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BIOL 3810 Animal Physiology Laboratory

Section 502 Midterm Exam

Fall 2014
1. The four steps of the scientific method are: Observation, Hypothesis
formation, Prediction and:
a. Experimentation
b. Temporization
c. Theorization
d. Speculation
e. Reporting
2. Which of the following assumptions must hold if we are to make a
testable, scientific prediction?
a. correlation must always imply causation
b. causes must precede effects
c. a prediction must always be expressed mathematically
d. sources of variation leading to a particular phenomenon cannot be
tested independent of each other
e. every phenomenon must have an infinite number of discoverable
3. The sum of a range of values divided by the number of values in that
range is called the:
a. accuracy
b. arithmetic mean
c. median
d. data
e. precision
4. If one particular instance of a measurement is no more likely to be chosen
than any other instance, then the sample is:
a. random
b. normal
c. significant
d. independent
e. continuous

5. In a students t-test, which quantity must be greater than the tabulated

value of t at a given level of probability before we could reject the null
a. the standard deviation
b. the found value of t
c. the degrees of freedom
d. alpha
e. the variance
6. One method of eliminating systematic bias that cannot be eliminated by
randomization is:
a. assuming we have no measurement error
b. making sure that we obtain the results we expect
c. making up the data
d. control of variables
e. collecting pairs of data points
7. 64,000 written in Scientific Notation would be:
a. 6.4 x 104
b. 6.4 x 10-6
c. 6.4 x 10-5
d. 6.4 x 10-4
e. 6.4 x 105
8. 32,000 written in Scientific Notation would be:
a. 3.2 x 105
b. 3.2 x 10-4
c. 3.2 x 104
d. 3.2 x 103
e. 3.2 x 106
9. 4.3 x

101 written in standard notation would be:


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10. 2.3895 x 102 written in standard notation would be:

a. 238.95
b. 4.779
c. 0.023895
d. 23,895
e. 0.0023895
11. An athlete drank 1 liters of water after running a race. How many
milliliters did he drink?
a. 1750
b. 17.5
c. 1500
d. 1340
e. 175
12. At the Burger King each patty contains 100grams of ground beef. If on
one busy day 467 burgers were sold, how many kilograms of ground beef
were used?
a. 4.67kg
b. 46700kg
c. 0.00467kg
d. 46.7kg
e. 4670kg
13. What section of your lab report should contain your data in the form of
graphs and tables?
a. Results
b. Conclusion
c. Materials and Methods
d. Introduction
e. Discussion
14. Osmotic shrinkage in mammalian red blood cells is called:
a. crenation
b. cyclosis
c. deplasmolysis
d. cell lysis
e. plasmolysis

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15. Cells from the Elodea leaves placed in a hypotonic solution will:
a. dissolve
b. remain the same
c. shrink
d. explode
e. swell
16. What is the osmolarity (in milliosmoles) of a 1 M NaCl solution?
a. 2000 milliosmoles
b. 1000 milliosmoles
c. 2500 milliosmoles
d. 1 milliosmole
e. 2 milliosmoles
17. Placing red blood cells in a 0.06 M solution of NaCl causes the red blood
cells to:
a. undergo mitosis
b. crenate
c. shrink
d. do nothing
e. hemolyse
18. Which of the following molecules does not penetrate an Elodea
a. Ethanol
b. Water
c. Glycerol
d. Ethylene Glycol
e. Mannitol
19. Which is NOT a factor that affects passive diffusion across cell
a. Membrane type, thickness and size
b. Concentration gradient
c. amount of ATP available
d. Temperature
e. Size and polarity of the molecules

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20. If you spin 5ml of blood by Spun Hematocrit method, and the packed red
cell volume is 1ml then the VPRC would be
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. Cannot be determined with the above data
21. In our hematocrit experiment, the packed red cell volume was the:
a. independent variable
b. subject
c. dependent variable
d. treatment
e. block
22. If we perform an ANOVA and determine that the variance between our
treatment groups is significantly larger than the variance within our
treatment groups, then we can state that:
a. the treatments, the blocks, and the interaction between the two all
had significant effects (y = + t + b + i + e)
b. the treatments and the blocks both had a significant effect (y = +
t + b + e)
c. the sample mean is the same as the population mean (y = )
d. the null hypothesis (y = + e) can be accepted
e. the treatment hypothesis (y = + t + e) can be accepted
23. Which of the following is the proper way of listing the sample mean and
standard deviation in a table cell?
a. 2.4 by 0.4
b. 2.4 0.4
c. 2.4***
d. 2.4 X 0.4
e. 2.4

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24. Which type of graph should you use if the independent variable falls into
discrete categories that are not necessarily evenly distributed?
a. scatter graph
b. column graph
c. bubble graph
d. line graph
e. pie graph
25. In a

two dimensional graph, the x-axis represents the:

independent variable
logarithmic variable
continuous variable
discrete variable
dependent variable

26. The unit of measurement of frequency which is equal to one cycle per
second is:
a. gain
b. current
c. resistance
d. hertz
e. voltage
27. If we place a potential of 10 mV across a wire, and we measure the
current flowing through the wire to be 10 mAmps, the resistance of the wire
would be:
a. 1 Amp
b. 10 mohms
c. 1 ohm
d. 10 osm
e. 100 Hz
28. All of the following can reduce 60 Hz noise except:
a. grounding the circuit
b. placing the biological preparation inside a grounded Faraday cage
c. using shorter cables
d. setting a shorter time base on the oscilloscope
e. using shielded coaxial cables
29. The period of a 20 Hz AC current is:
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0.05 hertz
0.05 cycles/second
0.05 meters
0.05 amperes
0.05 seconds

30. Electrical current in an electrical device such as a lamp is carried by:

a. proteins
b. ions
c. electrons
d. lipids
e. water
31. The

horizontal axis on an oscilloscope screen corresponds to:


32. The horizontal axis (x-axis) of the oscilloscope display represents

________, and the vertical axis (Y-axis) represents ________, respectively.
a. frequency, time
b. noise, frequency
c. intensity, voltage
d. None of the Above
e. voltage, time
33. The initial depolarization of the resting membrane potential of a neuron
occurs due to:
a. outflow of K+ ions
b. influx of K+ ions
c. influx of Na+ ions
d. outflow of Na+ ions
e. influx of Cl- ions

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34. The state of the neuronal membrane before the initiation of an action
potential is called:
a. absolute refractory period
b. relative refractory period
c. resting membrane potential
d. chronaxie
e. rheobase
35. Which of the following types of nerve fibers have the fastest conduction
a. Type B
b. Type C
c. Type O
d. Type AB
e. Type A
36. During the CAP lab dissection, the nerve should be handled with:
a. bare fingers
b. metal forceps
c. metal scissors
d. hemostats
e. plastic forceps
37. You stimulate a nerve with a given stimulus amplitude. The oscilloscope
trace is deflected to a particular amplitude. As you increase the stimulus
intensity, the deflection continues to increase linearly with the stimulus
intensity without limit. This deflection represents the:
a. compound action potential of the fastest fibers
b. 60 Hz noise
c. compound action potential of the pain fibers
d. stimulus artifact
e. compound action potential of the whole nerve

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38. In the CAP lab, the distance between the black negative leads of the two
sets of recording electrodes is 50mm. The time between the stimulus and the
CAP recorded by the first electrode is 1 ms. The time between the stimulus
and the CAP recorded by the second electrode is 3.5 ms. The average
conduction velocity is:
a. 0.4 m/s
b. 50 m/s
c. 20 m/s
d. 10 m/s
e. 4 m/s
39. The

outermost layer of the wall of the eyeball is the:

vitreous body
chorioid coat
anterior chamber
scleroid coat

40. The

colored region of the eye that is visible through the cornea is called:
optic disk

41. The retinal cells that connect the photoreceptor cells to the cells that
give rise to the optic nerve are the:
a. bipolar cells
b. rod cells
c. cone cells
d. thalamic cells
e. ganglion cells

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42. The structure that receives direct input from the optic tract and which
gives rise to motor fibers controlling the head and neck for the visual
tracking reflex is called the:
a. optic chiasm
b. thalamus
c. accessory oculomotor nucleus
d. ciliary body
e. superior colliculus
43. You focus on an object 6m from your eyes, and then quickly shift your
focus to an object 60 cm away. Which of the following would you expect
someone who is observing your eyes to see?
a. the pupils of your eyes should contract
b. the pupils of your eyes should remain unchanged
c. the pupil of your eye that is closest to the near object should
contract, while the other should dilate
d. the pupil of your eye that is closest to the near object should dilate,
while the other should contract
e. the pupils of your eyes should dilate
44. The blind spot results from:
a. the shadow cast by the nose on the medial surface of the retina
b. the shadow cast by the ciliary body on the retinal surface
c. the higher concentration of cone cells at the fovea centralis
d. the occlusion of the photoreceptor cells by axons of the ganglion
cells traversing the surface of the retina
e. the absence of photoreceptor cells at the point where the optic
nerve exits the eyeball
45. An abnormal condition that results in nearsightedness results from an
eye that is:
a. presbyopic
b. myopic
c. emmetropic
d. astigmatic
e. hyperopic

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46. What is the appropriate tool that would be used to determine any
problems associated with reductions in the size of the visual field?
a. perimetry apparatus
b. Ichikawa test books
c. Snellen chart
d. eyescope
e. near point rule and scale
47. The transfer of physiological data to a recording device without a direct
electrical connection between the subject and the recorder is called:
a. calibration
b. transduction
c. telemetry
d. amplification
e. myography
48. When constructing a calibration curve for the frog muscle lab, the
independent variable was the:
a. slope
b. calculated weight
c. calculated voltage
d. known weight
e. recorded voltage
49. In order to convert mass into force for our calibration curve, we needed
to multiply mass by what quantity?
a. newtons
b. voltage
c. grams
d. weight
e. acceleration due to gravity

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50. Using a standard visual acuity test chart, you determine that you have
20/200 vision. This means that:
a. you can distinguish the letters in all of the rows below the 20/200
b. you can only distinguish the letters in the 20/100 row, but not in
any other row
c. you can distinguish the letters at 200 feet that a normal person can
only distinguish at 20 feet
d. you have better than normal visual acuity
e. you can only distinguish the letters at 20 feet that a normal person
could distinguish at 200 feet

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