31.

Which of the following intravenous induction agents is

the most suitable for day care surgery?
A.
Morphine
B.
Ketamine
C.
Propofol
D.
Diazepam
32. Which of the following
endotracheal intubation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

is

not

an

indication

for

Maintenance of a patent airway

To provide positive pressure ventilation
Pulmonary toilet
Pneumothorax

33. Which of the following anesthetic agents doesnt trigger

malignant hyperthermia?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Halothane
Isoflurane
Suxamethonium
Thiopentone

34. Which of the following inhalational agents

induction agent of choice in children?
A.
B.
C.
D.

is the

Methyoxyflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Isoflurane

35. Which of the following is true of post-dural puncture headache?

A.
90% commence within 18 hours of dural puncture.
B.
The mechanism is due to traction on nerves supplying the meninges.
C.
The majority cause severe pain that is referred to the frontal and occipital
areas.
D.
The management include (analgesic, bed rest, caffeine)
E.
Blood patch is effective more than 90%
36.- The following drug has analgesic effect :
aKetamine
bDiazepam
cThiopental
dEtomidate
ePancuronium.

37. The dermatome level that supplies the inguinal area is

A.
T6
B.
T8
C.
T10
D.
L1
E.
L3
38. The most potent of the inhalational anesthetics is
A.
halothane
B.
desflorane
C.
nitrous oxide
D.
sevoflurane
E.
isoflurane
39. Goals of premedication include :
aAnxiety relief / sedation
bAnalgesia
cDrying of airway secretion
dAntiemetic effects
eAll of the above
40. - Muscle relaxant of choice used for rapid sequence intubation is:
aSuccinylcholine
bVecuronium
cPancuronium
dDiazepam
eHalothane
Patient with controlled Diabetes Mellitus is :41 aASA 1
bASA 2
cASA 3
d- ASA 4
e- ASA 5
42.Common reasons for cancellation surgery include all of the following except
a- Cold or recent viral illness
b- Recent myocardial infarction
c- Patient not adequately fasted
d- Pregnant with pereclampsia BP 150/100
e- Electrolytes imbalance
43.Absolute contraindications to spinal anesthesia include :
a- Patient refusal
b- Sepsis
c- Severe hypovolemia
d- Coagulopathy
e- All of the above
44.-Advantages of central blockade over general anesthesia include :

a- Incidence of thromboembolic complications decreased

b- Pulmonary complications are less .
c- Less medication is administered.
d- No emergence time
e- All of the above
45.The risk of DVT is increased by all of the following EXCEPT
a- Bed rest
b- Epidural anesthesia
cNeoplastic disease
d- Obesity
e- Polycythemia
46.Which of the following is a common cause of hypotension during anesthesia ?
a- Hypercapnia
b- Hypovolemia
c- Vecuronium
d- Pncuronium
The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by:47.
A. decreased pCO2
B. increased 2,3-DPG
C. decreased blood temprature
D. increased PH
E. B and D
48..Which of the following drugs is an NMDA receptor anatgonist?
A. Thiopentone.
B. Midazolam.
C. Ketamine.
D. Etomidate.
E. Sevoflurane.
49..The effect of the loss of atrial systole on cardiac output is to reduce ouput by
about:
A. 0 - 5%
B. 6 - 10%
C. 11 - 20%
D. 21 - 40%
E. 41 - 60%
50. The Glascow Coma Score of a head-injured patient who opens his eyes and
withdraws his arm in response to a painful stimulus and who is groaning
unintelligibly is:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10

21.Emergency drugs that should be available by intubation include all of the

following except:
A. ratidine
B. adrenaline
C. atropine
D. lidocaine
E. sodium bicarbonate
22. Ideal properties of intravenous induction agents include all of the following
except:
A . water soluble
B. stable in aqueos solution
C. delayed onset
D. anticonvulsant,anti-emetic,analgesic,amnesic
E. no impairment of renal or hepatic function
23. in the adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
A. alveolar edema occurs as aresult of increased pulmonary capillary
hydrostatic pressure.
B. lung compliance is increased.
C. pacreatis may be the cause
D. the etiology of pulmonary failure is identified by examinationof the x-ray.
E. PEEP can be used to increase intrapulmonary shunt.
24. central venous catheterization is indicated in all the following EXCEPT
A. a surgical procedure in which there is an unusual position, e.g., head-down
position.
B. patient in shock.
C. intravenous administration of vasopressor
D. hyperalimentation.
E. procedures in which large volume shifts may occur.
25. When monitoring the CVP
A. a waveform should be evaluated for the most accurate reading.
B. the catheter should be placed in the right atrium
C. an accurate reflection of fluids status is obtained in all patients.
D. analysis of waveform is no better than a digital readout.
E. a flow- directed pulmonary artery catheter should always be used , since it
will give the CVP and other information
26. signs of inadequate general anesthesia include all the following EXCEPT
A. eyelid movement
B. pupillary constriction
C. hyperventilation
D. sweating
E. limb movement

27. Regarding epidural space all are correct EXCEPT

A. extend from the base the skull to the cocccx
B. contains the spinal cord
C. is traversed by spinal nerves
D. contains a plexus of veins
E. contains minimal amount of fat
28. The local anesthetic with the LEAST toxicity after accidental intravascular
injection is
A. procaine
B. chloroprocaine
C tetracaine
D. lidocaine
E. bupivicaine
29. Thiopental is contraindicated in
A. porphyria conginita
B. porphyria cutanea tarda
C. acute intermittent porphyria
D. myotonia
E. chorea
30. Local anesthetics in the injectable form are
A. salts
B. base
C. acids
D. proteins
E. lipids