FOLLOWING IS A LIST OF ABOUT 500 QUESTIONS BASED ON MEMORY OF STUDENTS WHO TOOK

PART 2 IN 2006/07.SOME MIGHT BE INCOMPLETE AND NO ANSWERS THOUGH.YOU WILL FIND A LOT
OF THESE QUESTIONS WHEN YOU TAKE YOUR EXAM.
GOOD LUCK
1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for
fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this
exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before
mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by
which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional

8) occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following

a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence

e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather
than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the
pattern of
edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more
physiologic
loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless,
hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which
of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely
result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal
neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction
patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp
status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption

17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes
20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon
receiving
the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers

25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of
the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels
27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective
results
a. 6
b. 8

c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular
molar
with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the
dentist
should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under
these
forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive
32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST
important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the childs diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the childs weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is
INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure
36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited
for
reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct

e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct

37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to
either
a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease
answers of questions,
1. A 2. A 3-B 4-B 5-C 9-E 10-A 13-D 14-C 15-B 16-B 17-D
19-D 20-D 21-A 22-A 25-C 26-D 27-C ( Not sure) 28-C 30-C 33-A 34- A, B
35-C 36-C 37-C 38-C 39-C
last question is incomplete.
41)19 year - old man has a deep, carious lesion on a mandibular first molar. He has no histroy of
spontaneous pain but the tooth is sensitive when he eats candy and drinks cold drinks or chews in
the quardent. On examination tooth respond to electric pupl tester and is not sensitive to percussion
or palpation. The tooth is restorable, no periodntal or occlusal probems are evident.
Q. The definitive diagnosis is
1. reversibile pulpitis with acute apical periodontitis
2. reversibile pulpitis with normal apcal tissue
3. irrversibile pulpitis with normal apical tissue
4. irrversible pulpitis with acute periodontitis
5. NOne of the above. there is not enough information to make a definitive diagnosis
Ans - 5
41) Which of the folllowing statements describe composite resins
I They can be placed and finished in the same appointment.
II. They are more color stable than unfilled resins.
III. They are similar to Amalgam with respect to coefficient of Thermal expansion.
IV. The finished surface tends to be somewhat rough.
Answer- A - I , II B. I ,IV C. I, III IV , D. II , III , E. II , III ,IV F. All the above
2) Pulpal irritation would not be expected from a restorative material , provided the minimum
thickness of the material was
A 0.2 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 1 mm D. 2 mm E. 3 mm
3 ) Two adjacent cavities involving the contact may be prepared and restored with composite resins
in the same appointment asA. The chances of maintaining the contact are greatly enhanced
B.The can be packed using one mix

C.this conserves operating time.

D. placement and finishing can be completed in the same appointment.
E. All the above.
4) A young patient receiving endodontic therapy on the maxillary left central incisor. The tooth now
is indicated for an esthetic pin retained restoration as interim treatment. Which of the following
kinds of pins may be used.
I. Self threading pins
II Friction lock pins
III Serrated cemented pins
IV Self shearing pins
V. Non serrated cemented pins
ANSWER - A. I , III B. I , V C. II , III D. II , V
E. III , IV F. III, V
45) degeneration of the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves in a diabetes may be manifested
intraorally
a. causalgia and neuralgia
b. acanthosis and acantholysis
c. vesical and ulcer formation
d. glossopyrosis and glossodynia
46) dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data
etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional
47) which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum
48) #29,30,31 all need DO amalgam, which one do first ?
49) top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ
a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm
50)what metal help chemical bond to porcelain
51)daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface.
52) persistent and repetitions questions asked by an 8 years old patient during treatment are a
a. attempted to delay treatment
b. medication of hyperactivity
c. sign that child may be autistic
d. expression of the childs curiosity about the dental treatment
53) what does the moyers probability chart predict when a transitional dentition analysis is
performed?
a. the widths of mandibular anterior teeth
b. the space available for permanent canine and premolar
c. the width of permanent canines and premolars
d. the space needed for alignment of permanent mandibular central and lateral incisors
54)Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient

B. facing directly toward the patient

C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm
\55) a radiographic exanimation reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third
molar. The third molar is not present. The clinical differential diagnoses included all of the following
EXCEPT one which one is this EXCEPTION
a. ameloblastoma
b. residual cyst
c. odontogenic keratocyst
d. dentigerous cyst
e. odontogenic myxoma
56)which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of
localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses
57) to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the
incision should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior
58) what are the advantages of direct bonding brackets over the conventional ortho band or
brackets
a. easier b better OH c. no separation d. all of the above
59) an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless,
hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks
ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass.
which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
60)which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
61)which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
62) the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by
selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally

e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally

63) which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc
with reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
64) which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
65) according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a
dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry
66) where you can find dental literature online?
a. MEDLINE
b. lexus
c. dental literature online
67) where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve
a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure
68)all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia
69)Which of the following has the BEST survival rate?
* Squamous cell carcinoma
* Adenocarcinoma
* Osteosarcoma
70)Onion Peel look on the radiograph is characteristic of what?
3)Air/ Water Syringe after endo, what happens from debris into sulcus
4) What has the least root surface area in mm squared?
* Mx Lateral
* Mx Central
* Mnd 1st PM
5) Upright a Mnd 1st Molar with lingual and omega loop? What happens?
6) What is the biggest problem that causes no air into lungs?
# Airway obstruction
# Did not pinch the noseetc etc
7)Pulpectomy and filling a Mnd Molar, where would you most likely perforate?
8)Which fluoride causes the most staining?
9)Small white lesion on the tooth the patients whole life. What caused it?
* Hypercalcification during the first 6-12 months
* Hypercalcification during natal
* Hypercalcification during the primary tooth
10)Which of the following is least likely to cause progressive perio problems?
Soft tissue injury

# Ill- fitting margins

# Rough margins
# Within Biologic width
11)When dealing with furcation, Guided tissue regeneration best used with Osseointegrated bone
graft. Prognosis of tooth with GTR is better in Mx molar than with Mnd molar.
# True or False of each statement
12)Which is the least likely to cause bacterial endocarditis?
# Extraction
# Scaling and Root Planing
# Probing
# Adult Prophy
# Root Canal Therapy
13)Which space would cause infection in the Mediastinum?
14) What does the Weight and height stand for in recordings?
* Ordinal
* Nominal
15) When do you fill the tooth with CaOH?
* 1st week into splinting
* After 14 days splinting
* Resorption
16)Best instrument for SRP of Distal Mandibular tooth?
# Gracey 1/2
# Gracey 9/10
# Universal 13/14
# Gracey 13/14
17) The exact mechanism of Caries dyes (detectors) in effected and affected lesions.
18) Patient presents to clinic with a palatal constriction of 3mm. Would the cross bite be:
* a. Shifted to the affected side
* b. Shifted to the unaffected side
* c. Bilateral
19) Which cyst is most like to become neoplastic:
* dentigerous
* residual
* radicular
20) Which cyst is in the center line
* epidermoid
* thyrolingual??
21) Anterior Triangle of the face infection has the most danger of going to:
* Cavernous sinus
* Cervical lymph nodes
22)How do you transfer a patient in a wheelchair?
23) What asthma drug causes oral fungal infection?
24) Why do you give Hydralazine with Chloral hydrate patients?
25) Why do you replace faulty amalgam with Cast gold restoration?
26) * Debris was displaced into the hole where you place the die pin, and not noticed during PFM
fabrication. What happens after fabrication intraorally? (What happens when the PFM is placed in
the mouth at try-in?)
* occlusion too high
* laterotrusive obstruction
* nothing
27)Clearance for occlusal rest is determined how?
28)Best characteristic of high noble alloy?

1) WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING IS MOST SIMILAR TO LATERAL PERIODONTAL CYST:

a) RESIDUAL CYST
b) PRIMORDIAL CYST
c) DENTIGEROUS CYST
d) TRAUMATIC BONE CYST
e)MEDIAN MANDIBULAR CYST

2) WHICH OF THE FOLLOING ARE THE MOST COMMON MALIGNACY IN THE ORAL CAVITY:
a) METASTATIC CARCINOMA
b) BASAL CELL CARCINOMA
c) EPIDERMOID CARCINOMA
d) MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA
e) ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA

to chk bone volume radiograph:

a)bwx
b)pa
c)pan
d)substraction

Calcium hydroxide is useful as a pulp capping agent because it

1.
2.
3.
4.

provides a soothing action on the pulp.

provides an irritant-type action on the pulp.
provides good thermal insulation under the restoration.
has a high crushing strength and, thus, protects the exposure site.

The time for most finishing and polishing procedures for an indirect cast restoration is
1. only after cementing the casting.
2. before and after cementing the casting.
3. after the casting is tried on the tooth.
4. before the casting is tried on the tooth.
)Air/ Water Syringe after endo, what happens from debris into sulcus
4) What has the least root surface area in mm squared?
* Mx Lateral
* Mx Central
* Mnd 1st PM
5) Upright a Mnd 1st Molar with lingual and omega loop? What happens?
tilting of anterior teeth
over tilting
????
7)Pulpectomy and filling a Mnd Molar, where would you most likely perforate?
9)Small white lesion on the tooth the patients whole life. What caused it?
* Hypercalcification during the first 6-12 months
* Hypercalcification during natal
* Hypercalcification during the primary tooth
11)When dealing with furcation, Guided tissue regeneration best used with Osseointegrated bone
graft. Prognosis of tooth with GTR is better in Mx molar than with Mnd molar.
# True or False of each statement
13)Which space would cause infection in the Mediastinum?
15) When do you fill the tooth with CaOH?
* 1st week into splinting
* After 14 days splinting
* Resorption
16)Best instrument for SRP of Distal Mandibular tooth?

#
#
#
#

Gracey 1/2
Gracey 9/10
Universal 13/14
Gracey 13/14

17) The exact mechanism of Caries dyes (detectors) in effected and affected lesions.
23) What asthma drug causes oral fungal infection?
24) Why do you give Hydralazine with Chloral hydrate patients?
25) Why do you replace faulty amalgam with Cast gold restoration?
27)Clearance for occlusal rest is determined how?
28)Best characteristic of high noble alloy?
1)what is similar to the lateral periodontal cyst???
Dentrigerous cyst
residual cyst
primordial cyst
traumatic cyst
median mandibular cyst
2)tearing of the flap is MOST commonly
repeated incision in the same place
envelope incision
semilunar incision
Q)which of the following is the endocrine involvement that is related to the jaw deformity:
acromegaly
cherubism
albrights
pagets
Q)when you use use ziinc oxide in a primary tooth what kind do you use
with cataylst
without catalyst
Q)ameloblastomas histology?
Q)for taking the impression 4 an implant what do u do first
chk the tray 1st to see its fit
put the coping with acrylic resin
put the coping first
???
Q)what forcerp do u use for a broken mesial root of a mandibular molar?
crayers
cranes
Q)which relate best to the platelet count
bleeding time
inr
pt time
Q)Effect of Nor epinephrine? how does it increase bo?
heart rate
peripheral resistance
contractility
Q)what forcerp do u use for a broken mesial root of a mandibular molar?
crayers
cranes

cryers
Q)which of the following is the endocrine involvement that is related to the jaw deformity:
acromegaly
cherubism
albrights
pagets
acromegaly .(pitutary gland produces exces growth hormone )
Q)Effect of Nor epinephrine? how does it increase bo?
heart rate
peripheral resistance
contractility
heart rate ( norepinephrine has a choniotropic effect)
Which of the following are the primary bacterial invaders that cause pulpal infections?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Staphylococci
Facultative aerobes
Gram-positive strict anaerobes
Streptococci and gram-negative rods
Non-specific salivary microorganisms

A patient was administered a flow rate of 4 liters of oxygen and 2 liters of nitrous oxide. What
percentage of nitrous oxide did the patient inhale?
1.
2.
3.
4.

0.25
0.33
0.5
0.66

2 is correct but how do we calculate???

20. hit on one side of mandible, also look for fracture where?
21. broken right body of mandible, where else look for fracture?
22.how does parent of special needs child feel most of the time? Hopeless, depressed
13. 1 liter of water with 1 ppm fluoride; how much mg?
16. when to do bone graft for alveolar cleft? Before primary canine erupts, before permanent canine
erupts, after permanent canine erupts, when do orthognathic sugery??
17. what is unique to end on appliance? Intrude, extrude, torque, tip
18. occlusal trauma causes? Drifting, widened pdl, mobility, sensitive to hot/cold
19. how to differentiate b/t PA endo lesion vs perio PA lesion?
23. what determines most distal lingual extension of denture flange?
28. what type of fracture in tooth will allow complete transillumination of crown? Vert root fract,
cracked tooth, craze lines
30. opaquer? Thickness, how affects color, when to place

34. in kids age 6-10, what prevents caries most? Sealants, routine dental visits, fluoride toothpaste
35. which pulp horn in child is most susceptible to exposure?
38. reason not to have to replace class II amalgam? Open contact packing food, fracture at
axiopulpal line angle area, recurrent decay radiographically, occlusal margins over carved
39. how to keep distal box of amalgam from being displaced proximally? Proximal retention grooves,
converge facial and lingual walls, widen isthmus
41. after etch and primer, hybrid layer formed by what?
44. veracity as it refers to ethics?
http://ocw.tufts.edu/Course/10/lecturenotes
http://www.dentalsummaries.com/dis/index.htm
Q)what is not an indication for restoring class V abrafaction?
Sensitivity,
esthetics,
prevention of decay,
prevention of further structure loss,
restoring physiological contour
Q) previously rctd tooth has microleakage which has minimal effect; this is because most rcts have
a hermetic seal?
All true,
all false
true/false
false/true
Q)maxillary tuberosity removal, use surgical stent why?
Prevent hematoma,
pt comfort
Q) hand rolled acrylic tray cant be used for 24 hrs why?
Distortion,
needs to dry,
adhesive wont stick
Q)what has biggest effect on success of flap?
Initial incision,
extensiveness of reflection,
oral hygiene post op,
final position of flap
Q)alveoloplasty with excessive flap reflection, with primary closure what is the sequelae?
Shortened vestibule,
removed too much bone,
post op infection
Q)gingival index is what?
Ordinal,

nominal,
ratio,
integral
Q)what does not remove sulcular plaque?
Toothpick
nylon bush,
water pick,
powered brush,
floss
Q)man with dentures for past 19 yrs has 6x3mm white lesion on left distofacial ridge area, pt
unaware, what do you do?
Incision,
excision,
cytologic,
adjust and check in one week
Q)larger filler particles mean what?
Stronger
weaker
polishability
Q)19 y/o female previously treated for endo fracture at level of alveolus; what to do to maintain
esthetics?
FPD over remaining tooth structure
remove remaining tooth structure,
ortho to extrude remaing tooth structure
A pt has a drainning sinus apical to lateral incisor. The tooth which isrestoresd with a post and crown
recieved root canal and apiocoectomy a year ago. radiology the tooth measures 19mm, treatmet of
choice
1)retreat and refill wit gutta percha
2)retreat by surgery using a retrolfil amalgam.
ans is 2, why amalgam?
At atomic level X ray photos loose energy by
1)bremstrahlung interactions
2)Collision with other photos
3)compton and photoelectric process
4)spontaneous disintergration and mutation of photon energy
5)collision with nuclus of the absorbing atom.
the most common incision by oral surgeons is
1)an envelop
2)semilunar
3)y incision
4)z incision.
treaing of flap occurs most frequntly with
1)repeated incisin at the same place
2)envelop incisions
3)semilunar incisions
vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of
periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct

4)both ststements are incorrect

is it 4???
At atomic level X ray photos loose energy by
1)bremstrahlung interactions
2)Collision with other photos
3)compton and photoelectric process
4)spontaneous disintergration and mutation of photon energy
5)collision with nuclus of the absorbing atom.
answer is 3
treaing of flap occurs most frequntly with
1)repeated incisin at the same place
2)envelop incisions
3)semilunar incisions
3 is correct
the most common incision by oral surgeons is
1)an envelop
2)semilunar
3)y incision
4)z incision.
4 is correct
vitd deficieny causes secondary hyperparathryoidism abd osteoporosis. this causes loss of
periodontal attachmenta nd loss of teeth
1) both statements are correct
2)1st statement is correct
3)2nd statement is correct
4)both ststements are incorrect
is it 4???
both are incorrect i THINK
Each of the following factors affect height of the cusps and depths of fossae on restorations except
one. Which one is the exception?
a- curve of spee
b-intercondylar distance
c-vertical overlap of anterior teeth
d-horizontal overlap of anterior teeth
e-steepness of the articular eminence

i THINK its an e plz correct me if am wrong?

13) what does the moyers probability chart predict when a transitional dentition analysis is
performed?
a. the widths of mandibular anterior teeth
b. the space available for permanent canine and premolar
c. the width of permanent canines and premolars
d. the space needed for alignment of permanent mandibular central and lateral incisors
Measure space available for 3-4-5 on each side of the arch Calculate from prediction table the size
of 3-4-5 Subtract #2 from #1 on each side
the width of permanent canines and premolars

Q)which relate best to the platelet count

bleeding time
inr
pt time
1. The action of the Hawley appliance is mainly
a) intrusion
b) tipping
c) bodily movement
2. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continous
d. indirect
3. The fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm
4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
5. Which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam?
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premilar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
6. When do you do serial extraction?
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficieny in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
d. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region
7. On what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures
8. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b. Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides
9. A periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b. there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
10. You fit a new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. gring buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
11. When doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do?
a. use smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge

d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge

12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
13. What composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it is pollished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it is polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger
14. What would you warn patient about who is taking birth control pills and required Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectivenes of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of penicillian
c. they may develop allergy
15. What radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar
teeth are contacting each other?
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
16. How far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm
17. In what part of the mouth are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the mouth
18. What is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop
19. When will the BULL rule be utilized with the selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all of the above
20. What can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue
21. Which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety
22. Pan showing lucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the
patient was involved in an accident. Identify the lucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph
23. After opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it

a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. matttress
24.Fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation
25. In office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization
26. The lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root
because the cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior
27. You fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do?
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
d. grindinging lingual of upper teeth
28. Probing depth differs depending on
a. inflammation of the tissue
b. force used for probing
c. if probing depth decrease, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to real
regain of attachment
29. If during the root canal treatment, the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrude the file over
the foramen
a. fill the canal with a master file of a larger number then master cone
b. increase the size of the file and re-create a new apical seal and then fill with the master cone of
that size
c. try to fill in as many Gutta percha points as possible
d. use canal medication instead of filling
30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe
incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
31. After implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites
32. After perio surgery, the re-attachment can hapen
a. as soon as in a week
b. to the dentin or cementum
33. There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques that subgingival plaques. The
detached plaques within subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than attached
plaques
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but the second statement os correct
d. both statement are wrong

34. TMD patients usually have

a. psychosis
b. antisocial tendecy
c. Schizotypical character
d. drug abuse
35. Why is z-plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment
a. less scar contraction
b. easier in terms of technique
c. less incision needed, no suture needed
36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
37. Palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
38. What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change
39. Upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is
a. Phlebitis
b. intra-arterial injection
c. vascularbreakage
40. Which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth
a. alginate
b. polyether
c. polysulfide
d. silicone
41. The best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
a. home bleaching
b. microabrasion technique
c. office bleaching
d. walking bleaching
42. The following have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what
is the exception
a. Atropine+glycopyrolate (anticholinergic)
b. aspirin acetaminophen
c. penicillin tetracycline
43. patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
a. are allergic to N20
b. inhale too high concentration of N20
c. eat a big meal right before the proceudre
44. Ataxic epilepsy patients - what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication
45. Porcelain veneer - what is the most important advantage compared with porcelain venee, what is
the most important advantage of resin veneer
a. esthetic
b. cost

c. tooth preservation
46. Compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die
strength
a. better compression strength
b. better tensile strength
c. require less water
d. higher expansion
47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation
48. What is the characteristic of an implant that would change bony resorption pattern
a. intaosseous integration
b. integrate with bone
49. What are the reccommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients
a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
b. maxilla 3 mandibular 2
c. maxilla 6 mandibular 4
d. maxilla 8 mandibular 6
50. Apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on
a. maxillary buccal area
b. maxillary lingual area
c. mandibular lingual area
d. mandibular buccal area
51. In order to increase the success rate of treating local juvenile periodontitis, what should be done
a. combine usage of systemic antibiotic
b. local antibiotic treatment
c. use of chlorhexidine
52. Which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?
1.Contaminate sharps must be handled in such ways except for
a.The container must be labeled
b.The container has a metal case
c.The container has to be non puncturable
d.The container must be closable.
2.Which of the condition would delays a dentist decisions of taking FMX
a.Pregnancy
b.Patient receiving radiothery next week
c.Patient had CT last week
d.Patient had FMX 6 months ago.
3.Probing depth differs depending on
a.Inflammation of the tissues.
b.Force used for probing
c.If probing depth decreases due to reduction of inflammation and swelling not due to real regain of
attachment
4.Tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. Inflammatroy papillary hyperplasia
b. Epulis fissuratum
c.Traumatised mucosa
d.Rocking denture stabilization

5.If during recal patient who wear RPD the dentistfinds that the indirect retainer and the rest would
be lifted if he press on the edentulous area of the RPD, what should the dentist do
a. tell the patient he needs new denture
b. relining of the denture
c.occlusal adjustment
6.When should a posterior crossbite be corrected
a.asap
b. wait uuntill permanent dentition has fully developed
c.during late mixed dentition
d.during early mixed dentition
7.WWhichof the following is not the effect of epinephrine
a. Increase H.R
b. Increase BP
c.bronchoconstriction
d.vasoconstriction
8.What is the definition of total anterior facial height on Ceph
a.nasion- menton
b.A-B
c. A-menton
d. ANS- menton
9.What happens if there is premature exfoliation of mandibular primary canine
a.need space maintainer
b.shift midline to affect side
c.mandibular incisors move distally and lingually
d.decrease in arch lenght
10.What happens wiht intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increase
b.decreased
c. no change
11.Asprin stops pain by
a. stopping the unpward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b.intefere wiht signal intrepretation in the CNS
c. stopping the local signal produt\ction and transduction
d.stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
12.The following have additive action for eac component when used together excpet for one.what is
the exception
a. atropine -glycopyrolate anticholinergic
b.penicilline- tetracycline
c.asprin -acetaminophen
13.Inorder to increase the success rate of treating local JP what shud be done
a. combine systemic antibiotic
b.use chlorhexidine
c.local antibiotic treatment
14.Whihc feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?
15.The % of specific LA which is present in the base form when injected in the t\issue whiose pH is
7.4 ininversely proportional to the pKa of that agent

a.onset if faster, duration is longer

b.onset is slower ,duration is lolnger
c.duration same onset is slower
d.onset and duration same
16.which of the injections is most likely to have positive inpspiration
a. IA 10-15%
b.akisino
c.infraorbital
d.gowgate 2%
e.mental nerve
17.what is the most definite way to distinguish amelloblastoma from OK
a.smear cytology
b.reactive light microscopy
c.reflective microscopy
18.dentist who uses 5- HEMA for cliniacl situations most likely exp whihc of the following conditions
for the clinician
a.contact dermatitis
b.anaphylaxis
c.artus reaction
d.arthritis
e.delayed hypersensitivity
19.what was done wrong that the resin teeth wont stay in the resin denture base
a. wax got in between during processin
b.there is no loocking system
c.retentive jholes are not big enough
20.whic field of the following can be a speciality according to ADA
a.public health
b.geriatri dentistry
c.hospitaldentistry
d.cosmetic dentistry
21.whic kind of patients canntobe treated wiht B blocker as abti arrithymic medication
a. patients wiht angina
b.patients wiht HTN
c.patients wiht COPD
d.patients wiht astham
22.due tothe mesial concavity of the max 1st PM prior to condensation of the amalgam the tooth is
best prepared wiht
a. wedge only
b.matirx only
c.no wedge or matrix
d.custom made wedge and matrix
23. radiographically you see widening of PDL aroiundall teeth .what is ur early diagnosis
a.earlist sign of osteosarcoma
b. sclreoderma
c.hyperparathyroidism
d.fibroius dysplasia

http://www1.umn.edu/perio/dent6613/Implant_I.pdf
for implants
Q)what you cant do with stain?
change hue
increase value
decrease value
change chroma
http://web.indstate.edu/thcme/duong/head.html
Q)what you cant do with stain?
change hue
increase value
decrease value
change chroma
Q)what tissue grows up till age 6 and then drops off
neural
lymphiod
genital
a practitioner administers 90:10 nitrous oxide oxygen mixture to a patient,causing respiratory
depression.which of the following conditions is most likely to result
a)metaboli acidosis
b)respiratory acidosis
c)metabolic alkalosis
d)respiratory alkalosis
answer is respiratory acidosis
Which of the following best applies to saliva?
1. Phosphate is the main pH buffer.
2. supplies sialiates to mucin.
3. supplies Ca and P for remineralisation.
4. undersaturated with respect to hydroxyappatite at neutral pH.
A mouth rinse contains 0.05%F. Which of the following represents the concentration expressed in
ppm?
1. 5
2. 50
3. 500
4. 5000
6 c