1.

Nurse Minette needs to schedule a first home visit to OB client

Leah. When is a first home-care visit typically made?

7. By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of Nursing released

Resolution No. 14 Series of the entitled: Adoption of a Nursing
Specialty Certification Program and Creation of Nursing Specialty
Certification Council. This rule-making power is called:

a. Within 4 days after discharge

b. Within 24 hours after discharge
c. Within 1 hour after discharge
d. Within 1 week of discharge

a. Quasi-Judicial Power
b. Regulatory Power
c. Quasi/Legislative Power
d. Executive/Promulgation Power

2. Leah is developing constipation from being on bed rest. What

measures would you suggest she take to help prevent this?

8. Under the PRC-Board of Nursing Resolution promulgating the

adoption of a Nursing Specialty-Certification Program and
Council, which two (2) of the following serves as the strongest for
its enforcement?

POSTPARTUM MOTHER AND FAMILY focusing on HOME CARE.

a. Eat more frequent small meals instead of three large one daily
b. Walk for at least half an hour daily to stimulate peristalsis
c. Drink more milk, increased calcium intake prevents constipation
d. Drink eight full glasses of fluid such as water daily
3. If you were Minette, which of the following actions, would alert
you that a new mother is entering a postpartum at taking-hold
phase?
a. She urges the baby to stay awake so that she can breastfeed him in
her
b. She tells you she was in a lot of pain all during labor
c. She says that she has not selected a name for the baby as yet
d. She sleeps as if exhausted from the effort of labor
4. At 6-week postpartum visit what should this postpartum
mothers fundic height be?
a. Inverted and palpable at the cervix
b. Six fingerbreadths below the umbilicus
c. No longer palpable on her abdomen
d. One centimeter above the symphysis pubis
5. This postpartum mother wants to lose the weight she gained in
pregnancy, so she is reluctant to increase her caloric intake for
breast-feeding. By how much should a lactating mother increase
her caloric intake during the first 6 months after birth?
a. 350 kcal/day
b. 5CO kcal/day
c. 200 kcal/day
d. 1,000 kcal/day
Situation 2 As the CPES is applicable for all professional nurse, the
professional growth and development of Nurses with specialties shall
be addressed by a Specialty Certification Council. The following
questions apply to these special groups of nurses.

(a) Advances made in science and technology

have provided the climate for specialization in
almost all aspects of human endeavor and

(b) As necessary consequence, there has

emerged a new concept known as globalization
which seeks to remove barriers in trade, industry
and services imposed by the national laws of
countries all over the world; and

(c) Awareness of this development should

impel the nursing sector to prepare our people in
the services sector to meet .the above
challenges; and

(d) Current trends of specialization in nursing

practice recognized by; the International Council
of Nurses (ICN) of which the Philippines is a
member for the benefit of the Filipino in terms of
deepening and refining nursing practice and
enhancing the quality of nursing care.
a. b & c are strong justification
b. a & b are strong justification
c. a & c are strong justification
d. a & d are strong justification
9. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement as regards
Specialty Certification?
a. The Board of Nursing intended to create the Nursing Specialty
Certification Program as a means of perpetuating the creation of an
elite force of Filipino Nurse Professionals.
b. The Board of Nursing shall oversee the administration of the NSCP
through the various Nursing Specialty Boards which will eventually, be
created.
c. The Board of Nursing at the time exercised their powers under R.A.
7164 in order to adopt the creation of the Nursing Specialty
Certification /council and Program.
d. The Board of Nursing consulted nursing leaders of national nursing
associations and other concerned nursing groups which later decided
to ask a special group of nurses of the program for nursing specialty
certification

6. Which of the following serves as the legal basis and statute

authority for the Board of nursing to promulgate measures to
effect the creation of a Specialty Certification Council and
promulgate professional development programs for this group of
nurse-professionals?

10. The NSCC was created for the purpose of implementing the
Nursing Specialty policy under the direct supervision and
stewardship of the Board of Nursing. Who shall comprise the
NSCC?

a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 223
c. R.A. 9173
d. R.A. 7164

a. A Chairperson who is the current President of the APO a member

from .the Academe, and the last member coming from the Regulatory
Board
b. The Chairperson and members of the Regulatory Board ipso facto
acts as the CPE Council

c. A Chairperson, chosen from among the Regulatory Board Members,

a Vice Chairperson appointed by the BON at-large; two other members
also chosen at-large; and one representing the consumer group
d. A Chairperson who is the President of the Association from the
Academe; a member from the Regulatory Board, and the last member
coming from the APO
Situation 3 Nurse Anna is a new BSEN graduate and has just passed
her Licensure Examination for Nurses in the Philippines. She has
likewise been hired as a new Community Health Nurse in one of the
Rural Health Units in their City, which of the following conditions may
be acceptable TRUTHS applied to Community Health Nursing
Practice.

a. Most frequency in nurses with needlesticks.

b. Only if there is a large viral load in the blood.
c. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact.
d. In all infants born to women with HIV infection.
17. The medical record of a client reveals a condition in which the
fetus cannot pass through the maternal pelvis. The nurse
interprets this as:
a. Contracted pelvis
b. Maternal disproportion
c. Cervical insufficiency
d. Fetopelvic disproportion

11. Which of the following is the primary focus of community

health nursing practice?

18. The nurse would anticipate a cesarean birth for a client who
has which infection present at the onset of labor?

a. Cure of illnesses
b. Prevention of illness
c. Rehabilitation back to health
d. Promotion of health

a. Herpes simplex virus

b. Human papillomavirus
c. Hepatitis
d. Toxoplasmosis

12. In Community Health Nursing, which of the following is our

unit of service as nurses?

19. After a vaginal examination, the nurse determines that the

clients fetus is in an occiput posterior position. The nurse would
anticipate that the client will have:

a. The community.
b. The extended members of every family.
c. The individual members of the Barangay.
d. The family.
13. A very important part of the Community Health Nursing
Assessment Process includes:
a. the application of professional judgment in estimating importance of
facts to family and community.
b. evaluation structures arid qualifications of health center team.
c. coordination with other sectors in relation to health concerns.
d. carrying out nursing procedures as per plan of action.

a. A precipitous birth
b. Intense back pain
c. Frequent leg cramps
d. Nausea and vomiting
20. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior
to the induction of labor is to:
a. Soften and efface the cervix
b. Numb cervical pain receptors
c. Prevent cervical lacerations
d. Stimulate uterine contractions

14. In community health nursing it is important to take into

account the family health with an equally important need to
perform ocular inspection of the areas activities which are
powerful elements of:

Situation 5 Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse

Specialist and is currently attending to a meeting. The following
conditions pertain to meeting the nursing of this particular population
group.

a. evaluation
b. assessment
c. implementation
d. planning

21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents
pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?

15. The initial step in the PLANNING process in order to engage in

any nursing project or parties at the community level involves:
a. goal-setting
b. monitoring
c. evaluation of data
d. provision of data
Situation 4 Please continue responding as a professional nurse in
these other health situations through the following questions.
16. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another
person occurs:

a. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
b. Sperm cannot enter the uterus, because the cervical entrance is
blocked
c. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are
blocked
d. The ovary no longer releases ova, as there is no where for them to
go
22. The McMichaels are a couple undergoing testing for infertility.
Infertility is said to exist when:
a. a woman has no uterus
b. a woman has no children
c. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
d. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months

23. Another client names Lilia is diagnosed as having

endometriosis. This condition interferes with the fertility because:
a. endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
b. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
c. ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
d. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which of
the following, instructions would you give her regarding this
procedure?
a. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure
b. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
c. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect
d. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted
25. Lilias cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorenas
specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails.
Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena?
a. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix
b. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
c. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
d. The husbands sperm is administered intravenously weekly
Situation 6 There are other important basic knowledge in the
performance of our task as Community Health Nurse in relation to
IMMUNIZATION these include:
26. The correct temperature to store vaccines in a refrigerator is:
a. between -4 deg C and +8 deg C
b. between 2 deg C and +8 deg C
c. between -8 deg C and 0 deg C
d. between -8 deg C and +8 deg C
27. Which of the following vaccines is not done by intramuscular
(IM) injection?
a. Measles vaccine
b. DPT
c. Hepa B vaccines
d. DPT

30. Which of the following dose of tetanus toxoid is given to the

mother to protect her infant from neonatal tetanus and likewise
provide 10 years protection for the mother?
a. Tetanus toxoid 3
b. Tetanus toxoid 2
c. Tetanus toxoid 1
d. Tetanus toxoid 4
Situation 7 Records contain those, comprehensive descriptions of
patients health conditions and needs and at the same serve as
evidences of every nurses accountability in the, caregiving process.
Nursing records normally differ from institution to, institution
nonetheless they follow similar patterns of meeting needs for specifics,
types of information. The following pertains to documentation/records
management.
31. This special form used when the patient is admitted to the
unit. The nurse completes, the information in this records
particularly his/her basic personal data, current illness, previous
health history, health history of the family, emotional profile,
environmental history as well as physical assessment together
with nursing diagnosis on admission. What do you call this
record?
a. Nursing Kardex
b. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet
c. Medicine and Treatment Record
d. Discharge Summary
32. These, are sheets/forms which provide an efficient and time
saving way to record information that must be obtained
repeatedly at regular and/or short intervals, of time. This does not
replace the progress notes; instead this record of information on
vital signs, intake and output, treatment, postoperative care,
postpartum care, and diabetic regimen, etc., this is used
whenever specific measurements or observations are needed tobe documented repeatedly. What is this?
a. Nursing Kardex
b. Graphic Flowsheets
c. Discharge Summary
d. Medicine and Treatment Record

28. This vaccine content is derived from RNA recombinants:

33. These records show all medications and treatment provided

on a repeated basis. What do you call this record?

a. Measles
b. Tetanus toxoids
c. Hepatitis B vaccines
d. DPT

a. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet

b. Discharge Summary
c. Nursing Kardex
d. Medicine and Treatment Record

29. This is the vaccine needed before a child reaches one (1) year
in order for him/her to qualify as a fully immunized child.

34. This flip-over card is usually kept in a portable file at the

Nurses Station. It has 2-parts: the activity and treatment section
and a nursing care plan section. This carries information about
basic demographic data, primary medical diagnosis, current
orders of the physician to be carried out by the nurse, written
nursing care plan, nursing orders, scheduled tests and
procedures, safety precautions in-patient care and factors related
to daily living activities/ this record is used in the charge-of-shift
reports or during the bedside rounds or walking rounds. What
record is this?

a. DPT
b. Measles
c. Hepatitis B
d. BCG

a. Discharge Summary
b. Medicine and Treatment Record
c. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet
d. Nursing Kardex

a. Professional Regulation Commission

b. Nursing Specialty Certification Council
c. Association of Deans of Philippine Colleges of Nursing
d. Philippine Nurse Association

35. Most nurses regard this as conventional recording of the date,

time and mode by which the patient leaves a healthcare unit but
this record includes importantly, directs of planning for discharge
that starts soon after the person is admitted to a healthcare
institution, it is accepted that collaboration or multidisciplinary
involvement (of all members of the health team) in discharge
results in comprehensive care. What do you call this?

40. Mr. Santos, R.N. works in a nursing home, and he knows that
one of his duties is to be an advocate for his patients. Mr. Santos
knows a primary duty of an advocate is to:

a. Discharge Summary
b. Nursing Kardex
c. Medicine and Treatment Record
d. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet
Situation 8 As Filipino Professional Nurses we must be
knowledgeable, about the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses and
practice these by heart. The next questions pertain to this Code of
Ethics.
36. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of
Filipino Nurses?
a. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited
professional organization was given the privilege to formulate a Code
of Ethics which the Board of Nurses promulgated
b. Code of Nurses was first formulated in 1982 published in the
Proceedings of the Third Annual Convention of the PNA House of
Delegates
c. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the
Professions in the Philippines
d. Certificate of Registration of registered nurses; may be revoked or
suspended for violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics
37. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is
regarded as the hallmark of nursing responsibility and
accountability?
a. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender
b. The privilege of being a registered professional nurses
c. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual
d. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes
38. Which of the following nurses behavior is regarded as a
violation of the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?

a. act as the patients legal representative

b. complete all nursing responsibilities on time
c. safeguard the wellbeing of every patient
d. maintain the patients right to privacy
Situation 9 Nurse Joanna works as an OB-Gyn Nurse and attends to
several HIGH-RISK PREGNANCIES: Particularly women with
preexisting or newly acquired illness. The following conditions apply.
41. Bernadette is a 22-year old woman. Which condition would
make her more prone than others to developing a Candida
infection during pregnancy?
a. Her husband plays golf 6 days a week
b. She was over 35 when she became pregnant
c. She usually drinks tomato juice for breakfast
d. She has developed gestational diabetes
42. Bernadette develops a deep-vein thrombosis following an auto
accident and is prescribed heparin sub-Q. What should Joanna
educate her about in regard to this?
a. Some infants will be born with allergic symptoms to heparin
b. Her infant will be born with scattered petechiae on his trunk
c. Heparin can cause darkened skin in newborns
d. Heparin does not cross the placenta and so does not affect a fetus
43. The cousin of Bernadette with sickle-cell anemia alerted
Joanna that she may need further instruction on prenatal care.
Which statement signifies this fact?
a. Ive stopped jogging so I dont risk becoming dehydrated
b. I take an iron pull every day to help grow new red blood cells
c. I am careful to drink at least eight glasses of fluid everyday
d. 1 understand why folic acid is important for red cell formation
44. Bernadette routinely takes acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) for
arthritis. Why should she limit or discontinue this toward the end
of pregnancy?

a. A nurse withholding harmful information to the family members of a

patient
b. A nurse declining commission sent by a doctor for her referral
c. A nurse endorsing a person running for congress
d. Nurse Reviewers and/or nurse review center managers who pays a
considerable amount of cash for reviewees who would memorize items
from the Licensure exams and submit these to them after the
examination

a. Aspirin can lead to deep vein thrombosis following birth

b. Newborns develop a red rash from salicylate toxicity
c. Newborns develop withdrawal headaches from salicylates
d. Salicylates can lead to increased maternal bleeding at childbirth

39. A nurse should be cognizant that professional programs for

specialty certification by the Board of Nursing are accredited
through the

a. Lacerations can provoke allergic responses because of gonadotropic

hormone
b. Increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins
c. A woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because o f her

45. Bernadette received a laceration on her leg from her

automotive accident. Why are lacerations of lower extremities
potentially more serious in pregnant women than others?

fatigue
d. Healing is limited during pregnancy, so these will not heal until after
birth

routine procedure since hypertension is common in the family?

Your answer to this is:

Situation 10 Still in your self-managed Child Health Nursing Clinic,

your encounter these cases pertaining to the CARE OF CHILDREN
WITH PULMONARY AFFECTIONS.

a. At 2 years you may

b. As early as 1 year old
c. When shes 3- years old
d. When shes 6 years old

46. Josie brought her 3-months old child to your clinic because of
cough and colds. Which of the following is your primary action?

52. You typically gag children to inspect the back of their throat.
When is it important NOT to solicit a gag reflex?

a. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup

b. Assess the patient using the chart on management of children with
cough
c. Refer to the doctor
d. Teach the mother how to count her childs bearing

a. when a girl has a geographic tongue

b. when a boy has a possible inguinal hernia
c. when a child has symptoms of epiglottitis
d. when children are under 5 years of age

47. In responding to the care concerns of children with severe

disease, referral to the hospital of the essence especially if the
child manifests which of the following?
a. Wheezing
b. Stopped bleeding
c. Fast breathing
d. Difficulty to awaken
48. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of
a nurse in the prevention of necessary deaths from pneumonia
and other severe diseases?
a. Giving of antibiotics
b. Taking of the temperature of the sick child
c. Provision of Careful Assessment
d. Weighing of the sick child
49. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory
problems in the community where your health facility serves.
Your primary role therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to
pneumonia is to:
a. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of
pneumonia
b. Make home visits to sick children
c. Refer cases to hospitals
d. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to have a meeting with
mothers
50. Which of the following is the principal focus on the CARI
program of the Department of Health?
a. Enhancement of health team capabilities
b. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where to refer
c. Mortality reduction through early detection
d. Teach other community health workers how to assess patients
Situation 11 You are working as a Pediatric Nurse in your own Child
Health Nursing Clinic, the following cases pertain to ASSESSMENT
AND CARE OF THE NEWBORN AT RISK conditions.
51. Theresa, a mother with a 2 year old daughter asks, At what
are can I be able to take the blood pressure of my daughter as a

53. Baby John was given a drug at birth to reverse the effects of a
narcotic given to his mother in labor. What drug is commonly
used for this?
a. Naloxone (Narcan)
b. Morphine Sulfate
c. Sodium Chloride
d. Penicillin G
54. Why are small-for-gestational-age newborns at risks for
difficulty maintaining body temperature?
a. They do not have as many fat stores as other infants
b. They are more active than usual so throw off covers
c. Their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold
d. They are preterm so are born relatively small in size
55. Baby John develops hyperbilirubinemia. What is a method
used to treat hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn?
a. Keeping infants in a warm arid dark environment
b. Administration of a cardiovascular stimulant
c. Gentle exercise to stop muscle breakdown
d. Early feeding to speed passage of meconium
Situation 12 You are the nurse in the Out-Patient-Department and
during your shift you encountered multiple childrens condition. The
following questions apply.
56. You assessed a child with visible severe wasting, he has:
a. edema
b. LBM
c. kwashiorkor
d. marasmus
57. Which of the following conditions is NOT true about
contraindication to immunization?
a. do not give DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has convulsions within 3
days of DPT1
b. do not give BOG if the child has known hepatitis .
c. do not give OPT to a child who has recurrent convulsion or active
neurologic disease
d. do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS

58. Which of the following statements about immunization is NOT

true:
a. A child with diarrhea who is due for OPV should receive the OPV
and make extra dose on the next visit
b. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well
enough to go home
c. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well
enough to go home and a child should be immunized in the health
center before referrals are both correct
d. A child should be immunized in the center before referral
59. A child with visible severe wasting or severe palmar pallor
may be classified as:
a. moderate malnutrition/anemia
b. severe malnutrition/anemia
c. not very tow weight no anemia
d. anemia/very low weight
60. A child who has some palmar pallor can be classified as:
a. moderate anemia/normal weight
b. severe malnutrition/anemia
c. anemia/very low weight
d. not very low eight to anemia
Situation 13 Nette, a nurse palpates the abdomen of Mrs. Medina, a
primigravida. She is unsure of the date of her last menstrual period.
Leopolds Maneuver is done. The obstetrician told mat she appears to
be 20 weeks pregnant. .
61. Nette explains this because the fundus is:
a. At the level the umbilicus, and the fetal heart can be heard with a
fetoscope
b. 18 cm, and the baby is just about to move
c. is just over the symphysis, and fetal heart cannot be heard
d. 28 cm, and fetal heart can be heard with a Doppler
62. In doing Leopolds maneuver palpation which among the
following is NOT considered a good preparation?
a. The woman should lie in a supine position with her knees flexed
slightly
b. The hands of the nurse should be cold so that abdominal muscles
would contract and tighten
c. Be certain that your hands are warm (by washing them in warm
water first if necessary)
d. The woman empties her bladder before palpation
63. In her pregnancy, she experienced fatigue and drowsiness.
This probably occurs because:
a. of high blood pressure
b. she is expressing pressure
c. the fetus utilizes her glucose stores and leaves her with a Sow blood
glucose
d. of the rapid growth of the fetus
64. The nurse assesses the woman at 20 weeks gestation and
expects the woman to report:

a. Spotting related to fetal implantation

b. Symptoms of diabetes as human placental lactogen is released
c. Feeling fetal kicks
d. Nausea and vomiting related HCG production
65. If Mrs. Medina comes to you for check-up on June 2, her EDO
is June 11, what do you expect during assessment?
a. Fundic ht 2 fingers below xyphoid process, engaged
b. Cervix close, uneffaced, FH-midway between the umbilicus and
symphysis pubis
c. Cervix open, fundic ht. 2 fingers below xyphoid process, floating .
d. Fundal height at least at the level of the xyphoid process, engaged
Situation 14: Please continue responding as a professional nurse in
varied health situations through the following questions.
66. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect
the physician to order for recurrent convulsive seizures of a 10year old child brought to your clinic?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Nifedipine
c. Butorphanol
d. Diazepam
67. RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative women to prevent maternal
sensitization from occurring. The nurse is aware that in addition
to pregnancy, Rh-negative women would also receive this
medication after which of the following?
a. Unsuccessful artificial insemination procedure
b. Blood transfusion after hemorrhage
c. Therapeutic or spontaneous abortion
d. Head injury from a car accident
68. Which of the following would the nurse include when
describing the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?
a. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth
b. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester
c. Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings
d. There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin
69. When providing prenatal education to a pregnant woman with
asthma, which of the following would be important for the nurse
to do?
a. Demonstrate how to assess her blood glucose
b. Teach correct administration of subcutaneous bronchodilators
c. Ensure she seeks treatment for any acute exacerbation
d. Explain that she should avoid steroids during her pregnancy
70. Which of the following conditions would cause an insulindependent diabetic client the most difficulty during her
pregnancy?
a. Rh incompatibility
b. Placenta previa
c. Hyperemesis gravidarum
d. Abruptio placentae

1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. D
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. D
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. A
39. B
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. C
49. A
50. C
51. C
52. C
53. A
54. A
55. D
56. D
57. B
58. A
59. B
60.C
61. A
62. B

63. D
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. C
68. D
69. C
70. C

b. Mons veneris
c. Labia majora
d. Labia minora
8. The vas deferens is a:
100 items OB Nursing questions Answer Key
Obstetrics Nursing Questions Answer Key
Heres the answer key for the OB Nursing questions. All
answers are correct to the best of my knowledge. If
you see something wrong, you can PM me or just post a
comment. Thank You, hope this little endeavor helps.
Rationale will follow shortly. Good luck to everyone.
God Bless. (sorry for the delay 3 days kaming alang
kuryente!!)
Select the best answer
1. Mr. and Mrs. Cremasteric arrive at the clinic for their first
pre natal visit. Mr. Crema tells the nurse that the women in
his family usually have girl babies first and wonders why
some women always have girls. The nurse correct response
is:
a. The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm.
b. Some women are just more fertile with females.
c. Nature determines whether the baby will be a girl or a
boy.
d. The sex of the baby is determined by the egg.
2. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum
during the menstrual cycle is?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Estrogen
Progesterone
Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteneizing hormone (LH)

3. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of

male reproductive organs during fetal life?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)

Dyhydrotestosterone
Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate
Testosterone

4. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cervical mucus changes

Secretion of the Skenes gland
The action of the doderlein bacillus
Secretion of the bartholins gland

5. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn

focuses on which of the following?
a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their
optimal health
b. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
c. Preventing further complications from developing
d. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills
6. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and
newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed
to their complexity?
a. Limitation of available options
b. Support for one viable action
c. Advancement in technology
d. Consistent desirable standards
7. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by
the?
a. Fossa Navicularis

a.
b.
c.
d.

storage for spermatozoa

Site of spermatozoa production
Conduit of spermatozoa
Passageway of sperm

9. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm

count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:
a. 20 to 100/ml
b. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml
c. 100 to 200/ml
d. 20 to 100 million/ml
10. During which of the following phase of the menstrual
cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur?
a. Ischemic phase
b. Menstrual phase
c. Proliferative phase
d. Secretory phase
11. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to
variations in the number of days in which of the following
phase?
a. Proliferative phase
b. Luteal phase
c. Ischemic phase
d. Secretory phase
Situation: Mrs. Calamares G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor
and delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic membranes
and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60
seconds. The fetus is in LOA position
12. The nurses first action should be to:
a.Check the FHR
b.Call the physician
c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
d.Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area
13. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs.
Calamares states that it is brown-tinged. This indicates that:
a. The fetus had infection
b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen
deprivation
c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress
14. The nurse established an IV line, and then connects
Calamares to an electronic fetal monitor. The fetal monitoring
strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 sec after
each contraction begins; the FHR returns to baseline after the
contraction is over. This type of deceleration is caused by:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Fetal head compression

Umbilical cord compression
Utero-placental insufficiency
Cardiac anomalies

15. With this type of deceleration, the nurses first action

should be to:
a. Do nothing, this is a normal occurrence
b. Call the physician

c. Position the patient on her left side

d. Continue monitoring the FHR
16. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a
woman who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a
pack of cigarette per day?
a. Oral contraceptives
b. Cervical cap
c. Diaphragm
d. IUD (Intra-uterine device)

d. Epigastric pain
Situation: The following questions pertain to intrapartum
complications:
24. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes
over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor?
a. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec
b. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
d. Increased restlessness

17. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be

instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after
intercourse?

25. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of

dystocia?

a. 1 hour
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 28 hours

a.
b.
c.
d.

18. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to

occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion?

26. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the

placenta is termed:

a. sperm count
b. sperm motility
c. Sperm maturity
d. Semen volume

a.
b.
c.
d.

19. A couple with one child had been trying, without success
for several years to have another child. Which of the following
terms would describe the situation?

27. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central

depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the
condition is known as:

a. Primary Infertility
b. Secondary Infertility
c. Irreversible infertility
d. Sterility

a. Placenta succenturiata
b. Placenta marginata
c. Fenestrated placenta
d. Placenta Circumvallata

Situation: Melanie a 33y/o G1P0 at 32 weeks AOG is admitted

to the Hospital with the diagnosis of PIH.

28. Which of the following is derived form mesoderm?

20. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV. Which of the

following should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians
prior to administration of the drug?
a.
b.
c.
d.

BP= 180/100
Urine output is 40 ml/hr
RR=12 bpm
(+) 2 deep tendon reflex

21. The nurse knows that Melanie is knowledgeable about the

occurrence of PIH when she remarks:
a. It usually appears anytime during the pregnancy
b. Its similar to cardio-vascular disease
c. PIH occurs during the 1st trimester
d. PIH occurs after the 20th wks AOG
22. After several hours of MgSO4 administration to Melanie,
she should be observed for clinical manifestations of:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hyperkalemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypercalcemia

Nutritional
Environmental
Mechanical
Medical

Central insertion
Battledore insertion
Velamentous insertion
Lateral insertion

a. lining of the GI tract

b. liver
c. brain
d. skeletal system
29. The average length of the umbilical cord in human is:
a. 35 cm
b. 55 cm
c. 65 cm
d. 45 cm
30. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days
of gestation?
50-60
40-50
60-70
30-40
31. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?
a. deciduas
b. amniotic fluid
c. fetus
d. membranes

23. The nurse instructs Melanie to report prodromal

symptoms of seizures associated with PIH. Which of the
following will she likely identify?

32. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st

trimester is attributed to:

a. Urine output of 15ml/hr

b. (-) deep tendon reflex
c. sudden increase in BP

a. amniotic fluid
b. langhans layer
c. syncitiothrophoblast

d. placenta
Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby. She went to
the clinic for check up.
33. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual
period will you ask?
a. first
b. last
c. third
d. second
34. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using
the Naegles rule what is her EDC?
a. August 22, 2003
b. August 18, 2003
c. July 22, 2003
d. February 22, 2003
35. She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at
night. To provide relief, the nurse tells Diane to:
a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the
cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps
occurs
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the
cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the
cramp occur
Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question
36-45)
36. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is:
a. Maculopapular rash
b. Jaundice
c. Urinary retention
d. Urethral discharge
37. In providing education to your clients, you should take
into account the fact that the most effective method known to
control the spread of HIV infection is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Premarital serological screening

Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
On going sex education about preventive behaviors
Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

38. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes

genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have
developed the disease are at risk of developing:
a. Heart and CNS damage
b. Cervical cancer
c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
d. Sterility
39. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In
performing assessment, the nurse should expect to identify
which of the following symptoms?
a. Lesion on the palms and soles
b. A pinpoint rash on the penis
c. Urinary dribbling
d. Dysuria
40. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated
Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:

a. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes

b. Ovarian cysts
c. Ulceration of the cervix
d. Endometrial polyps
41. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis.
Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic,
which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to
take?
a. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months
b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts
c. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
d. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test
42. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeslike vaginal
discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have:
a. Moniliasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Syphilis
d. Gonorrhea
43. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections
was advised to have Pap-smear by her physician. She asked
you what the test is for. Your appropriate response is:
a. Its a screening for cervical cancer
b. Its a screening test for presence of cancer in the female
reproductive tract
c. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas
infection
d. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not.
44. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that:
a. Presence of malignant cells
b. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
c. Normal finding
d. Possible inflammation or infections
45. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing
spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the
disease:
a. Is un aware that they have it
b. Have milder form of the disease than most men
c. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact
Situation: Mrs. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital
with signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia
46. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures, which of
the following should the nurse have available at the clients
bed side?
a. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction
b. leather restraints
c. cardiac monitor
d. venous cutdown set
47. One morning, Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is
having contractions. Which of the following approaches should
the nurse use to fully assess the presence of uterine co
tractions?
a. Place the hand on opposite side of the upper part of the
abdomen, and curve them somewhat around the uterine
fundus.
b. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the
umbilicus firmly
c. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine
fundus, with the fingers apart and press lightly
d. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and

then move hand several times to different parts of the

abdomen

57. The time between uterine contractions is:

48. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to

which of the following substance increases the risk of the
offspring during reproductive years to cervical and uterine
cancer

a. intensity
b. interval
c. duration
d. frequency

steroids
thalidomides
diethylstilbestrol
tetracyclines

58. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by:

49. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most

prominent?
a. multiparous women
b. before menopause
c. after menopause
d. nulliparous waman
50. The deepest part o the perineal body surrounding the
urethra, vagina and rectum that when damaged can result to
cystocele, rectocele and urinary stress incontinence is the?
a. Pubococcygeus muscle
b. Spinchter of urethra and anus
c. Bulbocavernous muscle
d. Ischiocavernous muscle
Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the
clinical instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary
to their assignment to Labor and delivery room
51. Which plays an important role in the initiation of labor?
a. maternal adrenal cortex
b. fetal adrenal cortex
c. fetal adrenal medulla
d. maternal adrenal medulla

a. imaging studies
b. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence
c. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence
d. sub pubic angel measurement
59. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the:
a. sacrum
b. ilium
c. Pubis
d. Ischium
60. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the
pelvic outlet?
a. Bi-ischial diameter
b. Bi-spinous diameter
c. Bi-tuberous diameter
d. Intertuberous diameter
61. The Antero-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet where
the fetus will likely most difficulty during labor is the:
a. Diagonal conjugate
b. True conjugate
c. conjugate Vera
d. obstetric conjugate

52. Which is not considered an uteroronin?

62. The true conjugate can be measured by subtracting

______ to the diagonal conjugate?

a. Prostaglandin
b. Endothelin-1
c. Oxytocin
d. Relaxin

a. 2.5 3 cm
b. 3.5 4 cm
c. 3 4 cm
d. 1.5 2 cm

53. Which is a primary power of labor?

63. The most important muscle of the pelvic floor is the:

a. uterine contractions
b. pushing of the mother
c. intrathoracic pressure
d. abdominal contraction

a. levator ani muscle

b. ischiocavernous
c. bulbocavernous
d. pubococcygeous

54. The lower uterine segment is formed from the:

64. Which pelvic shape has the poorest prognosis fro vaginal
delivery?

a. cervix
b. isthmus and cervix
c. body of the uterus
d. isthmus
55. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the:
a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage
56. In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last:
a.
b.
c.
d.

20 seconds
30 seconds
60 seconds
120 seconds

a.
b.
c.
d.

platypelloid
anthropoid
android
gynecoid

65. The two pubic bones meet anteriorly at the:

a. symphysis pubis
b. coccyx
c. sacrococcygeal
d. sacro-illiac joint
66. In the second stage of labor, expulsion of the fetus from
birth canal depends on which important factor?
a. Maternal bearing down
b. Cervical dilatation
c. Uterine contractions

d. Adequate pelvic size

67. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion?
a.
b.
c.
d.

sinciput
brow
vertex
face

Situation: a 26 y/o primigravida admitted to the hospital.

Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 5cm dilated, 80%
effaced and the presenting part in zero station, membranes
still intact, occiput is in posterior position
68. Due to fetal position, the nurse caring for her would be
correct in telling her that:
a. she will not have the urge to bear down when she becomes
fully dilated
b. she can expect to have more back discomfort than
most woman in labor
c. the position of babys head is optimum for passing through
the pelvis
d. a caesarian section may be necessary to deliver the baby in
thin position
69. Upon IE, you noted that the cervix ix its original length.
This mean that effacement is:
a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 50%
70. Because of the position of the fetus, an episiotomy has to
be performed to enlarge the birth canal. Which of the
following is an advantage of episiotomy over lacerations?
a. it is more difficult to repair than laceration
b. it is more painful than laceration
c. it involve a more blood loss than laceration
d. heals more faster than laceration
71. Supporting the perenium at the time of crowning will
facilitate:
a.
b.
c.
d.

flexion of the fetal head

external rotation
extension of the fetal head
expulsion

72. When the bi-parietal diameter of the fetal head passes

through the pelvic inlet, this is referred as:
a.
b.
c.
d.

descent
flexion
engagement
extension

a. Duncan mechanism
b. Shultz mechanism
c. Brandt Andrews mechanism
d. Ritgens maneuver
75. Which of the following is not true regarding the third
stage of labor?
a. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus
of oxytocin because it can cause hypertension
b. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord,
sudden gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the
uterus
c. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the
delivery of the placenta
d. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after
delivery of the baby
76. In the immediate postpartum period the action of
methylegonovine is to:
a. cause sustained uterine contractions
b. causes intermittent uterine contractions
c. relaxes the uterus
d. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an
exhausting labor
77. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. The
doctor decided to perform NST. The nurse should apply the
fetal transducer over the fetus:
a. chest
b. back
c. head
d. buttocks
78. Marisse, a newly delivered multipara complains of heavy
and painful breast accompanied by fever. The nurse tells Gina
that it is normal breast engorgement as the fever is
characterized by
a. More than 38 degrees
b. Does not last more than 24 hours
c. Caused by infection
d. Needs to be treated with antibiotic
79. Postpartum depression occurs during which time frame?
a. within weeks after delivery
b. within 12 weeks
c. within 16 weeks
d. within 24 hours
80. Demi, a 38 y/o multipara is admitted with a tentative
diagnosis of femoral thrombophlebitis. The nurse assesses the
patient with:

73. Sudden gush of blood or lengthening of the cord after the

delivery of infant should warn the nurse of:

a. burning on urination
b. leg pain
c. abdominal pain
d. increased lochial flow

a. placenta acrreta
b. placental separation
c. placental retention
d. abruption placenta

81. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the

uterus are signs of:

Situation: Nurse Tsunade is a staff nurse in the OB ward of

Konoha Medical Hospital

a. puerperal psychosis
b. puerperal sepsis
c. postpartum hemorrhage
d. hypertensive disorder

74. When separation begins at the center of the placenta and

slides down the birth canal like a folded umbrella this is
referred as:

82. Which is most important when caring for a high risk

postpartum clients?

a. discussing hygiene and nutrition

b. referring the mother to others for emotional support
c. discussing complications and treatment
d. promoting mother-newborn contact
83. A direct cause of mis-management of the third stage of
labor is:
a. inversion of the uterus
b. cord prolapse
c. prolonged labor
d. all of these
84. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is
scheduled for biophysical profile in order to:
a.
b.
c.
d.

ascertain correct gestational age

determine fetal lung maturity
determine fetal well being
determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly

85. In a primigravida, the following demotes contracted pelvis

except:
a. absence of quickening
b. absence of lightening
c. absence of engagement
d. none of these
86. Which of the following changes in Dianes BP would nurse
Tsunade not expect?
a. it tends to be highest in sitting
b. BP may increase a little in the 2nd tri
c. It should be taken at every visit at the clinic
d. It is normal for blood pressure to increase as much
as 33 in systolic in the 3rd tri when a woman is near
delivery
87. Nurse Tsunade referred to Diane to an Obstetrician. At 8
months she was orderd for a contraction stress test and the
result is negative. Diane asked when she should be back for
her next check up?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Monthly
Within 24-hours
Within a week
Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly

89. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per

hour is normal. The correct response of Nurse tsunade is:
a. twice
b. thrice
c. four times
d. 10-12 times
90. Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in
amniotic fluid is correct?

b. 18-24 wks
c. 18-32 wks
d. 12-38 wks
92. Which is not an indication of amniocentesis?
a. previous pregnancy with chromosomal abnormal fetus
b. down syndrome in siblings
c. pregnancies in women over 35 y/o
d. at 8 wks gestation for chromosomal study
Situation: Erica is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She
is pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. She
is RH (-) with blood type B
93. Erica gave birth to a term baby with yellowish skin and
sclera. The baby is placed on phototherapy. The treatment is
effective when blood test shows:
a. Low serum bilirubin
b. O2 level of 99%
c. Normal RBC and WBC count
d. Low platelet count
94. Because of rapidly rising bilirubin level, exchange
transfusion was performed on Ericas NB. The nurse
understands that the blood to be transfused to the baby
should be:
a. Type B, RH +
b. Type O, RH
c. ABO compatible, RH
d. Type B, RH
95. Immediately after delivery of Ericas Baby, the nurse
should remember to:
a. delay clamping of the cord to previde the newborn with
more blood
b. cut immediately after birth of the baby
c. administer RHoGam to the NB immediately on the 3rd
stage of labor
d. place the NB in an isolette for phototherapy
96. The doctor ordered Kleihauer-Betke. The nurse know
which of the following to be wrong about the test:
a. it is used to identify the amount of antibodies in the
maternal serum
b. it is used to determine presence of fetal blood
c. it is used to asses whether the mother is RH or RH +
d. It is used to determine fetal blood type and RH factor
97. Which of the following findings in Ericas history would
identify a need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin?
a. Rh -, coombs +
b. Rh -, Coombs
c. Rh +, Coombs
d. Rh +, Coombs +

a. a slight variation in technique does not significantly affect

the accuracy of result
b. a L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life
c. a L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible with fetal survival
d. when L/S ratio is 2:1 below, majority of infants
develop respiratory distress

98. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst

91. Every visit, you obtain the pregnant womans fundic

height.. At what age of gestion does the fundic height in cm
strongly correlates with gestational age in wks?

99. The cardinal function of deciduas is

a. 20-24 wks

a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua vera
c. decidua basalis
d. decidua parietalis

a. Immune resonse
b. Production of hormones
c. Maintenance of pregnancy

d. None of the above

100. O2 and Co2 are exchanged in the placenta through the
process of:
a. pinocytosis
b. diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport

5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is

pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human
Chorionic Gonadotrophin. Which structure
produce HCG?
A. Pituitary Gland
B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
C. Uterine deciduas
D. Ovarian follicles

End of Test! Good luck!

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for

reading and answering at your own pace. You can also
copy this exam and make a print out.
Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has
been married for 6 moths. She consults you for
guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle and her
desire to get pregnant.
1. She wants to know the length of her
menstrual cycle. Her periodic menstrual period is
October 22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21.
Which of the following number of days will be
your correct response?
A. 29
B. 28
C. 30
D. 31
2. You advised her to observe and record the
signs of ovulation. Which of the following signs
will she likely note down?
1. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body
temperature
2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear
3. One pound increase in weight
4. Mittelschmerz
A. 1,2,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her
basal temperature everyday, which of the
following instructions is incorrect?
A. If coitus has occurred, this should be reflected in the
chart
B. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a
drop in BBT to become pregnant
C. Temperature should be taken immediately after
waking and before getting put of bed
D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
4. She reports an increase in BBT on December
16. Which hormone brings about this change in
her BBT?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Gonadootrophine
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone

Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now

pregnant.
6. At 5 months gestation, which of the following
fetal development would probably be expected:
A. Fetal development are felt by Mariah
B. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body
C. Viable if delivered within this period
D. Braxton Hicks contractions are observed
7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah.
Now at 5 month gestation, what level of the
abdomen can be the fundic height be palpated?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid
process
C. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis the umbilicus
D. Umbilicus
8. She worries about her small breast, thinking
that she probably will incapable to breastfeed
her baby. Which of the following responses of
the nurse is correct?
A. The size of your breast will not affect your
lactation.
B. You can switch to bottle feeding.
C. You can try to have exercise to increase the size of
your breast.
D. Manual expression of milk is possible.
9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk
regularly. She claims that she does not want to
gain too much weight during her pregnancy.
Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a
priority?
A. Potential self-esteem disturbance related to
physiologic changes in pregnancy
B. Ineffective individual coping related to physiologic
changes in pregnancy
C. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy
D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional requirements
pregnancies related to lack of information sources.
10. Which of the following interventions will
likely ensure compliance of Mariah?
A. Incorporate her food preferences that are
adequately nutritious in her meal plan.
B. Consistently counsel toward optimum nutritional
intake
C. Respect her right to reject dietary information if she
chooses

D. Information of the adverse effects of inadequate

nutrition to her fetus

contraception is needed to contribute to the society

and economic growth.

Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where you

work. She is inquiring about pregnancy.

16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you

she wants to use fertility awareness method of
contraception. How will she determine her fertile
days?

11. Susan tells you she is worried because she

develops breast later than most of her friends.
Breast development is termed as:
A. Adrenarche
B. Mamarche
C. Thelarche
D. Menarche
12. Kevin, Susans husband, tells you that he is
considering vasectomy. After the birth of their
new child. Vasectomy involves the incision of
which organ?
A. The testes
B. The vas deferens
C. The epididymis
D. The scrotum
13. On examination, Susan has been found of
having a cystocele. A cystocele is:
A. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold.
B. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina
C. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall.
14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34
days. She told you she had a coitus on days 8, 10
and 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is the day
on which she is most likely to conceive?
A. 8th day
B. 10th day
C. Day 15
D. Day 20
15. While talking with Susan, 2 new patients
arrived and they are covered with large towels
and the nurse noticed that there are many
cameraman and news people outside of the OPD.
Upon assessment the nurse noticed that both of
them are still nude and the male clients penis is
still inside the female clients vagina and the
male client said that I cant pull it. Vaginismus
was your first impression. You know that the
psychological cause of Vaginismus is related to:
A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it
stimulates vaginal closure
B. The penis was too large thats why the vagina
triggered its defense to attempt to close
C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client
where she views sex as bad or sinful.
Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in the
Philippines that case economic drain. Most Filipinos are
against in legalizing abortion. As a nurse, Mastery of

A. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has an

elevated temperature
B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is
thin colour, clear and watery.
C. She should monitor her emotions fro sudden anger
or crying
D. She should assess whether her breast feel sensitive
to cool air.
17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family
planning method, what is the danger sign of COC
you would ask her to report?
A. A stuffy or runny nose
B. Arthritis like symptoms
C. Slight weight gain
D. Migraine headache
18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and
she asks how long will these implants be
effective. Your best answer is:
A. One month
B. Twelve month
C. Five years
D. 10 years
19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of
the following is true with regards to female
condoms?
A. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild
weight gain.
B. She should insert the condom before any penile
penetration
C. She should coat the condom with spermicide before
use
D. Female condoms unlike male condoms are reusable.
20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What
makes her a good candidate for GIFT?
A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can
be implanted on them.
B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule
out RH incompatibility.
C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected
through the cervix into it.
D. Her husband is taking sildenafil (Viagra), so all
sperms will be motile.
Situation 5 Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and
Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to
FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES.
The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing
needs of this particular population group.

21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal

ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the
best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes
can kill sperm
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical
entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the
fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is
nowhere for them to go.
22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing
for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
A. a woman has no uterus
B. a woman has no children
C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
D. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as
having endometriosis. This condition interferes
with fertility because:
A. endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
B. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
C. the ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
D. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH
levels
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a
hysterosalpingogram. Which of the following
instructions would you give her regarding this
procedure?
A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after
the procedure
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors
present
C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after
effect
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is
inserted
25. Lilias cousin on the other hand, knowing
nurse Lorenas specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be
your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena?

A. Experienced reduce sensory perception

B. Have increased sensory perception
C. Are expected to experience chronic pain
D. Have decreased pain threshold
27. Administration of analgesics to the older
persons require careful patient assessment
because older people:
A. Are more sensitive drugs
B. Have increased hepatic, renal, and gastrointestinal
function
C. Have increased sensory perception
D. Mobilize drugs more rapidly
28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for
urinary incontinence because:
A. Increased glomerular filtration
B. Diuretic use
C. Decreased bladder capacity
D. Decreased glomerular filtration
29. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON
sign of infection among the elderly?
A. Decreased breath sounds with crackles
B. Fever
C. Pain
D. Change in the mental status
30. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma
patient:
A. Circulation, airway, breathing
B. Disability(Neurologic), airway, breathing
C. Airway, Breathing, Disability(Neurologic),
D. Airway, breathing, Circulation
31. Preschoolers are able to see things from
which of the following perspectives?
A. Their peers
B. Their own and their caregivers
C. Their own and their mothers
D. Only their own
32. In conflict management, the win-win
approach occurs when:

A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus

or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into
each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal
patency
D. The husbands sperm is administered intravenously
weekly

A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each

one
B. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreement
making the conflict
C. Both parties involved are committed in solving the
conflict
D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal
system mandates parties win.

Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a group of

patients across the lifespan.

33. According to the social-International

perspective of child abuse and neglect, four
factors place the family members at risk for
abuse, these risk factors are the family members
at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the
family itself, the caregiver, the child and:

26. Pain in the elder persons require careful

assessment because they:

A. The presence of a family crisis

B. Genetics
C. The national emphasis on sex
D. Chronic poverty
34. Which of the following signs and symptoms
would you most likely find when assessing an
infant with Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in
the legs, and restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag
reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and an arching of
the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
35. A parent calls you and frantically reports
that her child has gotten into her famous ferrous
sulfate pills and ingested a number of these
pills. Her child is now vomiting, has bloody
diarrhea and is complaining of abdominal pain.
You will tell the mother to:
A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the
child to the emergency room
B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and the
child will be fine
C. Administer syrup of ipecac
D. Call the poison control center
36. A client says she heard from a friend that
you stop having periods once you are on the
pill. The most appropriate response would be:
A. The pill prevents the uterus from making such
endometrial lining, that is why period may often be
scant or skipped occasionally.
B. If your friend has missed her period, she should
stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy test.
C. The pill should cause a normal menstrual period
every month. It sounds like your friend has not been
taking the pills properly.
D. Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead
to the formation of precancerous cells.
37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and
infants during their hospital stay notice which of
the following symptoms as a primary
manifestation of Hirschsprungs disorder?
A. A fine rash over the trunk
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 hours
after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first
24 hours to 46 hours after birth.
D. High grade fever.
38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just
been diagnosed as having a partial placenta
previa. She is able and has minimal spotting and
is being sent home. Which of these instructions
to the client may indicate a need for further
teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days

C. Call if contractions occur.

D. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying
down.
39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital
with ruptured membrane. Which of the following
should the nurse check first?
A. Check for the presence of infarction.
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a
plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication
were to be prescribed and it were to go on the
stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the
caregivers to:
A. Avoid covering the area of the topical medication
with the diaper
B. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. Put the diaper on as usual
D. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the
diaper
41. Which of the following factors is most
important in determining the success of
relationships used in delivering nursing care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and countertransference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
42. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from
automobile accident. Why are lacerations of
lower extremities potentially more serious
among pregnant women than other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to
gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean
because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not
heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure
on leg veins
43. In working with the caregivers of a client
with an cute or chronic illness, the nurse would:
A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return
demonstration just before discharge
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag
reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and arching of the
back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
44. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies
the expanded role of the nurse?
A. Circulating nurse in surgery
B. Medication nurse

C. Obstetrical nurse
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner

C. Breech position
D. Left occipito-Posterior Position

45. According to De Rosa and Kochuras (2006)

article entitled Implement Culturally Health
Care in your workplace, cultures have different
patterns of verbal and nonverbal
communication. Which difference does NOT
necessarily belong?

50. Focus methodology stands for?

A. Personal behaviour
B. Eye contact
C. Subject Matter
D. Conversational style
46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a
child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following
the prescribed treatment regimen, the child
experiences a remission. You are now checking
to make sure the child does not have a relapse.
Which finding most lead you to the conclusion
that a relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing
complete blood count (CBC) with differential count
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or
more for 3 days or the child found to have 3-4+
proteinuria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3
days, extreme thirst, increase in urine output and a
moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F) flank
pain, burning frequency, urgency on voiding and
cloudy urine.
47. The nurse is working with an adolescent who
complains of being lonely and having a lack of
fulfilment in her life. This adolescent shies away
from intimate relationships at times yet at other
times she appears promiscuous. The nurse will
likely work with this adolescent in which of the
areas?
A. Isolation
B. Loneliness
C. Lack of fulfilment
D. Identity
48. The use of interpersonal decision making
psychomotor skills and application of knowledge
expected in the role of a
licensed healthcare professional in the context
of public health welfare and safety as an
example of?
A. Delegation
B. Supervision
C. Responsibility
D. Competence
49. The painful phenomenon known as back
labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position
B. Right occipito-Anterior Position

A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and Solution

B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize, Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand, Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process),
Understand, Solution
Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate in the
low to middle income countries is ten times higher than
industrialized countries. In response to this the WHO
and UNICEF launched protocol Integrated Management
of Childhood Illness to reduce the morbidity and
mortality against childhood illnesses.
51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in
the yellow row in the IMCI chart, we can classify
the patient as:
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. There is
no blood in the stool, he is irritable, his eyes are
sunken, the nurse offers fluid to Celeste and he
drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the
abdomen it goes back slowly. How will you
classify Celestes Illness?
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for
14 days but has no sign of dehydration is
classified as?
A. Persistent diarrhea
B. Severe dysentery
C. Dysentery
D. Severe Persistent diarrhea
54. The child with no dehydration needs home
treatment. Which of the following is not included
in the rules for home treatment in this case?
A. Forced fluids
B. When to return
C. Give Vitamin A supplement
D. Feeding more
55. Fever as used in IMCI includes:
A. Axillary temperature of 37.5 or higher
B. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher
C. Feeling hot to touch
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

Situation: Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing

responsibility and controlling its spread is priority once
outbreak has been observed.
56. An important role of the community health
nurse in the prevention and control of Dengue Hfever includes:
A. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water
containers covered
B. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign
directed toward proper garbage disposal
C. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups and
community the nature of the disease and its causation.
D. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides
57. Community health nurses should be alert in
observing a Dengue suspect. The following is
NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever
suspects?
A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting
B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Cough of 30 days
D. Persistent headache
58. The community health nurses primary
concern in the immediate control of hemorrhage
among patients with dengue is:
A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. Providing warmth through light weight covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading
to shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest.
59. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED
as a truly positive signs indicative of Dengue Hfever?
A. Prolonged Bleeding Time
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1 cm
square
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
60. Which of the following is the most important
treatment of patients with Dengue H-fever?
A. Give aspirin for fever
B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement
D. Ice cap over abdomen in case of melena
Situation 9: Health education and Health Promotion is
an important part of nursing responsibility in the
community. Immunization is a form of health promotion
that aims at preventing the common childhood
illnesses.

B. Identify the source of these myths and

misconceptions
C. Explain how and why these myths came about
D. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to correct
them.
62. How many percent of measles are prevented
by immunization at 9 months age?
A. 80 %
B. 90%
C. 99 %
D. 95 %
63. After TT3 vaccination a mother is said to be
protected to tetanus by around?
A. 80 %
B. 85 %
C. 99 %
D. 90 %
64. If ever convulsion occurs after administering
DPT, what should nurse best suggest to the
mother?
A. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore
B. Advise mother to come back aster 1 week
C. Give DT instead of DPT
D. Give pertussis of the DPT and remove DT
65. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one
month intervals:
A. DPT, BCG, TT
B. DPT, TT, OPV
C. OPV, Hep. B, DPT
D. Measles, OPV, DPT
Situation 10: With the increasing documented cases of
CANCER the best alternative to treatment still remains
to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.
66. Which among the following is the primary
focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
67. In the prevention and control of cancer,
which of the following activity is the most
important function of the community health
nurse?

61. In correcting misconceptions and myths

about certain diseases and their management,
the health worker should first:

A. Conduct community assemblies

B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with
symptoms of cancer
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters
in our process of detection; control and treatment
modalities.
D. Teach women about proper/correct nutrition.

A. Identify the myths and misconceptions prevailing in

the community

68. Who among the following are recipients of

the secondary level of care for cancer cases?

A. Those under early case detection

B. Those under supportive care
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those under going treatment

C. Give in the health center the recommended amount

of ORS for 4 hours.
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for home
treatment

69. Who among the following are recipients of the

tertiary level of care for cancer cases?

75. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old

weighed 18 kgs and her temperature registered
at 37 degrees C. Her mother says she developed
cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger
signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest
indrawing, no stridor. How would you classify
Ninas manifestation.

A. Those under early treatment

B. Those under supportive care
C. Those under early detection
D. Those scheduled for surgery
70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the
availability and use of many equipment and
devices to facilitate the job of the community
health nurse, the nurse should be prepared to
apply is a scientific approach. This approach
ensures quality of care even at the community
setting. This nursing parlance is nothing less
than the:
A. Nursing diagnosis
B. Nursing protocol
C. Nursing research
D. Nursing process
Situation 11 Two children were brought to you. One
with chest indrawing and the other had diarrhea. The
following questions apply:
71. Using Integrated Management and Childhood
Illness (IMCI) approach, how would you classify
the 1st child?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. No pneumonia: cough or cold
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Pneumonia

A. No pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5 kgs
and it is her initial visit. Her mother says that
Carol is not eating well and unable to
breastfeed, he has no vomiting, has no
convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult
to awaken. Her temperature is 38.9 deg C. Using
the integrated management of childhood illness
or IMCI strategy, if you were the nurse in charge
of Carol, how will you classify her illness?
A. a child at a general danger sign
B. very severe febrile disease
C. severe pneumonia
D. severe malnutrition
77. Why are small for gestational age newborns
at risk for difficulty maintaining body
temperature?

72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast

breathing using IMCI parameters he has:

A. their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold

B. they are preterm so are born relatively small in size
C. they do not have as many fat stored as other infants
D. they are more active than usual so they throw off
comes

A. 40 breaths per minute or more

B. 50 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute or more
D. 60 breaths per minute

78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment

labor. What are the first symptoms of water
intoxication to observe for during this
procedure?

73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days.

There is no blood in the stool. She is irritable
and her eyes are sunken. The nurse offered
fluids and the child drinks eagerly. How would
you classify Ninas illness?

A. headache and vomiting

B. a swollen tender tongue
C. a high choking voice
D. abdominal bleeding and pain

A. Some dehydration
B. Dysentery
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
74. Ninas treatment should include the
following EXCEPT:
A. Reassess the child and classify him for dehydration
B. For infants under 6 months old who are not
breastfed, give 100-200 ml clean water as well during
this period.

79. Which of the following treatment should NOT

be considered if the child has severe dengue
hemorrhagic fever?
A. use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose or gums
B. give ORS if there is skin petechiae, persistent
vomiting, and positive tourniquet test
C. give aspirin
D. prevent low blood sugar
80. In assessing the patients condition using the
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
approach strategy, the first thing that a nurse
should do is to:

A. ask what are the childs problem

B. check the patients level of consciousness
C. check for the four main symptoms
D. check for the general danger signs

A. It may affect Pap smear results

B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician
C. It does not require the use of spermicide
D. It must be removed within 24 hours

81. A child with diarrhea is observed for the

following EXCEPT:

87. The major components of the communication

process are?

A. how long the child has diarrhea

B. skin petechiae
C. presence of blood in the stool
D. signs of dehydration

A. Verbal, written, and nonverbal

B. Speaker, Listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. Message, sender, channel, Receiver and Feedback

82. The child with no dehydration needs home

treatment. Which of the following is NOT
included in the care for home management at
this case?

88. The extent of burns in children are normally

assessed and expressed in terms of:

A. give drugs every 4 hours

B. continue feeding the child
C. give the child more fluids
D. inform when to return to the health center
83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient
should be treated as individual. This ethical
principle that the patient referred to:
A. beneficence
B. nonmaleficence
C. respect for person
D. autonomy
84. When patients cannot make decisions for
themselves, the nurse advocate relies on the
ethical principle of:
A. justice and beneficence
B. fidelity and nonmaleficence
C. beneficence and nonmaleficence
D. fidelity and justice
85. Being a community health nurse, you have
the responsibility of participating in protecting
the health of people. Consider this situation:
Vendors selling bread with their bare hands.
They receive money with these hands. You do
not see them washing their hands. What should
you say or do?
A. Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have
not washed your hands
B. All of these
C. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread
tong
D. Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first
before getting the bread

A. The amount of body surface that is unburned

B. Percentages of total body surface area (TBSA)
C. How deep the deepest burns are
D. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn scale
89. The school nurse notices a child who is
wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always
hungry; has no lunch money; and is always tired.
When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he
talks of playing outside until midnight. The nurse
will suspect that this child is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence (IQ)
B. An orphan
C. A victim of child neglect
D. The victim of poverty
90. Which of the following indicates the type(s)
of acute renal failure?
A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting,
and nonhemorrhagic with and without clotting
B. One type: Acute
C. Three types: Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
D. Two types: Acute and subacute
Situation 13: Milo 16 y/o has been diagnosed to have
AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise ship:
91. Which method of transmission is common to
contract AIDS:
A. Syringe and needles
B. Body fluids
C. Sexual contact
D. Transfusion
92. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the
following:

Situation 12: The following questions refer to common

clinical encounters experienced by an entry level
nurse.

A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Retrovirus
D. Parasites

86. A female client asks the nurse about the use

of cervical cap. Which statement is correct
regarding the use of the cervical cap?

93. You are assigned in a private room of Milo.

Which procedure should be of utmost
importance:

A. Alcohol wash
B. Universal precaution
C. Washing isolation
D. Gloving technique

100. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure

to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for
rehabilitation of patient includes the provision
of:

94. What primary health teaching would you give

to Milo?

A. Terminal disinfection
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Immunization
D. Comfort measures

A. Daily exercise
B. Prevent infection
C. Reversal Isolation
D. Proper nutrition
95. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect
health worker dealing with the AIDS patients,
which among these must be done as priority?
A. Boil used syringes and needles
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound
Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She
was reported by her sister to have measles but she
was at home because of fever, upper respiratory
problem and white sports in her mouth.
96. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the
rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior
to eruption. As a nurse, your physical
examination must determine complication
especially:

Answers
Here are the answers for the exam. Unfortunately,
rationales are not given. If you need clarifications or
disputes, please direct them to the comments section
and well be glad to give you an explanation.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.

A. Otitis media
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
D. Membranous laryngitis

14.
15.

97. To render comfort measure is one of the

priorities, which includes care of the skin, eyes,
ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your
antiseptic is in some form of which one below?

17.
18.
19.

A. Water
B. Sulfur
C. Alkaline
D. Salt
98. As a public health nurse, you teach mother
and family members the prevention of
complication of measles. Which of the following
should be closely watched?

16.

20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

A. Temperature fails to drop

B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
D. Ulcerative stomatitis
99. Source of infection of measles is secretion of
nose and throat of infection person. Filterable of
measles is transmitted by:
A. Water supply
B. Droplet
C. Food ingestion
D. Sexual contact

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

D. 31
A. 1,2,4
D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
B. Progesterone
B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
A. Fetal development are felt by Mariah
D. Umbilicus
A. The size of your breast will not affect your
lactation.
D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional
requirements pregnancies related to lack of
information sources.
A. Incorporate her food preferences that are
adequately nutritious in her meal plan.
C. Thelarche
B. The vas deferens
D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal
wall.
C. Day 15
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female
client where she views sex as bad or sinful.
B. She should assess whether her cervical
mucus is thin colour, clear and watery.
D. Migraine headache
C. Five years
B. She should insert the condom before any
penile penetration
A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized
ova can be implanted on them.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because
the fallopian tubes are blocked
C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1
year
A. endometrial implants can block the fallopian
tubes
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye
is inserted
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into
the uterus or cervix
A. Experienced reduce sensory perception
A. Are more sensitive drugs
C. Decreased bladder capacity
D. Change in the mental status
D. Airway, breathing, Circulation
D. Only their own
C. Both parties involved are committed in
solving the conflict
A. The presence of a family crisis
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent
gag reflex and respiratory distress
D. Call the poison control center

36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.

C. The pill should cause a normal menstrual

period every month. It sounds like your friend has
not been taking the pills properly.
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24
hours after birth
B. Avoid intercourse for three days
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
A. Avoid covering the area of the topical
medication with the diaper
C. Effective communication
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine
pressure on leg veins
A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a
return demonstration just before discharge
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner
C. Subject Matter
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+
proteinuria or more for 3 days or the child found
to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema.
D. Identity
D. Competence
D. Left occipito-Posterior Position
A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and
Solution
B. Some dehydration
B. Some dehydration
D. Severe Persistent diarrhea
C. Give Vitamin A supplement
D. All of the above
C. Explaining to the individuals, families,
groups and community the nature of the disease
and its causation.
C. Cough of 30 days
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs
leading to shock
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1
cm square
B. Replacement of body fluids
A. Identify the myths and misconceptions
prevailing in the community
A. 80 %
D. 90 %
C. Give DT instead of DPT

65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.

C. OPV, Hep. B, DPT

A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
A. Conduct community assemblies
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under supportive care
D. Nursing process
C. Severe pneumonia
A. 40 breaths per minute or more
A. Some dehydration
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for
home treatment
75.
C. Pneumonia
76.
B. very severe febrile disease
77.
C. they do not have as many fat stored as
other infants
78.
A. headache and vomiting
79.
C. give aspirin
80.
A. ask what are the childs problem
81.
B. skin Petechiae
82.
A. give drugs every 4 hours
83.
C respect for person
84.
C. beneficence and nonmaleficence
85.
C. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/
bread tong
86.
A. It may affect Pap smear results
87.
D. Message, sender, channel, Receiver and
Feedback
88.
B. Percentages of total body surface area
(TBSA)
89.
C. A victim of child neglect
90.
C. Three types: Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
91.
C. Sexual contact
92.
C. Retrovirus
93.
B. Universal precaution
94.
B. Prevent infection
95.
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
96.
B. Bronchial pneumonia
97.
D. Salt
98.
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
99.
B. Droplet
100. D. Comfort measures