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EAMCET

Medical Entrance Exam

Solved Paper 2013


Physics
1. A wire of length L and linear density m is

5. Light of wavelenght from a point source

stretched by a force T and the frequency is


n1. Another wire of same material of length
2L and same linear density is stretched by a
force 9T and its frequency is n2 . Then, the
value of ( n2 / n1) is,

falls on a small circular obstacle of diameter


d. Dark and bright circular rings around a
central bright spot are formed on a screen
beyond the obstacle. The distance between
the screen and obstacle is D. Then, the
condition for the formation of rings is,

(a) 4 : 1
(c) 3 : 2

(b) 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 2

(a)

2. A pipe closed at one end and open at the


other end resonates with a sound of
frequency 135 Hz and also with 165 Hz, but
not at any other frequency intermediate
between these two. Then, the frequency of
the fundamental note of the pipe is
(a) 15 Hz
(c) 7.5 Hz

(b) 60 Hz
(d) 30 Hz

3. A small angled prism of refractive index 1.4


is combined with another small angled
prism of refractive index 1.6 to produce
dispersion without deviation. If the angle of
first prism is 6, the angle of the second
prism is
(a) 8
(c) 4

(b) 6
(d) 2

4. The magnifying power of the astronomical


telescope for normal adjustment is 50. The
focal length of the eyepiece is 2 cm. The
required length of the telescope for normal
adjustment is
(a) 102 cm
(c) 98 cm

(b) 100 cm
(d) 25 cm

(c) d

d
4D

2
D

d2
4D
D
(d)
4
(b)

6. A bar magnet of moment of inertia I is


vibrated in a magnetic field of induction
0 . 4 104 T. The time period of vibration is
12 s. The magnetic moment of the magnet is
120 Am 2 . The moment of inertia of the
magnet is (in kgm 2 ) approximately
(a) 172.8 104
(b) 2.1 2 102
(c) 1.57 102
(d) 1728 102

7. A short magnet of magnetic moment M, is


placed on a straight line. The ratio of
magnetic induction fields B1, B2 , B3 values
on this line at points which are at distances
30 cm, 60 cm and 90 cm respectively from
the centre of the magnet is
(a) 27 : 3.37 : 1
(b) 37.3 : 1 : 27
(c) 27 : 8 : 3.37
(d) 1 : 2 : 3

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

8. Two capacitors having capacitances C1 and

C 2 are charged with 120 V and 200 V


batteries respectively. When they are
connected in parallel now, it is found that
the potential on each one of them is zero.
Then,
(a) 5C1 = 3C 2
(c) 9C1 = 5C 2

(b) 8C1 = 5C 2
(d) 3C1 = 5C 2

9. A parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric


slab of dielectric constant 3 filling the space
between the plates is charged to a potential
V. The battery is then disconnected and the
dielectric slab is withdrawn. It is then
replaced by another dielectric slab of
dielectric constant 2. If the energies stored
in the capacitor before and after the
dielectric slab is changed are E1 and E2 , then
E1 / E2 is
9
(a)
5

4
(b)
9

2
(c)
3

3
(d)
2

10. Copper and carbon wires are connected in


series and the combined resistor is kept at
0 C. Assuming the combined resistance does
not vary with temperature, the ratio of the
resistances of carbon and copper wires at
0 C is (Temperature coefficients of
resistivity of copper and carbon respectively
are 4 103 / C and 0.5 103 / C)
(a) 4
(c) 6

(b) 8
(d) 2

13. A body is thrown vertically upward from a


point A 125 m above the ground. It goes up to
a maximum height of 250 m above the
ground and passes through A on its
downward journey. The velocity of the body
when it is at a height of 70 m above the
ground is ( g = 10 ms 2 )
(a) 50 ms 1

(b) 60 ms 1

(c) 80 ms 1

(d) 20 ms 1

14. A body of mass 300 kg is moved through


10 m along a smooth inclined plane of angle
30. The work done in moving in joules is
( g = 9.8 ms 2 )
(a) 4900
(c) 14,700

15. A balloon starting from rest ascends


vertically with uniform acceleration to a
height of 100 m in 10 s. The force on the
bottom of the balloon by a mass of 50 kg is
( g = 10 ms 2 )
(a) 100 N
(c) 600 N

(b) 300 N
(d) 400 N

16. Three particles, each of mass m, are placed


at the vertices of a right angled triangle as
shown in figure. The position vector of the
centre of mass of the system is (O is the
$ are unit vectors)
origin and $i, $j, k

1
y
, where p is the
=
p kB T
pressure, y is the distance, kB is Boltzmann
constant and T is the temperature.
Dimensions of are

11. In the equation

(a) [M1 L1 T2 ]

(b) [M0 L2 T0 ]

(c) [M1 L1 T2 ]

(d) [M0 L0 T0 ]

12. A person reaches a point directly opposite on


the other bank of a river. The velocity of the
water in the river is 4 ms 1 and the velocity
of the person in still water is 5 ms 1. If the
width of the river is 84.6 m, time taken to
cross the river in seconds is
(a) 28.2
(c) 2

(b) 9.4
(d) 84.6

(b) 9800
(d) 2450

O m a

1 $
(a i b$j )
3
2
(b) (a $i b$j )
3
2 $
(c)
(a i b$j )
3
1
(d) (a $i + b$j )
3
(a)

m
A

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


17. A ball of mass m moving with a horizontal

21. If earth were to rotate on its own axis such

velocity v strikes the bob of a pendulum at


rest. Mass of the bob of the pendulum is also
m. During this collision the ball sticks with
the bob of the pendulum. The height to
which
the
combined
mass
rises
(g = acceleration due to gravity)

that the weight of a person at the equator


becomes half the weight at the poles, then
its time period of rotation is (g = acceleration
due to gravity near the poles and R is the
radius of earth) (Ignore equatorial bulge)

(a)

v2
4g

(b)

v2
8g

(c)

v2
g

(b)

v2
2g

18. A 3 kg block is placed over a 10 kg block and


both are placed on a smooth horizontal
surface. The coefficient of friction between
the blocks is 0.2. If a horizontal force of 20 N
is applied to 3 kg block, accelerations of the
two blocks in ms 2 are ( g = 10 ms 2 )
3 kg

= 0.2

20 N

(a) 2

2R
g

(b) 2

R
2g

(c) 2

R
3g

(d) 2

R
g

22. A particle is executing simple harmonic


motion along a straight line. At
displacements r1 and r2 from its mean
position the velocities are v1 and v2 . The time
period of the particle is
1/ 2

r2 r2
(a) 2 22 1 2
v 2 v1

1/ 2

10 kg

(c)
13
, 0.6
4
13
(c)
,3
4

14
,3
4
14
(d)
, 0.6
3

(a)

(b)

circle with uniform speed. If the difference


between the maximum and minimum
tensions in the rope is 20 N, mass of the
stone in kg is ( g = 10 ms 2 )
(b) 1.0

(c) 1.5

(d) 0.5

20. A particle mass m is attached to a thin

a
uniform rod of length a at a distance of
4
from the mid-point C as shown in the figure.
The mass of the rod is 4 m. The moment of
inertia of the combined system about an axis
passing through O and perpendicular to the
rod is
Mass m
O
x

same material are k and 2k respectively. If


the two wires are stretched equally, then the
W
ratio of work done in stretching A is
WB
1
3
3
(c)
2
(a)

1
2
1
(d)
4
(b)

24. Water rises in a capillary tube upto a height


of 10 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by
3.42 cm. If the angle of contact and density
of mercury are 135 and 13.6 g/cc
respectively, then the ratio of the surface
tension of water and mercury will be nearly
(a) 13 : 2
(c) 16 : 5

(b) 5 : 16
(d) 2 : 13

25. Two capillary tubes of lengths in the ratio


2 : 1 and radii in the ratio 1 : 2 are connected
in series. Assume the flow of the liquid
through the tube is steady. Then, the ratio of
pressure difference across the tubes is

C
a
2

1/ 2

r2 r2
(d) 2 22 1 2
v1 v 2

23. Force constants of two wires A and B of the

19. A stone tied to a rope is rotated in a vertical

(a) 0.75

1 v12 + v 22

2 r22 r12

1/ 2

v 2 v 22
(b) 2 12
2
r2 + r1

a
4

(a)

91
ma2
48

(b)

27
ma2
48

(c)

51
ma2
48

(d)

64
ma2
48

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1:8
1 :16
32 : 1
1:1

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

26. When a liquid is heated in a glass vessel, its

30. The temperature at the two ends A and B of

coefficient of apparent expansion is


1.03 103 / C. When the same liquid is
heated in a copper vessel, its coefficient of
apparent expansion is 1.006 103 / C. If the
coefficient of linear expansion of copper is
17 106 / C, then the coefficient of linear
expansion of glass is

a rod of length 25 cm and circular crosssection are 100C and 0C respectively. In


the steady state the temperature at a point
10 cm from the end B is (Ignore loss of heat
from curved surface of the rod)

(a) 8.5 104 / C

(b) 9 106 / C

(c) 27 106 / C

(d) 10 104 / C

27. A horizontal uniform tube, open at both ends


is containing a liquid of certain length at
some temperature. When the temperature is
changed, the length of the liquid in the tube
is not changed. If is the coefficient of linear
expansion of the material of the tube and is
the coefficient of volume expansion of the
liquid, then
(a) = 2
(c) = 4

(b) = 3
(d) =

28. Match the following from table A, in the case


of gases, with those in table B
Table A

Table B

(a) Work done in isobaric


process

(d)

(b) Work done in isothermal


process

(e) p( V2 V1 )

(c) Work done in adiabatic


process

(f)

V
nRT loge 2
V1

nR(T1 T2 )
1

(g) zero

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a
a
a
a

e,
h,
e,
g,

b
b
b
b

d,
g,
d,
h,

c
c
c
c

f
e
g
e

29. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons


contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic
gas at 300 K. Piston A is free to move and
piston of B is fixed. Same amount of heat is
given to the gases in the two cylinders.
Temperature of the gas in cylinder A
increases by 30 K. Then, increase in
temperature of the gas in the cylinder B is
( = 1.4 for diatomic gas)
(a) 24 K
(c) 54 K

(b) 36 K
(d) 42 K

(a) 60C

(b) 80C

(c) 90C

(d) 40C

31. The necessary condition in making of a


junction transistor (E-emitter, B-base and
C-collector)
(a) E and B are lightly doped and C is heavily doped
(b) E is heavily doped, B is thin and lightly doped
and C is moderately doped
(c) E and C are lightly doped and B is thick and
heavily doped
(d) E and B are heavily doped and C is lightly doped

32. A p-n-p transistor is used in common emitter


mode in an amplifier circuit. When base
current is changed by an amount I B , the
collector current changes by 4 mA. If the
current amplification factor is 60, then the
value of I B is
(a) 15 A

(b) 240 mA (c) 66.6 A (d) 60 A

235

33. A U

reactor generates power at a rate of P


producing 2 1018 fissions per second. The
energy released per fission is 185 MeV. The
value of P is
(a) 59.2 MW

(b) 370 1018 MW

(c) 0.59 MW

(d) 370 MW

34. The purpose of using heavy water in nuclear


reactor is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

to increase the energy released in nuclear fission


to cool the reactor to room temperature
to make the dynamo blades to work well
to decrease the energy of fast neutrons to the
thermal energy

35. The K X ray of Molybdenum has a


wavelength of 71 1012 m. If the energy of a
Molybdenum atom with K-electron removed
is 23.32 keV, then the energy of
Molybdenum atom when an L-electron
removed is (hc = 12.42 107 eV)
(a) 17.5 keV
(c) 23.32 keV

(b) 40.82 keV


(d) 5.82 keV

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


36. In Moseley's law = a( z b), the values of
the screening constant for K-series and
L-series of X-rays are respectively
(a) 1, 6.4

(b) 1, 4

(c) 4, 6

(d) 2, 4

37. An electron beam in a TV picture tube is


accelerated through a potential difference of
V volt. It passes through a region of
transverse magnetic induction field (B) and
follows a circular orbit of radius r. The
induced magnetic field (B) is
(a)

2 mV
er 2

(b)

2 mV
(c)
r

temperature of hot junction is decreased by


20C and cold junctions temperature is
increased by 6C. The percentage decrease
in thermo emf is (assume thermo emf is
directly proportional to the temperature
difference)
(a) 43

rad
2

(b)

rad
6

(c)

rad
3

(d)

15 V

0.5

rad
4

39. When the temperature difference between

(d) 21.6

figure with an internal resistance of 0.5 .


Then, the value of the current drawn from
the cell is

2 mVr
2 mV
(d)
e
er

are connected in series with a 220 V, 50 Hz


AC source. The phase difference between
the current and emf is

(c) 20.4

40. The emf of a cell E is 15 V as shown in the

38. A 0.01 H inductor and 3 ohm resistance

(a)

(b) 2.16

(a) 3 A

(b) 2 A

10

(c) 5 A

(d) 1 A

the junctions of a given thermocouple is


120C, the thermo emf is 30 mV. The

Chemistry
1. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C2H5NH2 (2), (C2H5 )2 NH (3) and NH 3 (4) is

Sucralose is an antiseptic
Lactic acid is an antimicrobial
Seconal is an antipyretic
Chloroxylenol is a tranquillizer
HI

4. The order of basic strength of C6H5NH2 (1),

HNO 3

2. X Glucose Y

(a) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3


(c) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1

5. Which one of the following reactions is not


correct?
(a) CH3CHO +

What are X and Y?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

X
n-hexane
Gluconic acid
n-hexanol
n-hexane

Mn(OAc)2 /air
1
O 2
CH3COOH
2
Micoderma aceti

Y
Gluconic acid
Saccharic acid
Saccharic acid
Saccharic acid

3. Identify the pair of condensation polymers


from the following
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4


(d) 3 < 2 < 4 < 1

terylene and nylon-66


PVC and polystyrene
polyvinylether and polyisobutene
neoprene and PVP

(b) CH3CH2OH + O 2
CH3COOH + H2O
(i) CO 2

(c) CH3MgBr CH3COOH + Mg(OH)Br


(ii) H 3O

Ca / , pressure

(d) CH3OH + CO CH3COOH

6. Which one of the following reactions is not


correct?

(a) (HCOO)2 Ca + (H3CCOO)2 Ca 2CH3CHO


+ 2CaCO 3
Cu/300C

(b) CH3CH(OH)CH3 CH3COCH3 + H2

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013


Ag/300C

(c) CH3CH2OH CH3CHO + H2

13. Match the following.


List I

CaCl

2
(d) CH2 ==CH2 + PdCl 2 + H2O
CH3CHO

+ Pd + 2HCl

7. The pair of chemicals used as food for yeast


in the fermentation of molasses is
(a) (NH4 )2 SO 4 , Na 3PO 4

List II

(A) pH of unpolluted
(I) H2C==CHCHO
rain water
(B) Acid rain
(II) 5.6
(C) Acrolein
(III) NO2, CO2
(D) Freon
(IV) CF2Cl2
(V) CaOCl2

(b) (NH4 )2 SO 4 , (NH4 )3 PO 4

The correct answer is

(c) Na 2SO 4 , (NH4 )3 PO 4


(d) Na 2SO 4 , Na 3PO 4

8. Which one of the following is chloropicrin?


(a) CCl 3CHO
(b) CCl 3 C(CH3 )2

OH

(2R, 3 R) -2,3-dihydroxy butanoic acid is


CH3
H
(b)
HO

CH3
HO
(c)
HO

H
H
CO 2H

H
(d)
HO

OH
H
CO 2H
CO 2H
OH
H
CH3

10. Which one of the following causes cancer?


(a) 1,2-benzpyrene
(c) 2-butene

(B)
(I)
(II)
(II)
(III)

(C)
(III)
(III)
(IV)
(I)

(D)
(IV)
(IV)
(I)
(IV)

slag (CaSiO3) is formed in

9. The correct Fischer projection formula of


CO 2H
OH
OH
CH3

(A)
(II)
(I)
(III)
(II)

14. During the manufacture of cast iron, the

(c) CCl 3 NO 2
(d) CHCl 2 CHCl 2

H
(a)
H

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) n-hexane
(d) Cyclohexane
4

11. IUPAC name of

zone of reduction only


zone of fusion only
zone of reduction and zone of fusion
zone of heat absorption

15. Observe the following statements,


1. Lanthanides actively participate in
chemical reactions.
2. The basic nature of hydroxides of
lanthanides increases from La(OH) 3 to
Lu(OH) 3.
3. Lanthanides do not form coordinate
compounds as readily as d-block metals.
The correct statements are
(a) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

is

(b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

16. Identify the correct set.


Shape

Number of
lone pairs
of
electrons

pyramidal

5
6

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2-methyl-2,3-diethyl pentane
4-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl hexane
3,4-diethyl-4-methyl pentane
3-ethyl-4,4-dimethyl hexane

12. Carbon and hydrogen in an organic


compound are detected as .
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

CaHCO 3 , CaCO 3
CaHCO 3 , CuSO 4 5H2O
CaCO 3 , CuSO 4 5H2O
CaCO 3 , Cu(OH)2

Molecule Hybridisation
(a)

XeO 4

sp3d 2
3

(b)

XeO 3

sp

pyramidal

(c)

XeF4

sp3d 2

planar

(d)

XeF2

sp3d

linear

17. Fluorine reacts with KHSO4 to form HF and


X. Which one of the following is X?
(a) SO 3
(c) K 2S2O 8

(b) K 2SO 4
(d) H2S

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


18. For the equilibrium, A( g)

B( g) + C( g);
at
27C.
At
the
K p = 0.82 atm
same temperature, its K c in mol L1 is
( R = 0.082 L atm mol 1 K 1)
(a) 0.033
(c) 1.0

(b) 3.3
(d) 0.33

19. If the solubility product of MgF2 at a certain

temperature is 1.08 1010 , its solubility in


mol L1 is
(a) 1.04 105

(b) 7.3 104

(c) 3.0 105

(d) 3.0 104

20. In the reaction,


4NO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 2N2O5 ( g),
H = 111 kJ
if N2O5 ( s) is formed instead of N2O5 ( g), the
H value in kJ is
(H sublimation for N2O5 = 54 kJ mol 1)
(a) 165
(c) + 219

(b) 57
(d) 219

21. In which of the following reactions, H2O2


acts as oxidizing agent?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Cl 2 + H2O 2 2HCl + O 2
Ag 2O + H2O 2 2Ag + H2O + O 2
2NaOH + H2O 2 Na 2O 2 + 2H2O
KNO 2 + H2O 2 KNO 3 + H2O

22. Zinc reacts with hot and concentrated


NaOH and forms
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

23. Orange red coloured monoxide is


(b) Na 2O
(d) Li 2O

24. Observe the following statements,


1. H 3BO3 is used as antiseptic.
2. In B2H 6 , each boron is sp2 hybridized.
3. Aqueous solution of borax is alkaline in
nature.
The correct statements are
(a) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3

bases.
Reason (R) Ge and Si have d-orbitals to
accept electrons.
The correct answer is
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

26. Observe the following statements,


1. The solubility of group V hydrides in
water decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3.
2. Phosphorous does not exhibit allotropy.
3. The stability of group V hydrides
decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3.
The correct statement(s) are
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2

(b) 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. Sodium thiosulphate reacts with dil. HCl to


form NaCl, H2O, X and Y. X reacts with Na2S
to form Na2S2O3 and Y. Which one of the
following is Y?
(a) H2S
(c) H2SO 4

(b) SO 2
(d) S

28. The energy required to overcome the


attractive forces on the electrons, w, of some
metals is listed below. The number of metals
showing photoelectric effect when light of
300 nm wavelength falls on it is
(1 eV = 1.6 1019 J)

H2
Zn(OH)2 + Na 2O
ZnO
O2

(a) K 2O
(c) Cs 2O

25. Assertion (A) GeF4 and SiCl4 act as Lewis

(b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Metal

Li

Na K

Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt

w (eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75

(a) 6
(c) 5

(b) 8
(d) 4

29. If the uncertainty in velocity of a moving


object is 1.0 106 ms 1 and the uncertainty
in its position is 58 m, the mass of this object
is approximately equal to that of
(h = 6.626 1034 Js)
(a) helium
(c) lithium

(b) deuterium
(d) electron

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

30. The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Be


and B is
(a) B >Be >Li
(c) Li >B >Be

68.4 g of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol 1)


in
100
g
of
water
is
( K b for water = 0.512 K kg mol 1)

(b) B >Li >Be


(d) Li >Be >B

31. The number of and bonds present in


acetylene are respectively
(a) 3, 2

(b) 3, 3

(c) 2, 2

(d) 2, 3

32. The total number of antibonding electrons


in N2 and O2 molecules respectively is
(a) 4, 6

(b) 6, 8

(c) 5, 8

(d) 4, 8

33. Consider the following statements for the


reaction,
KIO3 + 5KI + 6HCl 3I2 + 6KCl + 3H2O
1. I is reduced to I2
2. IO3 is oxidized to I2
3. IO3 is reduced to I2
4. Oxidation number of I increases from 1
(in KI) to zero (in I2 )
The correct statements are
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4

(b) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

are at temperatures TA and TB respectively.


If TA M B = TB M A , which one of the following
properties has the same value for both the
gases?
(b) Kinetic energy
(d) Density

35. The weight in gram, of the non-volatile


solute urea (NH2CONH2 ) to be dissolved in
100 g of water in order to decrease its vapour
pressure by 1.8% is
(a) 6.0

(b) 0.3

(c) 3.0

(a) 98.98C
(c) 100.512C

(b) 101.02C
(d) 100.02C

37. A certain quantity of electricity is passed


through aqueous Al2 (SO4 ) 3 and CuSO4
solutions connected in series. 0.09 g of Al is
deposited on cathode during electrolysis.
The amount of copper deposited on cathode
in grams is
(At. wt. of Al = 27; Cu = 63.6)
(a) 0.318
(c) 0.636

(b) 31.8
(d) 3.18

38. Molar conductances of BaCl2 , H2SO4 and


HCl at infinite dilution are X1, X2 and X 3
respectively. Molar conductance of BaSO4 at
infinite dilution is
(a) ( X1 + X 2 2 X 3 )/2
(c) X1 + X 2 2 X 3

(b) X1 + X 2 X 3
(d) ( X1 + X 2 X 3 )/2

2
3
voids in the hexagonal close packed (hcp)
unit cell lattice formed by the element B.
The formula of the compound formed by A
and B is

39. Atoms of an element A occupy tetrahedral

34. Two gases of molecular masses M A and M B

(a) Pressure
(c) RMS velocity

36. The boiling point of a solution containing

(d) 0.6

(a) A2 B
(c) A4 B3

(b) AB2
(d) A2 B3

40. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is


2.5. If its rate constant at T1 K is
2.5 103 s 1, the rate constant at T2 K in s 1
is ( T2 > T1)
(a) 1.0 103

(b) 6.25 103

(d) 6.25 102

(c) 1.0 10

Zoology
1. In

amoeboid movement, according to


Goldacre and Lorsch cytoplasm solates due to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

folding of protein molecules


sliding of actin molecules
sliding of myosin molecules
unfolding of protein molecules

2. Which one of the branches of cranial nerves


is not related to vagus?
(a) Chorda tympani
(b) Cardiac depressor
(c) Recurrent laryngeal
(d) Pneumogastric

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


3. Match the following with reference to
Taenia solium.

related to Indian chain viper?

List I

List II

(A) Mehlis glands

(I)

Tegument formation

(B) Vitelline gland

(II)

Osmoregulation and
excretion

(C) Mesenchymal cells

(III) Lubricate passage of


capsules into uterus

(D) Flame cells

(IV) Secretion of
embryophore
(V)

Capsule formation
around zygote

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(III)
(III)
(V)
(IV)

(B)
(V)
(V)
(I)
(III)

(C)
(I)
(II)
(II)
(I)

(D)
(II)
(IV)
(IV)
(II)

4. In the life cycle of Wuchereria, 3rd and 4th


moults of microfilaria take place in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

lymph vessels of man


stomach of mosquito
salivary glands of mosquito
thoracic muscles of mosquito

5. Which one of the following became an


endangered species as result of extinction of
Raphus cucullatus?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Sideroxylon grandiflorum
Chrysanthemum
Cinchona
Bacillus thuringiensis

6. What is the resting membrane potential of


nerve fibre?
(a) +75 mV
(c) 70 mV

(b) +45 mV
(d) 45 mV

7. Identify the correct combinations.


(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

HouseflyLabellumPseudotrachea
MothlabellumDuttons membrane
Butterfly1st MaxillaeGalea
Tse-tse flyRostrumHaustellum
(A) and (B)
(A) and (C)
(B) and (C)
(B) and (D)

8. Which of the following character is not


(a) Large black rings occur in three rows on the
dorsal surface of the body
(b) Subcandals are present in two rows
(c) An arrow mark () is present on the head
(d) Head is triangular covered by small scales

9. Arrange the ganglia of autonomous nervous


system of cockroach in correct sequence
from anterior to posterior end.
(A) Frontal ganglion
(B) Proventricular ganglion
(C) Hypocerebral ganglion
(D) Visceral ganglion
(a) ACDB
(c) BCDA

(b) ADCB
(d) BDAC

10. Identify the typical dental formula of a


metatherian.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

I 5/4, C 1/1 PM 3/3, M 4/4


I 3/3 C, 1/1 PM 4/4, M 3/3
I 4/3 C, 1/1 PM 3/3, M 4/4
I 4/5 C, 1/1 PM 3/3, M 4/4

11. Both hepatic and renal portal systems are


found in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Fishes, Amphibians, Reptiles


Amphibians, Reptiles, Mammals
Reptiles, Aves, Mammals
Cyclostomes, Fishes, Amphibians

12. Unloading of oxygen from haemoglobin is


enhanced under the following conditions.
(a) Increase in pH, decrease in CO 2 , decrease
temperature
(b) Increase in pH, increase in CO 2 , decrease
temperature
(c) Decrease in pH, increase in CO 2 , increase
temperature
(d) Decrease in pH, decrease in CO 2 , increase
temperature

in
in
in
in

13. Craspedote medusa is present in the


following pair.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Aurelia and Rhizostoma


Pennatula and Aurelia
Rhizostoma and Corallium
Physalia and Halistemma

10

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

14. Identify the Nematodes, which have various


shapes of amphids but without phasmids.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Wuchereria and Ascaris


Trichinella and Greeffiella
Enterobius and Ancylostoma
Ascaris and Ancylostoma

15. The part of adrenal cortex which secretes

19. In eukaryotes, which of the following genes


synthesise
(hnRNA)?

(a) Holandric genes


(c) A-gene

(b) Zona glomerulosa


(d) Zona pellucida

16. In the transverse section of Pheretima,


identify the correct sequence of body wall
layers from outer to inner side.
(A) Circular muscles
(B) Parietal peritonium
(C) Epidermis
(D) Cuticle
(E) Longitudinal muscles
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C B E A D
D C E A B
D C A E B
D B A E C

17. Statement (S) In gastropods, due to


torsion mantle cavity is placed anteriorly
behind and above the head.
Reason (R) During larval stage, visceral
mass, shell and mantle cavity are twisted
upto 180 counter clockwise with respect to
the head and foot.
The correct answer is
(a) Both S and R are true, and R is not a correct
explanation to S
(b) S is correct, but R is not correct
(c) S is not correct, but R is correct
(d) Both S and R are true, and R is a correct
explanation to S

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A C B D E
C A D E B
C A D B E
A C E B D

RNA

(b) Split genes


(d) Z-genes

with reference to Pheretima.


List I

List II

(A) Pharyngeal
Nephridia

(I)

14th segment

(B) Stomach

(II)

18th segment

(C) Anterior loops

(III)

9th and 14th segments

(D) Male genital


apertures

(IV) 4th, 5th and 6th segments


(V)

10th and 11th segments

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(IV)
(I)
(V)
(IV)

(B)
(I)
(III)
(IV)
(III)

(C)
(V)
(II)
(III)
(V)

(D)
(III)
(V)
(I)
(II)

21. Match the following lists.


List I

List II

(A) Simple squamous


epithelium

(I) Ureters

(B) Simple cuboidal


epithelium

(II) Epididymis

(C) Non-ciliated simple


columnar epithelium

(III) Lining of alveoli of


lungs

(D) Transitional
epithelium

(IV) Lining of thyroid


vesicles

(E) Pseudostratified
non-ciliated
columnar epithelium

(V) Mucosa of stomach


and intestine

The correct match is

18. Arrange the following in the ascending


order of their number per cubic millimeter,
present in the blood.
(A) Basophils
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Eosinophils
(D) Neutrophils
(E) Monocytes

nuclear

20. Match the correct pairs in list I and list II

cortisol is
(a) Zona faciculata
(c) Zona reticularis

heterogenous

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(III)
(I)
(V)
(II)

(B)
(IV)
(II)
(III)
(IV)

(C)
(V)
(IV)
(II)
(III)

(D)
(I)
(III)
(IV)
(V)

(E)
(II)
(V)
(I)
(I)

22. What is the duration of one cardiac cycle in


man when the heart beats for 75 times per
minute?
(a) 0.3 s
(c) 0.8 s

(b) 0.4 s
(d) 0.5 s

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


23. Identify the correct sequence of events with
reference to conjugation of Vorticella.
(A) Amphimixis
(B) Disappearance of macronucleus
(C) Attachment of the conjugants
(D) Post conjugation fissions
(E) Prezygotic nuclear divisions
(F) Postzygotic nuclear divisions
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

C B A E D F
C B E A F D
F A D B C E
F D A E B C

List I

List II
(I) Human papilloma
virus

(B) Toxoid vaccine

(II) Haemophilus
influenzae

(C) Attenuated whole


agent vaccine

(III) Bubonic plague

(D) Inactivated whole


agent vaccine

(IV) Yellow fever


(V) Diphtheria

The correct answer is


(B)
(IV)
(V)
(II)
(III)

(C)
(V)
(IV)
(III)
(I)

(D)
(II)
(III)
(V)
(IV)

25. In birds, foramen triosseum is present at the


junction of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

clavicle, scapula, corocoid


scapula, carina, furcula
scapula, corocoid, synsacrum
clavicle, synsacrum, furcula

26. Identify the two small apertures present in


the auditory capsule of rabbit
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

List I

List II

(A) Founder effect

(I)

Long necked giraffes

(B) Bottle neck effect

(II)

Heterozygous for
sickle-cell anaemia

(C) Genetic load

(III)

Pitcairn Island
human population

(D) Directional selection (IV) Polydactylic dwarf


individuals
Sunflower population
in California

The correct match is

(A) Conjugate vaccine

(A)
(I)
(II)
(I)
(II)

27. Match the following

(v)

24. Match the following lists.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

11

foramen magnum and foramen ovale


foramen ovale and fossa ovalis
fenestra ovalis and obturator foramen
fenestra ovalis and fenestra rotunda

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(IV)
(II)
(V)
(III)

(B)
(II)
(I)
(IV)
(IV)

(C)
(V)
(III)
(II)
(II)

(D)
(III)
(IV)
(III)
(I)

28. Of the following statements about antibodies


and antigens. Choose the correct set.
(I) An antibody consists of four identical
light (L) chains, and two identical heavy
(H) chains.
(II) The stem Y of antibody is called Fab
fragment.
(III) The stem of antibody and lower part of
the arms constitute the constant (C)
region.
(IV) The portion of the antigen to which an
antibody binds is called epitope.
The correct match is
(a) (II) and (IV)
(c) (III) and (IV)

(b) (I) and (III)


(d) (I) and (II)

29. Identify the tumour suppressor genes form


the following.
(a) Oncogenes
(c) Pseudogenes

(b) P53 genes


(d) SRY genes

30. Choose the wrong statement with reference


to mutation theory.
(a) Mutations are cumulated over generations
(b) There are no intermediate stages in the course
of evolution
(c) Mutants are markedly different from parents
(d) Mutations are subjected to natural selection

12

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

31. Which of the following hormones regulate


solute reabsorption during urine formation
in rabbit?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin I


Angiotensin III and angiotensin I
Nor-epinephrin and epinephrin
Angiotensin II and aldosterone

32. In ECG a prolonged PR interval indicates


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Hyperkalaemia and hypokalaemia


Myocardial ischemia and hyperkalaemia
Cardiac arrhythmia and hypokalaemia
Coronary artery disease and rheumatic fever

33. Identify the organisms that belong to the


benthos of lake ecosystem.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Gerris and beetles


Chironomid larvae and red annelids
Daphnia and notonecta
Ranatra and copepods

34. Statement (S) After implantation, the


uterine myometrium undergoes changes to
become decidua in rabbit.
Reason (R) The placenta of rabbit is
described as deciduous type.
The correct answer is
(a) Both S and R are true, and R is not a correct
explanation to S
(b) S is correct, but R is not correct
(c) S is not correct, but R is correct
(d) Both S and R are true, and R is a correct
explanation to S

36. Wax glands in honey bees are present on


these segments.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens


2, 3 and 4 abdominal segments of queens
2, 3, 4 and 5 abdominal segments of workers
1, 2 and 3 abdominal segments of workers

37. Identify the correct pair.


(A) Zinc Essential for tissue repair
(B) Cobalt Essential for formation of
leucocytes
(C) Iodine Synthesis of thyroid hormones
(D) Manganese Synthesis of insulin
(a) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C)

38. Identify the correct sequence of stages in the


ross cycle of Plasmodium.
(A) Sporocyst (B) Ookinete (C) Sporozoites
(D) Zygote (E) Oocyst
(a) D B A E C (b) C A E B D
(c) D E B A C (d) D B E A C

39. What is the phenotype of the offspring born


to a woman with normal vision
(homozygous) and a colourblind man?
(a) All the sons are with normal vision and the
daughters are colourblind
(b) All the sons and daughters are with normal
vision
(c) All the sons and daughters are colourblind
(d) All the sons are colourblind and the daughters
are with normal vision

40. Match the following lists.

35. Statement (S) Non-disjunction is the


failure of paired chromosomes to segregate
during the metaphase of meiotic divisions of
gametogenesis.
Reason (R) Non-disjunction results in
production of abnormal gametes.

List I

List II

(A)

Georges Cuvier

(B)

Claude Bernard

(II) Homology

(C)

Louis de Buffon

(III) Comparative Anatomy

(D)

Richard Owen

(IV) System of
Nomenclature

(I) Homeostasis

(V) Natural History

The correct answer is


(a) Both S and R are true, and R is not a correct
explanation to S
(b) S is correct, but R is not correct
(c) S is not correct, but R is correct
(d) Both S and R are true, and R is a correct
explanation to S

(b) (A) and (D)


(d) (A) and (B)

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(I)
(III)
(II)
(III)

(B)
(III)
(I)
(I)
(II)

(C)
(II)
(V)
(III)
(I)

(D)
(V)
(II)
(V)
(IV)

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

13

Botany
1. Match the following lists.
List I

List II

(A)

G 2 phase

(I) Fusion of microtubules to


form spindle apparatus

(B)

Prometaphase

(II) Production of energy


required for spindle
formation

(C)

Anaphase

(III) Recombination of genetic


material

(D)

Pachytene

(IV) Contraction of tubulin


proteins
(V) Reappearance of
plasmosome

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(V)
(II)
(V)
(II)

(B)
(IV)
(IV)
(I)
(I)

(D)
(III)
(V)
(II)
(III)

40% of the bases are cytosine. What would


be the total number of hydrogen bonds
present in this DNA fragment?
(b) 192
(d) 60

3. The cell organelle bounded by single unit


membrane, which was first reported by
Rhodin is involved in the following reaction.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) (II) and (III)


(c) (I) and (II)

(b) (III) and (IV)


(d) (I) and (IV)

5. Match the following lists.


List I
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Tyloses
Periderm
Motor cells
Laticifers

List II
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(V)

Coenocytic
Adaxial epidermis
Complementary cells
Heart wood
Conjunctive tissue

The correct match is


(C)
(II)
(I)
(IV)
(IV)

2. In a DNA fragment, there are 8 turns, with

(a) 96
(c) 224

(IV) Xylem always produced in a centripetal


manner in the roots of fruit bearing
plants.

conversion of serine to serine


conversion of glycine to serine
conversion of glycerate to PGA
formation of glycolate from phosphoglycolate

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(III)
(II)
(IV)
(IV)

(B)
(II)
(V)
(III)
(I)

(C)
(I)
(I)
(II)
(III)

(D)
(V)
(III)
(I)
(V)

6. Collocytes

which provide mechanical


strength to the plants are present in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

dicotyledonous root
dicotyledonous stem
monocotyledonous leaf
monocotyledonous stem

7. Match the following lists.


List I

List II

(A) A.G. Tansley

(I) Classified plant


communities

(B) Warming

(II) Structure and


function of nature

4. Identify the correct pair of statements from

(C) Odum

(III) TermBiosphere

the following.
(I) Pericycle of dicot root parenchymatous
but sclerenchymatous in mature
monocot root.
(II) Pericycle cells of both dicot and monocot
roots actively divide to produce lateral
roots during secondary growth.
(III) All cells of endodermis are passage cells
in dicot root.

(D) Reiter

(IV) TermEcology
(V) TermEcosystem

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(V)
(II)
(IV)
(IV)

(B)
(I)
(V)
(III)
(III)

(C)
(II)
(I)
(V)
(V)

(D)
(IV)
(III)
(II)
(I)

14

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

8. Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through


chalaza was first discovered by Treub in a
xerophyte. This plant is associated with a
pair of characters given below.
(I) Unisexual flowers
(II) Sessile flowers
(III) Centripetal arrangement of flowers
(IV) Bisexual flowers
The correct pair is
(a) (II) and (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)

(b) (III) and (IV)


(d) (I) and (II)

9. Assume that blue flower of a plant is


dominant character over the white. When a
blue flowered plant is crossed with white
flowered plant, the progeny showed 50% of
plants with blue flowers and 50% of plants
with white flowers. The genotypes of blue
and white parents respectively are
(a) Bb, bb

(b) bb, bb (c) BB, Bb

(d) BB, bb

10. Match the following lists.


List I
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

List II

Turill
Goethe
Salisbury
Oudet

(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(V)

Tissue culture
Pollen grains
Nucleosome
Flower-a modified stem
Stomatal index

(A)
(III)
(V)
(IV)
(II)

(B)
(I)
(II)
(I)
(IV)

(C)
(IV)
(III)
(II)
(V)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(IV)

(C)
(I)
(II)
(III)
(V)

(D)
(III)
(I)
(II)
(II)

12. Identify the wrong statement.


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Stipules in Lathyrus are persistent.


Phyllotaxy in Trillium is alternate.
Venation in Caulophyllum is parallel.
Cauline leaves are found in Cocos.

13. The type of inflorescence in a plant showing


polygamous condition and lateral style is
(a) Compound corymb
(c) Compound head

(b) Compound umbel


(d) Compound raceme

14. Identify

the correct combination


characters found in Cucurbita.

of

(a) Free central placentation, synandry, divergent


palmately reticulate venation
(b) Mesogamy, fusion of epicarp and thalamus to
form rind of the fruit, seed germination epigeal
(c) Axile placentation, extrafloral nectaries, continuous,
collenchymatous hypodermal ring in stem
(d) Bicarpellary gynoecium, compound sieve plate,
unilocular ovary

15. There are 25 flowers in an inflorescence of

(D)
(V)
(IV)
(III)
(III)

(a) 4500

(b) 9000

(c) 18000

(d) 1500

16. Match the following lists.


List I

11. Match the following lists.


List I

(B)
(V)
(IV)
(V)
(I)

Allium. Each anther lobe of every stamen


contains 60 pollen grains. What is the total
number of pollen grains produced in its
inflorescence?

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

The correct match is

List II

(A) Apices
of
underground (I) Mentha
branches store food material
(B) Underground branches grow (II) Hydrocotyle
obliquely upward from the
axillary buds of nodes of the
stem below the soil
(C) Aerial branches grow obliquely (III) Agave
downwards
and
produce
adventitious roots after touching
the soil
(D) Weak stemmed plants have a (IV) Stachys
cluster of leaves and roots at
every node
(V) Jasminum

List II

(A) Aggregate fruitlets of berries (I) Rubus


appearing as a single fruit
(B) Achenes on the inner
(II) Artabotrys
margins of receptacle
(C) Etaerio of drupes
(III) Ficus
(D) Etaerio of follicles
(IV) Magnolia
(V) Annona

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(V)
(II)
(II)
(IV)

(B)
(III)
(I)
(IV)
(III)

(C)
(I)
(V)
(III)
(I)

(D)
(IV)
(IV)
(V)
(II)

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

15

17. Triple fusion was discovered in this plant

22. Arrange the following in sequential order of

possessing naked bulb, fleshy leaf bases and


loculicidal capsule.

their usage in recombinant DNA technology.


(I) Calcium chloride
(II) DNA ligase
(III) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
(IV) Restriction endonuclease
The correct answer is

(a) Lilium
(c) Aloe

(b) Trillium
(d) Allium

18. Match the following lists.


List I

List II

(A)

Bicarpellary unilocular

(I)

Hyoscyamus

(B)

Bicarpellary bilocular

(II)

Ulex

(C)

Multicarpellary multilocular

(III) Scilla

(D)

Monocarpellary unilocular

(IV) Citrus
(V) Capsicum

The correct match is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(III)
(IV)
(V)
(V)

(B)
(V)
(I)
(I)
(III)

(C)
(IV)
(III)
(IV)
(I)

(D)
(I)
(V)
(II)
(II)

19. Study the following and identify the correct


pair of characters for Physalis.
(I) Petiole adnate with the stem
(II) Thalamus cup-shaped
(III) Seeds non-endospermic
(IV) Flowers hypogynous
The correct answer is
(a) (I) and (IV)
(c) (III) and (IV)

(b) (II) and (IV)


(d) (II) and (III)

20. Identify the correct pairs from the following


(I) Pusa moti of bajra Mass selection
(II) IR-8 of rice
Clonal selection
(III) TMV-3 of groundnut Pureline
selection
(IV) Aruna variety of castor Polyploidy
breeding
The correct answer is
(a) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (IV)

(b) (I) and (III)


(d) (II) and (III)

21. Which one of the following SCP organisms


lack a membrane bound nucleus?
(a) Spirulina
(c) Chlorella

(b) Paecilomyces
(d) Chaetomium

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(I), (IV), (III) and (II)


(IV), (I), (II) and (III)
(I), (IV), (II) and (III)
(IV), (III), (II) and (I)

23. Assertion (A) Application of cytokinins


causes the opening of stomata.
Reason (R) Cytokinins induce the influx of
potassium ions into guard cells.
The correct answer is
(a) Both A and B are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) A is false, but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A

24. What is the amino acid sequence in the


polypeptide segment translated from the
mRNA
base
sequence
of
AGU-UUU-UCC-GGG-UCG?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Serine-Glycine-Serine-Phenylalanin-Serine
Serine-Phenylalanine-Serine-Glycine-Serine
Serine-Serine-Phenylalanine-Glycine-Serine
Phenylalanin-Serine-Serine-Glycine-Serine

25. What is the ratio of ATP requirement for the


fixation of 6 molecules of CO2 in sugarcane
and 5 molecules of N2 in bean?
(a) 5 : 16
(c) 5 : 8

(b) 3 : 16
(d) 3 : 8

26. Identify the correct pair of statements.


(I) Lutein is an oxygenated hydrocarbon.
(II) Inhibition of bacteroid respiration by
oxygen is referred to as Warburg effect.
(III) Triplet code UAA is called Amber.
(IV) Delay of senescence by cytokinins is
known as Richmond-Lang effect.
(a) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (IV)

(b) (II) and (III)


(b) (I) and (III)

16

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

27. Arginosuccinase is an example to


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

31. The number of stomata and epidermal cells

in 1 mm 2 area of abaxial surface of the


leaves of A, B, C and D plants are given
below.

Hydrolase
Ligase
Lyase
Oxido-reductase

28. Identify the role of lectins in the formation of

Plant

Number of
Stomata

Number of
epidermal cells

40

730

root nodules in legumes.


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Formation of shepherds crook


Recongnition of compatible Rhizobium by host
Formation of peribacteroid membrane
Formation of infection thread

29. Assertion (A) Azolla is used as biofertiliser


in rice fields.
Reason (R) Azolla contains nitrogen fixing
cyanobacteria in its root nodules.
The correct answer is
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct
explanation of A
(b) (A) is true, but R is false
(c) (A) is false, but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A

(III) Bacillus mycoides


bacterium.

is

nitrifying

(IV) Continuous system of cell walls and


intercellular spaces in plant tissue is
called apoplast.
The correct answer is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(II) and (III)


(III) and (IV)
(II) and (IV)
(I) and (IV)

510

70

450

30

620

plants

(a) B and C
(c) A and C

having

least

(b) A and D
(d) A and B

32. Study the following table showing the


components of water potential of four cells of
an actively transpiring monocot plant.
Cell

the following.

(II) The number of molecules of O2 absorbed


is more than the number of CO2
molecules released when one molecule
of triolein is completely oxidised in
respiration.

60

Identify the two


stomatal index.

30. Identify the correct pair of statements from


(I) The attraction between two water
molecules in xylem vessels is called
adhesion.

B
C

Osmotic Potential Pressure potential


(MPa)
(MPa)

0.9

0.5

0.8

0.6

0.6

0.1

0.7

0.4

Identify the four cells as root hair, general


cortical cell and pericyclic cells of young root
respectively (Assume symplast flow).
(a) B, C, D, A
(c) B, D, A, C

(b) B, D, C, A
(d) A, D, B, C

33. What is the total number of amino acids,


when the capsid of TMV contains 2130
capsomers?
(a) 336540
(c) 948

(b) 162622
(d) 387921

34. Match the following lists.


List I

List II

(A)

Syphilis

(I) Acetobacter

(B)

Pathogen of cattle

(II) Agrobacterium

(C)

Crown gall of apples

(III) Corynebacterium

(D)

Diphtheria

(IV) Mycobacterium
(V) Treponema

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

38. Identify the wrong statement in relation to

The correct answer is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(III)
(V)
(V)
(II)

(B)
(I)
(IV)
(III)
(IV)

(C)
(IV)
(II)
(II)
(V)

Funaria.

(D)
(II)
(III)
(I)
(III)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

35. The microelement, which is an integral part


of the electron carrier which transfers
electrons from cyt-b-f complex to PS I is a
component of

Stomata are present in the epidermis of capsule


Spores are viable for only one year
Inner spore sac is one celled in thickness
Trabeculae connect the innermost layer of the
capsule wall with the outer spore sac

39. Study the following lists


List I

36. Assertion (A) Dictyostele is present in

(II) Rhizopus chlamydospore

(C) Multinucleate

(III) Pteris neck canal cell

(D) Binucleate

(IV) Vitis matured sieve


element
(V) Akinite of Spirogyra

Reason (R) Meristeles are scattered in the


rhizome of Pteris vittata.

The correct match is

The correct answer is


(a) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct
explanation of A
(b) (A) is true, but R is false
(c) (A) is false, but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A

37. What is the ratio of mitotic divisions that


take place in the microspore of Cycas before
and
after
liberation
from
the
microsporangium during the development of
male gametophyte?
(c) 3 : 2

(I) Spirogyra gametangium

(B) Uninucleate

rhizome of Pteris vittata.

(b) 2 : 1

List II

(A) Anucleate

(a) nitrate reductase


(b) cytochrome-C-oxidase
(c) IAA oxidase
(d) dinitrogenase

(a) 1 : 2

17

(d) 1 : 1

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(A)
(I)
(IV)
(I)
(IV)

(B)
(IV)
(I)
(III)
(I)

(C)
(V)
(III)
(II)
(II)

(D)
(II)
(II)
(IV)
(III)

40. In F2 -generation, 960 garden pea pods are


produced during dihybrid cross due to self
pollination of heterozygous parents. How
many pods would be green and inflated?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

240
180
60
540

Answers
Physics
1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (*)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (b)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15. (c)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (a)

21. (a)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (c)

27. (a)

28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (d)

31. (b)

32. (c)

33. (a)

34. (d)

35. (d)

36. (a)

37. (a)

38. (b)

39. (d)

40. (d)

Chemistry
1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (d)

14. (c)

15. (c)

16. (b)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (d)

20. (d)

21. (d)

22. (a)

23. (c)

24. (c)

25. (c)

26. (a)

27. (d)

28. (d)

29. (d)

30. (d)

31. (a)

32. (a)

33. (b)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (b)

37. (a)

38. (c)

39. (c)

40. (b)

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (a)

16. (c)

17. (d)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (d)

21. (a)

22. (c)

23. (b)

24. (b)

25. (a)

26. (d)

27. (d)

28. (a)

29. (b)

30. (d)

31. (d)

32. (d)

33. (b)

34. (d)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (c)

38. (d)

39. (a)

40. (b)

Zoology

Botany
1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (d)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (c)

16. (a)

17. (a)

18. (a)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (a)

22. (d)

23. (d)

24. (b)

25. (b)

26. (c)

27. (c)

28. (b)

29. (b)

30. (c)

31. (b)

32. (c)

33. (a)

34. (b)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (d)

38. (b)

39. (d)

40. (d)

Hints & Solutions


Physics
1. We know that the frequency
n=

1 T
2l

Here is a constant, so
n

T
l

Now, we can calculate the value of n2 /n1 as follow


n2 l1
T
1
9
=
2 =
n1 l2
T1 2
1

9 3
=
2 2
n
3
Hence, the ratio of 2 is
n1 2
=

2. The frequency of the fundamental note of the pipe


is
v
n2 n1 = 2
4l
v n2 n1
=
4l
2

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


Given, n1 = 135 Hz and n2 = 165 Hz
v 165 135 30
Now,
=
=
= 15 Hz
4l
2
2

3. We know about the thin prism,


m = ( 1) A
In given condition,
A1 (1 1) = A2 ( 2 1)
Given, 1 = 1.4, 2 = 1.6 and A1 = 6
Now,

6 (1. 4 1) = A2 (1.6 1)
6 0.4
A2 =
0.6
2.4
A2 =
0.6
A2 = 4

Hence, the angle of the second prism is 4.

4. We knows the magnifying power of the


astronomical telescope is
f
M = o and length of the telescope L = fo + fe
fe
Given , M =50 and fe = 2 cm
fo
Here,
= 50
fe
fo = 50 fe
So, the length of the telescope

In this question, the option (b) is more equivalent


to
175 . 2 10 4 so that the answer is
I = 172.8 10 4 kgm 2 .

7. We know that the magnetic field induction at a


point
0 M
4 r 3
According to question
B=

B1 : B2 : B3 =
Given

1
1
1
:
:
r13 r23 r33

r1 = 30 cm = 0.3 m
r2 = 60 cm = 0.6 m

and

r3 = 90 cm = 0.9 m
1
1
1
Hence, B1 : B2 : B3 =
:
:
(0.3)3 (0.6)3 (0.9)3
1
1
1
B1 : B2 : B3 =
:
:
0.027 0.236 0.729
B1 : B2 : B3 = 37.03 : 4.629 : 1.37
No option is correct.

8. Given, V1 = 120 V and V2 = 200 V


Here given potential is zero for each capacitor,
then
C1V1 C2V2
=0
C1 + C2

L = 50 fe + fe

C1V1 = C2V2

L = 49 fe

120 V1 = 200 C2

L = 49 ( 2 )

12 V1 = 20 C2

L = 98 cm
Hence, the required length of the telescope is
98 cm.
5. Here the condition for the formation of rings is
d2

4D

6. Given, M = 120 Am 2 , T=12 s and B= 0.4 10 4 T


We know that,
T = 2

I
(squaring both sides)
MB

T 2 MB
4 2

So,

I =

or

(12 )2 (120 ) ( 0.4 10 4 )


I=
4 3.14 3.14
I = 175.2 10 4 kgm 2

19

3 C1 = 5 C2

9. Here the capacitance of dielectric capacitor


C1 = 3
and

C2 = 2

We know that the energy stored in the capacitor


q2
E =
2C
E1
q12
2C2
Hence,
=
=
E2
2C1
q 22
E1
C
2
= 2 =
(Qq1 = q 2 q )
E2
C1
3

10. Given, temperature coefficient of carbon


3 = 4 10

/C

Temperature coefficient of copper


2 = 0.5 10 3 / C

20

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013


Hence, R1 1 = R2 2
R2 4 10 3
=
R1 0.5 10 3
R2 8
=
R1 1

11. Given equation,


1
y
=
p kBT
where, p = pressure, y = distance,
kB = Boltzmann constant and T = temperature

15. Given that, h = 100 m and t = 10 s


From equation of motion,
1 2
h =
at
2
2 h 2 100
a = 2 =
= 2 ms 2
t
(10 )2
Now,

16. Given, mass = m


and here

Dimension of [ ]
[ Dimensions of kB ] [ Dimensions of T ]
=
[ Dimensions of p] [ Dimensions of y]
=

[ ML2 T 3 ][T ]
= [ M0L2 T 0 ]
[ ML1 T 2 ][ L ]

12. Given,
Velocity of water vw = 4 ms 1
Velocity of person vp = 5 ms 1
Width of the river = 84.6 m
We know that time taken
s
t =
vw2 vp2
84.6
t=
25 16
t=

84.6
= 28.6 s 28.25
3

13. The initial velocity of the body


u 2 = 2 gh
u = 2 gh = 2 10 125 = 2500 = 50 ms 1
The final velocity from equation of motion
v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh
v = (50 )2 + 2 10 45
v = 2500 + 900 = 3400 = 50 ms 1

14. We know that


W = mg cos 5
W = 300 9 . 8 cos 30 10
3
= 300 9 . 8
10
2
= 2450 J

F = 50 (10 + 2)
F = 600 N

rCM =

ma $i + mb$j + m0
3m

rCM =

1 $
(a i + b$j )
3

17. From the conservation of momentum


mv + m 0 = (m + m)v
mv

v =
( m + m)
v
v =
2
and we knows
u2
h =
2g
Here,
So,

u = v
(v )2
h =
2g

v2
8g

18. We know that


F f = ma
Here for small body,
20 0.2 3 10
a1 =
3
14
a1 =
ms 2
3
6
Similarly, a1 =
= 0.6 ms 2
10

19. We know that the difference between the


maximum and minimum tensions in the rope
Tmax Tmin = 2 mg
Here,
Tmax Tmin = 20
Now, mass of the store
F = ma
F
20
m= =
= 1kg
a 2 10

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


20. In given condition, the moment of inertia of the
combine system about an axis passing through O
is
4 ma2
+ ma2
3

I =

4
39
ma2 + m
4
3
94
I=
m a2
48

21. Here,

g 0 = g 90 R

Given,

g0 =

We have,

Here,

g
and g 90 = g
2

g
= g R 2
2
g
=
2R
r
T = 2
v
2
T =

So,

h1 = 10 cm, h2 = 3.42 cm
2 = 135 and d 2 = 13.6 g/cc
T1 h1 d1 cos 2
=
T2 h2d 2 cos 1
T1
10 1 cos 135
=
T2 3.43 13.6 cos 45
T1 2
=
T2 13

25. We know that the pressure


r4
l
Given, l1 : l2 = 2 : 1 and r1 : r2 = 1 : 2
Let l1 = 2 l, l2 = l and r1 = r , r2 = 2 r
p

Q =

2R
T =2
g

Hence,

Hence, the ratio of work done in stretch wire


WA 1 2
= kx / kx 2
WB 2
WA 1
=
WB 2

24. Given,

I =

p1
r4 l
= 1 24
p2
l1 r2

Now,

p1
r4
l
=

p2
2l
(2 r )4

22. We know that, for SHM


v = A2 r 2

p2
1
=
p2
2 (2 )4

In given condition,
v1 = A2 r1 2
v 2 = A2 r 2 2
Hence, v2
v2

v12

v12

4 2
= 2 [ A2 r1 2 A2 + r2 2 ]
T

4 2
= 2 [r22 r12 ]
T
2

T =2

(r2 r12 )
(v2 2 v12 )

23. We know that the work done in a stretched wire


W=

1 2
kx
2

Given, kA = k and kB = 2 k
1
So that
WA = kx 2
2
1
and
WB = (2 k ) x 2 = kx 2
2

21

p1
1
=
p2
32

26. Here,
1.03 10

r = ag + 3 g = ac + 3 c
3

+ 3 g = 1.006 10 3 + 3 (17 10 6 )
g = 27 10 6 / C

27. The coefficient of linear expansion ( ) of the


material of the tube and the coefficient of volume
expansion ( ) of the liquid, then
= 2
28. We know that
(i) The work done in isobaric process is p(V2 V1 )
(ii) The work done in isothermal process is
V
nR log 2
V1
(iii) The work done in adiabatic process is
nR (T1 T2 )
1

22

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

29. We know that,

Now,

d = nCpdTA = nCVTB
nCpTA = nCVTB
Cp TB
=
CV TA
=

EL 23.32 1.6 10

TB = Y TA = 1. 4 30 = 42 K

30. From the equation,


t
=
x
l
Given, t1 = 100 C, t 2 = 0 C, l = 25 and = 10 cm
100 0
=
10
25

=4
10
= 40 C
heavily doped, the base B is thin and lightly
doped and the collector C is moderately doped
semiconductor materials and with together.
I
32. We know that, = c
Ib
Given, = 60 and Ic = 4 mA = 4 10

I
4 10 6
Ib = c =

60
I b = 66.6 A
nE
P=
t

33.
Given,

n = 2 10 18 fission per second


E = 185 MeV

Here,

2 1018 185 10 6 eV
P=
7 1015
P = 59.2 MeV

34. The purpose of using heavy water in nuclear


reactor is to decrease the energy of fast neutrons
to the thermal energy.

35. Given, Ek = 23.32 keV = 23.32 1.6 10 19 eV


7

hc = 12.42 10 eV
h = 71 10 12 m

12.42 10 7
71 10 12

36. In Moseley's law v = a ( z b), the values of the


screening constant for K-series and L-series of
X-rays are respectively 1 and 6.4.
37. We know that,
mv
2qV
and v =
r=
Bq
m
mv
Now,
B =
qr

31. For making a junction transistor the emitter E is

Here,

hc
hka

EL = 5.82 keV
Cp

Q =

CV

dTB
dTA

EL EK =

B=

m 2qV
qr
m

B =

2 mV
qr 2

B=

2 mV
er 2

(q = e )

38. We know,
L
R
L= 0.01 H, R = 3
tan =

Given,

V = 220 V and f= 50 Hz
= 2 f
= 50 2
50 2 0.01
tan =
3
1
tan =
3
= / 6 rad
E2 ( t n 20 ) ( tc + 6) 120 26 94
39. Here,
=
=
=
E1
t n tc
120
120
Percentage decrease in thermo emf
E2 E1
94 120
100 =
100 = 21.6
E1
120

40. We know that


i =

E
15
=
r + Ref 0.5+ 14.5
15
= = 1A
15

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |

23

Chemistry
1. (a) Sucralose is an artificial sweetening agent.
(b) Antimicrobials are commonly used in food
industry to ensure safe wholoesome food
products. Traditionally, lactic acid, which is a
weak organic acid and a natural food
preservative has been widely used to control
growth of pathogenic bacteria in food.
(c) Seconal is a tranquillizer.
(d) Chloroxylenol is an antiseptic.

2. Glucose on reduction with HI/red P at 373 K gives


n hexane and 2-iodo hexane, which suggests that
all the six carbon atoms in glucose are arranged
in a straight chain. Whereas, on oxidation with
HNO 3 glucose gives saccharic acid (glycaric
acid), which indicates that glucose contains one
primary alcoholic group.
CH3
(CH2)4

CHO
HI/P
Reduction

(CHOH)4

COOH
HNO3
Oxidation

(CHOH)4

CH3

CH2OH

COOH

n-hexane

glucose

saccharic
acid

3. Condensation polymers are formed by repeated


condensaton reaction between two bifunctional
or trifunctional monomer units accompanied with
the elimination of small molecules like, water,
NH 3 , CO 2 , HCl, etc. For example, nylon 66 is
obtained by cndensation polymerisation of
hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid with the
loss of one water molecule. Thus,

n HOCH2CH2OH
ethylene glycol

+ n HOC

COH

terephthalic acid
(2n 1) H2O

OCH2CH2OC

4. Aliphatic amines are stronger bases than


ammonia. This is due to the reason that alkyl
groups are electron-donating groups. As a result
the electron density on the N-atom increases and
thus they can donate the lone-pair of electrons
more easily than NH 3 .

H N H C 2H 5 N H C 2H 5 N C 2H 5

H
H
H
ammonia

2 amine

1 amine

But aniline is weaker base than NH 3 . The reason


behind it is the resonance in aniline, due to which
the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom
gets delocalised over the benzene ring and thus
is less easily available for protonaton.
NH2

NH2

NH2
s

s
II

III

NH2

NH2

nH 2N (CH 2 )6 NH 2 + nHOOC(CH 2 )4 COOH


hexamethylenediamine

adipic acid

O
O

[NH(CH 2 )6 NHC (CH 2 )4 C ]n


nylon-66

+ (2 n 1)H 2O
Similarly, terylene or dacron is a condensation
polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
with elimination of water.

IV

Thus, the basicity of amines increases in the


order.
C 6H 5NH 2 < NH 3 < C 2H 5NH 2 < (C 2H 5 )2 NH.

24

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013


2

5. Acetic acid is produced industrially by the


carbonylation of methanol in the presence of
Rh/I2 catalyst.

The priority at C2 as HCOH

I 2 Rh catalyst

CH 3OH + CO CH 3COOH
acetic acid

methanol

6. Wacker process Alkenes can be easily


oxidised to their corresponding aldehydes and
ketones by treating them with a solution of PdCl 2
containing a catalytic amount of CuCl 2 in
presence of O 2 .
CuCl

CH 3CHO + Pd + 2HCl

acetaldehyde

During this reaction, PdCl 2 is reduced to metallic


Pd, therefore the reaction is carried out in the
presence of a cooxidant CuCl 2 . The function of
CuCl 2 is to reoxidise Pd to Pd(II) and itself is
reoxidised to Cu(II) from Cu(I) by air so that O 2 is
the only oxidising agent actually used up in this
process.
Pd + 2CuCl 2 PdCl 2 + 2CuCl
4CuCl + 4HCl + O 2 4CuCl 2 + 2H 2O

7. Ammonium salts, e.g., (NH 4 )2 SO 4 , (NH 4 )3 PO 4


(but not NH 4Cl) act as food for yeast cells.
nitro group, when it is treated with concentrated
nitric acid. The product formed is chloropicrin or
trichloronitromethane or nitro chloroform. It is a
liquid, poisonous and used as an insecticide and
a war gas.
CHCl 3 + Conc HONO 2 CNO 2Cl 3
chloropicrin
(tear gas)

+ H 2O

9. Fischer

projection It is three directional


representation of optically active compounds and
also said to be R-, S-system.
1 COOH

CH(OH)CH3

as eye rotates, clockwise from (1) to (3) via (2),


then it is R configuration at C 2 .

The priority at C3

CH(OH)COOH
1

HCOH
3

CH3

As we hold the group of 2nd priority and rotate in


triangular manner to get the following structure

8. The hydrogen of the chloroform is replaced by

chloroform

HOCCOOH

O2

ethylene

CH(OH)CH3

Here we hold the group of 3rd priority and rotate


in triangular way be keeping OH at place of
H, H at place of COOH and COOH at
place of OH to get structure as

2
CH 2 ==CH 2 + H 2O + PdCl 2

COOH

CH(OH)COOH
3

HOCCH3
CH4
It is R configuration at C 3 .

10. 1,2-benzpyrene is a polynuclear aromatic


hydrocarbon and one of the most potent
carcinogenic compounds. It is the active
cancer-producing agent in coal-tar and in the tar
produced during the incomplete combustion of
organic materials such as coal, petroleum,
tobacoo, etc.

HCOH
3

HCOH
4

CH3
2
1,2-benzypyrene

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


3

CaO act as a flux and combines with silica


present as an impurity to form a fusible slag of
CaSiO 3 .
CaO + SiO 2 CaSiO 3

4
2

11.
6

4-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl hexane

15. The basic character of hydroxides of lanthanoids

12. The detection of carbon and hydrogen in an


organic compound is done with the help of CuO
test.
C of organic compound

decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3 . Due to the


smaller size of Lu, the LuOH bond aquires
more covalent character.

16. The correct set are


Molecule Hybridisation Shape

+ 2CuO CO 2 + 2Cu

H of organic compound + CuO H 2O + Cu

(1) XeO 4

sp3

H 2O vapours turn anhydrous CuSO 4 blue and


CO 2 evolved turn lime water milky as per following
reactions.
CuSO 4 + 5H 2O
CuSO 4 5H 2O

(2) XeF4

sp3d 2

(3) XeF2

sp3d

Ca(OH)2 + CO 2 CaCO 3 + H 2O
milky

14. During the manufacture of cast iron, the slag is


formed in slag formation zone which is also
known as zone of heat absorption, because the
lime-stone present in charge needs a higher
temperature to decompose into calcium oxide
and CO 2 .
lime -stone

1000C

CaO + CO 2

square
planar
linear

Xe

2
3

Xe

O
O

13. (A) Pure wate has a pH of 7.0 (neutral), however,


natural unpolluted rain water has a pH of
about 5.6 (acidic), due to the natural
presence of CO 2 , NO and SO 2 .
(B) Acid rain is the rain water containing H 2SO 4
and HNO 3 which are formed from the oxides
of S and N present in the air and has a pH of
4-5. Although CO 2 is present in a much
higher concentration than NO and SO 2 , it
does not form acid to the same extent as the
two other gases.
(C) Acrolein enters the air from the burning of
fossil fuels and tobacco smoke. It is toxic
and a strong irritant for the skin, eyes and
nasal passages.
(D) Freons (CF2Cl 2 ) are chlorofluoro carbons and
has been completely banned because of
being destructive for ozone layer.

Number of
lone pair of
electrons
tetrahedral
0

hydrated copper sulphate


(blue)

CaCO 3

25

XeO4 (sp )
[Tetrahedral structure]

F
Xe
F

O
O
3
XeO3 (sp )

[Pyramidal or
T-shaped structure]

F
Xe

F
3 2

XeF4 (sp d )
[Square planar structure]

F
3
XeF2 (sp d)
[Linear structure]

17. F2 oxidises potassium bisulphate to potassium


persulphate.
F2 + 2KHSO 4 K 2S 2O 8 + 2HF

18. K p = Kc (RT )ng


For the reaction,
A(g )

B(g ) + C(g )

ng = gaseous products gaseous reactants


= 2 1= 1
Kp

Kc =
n
(RT ) g
0.82
1
=
=
= 0.033 mol L1
1
30
(0.082 300)

26

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013

19. MgF2
s

Mg

2+

24. (a) Orthoboric acid (H 3BO 3 ) is used as an

+ 2F
2s

antiseptic and eye wash under the name


boric lotion.
(b) In B2H 6 , both B atoms undergo
sp3 -hybridisation.

Ksp = (2 s)2 (s) = 4s3

s3 =

Ksp
4

1.08 10 10
4

2s

= 27 10 12
s = 3 27 10 12
= 3 10 4 mol L1

B atom
(Excited state)

20. The reaction given :


4NO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g ) 2N 2O 5 (g ); H = 111kJ
(i)
N 2O 5 (s) N 2O 5 (g );
Hsub = 54 kJ (ii)
Eq. (ii) is multiplied by 2 and then divided by
Eq. (i) gives
4NO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g ) 2N 2O 5 (s)

sp3-hybridisation

(c) The aqueous solution of borax is weakly


alkaline in nature due to hydrolysis of B4O 2
7
ions.
Na 2B4O 7 + 7H 2O

2NaOH + 4H 3BO 3

strong alkali

weak acid

25. The tetrahalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb form

H = 111 (54 2 )
= 219 kJ

21. (a) H 2O 2 reduces chlorine to HCl.


H 2O 2 + Cl 2 2HCl + O 2
(b) H 2O 2 reduces silver oxide to silver in the
alkaline medium.
Ag 2O + H 2O 2 2Ag + H 2O + O 2
(c) H 2O 2 is a weak acid and show neutralization
reactions with hydroxides.
2NaOH + H 2O 2
Na 2O 2
+ H 2O
sodium peroxide

(d) H 2O 2 oxidises nitrites to nitrates in alkaline


medium.
KNO 2
+ H 2O 2
KNO 3
potassium nitrite

2p

B atom
(Ground state)

potassium nitrate

+ H 2O

22. With hot and concentrated NaOH, Zn forms


sodium zincate and H 2 gas is liberated.
Zn + 2NaOH Na 2 ZnO 2 + H 2
sodium zincate

23. Li 2O and Na 2O are white solids as expected but


surprisingly K 2O is pale yellow, Rb 2O is bright
yellow and Cs 2O is orange. This is due to the
gradually increased ionic character from Li 2O to
Cs 2O.

hexahalocomplexes like [SiF6 ]2 , [GeF6 ]2 ,


with
the
[SiCl 6 ]2 , [SnCl 6 ]2 , [PbCl 6 ]2
corresponding halide ions by increasing their
coordination number from 4 to 6, due to the
availability of the vacant d-orbitals. The property
of accepting electron pair from donor makes the
tetrahalides of group 14 elements (except carbon
halides) to act as strong Lewis acids.
26. (a) The solubility of group V hydrides in water
decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 . NH 3 is highly
soluble in water due to H-bonding but other
hydrides are less soluble.
(b) All the elements of group V except Bi show
allotropy. Phosphorus exists in a number of
allotropic forms such as white, red, scarlet,
-black, -black and violet phosphorus.
(c) Thermal stability of hydrides of group V
decreases gradually from NH 3 to BiH 3 due to
decrease in MH bond strength down the
group on account of increase in size of
central atom.

27. Sodium thiosulphate decomposes on treatment


with dilute HCl with the evolution of SO 2 and
precipitation of sulphur.
Na 2S 2O 3
+ 2HCl 2NaCl + SO 2

sodium thiosulphate

[X]

+ S + H 2O
[Y ]

EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013 |


SO 2 , when reacts with Na 2S, form sodium
thiosulphate and sulphur.
3SO 2 + 2Na 2S 2Na 2S 2O 3 +
S
[ Y ] sulphur

28. Energy of a photon of radiation of wavelength


300 nm will be
c

(6.626 10 34 Js)(3.0 10 8 ms 1 )
=
(300 10 9 m)

E = h = h

= 6.626 10 19 J
=

6.626 10
eV
1.6 10 19
[As 1 eV = 1.6 10 19 J]

= 4.14 eV
Thus, the electron will be detached from the metal
atom only if the energy of the photon (4.14 eV) is
sufficient to overcome the force of attraction of
the electron by the nucleus and it is evident from
the given table that the photon of 300 nm has
greater energy than the values of work function
(w ) for 4 metal atoms (Li, Na, K, Mg). Thus, these 4
metal atoms will show photoelectric effect when
light of 300 nm wavelength falls on them.

29. Here, we are given,


x = 58 m
h = 6.626 10 34 Js
v = 1.0 10

ms

According to Heisenbergs uncertainty principle


h
x (mv ) =
4
h
i.e.,
m=
4 x v
=

the electrons of all the shells are pulled little closer


to the nucleus thereby making each individual
shell smaller and smaller. This results in a
decrease of the atomic radius as we move from
left to right in a period, i.e.,
Li > Be > B

31. Structure of acetylene

6.626 10 34
4 3.14 58 1.0 10 6

= 9.09 10 31 kg
Thus, the mass of moving object is approximately
equal to that of electron.

30. As we move from left to right in a period, nuclear


charge increases by one unit in each succeeding
element while the number of the shells remains
the same. Due to this enhanced nuclear charge

HC CH

32. N2 molecule The electronic configuration of N is


1s2 , 2 s2 2 p3 .

19

27

The

MO

formed

during

the

combination of atomic orbitals of two N atoms are


1s,
* 1s, 2 s, * 2 s, 2 py = 2 pz ,
2 p x , * 2 p x , * 2 py = * 2 pz
MO configuration of N2 1s2 , * 1s2 , 2 s2 ,
* 2 s2 , 2 py2 = 2 pz2 , 2 p2x
The total number of antibonding electrons = 4.
O2 molecule The electronic configuration of O is
1s2 , 2 s2 2 p4 .

The

MO

formed

during

the

combination of atomic orbitals of two O-atoms


are 1s, * 1s, 2 s, * 2 s, 2 p x , 2 py = 2 pz ,
* 2 py = * 2 pz , * 2 p x
MO configuration of O2 1s2 , * 1s2 , 2 s2 ,
* 2 s2 , 2 p2x , 2 py2 = 2 pz2 , * 2 p1y = * 2 p1z .
The total number of antibonding electrons = 6.
Oxidation
1

33. 5I (aq ) + I O 3 (aq ) + 6H + (aq ) 3I2 (aq )


+5

Reduction

+3H 2O(l )

34. TA MB = TB MA

TA
T
= B
MA MA

RMS velocity = (vRMS ) =

3RT
M

TA
T
= B is equal for both the gases, thus
MA MB
both have equal RMS velocity.
As

35. According to Raoults law;


p p s
n2
=
p
n1 + n2
Let p = vapour pressure of pure water = 100 mm

28

| EAMCET (Medical) l Solved Paper 2013


p p s = Lowering in vapour pressure on
dissolving solute = 1.8 mm
w
w
n2 = moles of solute = 2 = 2 mol
M2 60
n1 = moles of solvent =
w2
1.8
60
=
100 100 + w2
18
60

Hence,

or

w1 100
=
mol
M1
18

0 for HCl = X3

= (BaCl 2 ) + 0 (H 2SO 4 ) 2 0 (HCl)


= X1 + X2 2 X3

39. Let the number of atoms B in hcp lattice = N

Tb = 100 C
1

1000 K b w2
w1 M2
=

0 for BaSO 4 = 0Ba 2+ + 0SO 2


4

w2 = 68.4 g; M2 = 342 g mol 1

Tb =

By Kohlrauschs law

36. Here, we have

= 0.318 g
0 for H 2SO 4 = X2

1
3w2
w
or
+
= 2
10 10000 60
1 w2
3w2
or
=
=
10 60 10000
This, gives w2 = 6.1 ~
6.0 g.

K b = 0.512 K kg mol

Thus, 2F = 2 96500 C deposit Cu = 1mol


= 63.6 g
63.6 965
965 C will deposit Cu =
2 96500

38. 0 for BaCl 2 = X1

1.8 100 w2 w2
+

=
100 18
60 60

w1 = 100 g;

Cu 2 + + 2e Cu

1000 0.512 68.4


100 342

= 1.024 C
Hence, boiling point of solution
(Tb ) = Tb + Tb
= 100 + 1.024 = 101.024 C

37. For deposition of Al, reaction is


Al 3 + + 3 e Al
Thus, 1 mol = 27 g. Al is deposited by
3F = 3 96500 C
0.09 g of Al will be deposited by
3 96500
=
0.09 = 965 C
27
For deposition of Cu, the reaction is,

As number of tetrahedral voids is double the


number of atoms in the close packing, thus
number of tetrahedral voids = 2N
Since, atoms A occupy 2/3 rd of the tetrahedral
voids, the number of atoms A in the lattice
2
4N
= 2N =
.
3
3
4N
4
Ratio of A : B =
: N = :1= 4: 3
3
3
Hence, the formula of the compound = A4 B3 .

40. The temperature coefficient of a chemical


reaction is defined as the ratio of the specific
reaction rates of a reaction at two temperatures
differing by 10C.
Temperature coefficient,
rate constant at T + 10 C
=
rate constant at T C
T2
(T2 > T1 )
T1

or

or

T2 = T1
= 2.5 2.5 10 3 s 1
= 6.25 10 3 s 1

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