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43. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 15 days (B1, B2)
A.You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time only
B.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time
only
C.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days several
times
44. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time only
B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one
time only
C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks several
times
45. Do you need to do periodic ground checks of aircraft During parking period of
not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. Periodic ground check at 7-day intervals and periodic ground check at 15-day
intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.
B. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals.
C. Periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.
D. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month
intervals
46. When doing periodic ground check at 7-day intervals for a parking period of not
more than 15 days or of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready
condition). (B1, B2)
A.You must do a check of the hydraulic reservoir level
B.You must do the slat/flap extension and retraction
C.You must do engine and IDG oil uplift
D.You must do engine cranking
47. When doing periodic ground check at 15-day intervals for a parking period of not
more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2)
A. You must do the engine monitoring only
B. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle then do a
thrust reverser full cycle
C. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle only
D. You must do the engines run-up at high power for 5 minute
48. When doing aircraft preservation steps for a storage period of not more than 6
months (B1, B2)
A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up
B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down
C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position
49. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind
conditions (B1)
A. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor
the aircraft at the NLG
B. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor
the aircraft at the NLG and MLG
B. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN
position and for the tank(s) which will not be refueled to the SHUT position.
C. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) of all the fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position
D. A & B
65. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling without electrical power (B1,B2)
A. The high-level protection system will not operate,
B. Do not refuel through the two refuel/defuel coupling at the same time
C. The handle of the refuel coupling cap must point aft when the cap is closed and
locked.
D. All above
66. The maximum water contents permitted by the manufacture in hydraulic fluids
is: (B1)
A. 0,5%
B. 0,6%
C. 0,7%
D. 0,8%
67. Airbus recommends the maximum water contents permitted in hydraulic fluids is
(B1)
A. 0,5%
B. 0,6%
C. 0,7%
D. 0,8%
68. The aircraft configuration requirements for filling the hydraulic fluid reservoir
are: (A,B1,B2)
A. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are closed
B. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are opened
C. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are closed and the landing gear doors
are opened
D. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are opened and the landing gear doors
are closed
69. When doing the Hydraulic Fluid Reservoir Filling (A, B1, B2)
A. The hydraulic system operating normally
B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized
C. Do not depressurize the system reservoirs
D. Green hydraulic system must be depressurized
70. What happen if you fill to much hydraulic fluid in the reservoir? (A, B1, B2)
A. Hydraulic system can not operate
B. A message "reservoir overfull" appear on ECAM
C. You cannot pressurize it the reservoir sufficiently and may cause the message
"RSVR LO AIR PR" on ECAM.
D. Hydraulic fluid transfers to other reservoir.
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93. What is the main purpose of the pack anti ice valve? (A,B1,B2)
A. To stop the ice formation across the primary heat exchanger.
B. To stop the ice formation across the main heat exchanger.
C. To stop the ice formation across pack condenser.
94. What is the purpose of pack bypass valve? (B1)
a. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage.
b. To modulate the pack discharge temperature.
c. To increase the air flow to the turbine stage.
95. What is the purpose of the pack RAM AIR flaps? (A,B1,B2)
a. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail.
b. To provide air to the pack compressor.
c. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers.
96. What protects the packs from overheat condition? (B1,B2)
A. Electrical sensor in the mixer unit
B. An overheat pneumatic sensor, two electrical sensors at compressor outlet
C. An electrical sensor at the water separator outlet
D. A differential pressure operated valve
97. What flow is delivered by pack with Pack Flow selector on LO and bleed air
supplied by the APU? (A,B1,B2)
a. Low
b. Normal
c. High
98. The motor number 3 of the outflow valve is controlled from: (B1,b2)
A. CPC 1 or CPC 2
B. MAN part of the CPC in position 1
C. MAN part of the CPC in position 2
D. The Cabin Press control panel.
99. On the cabin pressure panel, the FAULT light illuminates when: (B1,B2)
A. SYS 1 or SYS 2 fails
B. SYS 1 and SYS 2 fail
C. No landing elevation from FMGS
D. Manual mode is selected
100. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid : (A,B1,B2)
A. Excessive positive pressure differential
B. Excessive negative pressure differential
C. Excessive cabin altitude.
D. A and B
101. When ditching is selected : (B1,B2)
A. The safety valves and outflow valve are confirmed closed, the pack valves stay
open
B. The ventilation inlet and extract valves are opened and the pack valves close
C. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack
valves close
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110. With the AP engaged, the rudder is normally controlled during cruise by: (B2)
A. the FAC
B. the ELAC
C. the FMGC
D. the SEC
111. The AFS computers are: (B2)
A. FMGC and FAC
B. FAC and ELAC
C. FMGC and SEC
D. ELAC and SEC
112. The FMGC functions are: (B2)
A. flight guidance and flight envelope protection
B. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control
C. flight management and flight envelope protection
D. flight management and flight guidance
113. The Flight Guidance are: (B2)
A. autopilot, flight director, autothrust
B. flight management, autopilot, autothrust
C. autopilot, flight plan, autothrust
D. autopilot, flight director, flight plan
114. The MCDUs allow: (B2)
A. used control of the aircraft for short term
B. modification of FG parts
C. used control of the aircraft for long term
D. make the flight plan and engage the autopilots
115. The main function of the FAC are: (B2)
A. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation
B. yaw damper, rudder trim, flight envelope protection
C. rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection
D. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection
116. In flight AP can be engaged when: (B2)
A. aircraft in take off phase
B. aircraft in climb phase
C. at least 5 seconds after lift-off
D. aircraft in cruise phase
117. Rudder travel limitation is a function of: (B2)
A. FAC only
B. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate
C. ELAC only
D. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate
118. The trim function of the FAC is: (B2)
A. A pitch trim
B. A rudder trim
C. An elevator trim
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17
18
19
20
21
22
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90 KVA
50 KVA
5 KVA
1 KVA
ATA25: FURNISHING
183.Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to: (A,B1,B2)
A. Supply oxygen for passengers.
B. Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.
C. Breathe oxygen.
184. Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted? (B1)
A. On the upper sidewall panels
B. On the ceiling panels
C. On the lower sidewall panels
185. From where the escape slide inflation cylinder is checked? (B1)
A. From the cargo compartment only.
B. From the PTP only.
C. From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.
186. Which device has to be unlocked before closing the slide window? (A,B1,B2)
A. A locking pin on the sliding window frame.
B. The sliding window operating handle.
C. None.
187. Which cabin panels are removable? (A,B1)
A. Lower sidewall panels only.
B. All the panels.
C. Upper sidewall panels only.
188.Where are passenger oxygen masks stored? (A,B1,B2)
A. In the passenger service unit
B. In the seat arm rest
C. In the overhead stowage compartment
189. Where are the A320 aircraft inflation reservoirs of the escape slide of emergency
exit door located? (B1,B2)
A. in the container at the bottom of the door
B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door
C. In the aft cargo compartment
190. When you check the pax door escape/slide inflation cylinder, where must the
pressure indication be? (B1,B2)
A. In the green GO band
B. In the red band
C. At zero.
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191. In the cargo compartment where are the rapid decompression panels installed?
(B1)
A. In the cut out of the ceiling panels
B. In the fixed partition walls
C. In the cut out of the ceiling panels and lateral right side wall linings
192. The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch insures the
energization of the PDUs? (B1,B2)
A. The door sill latch
B. The ZX-single latch 32.
C. The fixed YZ latch.
193. Captain and First Officer Seats are: (A,B1,B2)
A. Symmetrical and have the same function
B. Asymmetrical and have the same function
C. Have the same function and interchangeable.
D. Folding type and has no adjustment
194. Captain and First Officer Seats electrical control system permits (A,B1,B2)
A. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction
B. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the backrest
C. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the lumbar rest
D. All above
195. The rapid-decompression safety-system is installed in the aircraft (B1,B2)
A. Prevents structural damage to the fuselage and damage to the equipment and
furnishings
B. Provides quick escape facility of the aircraft
C. Provides quick access to aircraft area.
D. Prevents overpressure to aircraft area
196. Where is the inflation cylinder of the passenger door escape slide located? (B1)
A. In a container at the bottom of the door.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
C. In the aft cargo compartment.
D. In the fwd cargo compartment.
197. The A320 aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slide at: (A,B1,B2)
A. The 4 entry doors.
B. The overwing exits
C. The 4 entry doors and the overwing exits
198.The sidestick armrest of Captain and First Officer seats (B1,B2)
A. Possible to lift it vertically and stow it behind the backrest
B. Located on the inboard side of the seat
C. Possible to adjust the height and the tilt angle of the side stick armrest
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30
31
32
36
291.A ground test of the wing anti-ice system, with pneumatic pressure available,
tests: (B1,B2)
A. The warning system
B. Only the indications as the valves cannot be opened on ground
C. The operation of the valves
D. Only the valves solenoid supply as the valves cannot be opened on ground
292.The wing anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2)
A. A modulating and isolation valve
B. Only an isolation valve
C. Partially open in flight, fully open on ground
293.How is the wing anti-ice valve controlled and operated? (B1,B2)
A. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated
B. Pneumatically controlled and operated
C. Electrically controlled and operated
D. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
294.How many computers does the Window Heat system use? (B1,B2)
A. A single computer for the LH side and RH side
B. Two computers, one for the LH side and RH side and the other one as a back-up
C. Two computers, one for the LH side, one for the RH side
D. No computer is used for this system
295.Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on ground? (B1,B2)
A. No, you can operate the system in flight only
B. Yes, but for a limited time of 30 secs
C. Yes, for an unlimited time
D. Yes, but only if the outside temperature is less than 10C
296.In the event of a wing anti-ice valve failure? (B1,B2)
A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position.
B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position.
C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position.
297.Hot air used for wing anti-iced is taken from? (A,B1,B2)
A. Aircraft pneumatic system.
B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2.
C. Directly from the main engine compressors.
298.What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the engine anti-ice valve?
(B1,B2)
A. The valve closed as it is spring loaded closed.
B. The valve opened as it is spring loaded open.
C. Stayed as it is.
299.With both engine anti-ice push buttons set to ON (B1,B2)
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335.Before the LDG can be retracted, the LGCIU must detect that : (B1,B2)
A. Three shock absorbers are extended
B. Three shock absorbers are compressed
C. Main shock absorbers are extended
D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended
336.What are the auto brake arming condition? (B1,B2)
A. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and
no failure in normal braking system.
B. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, yellow pressure and anti-skid powered and
no failure in normal braking system.
C. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated
and no failure in normal braking system.
337.What can you operate the Nose Wheel Steering during take off and landing when
the speed is above 130 Kts? (B1,B2)
A. It is not possible
B. It is possible through rudder pedals
C. It is possible through hand wheels
D. It is possible through rudder pedals and auto pilot
338.Which component gives priority to the Green hydraulic system when applied
braking system? (B1,B2)
A. Brake selector valve
B. Throttle valve
C. Automatic selector valve
339.What the "LGCIU" must detect before the landing gear can be retracted?
(B1,B2)
A. Three shock absorbers are extended
B. Three shock absorbers are compressed
C. Main shock absorbers are extended
D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended
340.When will the "LGCIU" change-over for landing gear control takes place
(B1,B2)
A. When the landing gear control lever is set to down
B. When the landing gear control lever is set to up
C. When electrical power is applied
D. When both engines started.
341.When does the BSCU provide anti-skid control? (B1,B2)
A. During the normal and alternate braking
B. Only during the normal braking
C. When the auto brake system has failed
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LO mode.
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45
46
47
384.The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the (B2)
A. RMPs
B. FCU
C. DMCs
D. Master FMGC
385.How can GPWS test initiated from the cockpit? (B2)
A. By Pressing The GPWS system pushbutton on the GPWS panel
B. By using the CFDS system report/test
C. By pressing one of the GPWS/GS warning pushbutton on the CAPT or FO
instrument panel
D. GPWS test is impossible from the cockpit
386.RA1 fails below 2500 Ft (B2)
A. a red RA flag appears on the Capt's PFD
B. The radio altitude displayed on Capt's PFD is provided by radio altimeter 2
C. The radio altitude is lost on. Capt's PFD
D. The radio altitude numerals are replaced by amber crosses on Capt's PFD
387.ILS 1 data is normally displayed (B2)
A. On Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
B. On Capt's PFD and Capt's ND..
C. On F/O PFD and F/O ND
D. On F/O PFD and Capt's N D
388.ILS 1 fails: (B2)
A. ILS 2 data are provided to Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
B. ILS 1 deviations disappear and are replaced by a LOC and a GS red flag
C. LOC and GS scales are replaced by amber crosses
D. Scales and deviations disappear from Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
389.MKR information displayed on PFD 1 and PFD 2 is sent from VOR/MKR
receiver (B2)
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1 on PFD 1 on VOR/MKR receiver 2 on PFD 2
D. 1 on both PFD's in the event of VOR/MKR 1 failure there is an automatic
switching to VOR/MKR receiver 2
390.What VOR information is displayed on the ND (B2)
A. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer
B. Bearing pointer only
C. Deviation bar and selected course only
D. Deviation bar and bearing pointer only
391.In the event of no ADF 1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND, the bearing
pointer goes: (B2)
A. Out of view and ADF flag is displayed
B. Out of view and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by red crosses
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392.The red HDG message is displayed on the ND if a error (message set to failure
warning) is detected by the: (B2)
A. ADIRUs
B. DMCs
C. FMGCs
D. FWCs
393.When DME fails, on DDRMI: (B2)
A. Red flag comes in to view
B. Single pointer is set to 3 oclock
C. DME display window is blanked
D. DME display window shows white horizontal dashed lines.
394.Can TCAS determine distance to the intruder? (B2)
Yes
No
395.The enhanced predictive function of the EGPWS is obtained by: (B2)
Use of terrain database
Use of DME
Use of Weather Radar to scan
Use of RA
396.The ATC (B2)
Responds to interrogations from ground ATC or TCAS
Interrogates ground ATC for distance measurement
Responds to interrogations from ground ATC for bearing measurement
397.The RA antennas are installed on the (B2)
Top of A/C fuselage
Bottom of A/C fuselage
Top and bottom of A/C fuselage
Top of rudder
398.With the loss of ADR 1,what would be lost on the Capts PFD ? (B2)
PITCH and ROLL scales
PITCH and SPEED scales
Airspeed and altitude information
Airspeed and wind information
399.Where is VOR data displayed? (B2)
Both NDs and CAPTs PFD
Both PFDs and DDRMI
Both NDs
Both NDs and DDRMI
400.Does predictive windshear detection work when the radar system is switched
off? (B2)
Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO position
49
(B2)
50
51
52
Fully open
Modulating
Mechanically latched in its last position
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Is controlled to close
435.At high engine speed the high pressure valve (HPV) is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Regulating a pressure
B. Fully closed
C. Fully open
D. Regulating a temperature
436.What is the design principle of the bleed leak detection loop? (B1,B2)
A. Resistance.
B. Pressure.
C. Capacitor.
437.Where the air is taken from during engine high power setting? (A,B1,B2)
A. IP stage.
B. HP stage.
C. IP and HP at the same time.
438.What is the purpose of IP/HP switching? (A,B1,B2)
A. To regulate the output pressure depending on the Fan Air Valve position.
B. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low engine speed.
C. To regulate the output temperature depending on the configuration of users.
439.What is the purpose of the Control Thermal Start (CT)? (B1,B2)
A. To pneumatically control the OPV.
B. To pneumatically control the FAV.
C. To pneumatically control the PRV.
440.If one HP valve failed open? (B1,B2)
A. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated close.
B. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated open.
C. The aircraft can only be dispatched if related bleed system is considered INOP.
441.The E/W message: LH WING DET FAULT means? (B1,B2)
A. LH wing loop A and B fault
B. Either LH wing loop A or B fault.
C. Either both loops A or both loops B fault.
442.Which component can be used to monitor engine bleed leak? (B1,B2)
A. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas.
B. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas and NAC Temperature sensor.
C. Leak loop detection at Pylon area and NAC Temperature sensor.
443.What is the correct configuration of the wing bleed leak detection? (B1,B2)
A. Loops A connect to BMC 1 and loops B connect to BMC 2.
B. LH wing loops connect to BMC 1 and RH wing loops connect to BMC 2.
C. Both loops A and B connect to BMC1 and BMC 2 in parallel.
444.The APU bleed valve is? (A,B1,B2)
A. A modulating valve.
B. An ON/OFF valve.
C. A and B.
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No, only the water tanks can be drained by using the aft drain valve
No, only the forward drain valve can be operated manually.
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2 pressure filters.
2 scavenge filters.
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489.When the APU is started, the APU generator will be energized at: (B1,B2)
A. N = 75 %
B. N = 95 % plus 2 seconds
C. N = 50 %
D. N = 7 %
490.When does the surge control valve fully close? (B1)
A. During main engine start
B. During ECS operation.
C. On ground.
491.If the APU has experienced an automatic shut down, where can you find
information on the shut down cause? (B1,B2)
A. From Post Flight Report.
B. Checking the APU page.
C. Check the Shut Down menu on CFDS.
ATA 52: DOOR
492.How can the slide fairing door of one overwing emergency exit be disarmed?
(B1,B2)
A. By opening the exit from the outside
B. By setting the disarm device to "disarmed"
C. It always disarm on ground.
D. By an automatic "disarm" signal from engine, as long as engines are not running
493.What indicates the red flashing light on the cabin door? (A,B1,B2)
A. The escape slide will not deploy after automatic opening
B. The first bar has failed to engage into the floor fittings
C. The slide system is armed avoid the interior locking handle is partly lifted
D. Both engine shut down, door disarmed, the cabin pressure is greater than 2,5 mb
494.How is the passenger door closed and locked information be monitored?
(A,B1,B2)
A. By a single microswitch (lock position) on the "ECAM DOOR" page
B. By two proximity detection on the "ECAM DOOR" page
C. No indication at all
D. Landing gear control interface unit n 1 (LGCIU 1) on the "ECAM DOOR" page
495.What indicates the green light in the cargo door access? (A,B1,B2)
A. The cargo door is closed and locked
B. The cargo door is not closed
C. The cargo door is unlocked
D. The cargo door is open and locked
496.What is the purpose of the damper nitrogen bottle and emergency operation
cylinder? (B1,B2)
A. To damp the door opening and closing
B. To assist in opening and closing the door to do it
C. To damp the door opening/closing and to pressurize the cylinder in case of
emergency opening
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497.What happen when the passenger door is opened from the outside and the slide
system is armed? (A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside
498.What happen when the emergency exit door of A320 aircraft is opened from the
outside and the slide system is armed? (A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside
499.The PAX door is maintained parallel to the fuselage by: (A,B1,B2)
A. The guide arms.
B. The support arms
C. The upper and lower connection links.
500.How the operator is warned, when there is a residual pressure in the cabin?
(A,B1,B2)
A. By a white flushing light.
B. By a red flushing light.
C. By an ember flushing light.
501.Which device blocks the outer control handle during inner control handle
operation of the PAX door? (B1)
A. The control handle gearbox
B. The safety pin
C. The lifting mechanism.
502.How can the PAX door be opened from outside when the arming lever is set in the
ARM position? (B1)
A. The arming lever must be set to DISARMED.
B. The door cannot be opened from outside in such configuration.
C. An installation containing a cam disk and a roller disarms the system automatically.
503.What happens when the arming lever of the PAX door is set to the ARMED
position? (B1,B2)
A. The girt bar stay attached to the cabin floor.
B. The girt bar slide towards the telescopic fork.
C. The telescopic fork slide towards the girt bar fitting
504.Which maintenance task must be performed after an emergency opening of PAX
door? (B1)
A. The operating striker lever has to be replaced.
B. The diaphragm, in the mechanism housing and the shear pin must be replaced.
C. The nitrogen bottle has to be replaced
505.How is latch pin of the A320 aircraft emergency exit door released for
maintenance operation? (B1)
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506.What does the green light fitted near the manual selector valve of the cargo door
indicate? (A,B1,B2)
A. The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to operate the door.
B. The door is fully opened and locked.
C. The door is correctly unlatched and unlocked
507.When can the cargo door be opened? (A,B1,B2)
A. When the cam and the hooks are in the locked position.
B. When the cam is in the unlocked position and the hooks are in the locked position
C. When the cam and the hooks are in the unlocked position
508.To Which of the followings the cam of the cargo door fastened? (B1)
A. Locking shaft
B. Safety shaft
C. Spring unit.
509.The cargo doors hydraulic system is pressurized by the: (A,B1,B2)
A. Green electric pump
B. Blue electric pump
C. Yellow electric pump
510.What is purpose of the spring loaded blocking piston in the manual selector valve
of cargo door hydraulic system? (B1)
A. To prevent door opening is pressure is < 3000 psi
B. To lock the selector in the OPEN/CLOSE position until the actuator is fully
opened/retracted.
C. To ensure correct pressure in the extension chamber of the actuators before closing
511.When does the residual cabin pressure red light come on? (A,B1,B2)
A. When all the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied and the residual
cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
B. When the engines are not running, the slide is disarmed and the residual cabin
pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
C. When the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied, the slide is disarmed
and the residual cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
512.When is the electro selector valve of the cargo door system applied? (B1,B2)
A. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR and when the manual
selector valve is operated.
B. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is FAR and when the manual selector
valve is operated.
C. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR
513.The seal of pax door: (A,B1,B2)
A. Is installed around the door on the inner side and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
B. Is installed around the door on the outer side and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
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Is deflated when the door is closed and the passenger cabin is pressurized.
514.The air stoppers are installed between the PAX door and the door frame
(A,B1,B2)
A. Prevent the cold air from penetrating into the cabin
B. Prevent the water comes into the cabin
C. Protect the door structure during operation.
515.The proximity switches installed on PAX door transmit the position of: (B1,B2)
A. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook
on the upper frame of the door
B. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the door
handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism
C. The hook on the upper frame of the door and the door handle on the shaft of the
locking mechanism
D. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook
on the upper frame of the door; the hook on the upper frame of the door; the door
handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism
516.Each emergency exit door has a slide release mechanism with two operation
modes: NORMAL mode and the MAINTENANCE mode (B1,B2)
A. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the
ARMED position (the latch pin is extended)
B. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the
ARMED position (the latch pin is retracted)
C. During the MAINTENANCE mode, the latch pin is in the DISARMED position (the
latch pin is extended)
517.Emergency exit door of a320 aircraft: (A,B1,B2)
A. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall outside of aircraft.
B. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall into the cabin.
C. Can be opened from outside and the door fall outside of aircraft
D. Can be opened from inside and the door fall into the cabin,
518.The pressurization of the cargo door hydraulic system does not occur when:
(A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is in the locked condition.
B. The door not in fully close or/and open position.
C. The door not in fully open position.
D. The door is operated with hand pump
519.BULK Cargo-Compartment Door is opened: (A,B1,B2)
A. Outward and upward.
B. Outward and downward.
C. Inward and upward.
D. Inward and downward.
520.The FWD and AFT cargo doors: (A,B1,B2)
A. Possible to open/close at the same time
B. Possible to open at the same time when using the electric pump only
C. Possible to open one by one only
D. Possible to close at the same time only
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The red light goes off when the ARM switch set to OFF.
529.What happen if the stow switch is release before the RAT is fully retracted? (B1)
A. The RAT continuously retracts.
B. The RAT will return to the fully extended position.
C. The RAT locked in the existing position.
530.The potable water is located at: (A,B1,B2)
A. L/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
B. R/H behind the forward cargo compartment.
C. R/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
531.If the cabin emergency door is opened from outer side with the escape slide in
ARMED mode. (A,B1,B2)
A. The ARMED mode of the escape slide changes to DISARMED mode as well as
passenger door.
B. The escape slide will deploy.
C. The door can not be opened.
532.For the emergency exits door, which device makes sure that the locking shaft
mechanism is always in the over centered position? (B1)
A. The spring unit.
B. The control mechanism.
C. The locking hook.
533. Where the escape slide pack of cabin emergency door located? (A,B1,B2)
A. Holds on the door.
B. Holds in a container underneath the door.
C. Holds on the overhead stowage compartment.
534.Where the inflation reservoir of the emergency exits door located? (A,B1,B2)
A. At the bottom of the door.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment.
C. In the AFT cargo compartment.
535.What is purpose of the ECON FLOW pushbutton? (B1,B2)
A. To allows the cockpit to select 80%, 100% or 120% of the nominal airflow.
B. To permits economic or normal pack flow according to the number of the passenger
and ambient condition.
C. When ON is selected the normal flow provides 20% more than economic flow.
536.The HOT AIR pushbutton switch of the cargo ventilation panel controls: (B1,B2)
A. Blower fan.
B. Aft cargo door.
C. Pressure Regulating Valve.
537.Are main pumps running while the center tank is transferring? (B1,B2)
A. Yes, main pumps are always running.
B. No, only when the center tank is empty.
C. No, because of center tank pump priority
538.Engine LP valve closes when: (B1,B2)
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566.How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? (B1,B2)
A. In parallel
B. In series
C. In a loop.
567.How many smoke detectors are installed in the FWd cargo compartment? (B2)
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
568.How many smoke detectors are installed in the AFt cargo compartment? (B2)
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
569.When the cargo fire test pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are
simulated? (B1,B2)
A. Smoke only
B. Bottle pressure drop only
C. Both
570.If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment what happen? (B1,B2)
A. SMOKE lights comes ON + continuous repetitive chime + MASTER WARNING +
ECAM message.
B. The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin.
C. Lights come on.
571.What happen if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2)
A. The lavatory smoke detection inoperative
B. The cargo smoke detection inoperative
C. Both A and B with single chime + MASTER caution + ECAM message.
572.On A321 aircraft with tanks are the main supply tanks? (B1,B2)
A. Wing tanks
B. Center (transfer) tank
C. Outer cells
D. Inner cells
573.The APU of A321 aircraft can normally be supplied with the fuel by: (A,B1,B2)
A. Only the APU pump
B. Only the LH main pumps
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump
574.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves:
(B1,B2)
A. Must be manually switched OFF after 5 mn.
B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C. Close automatically after a time delay of 5mn.
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594.The engine run up at Min idle can be carried out with : (A,b1,B2)
A. Fan cowls opened and secured.
B. Both Reverser and Fan cowls opened and secured.
C. Thrust Reverser cowls opened and secured.
D. Non engine cowl opened.
ATA 72 ENGINE CFM 56-5b
595.Features of CFM-56-5B4 engine are: (A, B1,B2)
A. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
596.Select the correct type of combustion chamber for CFM-56-5B4 engine?
(A,B1,B2)
A. Annular combustor.
B. Tubular combustor.
C. Reverse flow combustor.
597.The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)
A. Twelve.
B. Ten.
C. Nine
598.The HP Turbine has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)
A. Only one stage.
B. Four stages
C. Two stages.
599.Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2)
A. Thirty six (36)
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)
600.The engine gear boxes are driven by which shaft? (A,B1,B2)
A. N1 rotor.
B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box.
C. N2 rotor.
601.The Aerodynamic station 2 is at: (B1,B2)
A. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade tip area.
B. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade hub area.
C. Fan outlet discharge area.
602.The Aerodynamic station 3 is: (B1,B2)
A. HP compressor inlet.
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RH fan cowl.
LH fan cowl
RH reverser cowl.
Out board fan cowl.
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712.Which filters in the oil system have associated filter clog messages on the
ECAM? (A,B1,B2)
A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers.
B. Pressure only.
C. Scavenge only.
713.Which normal indications are displayed on the ECAM for the oil system?
(A,B1,B2)
A. Oil differential pressure, oil temperature, oil tank quantity.
B. Oil temperature, oil pressure.
C. Oil differential pressure, oil quantity,
714.The ECAM oil pressure indication is? (B1,B2)
A. Pump delivery pressure.
B. Pressure pump scavenge pump differential pressure.
C. Pressure pump delivery No 4 bearing scavenge.
715.What is the purpose of the No 4 bearing scavenge valve? (B1)
A. Scavenge No 4-bearing compartment.
B. Controls the venting/scavenge flow of air/oil mixture to the de-oiler.
C. Controls the ACAC (buffer) air flows for No 4 bearing compartment.
716.What does the HMS heat and cool? (A,B1,B2)
A. Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil.
B. Engine oil and IDG oil.
C. Fuel only.
D. Fuel and engine oil.
717.The HMS has how many modes? (B1)
A. One
B. Four
C. Five
718.In which HMS mode does the ACOC valve fully close? (B1)
A. Mode 1.
B. Mode 3.
C. Mode 5.
719.What is the failed safe position of the ACOC valve? (B1)
A. Fully opened.
B. Fully closed.
C. Stay at the last position.
720.The EEC controls the HMS with? (B1)
A. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV and IDG FCOC.
B. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV; IDG FCOC; FCOC.
C. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV.
D. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV and FCOC.
721.The combined fuel diverter and return to tank valve (FD&RV) is located on? (B1)
A. The HP fuel pump case.
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