic heat.
179. When air rises it
a. is compressed and warms.
b. is compressed and cools.
c. expands and cools.
d. expands and warms.
180. The process of changing a liquid to a gas is called
a. condensation.
b. evaporation.
c. precipitation.
d. sublimation.
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Chapter 19: Air Pressure and Wind

181. Where are the trade winds located?
a. at 30N and 30S latitudes
b. at 90N and 90S latitudes
c. between the equator and the subtropical highs
d. between the subtropical highs and the polar fronts
182. What is the ultimate cause of wind on Earth?
a. friction
b. the Coriolis effect
c. unequal heating of Earth by the sun
d. unequal heating of the land and the oceans
183. Fair weather is usually associated with
a. anticyclones.
b. cyclones.
c. low-pressure centers.
d. surface convergence.
184. The condition that occurs when there is an area of unusually warm surface water in the eastern
Pacific Ocean along the coasts of Peru and Ecuador is called
a. La Nia.
b. a monsoon.
c. El Nio.
d. an anticyclone.
185. Which of the following areas would have the lowest air pressure?
a. the top of Mt. Everest
b. a city at sea level
c. the top of a small hill
d. a city at 1,600 meters above sea level
186. In the northern hemisphere, the Coriolis effect causes winds to be deflected
a. to the left.
b. to the right.
c. upwards.
d. downwards.
187. A westerly wind is blowing from
a. east to west.
b. north to south.
c. south to north.
d. west to east.
188. In the southern hemisphere, a cyclone is a
a. high-pressure center with winds blowing clockwise.
b. high-pressure center with winds blowing counterclockwise.
c. low-pressure center with winds blowing clockwise.
d. low-pressure center with winds blowing counterclockwise.
189. A mountain breeze occurs when winds blow
a. from the ocean towards a mountain.
b. up the sides of a mountain from a valley.
c. down the sides of a mountain into a valley.
d. from the land towards the ocean.
190. What instrument is used to measure wind speed?
a. wind vane
b. anemometer
c. mercury barometer
d. aneroid barometer
Chapter 20: Weather Patterns and Severe Storms
191. In the midwestern United States, a middle-latitude cyclone is a
a. tropical hurricane.
b. exceptionally large tornado.
c. large center of high pressure.
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d. large center of low pressure.

192. An air mass that forms over northern Canada is a

a. maritime tropical air mass.
b. maritime polar air mass.
c. continental polar air mass.
d. continental tropical air mass.
193. In a hurricane, the highest wind speeds and heaviest rainfall occur
a. inside the eye.
b. in the eye wall.
c. along the hurricane's leading edge.
d. along the hurricane's trailing edge.
194. Indian summer in New York in the autumn is the result of what type of air mass?
a. maritime tropical air mass
b. maritime polar air mass
c. continental polar air mass
d. continental tropical air mass
195. Tornadoes form in
a. all thunderstorms.
b. association with anticyclones.
c. association with high-pressure centers.
d. some severe thunderstorms.
196. Lake-effect snow forms in the northeastern United States and southeastern Canada
a. directly over the Great Lakes.
b. on the leeward sides of the Great Lakes.
c. on the windward sides of the Great Lakes.
d. along the Atlantic coast.
197. What type of front forms when warm air moves into an area with cooler air?
a. occluded front
b. stationary front
c. warm front
d. cold front
198. Which air mass would be characterized by warm and dry air?
a. maritime tropical air mass
b. maritime polar air mass
c. continental polar air mass
d. continental tropical air mass
199. In what direction do most weather systems move across the continental United States?
a. from west to east
b. from east to west
c. from north to south
d. from south to north
200. What conditions are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm?
a. cold, dry unstable air
b. warm, dry stable air
c. warm, humid unstable air
d. cold, humid stable air
Chapter 21: Climate
201. The increase in Earth's average surface temperatures during the twentieth century is known as
a. the greenhouse effect.
b. El Nio.
c. solar warming.
d. global warming.
202. What are the two major subdivisions of the humid tropical climate group?
a. wet tropical and dry tropical
b. wet tropical and tropical wet and dry
c. wet tropical and marine west coast
d. humid subtropical and tropical wet and dry
203. Major volcanic eruptions affect Earth's climate by
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increasing solar activity.

decreasing the amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth's surface.
increasing the amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth's surface.
changing the shape of Earth's orbit around the sun.
204. Areas that have warm climates are located
a. at high latitudes.
b. near the poles.
c. at high elevations.
d. at low latitudes.
205. In all dry climates
a. precipitation equals evaporation.
b. precipitation is greater than evaporation.
c. evaporation is less than precipitation.
d. precipitation is less than evaporation.
206. Mountain ranges such as the Rocky Mountains and Andes Mountains have large areas of what
climate?
a. polar
b. tropical wet and dry
c. highland
d. humid subtropical
207. Which of the following factors would NOT affect the climate of an area?
a. an advancing weather system
b. elevation
c. latitude
d. presence of large bodies of water
208. Which of the following would probably NOT result from a significant increase in the global
average surface temperature?
a. a drop in sea level
b. a rise in sea level
c. an increase in the number of hurricanes
d. coastal flooding
209. An area that is located on the windward side of a large mountain range will most likely have
a. a warm, dry climate.
b. a cool, wet climate.
c. a cool, dry climate.
d. a hot, dry climate.
210. A subarctic climate is a subdivision of what major climate group?
a. humid mid-latitude
b. polar
c. highland
d. dry
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chapter 22: Origin of Modern Astronomy

211. What scientist is thought to have been the first to accurately calculate Earth's size?
a. Aristotle
b. Eratosthenes
c. Hipparchus
d. Aristarchus
212. Sir Isaac Newton was the first to formulate and test the
a. law of universal gravitation.
b. heliocentric solar system model.
c. accurate size of Earth.
d. laws of planetary motion.
213. In what solar system model was the sun proposed as the center of the solar system?
a. geocentric model
b. Ptolemaic model
c. heliocentric model
d. retrograde model
214. The youngest features on the lunar surface are
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highlands.
maria.
rayed craters.
rilles.
215. What scientist was the first to use a telescope in astronomy, which was used to discover the
moons of Jupiter and sunspots?
a. Johannes Kepler
b. Nicolaus Copernicus
c. Tycho Brahe
d. Galileo Galilei
216. Depressions on the moon's surface caused by the impact of meteorites and other debris are
known as
a. craters.
b. mare.
c. rays.
d. rilles.
217. The movement of Earth's axis, which traces a circular pattern, is known as
a. rotation.
b. revolution.
c. precession.
d. perihelion.
218. The layer of gray debris that covers the moon is called
a. mare.
b. rille.
c. a ray.
d. lunar regolith.
219. Earth is closest to the sun at
a. perihelion.
b. aphelion.
c. apogee.
d. perigee.
220. Why does the same side of the moon always face Earth?
a. The moon does not rotate on its axis.
b. The moon's period of rotation is faster than its period of revolution.
c. The moon's period of rotation is slower than its period of revolution.
d. The moon's period of rotation is the same as its period of revolution.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chapter 23: Touring Our Solar System

221. Most comets originate in either the
a. Oort Cloud or the asteroid belt.
b. Oort Cloud or the Kuiper Belt.
c. Kuiper Belt or the asteroid belt.
d. Jovian Belt or the Oort Cloud.
222. The planet closest to the sun is
a. Mars.
b. Venus.
c. Pluto.
d. Mercury.
223. The glowing head of a comet is known as the
a. tail.
b. nucleus.
c. coma.
d. nebula.
224. One of the largest volcanoes, Olympus Mons, is found on what planet?
a. Venus
b. Mercury
c. Mars
d. Earth
225. What are the characteristics of the terrestrial planets?
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rocky, relatively small in size, and fairly dense

rocky, large in size, and low density
composed mainly of gases and ice and large in size
far from the sun, rocky, and large in size
226. The Jovian planets include
a. Jupiter, Mars, Saturn, and Uranus.
b. Jupiter, Venus, Saturn, and Uranus.
c. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
d. Mercury, Mars, Venus, and Earth.
227. The orbits of most asteroids in the solar system are located between
a. Jupiter and Mars.
b. Earth and Mars.
c. Jupiter and Saturn.
d. Venus and Earth.
228. Uranus is unique in the solar system because it
a. has a ring system.
b. has deep canyons.
c. rotates on its side.
d. has a very low density.
229. A small solid particle that travels through space is called a
a. meteor.
b. meteorite.
c. moon.
d. meteoroid.
230. Which of the following is NOT true of Saturn?
a. It has huge storms in its atmosphere.
b. It is the only planet with a ring system.
c. It has many moons.
d. It has a composition and structure similar to Jupiter.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chapter 24: Studying the Sun

231. The visible surface of the sun is called the
a. corona.
b. chromosphere.
c. photosphere.
d. radiative zone.
232. In different situations, light behaves like
a. waves only.
b. particles only.
c. waves or particles.
d. photons only.
233. Which of the following type of telescopes must be above Earth's atmosphere to function?
a. a reflecting telescope
b. an X-ray telescope
c. a radio telescope
d. a refracting telescope
234. The first telescope used by Galileo was a
a. refracting telescope.
b. reflecting telescope.
c. radio telescope.
d. Cassegrain telescope.
235. Major solar flares cause
a. sunspots.
b. solar eclipses.
c. spectacular aurora displays on Earth.
d. the solar wind.
236. In the electromagnetic spectrum, what type of radiation has the longest wavelengths?
a. gamma rays
b. X rays
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c. visible light
d. radio waves

237. Astronomers determine whether a star is moving toward or away from Earth by using
a. X-rays.
b. the Doppler effect.
c. gamma rays.
d. microwaves.
238. Reflecting telescopes use
a. a lens to bend light.
b. an objective lens and an eyepiece lens.
c. large mesh dishes to reflect light.
d. large mirrors to reflect light.
239. The sun's energy is produced when
a. helium nuclei are split by nuclear fission.
b. helium nuclei are split to form hydrogen.
c. hydrogen nuclei are split to form helium by nuclear fission.
d. four hydrogen nuclei combine to form helium by nuclear fusion.
240. Dark, cooler patches on the surface of the sun are called
a. sunspots.
b. auroras.
c. granules.
d. prominences.
Chapter 25: Beyond Our Solar System
241. What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?
a. elliptical galaxy
b. irregular galaxy
c. Cepheid galaxy
d. spiral galaxy
242. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows the relationship between the
a. apparent magnitude and temperature of stars.
b. absolute magnitude and temperature of stars.
c. absolute magnitude and size of stars.
d. apparent magnitude and size of stars.
243. Stars that have fluctuating magnitudes are called
a. pulsars.
b. novas.
c. neutron stars.
d. Cepheid variables.
244. What type of stars go supernova and possibly form black holes?
a. low-mass main sequence stars
b. massive stars.
c. medium-mass main sequence stars.
d. red giants.
245. What is a light-year?
a. the average distance between the sun and Earth
b. the average distance between the sun and Pluto
c. the distance light travels in a year
d. the distance light travels in ten years
246. The universe is currently
a. expanding faster than in the past.
b. expanding at a constant rate.
c. contracting at a constant rate.
d. contracting faster.
247. Which of the following is NOT evidence that supports the big bang theory?
a. universe is expanding
b. red shift of galaxies
c. universe is contracting
d. cosmic background radiation
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248. What is a white dwarf?

a. a small, white main sequence star
b. the remains of a black dwarf
c. the remains of a medium-mass main sequence star
d. the remains of a supernova
249. The slight shift in the apparent position of a star caused by Earth's orbital motion is called
a. parallax.
b. the Doppler shift.
c. the Hertzsprung-Russell effect.
d. apparent magnitude.
250. What objects in the universe are thought to have the highest densities?
a. white dwarfs
b. black holes
c. black dwarfs
d. neutron stars

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