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18. What is/are the term(s) applied to the space between and
around charged bodies in which their influence is felt?
A. Electric field of force
B. Electrostatic field
C. Dielectric field
D. Each of the above *
19. Electrostatic lines of force are drawn in which of the following
manners?
A. Entering negative charge, entering positive charge
B. Entering negative charge, leaving positive charge *
C. Leaving negative charge, leaving positive charge
D. Leaving negative charge, entering positive charge
20. Which of the following devices use magnetism?
A. Batteries
B. Light bulbs
C. High-fidelity speakers * D. Each of the above
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B. Pressure
D. Chemical action
B. Pressure
D. Chemical action *
B. Pressure
D. Chemical action
B. Pressure
D. Chemical action *
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3. Electrolyte
A. negative electrode
B. positive electrode
C. solution acting upon the electrode *
D. mounting for the electrode
4. Container
A. negative electrode
B. positive electrode
C. solution acting upon the electrode
D. mounting for the electrode *
5. Anode
A. negative electrode
B. positive electrode *
C. solution acting upon the electrode
D. mounting for the electrode
6. Cathode
A. negative electrode *
B. positive electrode
C. solution acting upon the electrode
D. mounting for the electrode
7. What term is given to the process that takes place inside a
cell?
A. Electromagnetic action
B. Piezoelectric action
C. Electromechanical action
D. Electrochemical action *
8. With respect to recharging a primary or secondary cell, of the
following statements, which one is correct?
A. The secondary cell can be recharged by passing current
through it in the proper direction *
B. The primary cell can be recharged by passing current
through it in the proper direction
C. The secondary cell can only be recharged by changing the
electrodes
D. The primary cell can only be recharged by changing the
electrolyte
9. What determines the amount of current that a cell can deliver
to the external circuit?
A. The internal resistance of the cell only
B. The resistance of the external load only
C. The circuit resistance and the internal resistance of the
cell *
D. The circuit capacitance and number of free electrons in the
load
10. Which of the following actions will lower the internal
resistance of a cell?
A. Decreasing the size of the electrodes
B. Increasing the size of the electrodes *
C. Increasing the spacing between the electrodes
D. Increasing the resistance of the electrolyte
11. What causes negative ions to be attracted to the cathode of a
primary cell while the cell is discharging?
A. A negative charge caused by a loss of electrons
B. A negative charge caused by an excess of electrons
C. A positive charge caused by a loss of electrons *
D. A positive charge caused by an excess of electrons
12. What causes hydrogen to be attracted to the anode of a
primary cell when the cell is discharging?
A. A negative charge caused by a loss of electrons
B. A negative charge caused by an excess of electrons *
C. A positive charge caused by a loss of electrons
D. A positive charge caused by an excess of electrons
13. What causes the cathode to be "eaten away" in the primary
cell while the cell is discharging?
A. The material of the cathode combines with the negative
ions to form a new substance. *
B. The material of the cathode dissolves in the electrolyte.
C. The material of the cathode leaves the negative terminal of
the cell and goes through the load to the anode.
D. Bacteria in the electrolyte erodes the material in the
cathode.
14. The primary cell is completely discharged when which of the
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29. What is/are the advantages(s) of using a manganesedioxidealkaline- zinc cell over the zinc-carbon cell?
A. Better voltage stability
B. Longer storage life
C. Operates over a wide temperature range
D. All the above *
30. What is the common name for manganese dioxidealkalinezinc cell?
A. Alkaline cell *
B. Long-life cell
C. Moz cell
D. Manganese-dioxide cell
31. Which of the following factors should be considered when
selecting a primary cell as a power source?
A. Power requirement *
B. Type of electrolyte used
C. Container material
D. All of the above
32. Of the following types of cells, which one is a primary cell?
A. Nickel cadmium
B. Silver zinc
C. Lithium organic *
D. Silver cadmium
33. Which of the following is/are the difference(s) in the
construction of a NICAD cell as compared to a lead-acid cell?
A. The electrolyte used
B. The material of the anode
C. The material of the cathode D. All of the above *
42. If electrolyte comes in contact with the skin, what first aid
treatment should be given immediately to the affected area?
A. Cover with petroleum jelly
B. Wrap with a sterile bandage
C. Apply an antiseptic lotion
D. Flush with fresh water *
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A. Voltage
C. Resistance
B. Current *
D. Each of the above
A. 10
C. 30 *
B. 20
D. 40
21. Three resistors with ohmic values of 120 ohms, 60 ohms, and
40 ohms are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent
resistance of the circuit?
A. 10
B. 20 *
C. 30
D. 40
22. Two resistors with ohmic values of 90 ohms and 45 ohms are
connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the
circuit?
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18. The ammeter with the greatest sensitivity has which of the
following characteristics?
A. The lowest amount of current for full-scale deflection
indication*
B. The highest amount of current for full-scale deflection
indication
C. A low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection
indication
D. A high ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection
indication
19. Ammeters measure various ranges through the addition of
which of the following components?
A. Shunt resistors in series with the meter movement
B. Shunt resistors in parallel with the meter movement *
C.Capacitors in series with the meter movement
D.Capacitors in parallel with the meter movement
(NEETS) MODULE 3 CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES
ASSIGNMENT 2
20. What range of an ammeter should you use for an initial
measurement?
A. The lowest range
B. The highest range *
C. The mid-scale range
21. What portion of the ammeter scale should be used to take a
final reading?
A. The upper half
B. The lower half
C. The mid-scale portion *
D. Anywhere on the meter face
22. When, if ever, can you use a dc ammeter to measure ac
values?
A. When the ac is high frequency
B. For low values
C. Always
D. Never *
23. Which of the following safety precautions should be observed
prior to connecting an ammeter into a circuit?
A. Switch to the highest range
B. Observe proper dc polarity
C. Deenergize the circuit
D. All of the above *
24. What electrical property is measured by a voltmeter?
A. Power
B. Current
C. Voltage *
D. Resistance
25. A voltmeter should be connected in an electrical circuit in what
manner?
A. In series with the load
B. In parallel with the load *
C. In accordance with Lenz's Law
D. In series-parallel with the load
26. A voltmeter has an effect on the circuit being measured; what
is this effect called?
A. Loading *
B. Damping
C. Rectification
D. Eddy-current drag
27. To keep the effect of a voltmeter on a circuit to a minimum,
the internal resistance of the voltmeter must have which of the
following relationships to the circuit load?
A. Equal to
B. Lower than
C. Higher than *
D. In proportion to
28. Which of the following types of meters can be made from a
current sensitive meter movement?
A. Ammeter
B. Ohmmeter
C. Voltmeter
D. Each of the above 8
29. A voltmeter has a high sensitivity when it has which of the
following characteristics?
A. Low deflection indication
B. High deflection indication
C. Low ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection indication
D. High ratio of internal resistance to full-scale deflection
indication *
30. Which of the following configurations extends the range of a
voltmeter?
A. A resistor in series with the meter movement *
B. A resistor in parallel with the meter movement
C. A capacitor in series with the meter movement
D. A capacitor in parallel with the meter movement
31. What voltmeter range should be used for initial
measurements?
A. The lowest
B. The highest *
C. The mid-scale
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by a
C. Selection of ac or dc capability
D. Changing of the multimeter from an ammeter to a voltmeter
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A. A point bender *
C. A pair of pliers
B. A burnishing tool
D. A pair of hemostats
D. Four
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B. Two
B. IV and V
D. V and VII *
B. 80%
D. 95%
A. 70%
C. 90% *
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45. When multi-conductor cables are spliced, why are the splices
staggered?
A. To prevent possible shorting between conductors
B. To increase the strength of the individual splices
C. To decrease insulated resistance
D. To reduce the overall size of the joint *
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B. IV
D. VII
41. What two diagrams are used in conjunction with text materials
to explain basic functions of a circuit?
I. Schematic diagram
II. Single-line diagram
III. Wiring diagram
IV. Block diagram
V. Isometric diagram
VI. Pictorial diagram
VII. Terminal diagram
A. II and IV *
C. V and VI
B. II
D. VII
B. V
D. III *
B. III *
D. VII
45. If you are required to wire a relay into a circuit, what diagram
would be most useful?
I. Schematic diagram
II. Single-line diagram
III. Wiring diagram
IV. Block diagram
V. Isometric diagram
VI. Pictorial diagram
VII. Terminal diagram
A. VII *
C. III
B. VI
D. I
46. K
47. L
48. When you solder or hot-wire strip fluoroplastic insulated wire,
which of the following safety precautions should be observed?
A. Wear a safety mask at all times
B. Wear protective gloves
C. Maintain good ventilation to carry off the fumes *
D. Do not allow the resin to touch the insulation
49. If a circuit has power restored to it, what meter may be used
to test the circuit?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A wattmeter
C. A megohmmeter
D. A voltmeter *
50. If excess solder adheres to the tip of a soldering iron, how
should you remove it?
A. Flow flux over the tip
B. Wipe it off on a clean cloth *
C. Dip the tip in water
D. Shake it off
(NEETS) MODULE 5 GENERATORS & MOTORS
ASSIGNMENT 1
1. In generators, what principle is used to convert mechanical
motion to electrical energy?
A. Atomic reaction
B. Electrical attraction
C. Magnetic repulsion
D. Magnetic induction *
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B. III
D. VI *
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A. I
C. IV
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A. The drum-type armature has more windings than the Grammering armature
B. The drum-type armature can be rotated faster than the
Gramme-ring armature
C. The drum-type armature coils are fully exposed to the
magnetic field, while the Gramme-ring armature coils are only
partially exposed to the magnetic field *
D. The drum-type armature has laminated core, while the
Gramme-ring armature has a solid core
%R=(ENL-EFL)/EFL x 100
4. Name the two series circuits that are associated with a diode
electron tube.
A. The plate and anode circuits
B. The plate and filament circuits *
C. The battery and filament circuits
D. The filament and cathode circuits
5. When an ac voltage is applied across the plate and filament of
a diode, the current measured will represent what type of
waveform?
A. Pulsating dc *
B. Dc
C. Pulsating ac
D. Ac
6. A filament that uses a one-molecule thick layer of barium and
strontium is classified as what type of filament?
A. Tungsten
B. Oxide-coated *
C. Tungsten-strontium
D. Thoriated-tungsten
7. Which of the following ac filament voltages is most likely to be
considered a common voltage?
A. 1.5 volts
B. 3.0 volts
C. 6.3 volts *
D. 9.0 volts
8. An ac directly heated filament has which of the following
advantages?
A. Even spacing relative to the plate
B. Even emission across the filament
C. Constant emission throughout the ac cycle
D. Rapid heating effect *
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22. The effect of both cathode and grid biasing is to make the
cathode (a) what polarity, relative to (b) what other tube element?
A. (a) Positive (b) the plate
B. (a) Negative (b) the plate
C. (a) Positive (b) the grid *
15
21. Electronic equipment that uses fixed bias for its tube circuit
receives its grid bias voltage from what source?
A. A portion of the plate voltage
B. A power source internal to the circuit
C. Both 1 and 2 above
D. A power source external to the circuit *
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C. 90 Hz
D. 120 Hz
13. What is the average load voltage? Assume that the voltage
across the transformer secondary (Point A to Point B) has an
RMS value of 480 volts ac.
A. 339.4 volts
B. 240 volts
C. 216 volts *
D. 189.6 volts
16
19. When the polarity reverses, which of the diodes will conduct?
A. D3 and D1
B. D4 and D2 *
C. D2 and D1
D. D4 and D3
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52. When the load current increases and the output voltage
momentarily drops, what, if anything, happens to the resistance of
Q1?
A. It increases to compensate for the drop
B. It decreases to compensate for the change *
C. Nothing, it remains the same
22. Which of the following circuit values has the greatest effect on
the figure of merit of the circuit?
A. Reactance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance *
D. Capacitance
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C. Bypassed
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D. Degenerative
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21. Integration in a circuit takes place when the output is taken (a)
across the capacitor in what type of circuit and (b) across the
resistor in what type of circuit?
A. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive only
B. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive-inductive
C. (a) Resistive only (b) Resistive-capacitive
D. (a) Resistive-capacitive (b) Resistive-inductive *
22. In a short time-constant integrator circuit, the maximum
amplitude of the input pulse is 100 volts and the time constant of
the circuit is 1/10 the duration of the input pulse. At the end of
three time constants, what is the maximum voltage across the
capacitor?
A. 36.8 volts
B. 63.2 volts
C. 86.5 volts
D. 95 volts *
23. In a medium time-constant circuit, the maximum amplitude of
the input pulse is 100 volts and the pulse length is one time
constant. At the end of two time constants, what is the maximum
voltage across the capacitor?
A. 23.3 volts *
B. 48.4 volts
C. 71.7 volts
D. 100 volts
24. In a short time-constant differentiator circuit, the maximum
amplitude of the input pulse is 100 volts and the time constant of
the circuit is 1/10 that of the input pulse. At the end of four time
constants, what is the maximum voltage across the resistor?
A. 5 volts
B. 2 volts *
C. 23.3 volts
D. 48.4 volts
25. In an RC differentiator circuit, the time constant for the circuit
and the input pulse are equal. At the end of one time constant, to
what maximum percentage of the applied voltage is the capacitor
charged?
A. 5 percent
B. 13.5 percent
C. 36.8 percent
D. 63.2 percent *
26. In an RC network that is used as a coupling circuit, (a) across
what component is the output normally taken and (b) what is the
relative length of the time constant?
A. (a) Capacitor (b) short
B. (a) Capacitor (b) long
C. (a) Resistor (b) long *
D. (a) Resistor (b) short
27. In a positive-diode counter that provides accurate counting,
what is the only variable allowed in the input signal?
A. Pulse width
B. Pulse duration
C. Pulse amplitude
D. Pulse-repetition frequency *
(NEETS) MODULE 13
1. Modern number systems are built around which of the following
components?
A. Unit, number, and radix * B. Number, base, and radix
C. Position, power, and unit D. Digit, power, and position
2. What term describes a single object in a modern number
system?
A. Unit *
B. Base
C. Digit
D. Number
3. What is a number?
A. A quantity of objects
B. A counting system based on symbols
C. The decimal system
D. A symbol representing a unit or a quantity *
4. Which of the following symbols is NOT an Arabic figure?
A. C *
B. 2
C. 7
D. 9
5. What term describes the number of symbols used in a number
system?
A. Power
B. Radix *
C. Exponent
D. Subscript
6. What is the base of a number system using all the letters of the
alphabet A =0, B=1, C=2, and so forth?
A. 29
B. 25
C. 28
D. 26 *
7. A number system uses the symbols 0 through 4. What is its
base?
A. 6
B. 5 *
C. 3
D. 4
8. Using positional notation, what two factors determine the value
of a number?
A. Symbol and position *
B. Position and base
C. Radix and symbol
D. Unit and symbol
9. How many decimal units are represented by the 5 in the
number 157210?
A. 100
B. 50
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B. 20
D. 22
23
D. 5000
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C. 500 *
B. 14.EC16 *
D. 20.A616
B. An astable multivibrator
D. A decision-making circuit *
B. OR
D. NOR
67. The output of a NOR gate will be HIGH under which of the
following conditions?
A. When all inputs are HIGH B. When all inputs are LOW *
C. When one input is HIGH D. When one input is LOW
68. Boolean algebra is used primarily by which of the following
groups?
A. Fabricators
B. Technicians
C. Design engineers *
D. Repair personnel
69. Which of the following Boolean laws states, "a term that is
TRUE in one part of an expression will be TRUE in all parts of the
expression"?
A. Identity *
B. Commutative
C. Complementary
D. Double negative
70. The examples AB = BA and A+B = B+A represent which of
the following Boolean laws?
A. Associative
B. Commutative *
C. Intersection
D. Union
71. What type of logic gate is modified to produce an exclusive
OR gate?
A. AND
B. NAND
C. OR *
D. NOR
72. What is the output of an exclusive NOR gate when (a) all
inputs are LOW and (b) all inputs are HIGH?
A. HIGH (b) HIGH
B. LOW (b) HIGH
C. HIGH (b) LOW
D. LOW (b) LOW
73. Which of the following circuits will add two binary digits but not
produce a carry?
A. AND gate
B. Half adder
C. Quarter adder *
D. Summation amplifier
74. Which of the following gates performs the same function as a
quarter adder?
A. Half adder
B. Exclusive OR *
C. NOR
D. Exclusive NOR
75. What is the largest sum that can be obtained from a half
adder?
A. 012
B. 102 *
C. 112
D. 1002
76. Which of the following statements describes the difference
between a half adder and a full adder?
A. A half adder produces a carry
B. A full adder produces a carry
C. A half adder will add a carry from another circuit
D. A full adder will add a carry from another circuit *
77. What is the largest sum that can be obtained from a full
adder?
A. 102
C. 1002
B. 112 *
D. 1112
78. How many full adders are required to form a parallel adder
capable of adding 100012 and 10002?
A. Five *
B. Six
C. Three
D. Four
79. Which of the following statements describes the method used
in computers to subtract binary numbers?
A. R's complement the minuend and add to the subtrahend
B. Add the minuend and subtrahend and complement the sum
C. R's complement the subtrahend and add to the minuend *
D. Subtract the subtrahend from the minuend and complement
the difference
80. Flip-flops are what type of multivibrators?
A. Astable
B. Monostable
C. Free running
D. Bistable *
81. Flip-flops may NOT be used for which of the following
operations?
A. Temporary storage
B. Subtraction *
C. Division
D. Transfer of information
24
A. AND
C. NAND *
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D. Solid-state technology
B. Integrated circuit *
D. Printed circuit board
25
C. Integrated circuits
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32. The shape and size of the soldering iron tip to be used is
determined by which of the following factors?
A. The type of flux to be used
B. The type of work to be done *
C. The type of solder to be used
D. The voltage source for the iron
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B. Load factor
D. Tension
29
47. Heating the leads and lifting them free with tweezers is the
preferred method of removing which of the following components?
A. TOs
B. DIPs
C. Flat packs *
D. Transistors
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C. TDR
31. The CX and CDX differ from the TX and TDX because the CX
and CDX have which of the following characteristics?
A. Lower impedance windings
B. Higher impedance windings *
C. Larger physical size
D. Smaller physical size
51. What method of zeroing a synchro is the fastest but NOT the
most accurate?
A. The dc voltmeter method`
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D. CDX *
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ASSIGNMENT 2
B. Feedback
D. Error
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15. For which of the following purposes would you connect two
ammeters in parallel?
A. To perform voltage measurements
B. To increase frequency-measuring capabilities
C. To decrease input impedance *
D. To increase input impedance
16. When taking measurements with two ammeters connected in
parallel, how do you determine the resulting readings?
A. The current equals the sum of both meter readings *
B. The current equals the difference of the two meter readings
C. The current equals the product of the two readings divided by
their sum
D. Read either meter directly; the same current flows through both
meters
17. Current tracers indicate the presence of a current in which of
the following ways?
A. By the lighting of an indicator lamp *
B. By a clicking noise
C. Both A and B above
D. By the movement of a meter
18. Which of the following is an advantage of using a current
probe?
A. It is the most accurate method of measuring current
B. It senses current by induction without being connected directly
into the circuit *
C. It is battery operated
D. It is capable of measuring current at frequencies above 40
GHz
19. An ohmmeter that is used for field work should meet which of
the following criteria?
A. It should be extremely accurate
B. It should be portable
C. It should be simple to operate
D. Both B and C above *
20. When you use an analog multimeter to measure resistance,
which of the following actions should you take first?
A. Make sure the meter is zeroed *
B. Set the meter for dc voltage
C. Set the meter for ac voltage
D. Make sure the meter leads do not exceed 36 inches
21. Digital multimeters are used to test semiconductors for which
of the following reasons?
A. They produce voltage sufficient to gate all Zener diodes
B. Their LED displays are easier to read than analog displays
C. They typically limit the current flow through the semiconductor
to less than 1 milliamp *
D. They produce in excess of the 500 milliamps normally required
to gate a PN junction
22. Compensation for the resistance in test leads of digital
multimeters used to perform resistance measurements is
accomplished by which, if any, of the following methods?
A. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and add
this value to subsequent resistance measurements
B. Short the leads, note the lead resistance displayed, and
subtract the value from subsequent resistance measurements *
C. Add 10% to the reading
D. None of the above
23. Which of the following is a typical use for a megger?
A. Testing MOSFETs
B. Testing filter capacitors
C. Testing thermistor mounts
D. Testing an ac power cord for insulation breakdown *
24. When large capacitors are stored as spare parts, why should
their terminals be shorted with a piece of wire?
A. It prevents dielectric leakage
B. It prevents deterioration of the plates
C. It prevents the capacitors from becoming charged when in
close proximity to an RF field *
D. It prevents electrolytic capacitors from changing value during
periods of storage
25. Capacitance meters can be grouped into which of the
following basic categories?
A. Wheatstone type and Kelvin Varley type
B. Bridge-type and reactance-type *
C. Depletion-type and enhancement type
D. Resistive-type and reactive-type
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B. An oscilloscope
C. A Simpson 260
D. A wattmeter
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A. Sensitive devices *
B. Very sensitive devices
C. Moderately sensitive devices
D. None of the above
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16. What are computers called that combine the functions of both
analog and digital?
A. Analog-digital computers B. Mixed computers
C. Duplexed computers
D. Hybrid computers *
17. A digital computer knows how to do its work by what means?
A. By a list of instructions called a program *
B. By a list of instructions called a job sequence
C. By its hardware
D. By its peripheral equipment
18. What is the most popular generic term for computer
programs?
A. Hardware
B. Software *
C. Word processing
D. Graphics
19. First generation computers were characterized by what
technology?
A. Transistors
B. Resistors
C. Vacuum tubes *
D. Printed circuits
20. What type of computer language was used with first
generation computers?
A. Machine *
B. COBOL
C. BASIC
D. Fortran
44. Touching the exposed area seen through the timing hole and
the read/write slots on a floppy disk can do what, if anything, to
the data in that area?
A. Ruin it *
B. Add to it
C. Move it
D. Nothing
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7. Of the four major types of instructions, which one has the basic
function of moving data from one location to another?
A. Control
B. Logic
C. Arithmetic
D. Transfer *
8. To send commands to devices not under direct command of
the control section, what type of instructions are used?
A. Control *
B. Logic
C. Arithmetic
D. Transfer
9. Operations like adding and multiplying are performed by what
section?
A. Control-logic
B. Storage-logic
C. Arithmetic-logic *
D. Transfer-logic
10. When processing is taking place, data is transferred back and
forth between what two sections?
A. Control and internal storage
B. Internal storage and arithmetic-logic *
C. Control and arithmetic
D. Arithmetic and output
11. The process by which instructions and data are read into a
computer is called what?
A. Moving
B. Storing
C. Inputting
D. Loading *
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34. During reading and writing, which of the following changes are
achieved by reducing the distance of the read/write heads over
the disk surface?
A. Data density can be improved and storage capacity decreased
B. Data density is lessened and storage capacity increased
C. Data density can be improved and storage capacity increased
*
D. Data density is lessened and storage capacity decreased
36
41. On magnetic tape, the size of a record that holds the data is
restricted in what two ways?
A. By the thickness of the tape and the capacity of internal
storage
B. By the length of the tape and the speed of internal storage
C. By the width of the tape and the speed of internal storage
D. By the length of the tape and the capacity of internal storage *
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66. When working with display devices, what does the term
softcopy mean?
A. The information displayed is not permanent *
B. The information displayed is permanent
C. The information displayed has a soft glow
D. The information displayed has no glow
70. A monitor that uses 1,000 picture elements per line with a
horizontal resolution of 1,000 can display what total number
of vertical lines?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1,000 *
D. 10,000
71. A raster frame is displayed approximately how many times a
second?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30 *
72. To reduce the depth of the CRT caused by the length of the
tube, what type of displays were designed?
A. Wide panel
B. Flat panel *
C. Narrow panel
D. Short panel
73. Compared to the gas plasma and electroluminescent displays,
a liquid crystal display differs in which of the following ways?
A. It does not use as many picture elements
B. It does not use a light for the picture elements
C. It does not generate its own light for the picture elements *
D. It does not have a backlight
74. The operation of an electroluminescent display requires what
total number of volts?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20 *
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58. The distance between the read/write head and the surface of
a hard disk is called what?
A. The flying height *
B. The disk height
C. The head height
D. The recording height
C. Three
D. Four *
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B. Output information
D. Programming information
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A. Input information
C. Summary information *
9. In addition to four numeric bits, there are four other bit positions
used in an 8-bit code, what are they called?
A. Area bits
B. Zone bits *
C. Region bits
D. District bits
53. What type of software allows you to enter data and then
retrieve it in a variety of ways?
A. Communications
B. Data retrieval
C. Data management *
D. Document compilation
NEETS Module 22 ASSIGNMENT 4
1. In using a digital computer, which of the following is one of the
major problems we face?
A. Finding disks to fit the drives
B. Locating a stable power source
C. Communicating with the computer *
D. Arranging the proper environment
2. In computer terminology, what is a general term to describe
raw facts?
A. Characters
B. Bits
C. Bytes
D. Data *
3. In computer terminology, when data has been processed with
other facts and has meaning, it is described as which of the
following?
A. Information only the computer can understand and properly
use
B. Information we can understand and properly use *
C. Information the input device can understand and properly use
D. Information the output device can understand and properly use
4. Data is represented by which of the following means?
A. By symbols *
B. By electricity
C. By magnetic
D. By mechanics
5. What is data to be represented called?
A. Numeric data
B. Alphanumeric data
C. Information data
D. Source data *
6. Raw data is typically written on some type of paper document
referred to as what type of document?
A. End document
B. Source document *
C. Classified document
D. Unclassified document
7. Numeric, alphabetic, and special characters are represented in
a computer's internal storage and on magnetic media through the
use of what kind of system?
A. Coding *
B. Reading
C. Writing
D. Labeling
39
48. Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred
to as what?
A. Mistakes
B. Errors
C. Faults
D. Bugs *
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B. System controllers
D. Impedance matchers
48. When using a modem, what are the two methods of data
transmission?
A. Digital and analog
B. Mechanical and light
C. Continuous and noncontinuous
D. Asynchronous and synchronous *
49. The transmission method that uses a single set of start and
stop message characters per block of data is which of the
following types?
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous *
C. Microwave link
D. Frequency modulated
50. Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also
involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what?
A. Nodding
B. Spacing
C. Handshaking *
D. Coordinating
51. The specific set of rules used to govern handshaking and
message character is called what?
A. Sending
B. Protocol *
C. Modulator
D. Transmitting
38. For local area networks, what two designs are used?
A. Broadband and bandpass
B. Broadpass and bandpass
C. Broadbase and baseband
D. Broadband and baseband *
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24. Ideally, magnetic tape should be used and stored within what
temperature and humidity range?
A. 40 - 80 F, 60 - 80% humidity
B. 50 - 70 F, 60 - 80% humidity
C. 60 - 80 F, 60 - 80% humidity
D. 60 - 80 F, 40 - 60% humidity *
41
22. Brand "X" magnetic tape is rated for 5 volts ( 10%). Which of
the following minimum and maximum voltage levels is what the
output signal level could vary before it is considered a level error?
A. 4.95/5.05
B. 4.75/5.25
C. 4.5/5.5 *
D. 4/6
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36. The flanges of a magnetic tape reel are designed to guide the
magnetic tape onto the reel.
A. True
B. False *
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39. Both manual and automatic tape degaussers use the same
electronic principles for erasing magnetic tape.
A. True *
B. False
67. What type of capstan drive tape transport moves the magnetic
tape by placing the capstan directly against the tape reel or tape
pack?
A. Open-loop capstan drive
B. Peripheral drive capstan *
C. Dual-motors dual capstan
D. Differential velocity capstan
68. Capstan speed control is a very important function of the
magnetic tape transport system. Which of the following is NOT
one of the six parts of a capstan speed control?
A. Capstan speed monitor
B. Speed select network
C. Comparison network
D. Reel motor drive circuit *
69. What part of the capstan speed control function normally uses
a photo-optical tachometer attached to the shaft of the capstan
motor?
A. Precision frequency source
B. Speed select circuit
C. Capstan speed monitor *
D. Comparison network
70. On some recorders, a servo control from tape signal is
supplied to the comparison network of the capstan speed control
function. What is the purpose of this signal?
A. Speeds up or slows down the capstan motor
B. Compensates for capstan speed differences when a recorded
tape is played back on a different recorder *
C. Monitors the true capstan motor speed
D. Provides a reference frequency that the speed select network
uses to drive the capstan motor
71. Which of the following items can be used to clean most
magnetic tape transports?
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Cotton swabs
C. Lint-free cloths
D. Each of the above *
72. Which of the following is NOT a correct procedure for cleaning
a magnetic tape transport?
A. When available, always use cotton swabs vice lint-free cloths *
B. Apply the cleaner onto the cotton swab or lint-free cloth
C. Clean the flanged parts of the tape guides
D. While cleaning, switch swabs and cloths often
73. Magnetic tape transports should be demagnetized
periodically. To do this, use a hand-held degausser and follow the
procedures for demagnetizing magnetic heads.
A. True *
B. False
NEETS MODULE 23 MAGNETIC RECORDING
ASSIGNMENT 2
1. Magnetic tape recorders use what type of electronic circuits to
record and reproduce analog input signals?
A. Continuous wave
B. Frequency modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Both B and C above *
2. Direct record electronics record input signals onto magnetic
tape just as they appeared at the recorder's input.
A. True *
B. False
6. What circuit in the direct reproduce electronics takes the preamplified signal and fixes frequency response problems the
reproduce magnetic head may have caused?
A. Equalization and phase correction circuit *
B. Output amplifier circuit
C. Head driver circuit
D. Summing network
7. What circuit of the direct-reproduce electronics serves as an
impedance matcher?
A. Pre-amplifier circuit
B. Output amplifier circuit *
C. Equalization and phase correction circuit
D. Head driver circuit
8. How do FM record electronics process the incoming signal
before sending it to the record head?
A. A high frequency, negative bias is added to the input signal
B. A summing network mixes the bias and input signal
C. Both A and B above
D. The input signal is frequency modulated onto the carrier
frequency of a record oscillator *
9. In the FM record electronics, what is the output of the record
oscillator circuit?
A. The demodulated input signal
B. The frequency modulated carrier signal *
C. A clean input signal with the negative bias removed
D. A combined input signal and equalization signal
10. Pre-amplifier circuit
A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up
any noise or left over carrier signal
B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for
output
C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and
amplifies it *
D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal
intelligence from the carrier signal
11. Limiter/ demodulator circuit
A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up
any noise or left over carrier signal
B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for
output
C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and
amplifies it
D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal
intelligence from the carrier signal *
12. Low-pass filter circuit
A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up
any noise or left over carrier signal *
B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for
output
C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and
amplifies it
D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal
intelligence from the carrier signal
13. Output amplifier
A. Takes the signal from the limiter/ demodulator and cleans-up
any noise or left over carrier signal
B. Takes the output from the low-pass filter and amplifies it for
output *
C. Takes the reproduce signal from the magnetic head and
amplifies it
D. Stabilizes the amplitude level and demodulates the signal
intelligence from the carrier signal
14. Which of the following generates the noise part of a recorders
SNR?
A. Magnetic heads
B. Magnetic tape
C. Both A and B above *
D. Nearby equipment
15. The SNR can be stated in three different ways. Which of the
following is NOT one of these ways?
A. Mean signal to RMS noise *
B. Peak-to-peak signal to RMS noise
C. RMS signal to RMS noise
D. Peak signal-to-RMS noise
16. Which of the following data should be included with all SNR
specifications?
A. Record level *
B. Reproduce level
C. Bandwidth
D. Tape speed
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B. Serial *
D. Bi-phase
39. Digital magnetic tape recorders are used to store and retrieve
which of the following types of data?
A. Computer programs
B. Radar and other pulsed type signals
C. Special signals with a bandwidth of less than 500 kHz
D. Each of the above *
B. 720,000 bytes
D. 1,400,000 bytes
B. 720,000 bytes
D. 1,400,000 bytes
B. 720,000 bytes *
D. 1,400,000 bytes
B. 720,000 bytes
D. 1,400,000 bytes *
44
32. There are two types of skew. What type does not show up
when magnetic tapes are recorded and reproduced on the same
magnetic tape recorder?
A. Positive
B. Dynamic
C. Negative
D. Fixed *
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53. Using the sector method, a hard disk drive locates a place on
a hard disk with only one platter by using three location numbers.
Which of the following is NOT one of those location numbers?
A. Surface number
B. Track number *
C. Cylinder number
D. Sector number
54. When you handle, store, or ship removable hard disks, which
of the following statements is NOT a precaution you should take?
A. Dont touch any exposed recording surfaces
B. Keep them away from food, liquids, and cigarette smoke
C. Store them in an environment that stays between 32 to 95
degrees Fahrenheit and 40 to 85% relative humidity *
D. Keep dirt, dust, etc., off of the recording surface by storing
them in their case when not in use
55. How can you declassify a removable hard disk which contains
classified information?
A. Reformat it
B. Degauss it
C. Both A and B above
D. Destroy it using the procedures in OPNAVINST 5510.1 *
56. Which of the following encoding methods is NOT used for
encoding digital data onto magnetic disks?
A. Sector encoding *
B. Run length limited
C. Modified frequency modulation
D. Frequency modulation
57. Head arm assembly
A. Holds and spins the floppy disk
B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads *
C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts
D. Positions the heads over the disks
58. Drive electronics circuit board
A. Holds and spins the floppy disk
B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads
C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts *
D. Positions the heads over the disks
59. Drive motor/spindle assembly
A. Holds and spins the floppy disk *
B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads
C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts
D. Positions the heads over the disks
60. Actuator arm assembly
A. Holds and spins the floppy disk
B. Holds the magnetic read/write heads
C. Controls the electromechanical high density parts
D. Positions the heads over the disks *
61. What part of a hard disk drive transport uses either a dc
stepper motor or a voice coil to position the heads for
writing data to the correct track of the disk pack?
A. Drive motor/spindle assembly
B. Head arm assembly
C. Actuator arm assembly *
D. Drive electronics circuit board
62. What part of a hard disk drive transport holds the four
magnetic heads, and is attached to the transports actuator arm
assembly?
A. Cylinder assembly
B. Head arm assembly *
C. Sectoring assembly
D. Drive motor/spindle assembly
63. Why do floppy disk drives require more preventive
maintenance than hard disk drives?
A. They are not sealed units
B. Oxide coating from disks sticks to transport parts
C. Both A and B above *
66. Which of the following is NOT one of the five most common
disk drive interfaces in use today?
A. Drive motor/spindle interface *
B. Naval tactical data system interface
C. ST-506/412 interface
D. Enhanced small device interface
67. What type of disk drive interface is often used in the hard disk
drives installed in older IBM-compatible desktop computers that
have a maximum capacity of 125MB?
A. Drive motor/spindle interface
B. Enhanced small device interface
C. ST-506/412 interface *
D. Integrated drive electronics
68. What type of disk drive interface uses a high-level interface
which requires only a logical sector number to locate the desired
data on a disk?
A. Enhanced small device interface
B. Integrated drive electronics
C. Drive motor/spindle interface
D. Small computer systems interface *
69. What type of disk drive interface includes all of the controller
card electronics in the hard disk drive and offers
a transfer rate of up to 1 MB?
A. Small computer systems interface
B. Integrated drive electronics *
C. Naval tactical data system
D. Enhanced small device interface
70. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the SCSI disk
drive interface over previous interfaces?
A. Can handle disk drives of almost any size
B. Disconnects itself from the host computers bus while it
processes requests
C. Can transfer data up to 24 Mbits/sec *
D. Can daisy-chain up to eight units off of one controller
71. Indicates number of physical sectors that are between
logical sectors on a hard disk
A. Seek time
B. Latency period
C. Access time
D. Interleave factor *
72. Total time it takes a disk drive to retrieve a sector of data
A. Seek time
B. Latency period
C. Access time *
D. Interleave factor
73. Time it takes for a magnetic head to position itself over a
specific track
A. Seek time *
B. Latency period
C. Access time
D. Interleave factor
74. Time it takes a specific sector of a specific track to position
itself under the magnetic head
A. Seek time
B. Latency period *
C. Access time
D. Interleave factor
75. The speed at which a disk drive and a disk drive controller
working together can transfer data to the host computer is what
disk recording specification?
A. Seek time
B. Transfer rate *
C. Access time
D. Interleave factor
45
50. Which of the following items can generate magnetic fields that
can destroy data on a floppy disk?
A. Paper clip
B. Telephone
C. Printer
D. Both B and C above *
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B. Always write on a floppy disk label first, and then place it on the
disk
C. Always lay floppy disks on their side when storing them *
D. Always ship floppy disks in their appropriate shipping
containers