MBLEx Study Questions Exam #1

1. Which refers to the microscopic study of tissues?

A. Histology
B. Pathophysiology
C. Neuromuscular therapy
D. Reflexology
2. What is the order of the levels of organization in the body, from smallest to largest?
A. Cellular, chemical, atom, organ, systemic, body
B. Chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, systemic, earth
C. Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, systemic, body
D. Cellular, chemical, organ, tissue, body, systemic
3. What is an increase in the size of cells without cell division?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
4. What is the order of the layers of skin from most superficial to most deep?
A. Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous
B. Epidermis, arteries, dermis
C. Dermis, epidermis, bone
D. Dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
5. Which type of epithelial membrane are the pleura?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Autoimmune
D. Synovial
6. What type of cartilage is rigid and made of dense fibrous tissue, such as the cartilage in intervertebral disks?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Axial
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Elastic cartilage
7. What is the order of these major structures of the brain stem, starting with most superior / cranial?
A. Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, diencephalons
B. Midbrain, diencephalons, metastasis, pons
C. Diencephalons, mandible, medulla oblongata, pons
D. Diencephalons, midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under parasympathetic control?
A. Increased heartbeat
B. Constricted blood vessels
C. Increased peristalsis
D. Decreased secretion of
digestive juices
9. Which is a gland the size of a grape?
A. Thymus
B. Pituitary
C. Mastoid
D. Patella
10. What receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
11. What is a hormone secreted by the pyloric area of the stomach and duodenum?
A. Gastrin
B. Melatonin
C. Trigger point
D. Fissure lesion
12. Which connects two bones?
A. Tendons
B. Fascia
C. Ligaments
D. Bursa

13. What is a section of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve?

A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Reflex mechanism
C. Dermatome
D. Myotome
14. Which means closer to the trunk or point of origin?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Distal
15. Where is the ulna relative to the radius?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
16. Which actions occur in the sagittal plane?
A. Flexion and extension
B. Adduction and abduction
C. Rotation and circumduction
D. Supination and pronation
17. Where is the cervical region?
A. Head
B. Temples
C. Neck
D. Shoulders
18. Which energetic manipulation technique involves the liver meridian beginning at the great toe, ending at the chest, and being
associated with the flow of ki?
A. Acupressure
B. Shiatsu
C. Acupuncture
D. All of the above
19. When the elbow extends, what is the biceps?
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Prime mover
20. Which of these muscles originates at the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus?
A. Flexor carpi radialis
B. Palmaris longus
C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
21. Where is the medial longitudinal arch?
A. First metatarsal to fifth metatarsal
B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal
C. Calcaneus to fifth metatarsal
D. Calcaneus to malleolus
22. How many phalanges does the foot have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
23. What best describes the shape of pectoralis major?
A. Parallel
B. Convergent
C. Multi-belly
D. Bipennate
24. What movement occurs at the radioulnar joint?
A. Rotation
B. Abduction
C. Adduction
D. Elevation

25. Which muscle flexes the elbow, supinates the forearm, and flexes the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps brachii
26. Which muscle originates at the posterior iliac crest?
A. Deltoid
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Quadratus lumborum
27. Which muscle of the right forearm would be used to turn a screwdriver clockwise?
A. Brachialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Supinator
D. Gluteus minimus
28. Which muscle extends and laterally rotates the hip, and flexes the knee?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Palmaris longus
29. What type of contraction occurs when one lowers a book onto a table?
A. Concentric
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
30. Which muscle would predominantly have fast twitch fibers?
A. Erector spinae
B. Soleus
C. Deltoid
D. Transversospinalis
31. What happens in an isotonic muscle contraction?
A. The length of the muscle changes
B. The length of the muscle does not change
C. The muscle lengthens but does not shorten
D. The muscle shortens but does not lengthen
32. Which is a ball and socket joint?
A. Hip
B. Thumb
C. Knee
D. Elbow
33. What is inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon?
A. Tenosynovitis
B. Mitosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Edema
34. What is a congenital disease?
A. A disease that deteriorates
B. A disease spread by mold or yeast
C. A disease with no known cause
D. A disease present at birth
35. What refers to a disease of short duration?
A. Malignant
B. Chronic
C. Acute
D. Metastatic
36. What is the expected outcome of a disease?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Pathology
D. Etiology
37. What refers to the decreasing size of tissue?
A. Atrophy
B. Entrainment
C. Hypertrophy
D. Ambulatory

38. Which rhythms repeat themselves every 24 hours?

A. Circadian rhythms
B. Biological rhythms
C. Ultradian rhythms
D. Seasonal rhythms
39. What is the growth of a calcium deposit in soft tissues, which is always a local contraindication for massage?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Myositis ossificans
D. Shin splints
40. What are amphetamines, adrenergic medications, anticonvulsants, and antiparkinson agents?
A. Hormones
B. Anti-infectives
C. Antineoplastics
D. Central nervous system medications
41. What is the order of the five stages of acute fracture healing after hematoma formation and before remodeling?
A. Callus formation, ossification, strain
B. Cellular proliferation, callus formation, ossification
C. Ossification, cellular proliferation, callus formation
D. Callus formation, sprain,ossification
42. What results in the popping sound of the temporomandibular joint?
A. Whiplash
B. Subluxation
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
43. What kind of fracture involves an incomplete break in the bone causing it to split, common in children?
A. Greenstick fracture
B. Depressed fracture
C. Impacted fracture
D. Spondylitis
44. What is whiplash?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Cervical acceleration deceleration injury
45. What is plantar fasciitis?
A. Pain and inflammation from calcaneus to metatarsals
B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
46. What is a lateral curvature of the spine?
A. Scoliosis
B. Gibbus
C. Kyphosis
D. Lordosis
47. Which area is associated with the cephalic vein and the nerves of the brachial plexus?
A. Posterior triangle of the neck
B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Axillary area
D. Oblique plane
48. What are the sides of the anterior triangle of the neck endangerment site?
A. Mandible, clavicle, and trachea
B. SCM, mandible, and trachea
C. Frontal, sagittal, and transverse
D. Mandible, trachea, and trapezius
49. What is a reflex effect of massage?
A. Normalizing system function
B. Increased mental clarity
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
50. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system?
A. Reduces hyperthermia
B. Reduces cortisol levels
C. Dilates blood vessels
D. Reduces superficial keloid formation

51. If a client is functioning from parasympathetic nervous system dominance, what would be an appropriate initial stroke?
A. Gentle rocking
B. Kneading
C. Brisk effleurage
D. Tapotement
52. What is the external application of cold for therapeutic purposes?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Thermotherapy
D. Hunting response
53. What is the R.I.C.E.S. First Aid principle?
A. Rest, Immersion, Compression, Elevation and Sponging
B. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Stabilization
C. Rest, Ice, Compression, Energy and Sponging
D. Resistance, Immersion, Contrasting, Elevation and Sponging
54. What is the maximum temperature that the skin can tolerate for a hot bath?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius
B. 77 degrees Fahrenheit or 25 degrees Celsius
C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 46 degrees Celsius
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 degrees Celsius
55. Which is the best transition stroke?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
56. Which reduces scar tissue?
A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
57. What is a physical effect of massage?
A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms
B. Improves circulation of blood and lymph
C. Enhances removal of metabolic waste
D. All of the above
58. What is a direct physical effect of massage?
A. Reflexive effect
B. Mechanical effect
C. Psychological effect
D. All of the above
59. What is an effect of massage on the skin?
A. Reddening and warming of skin
B. Decreased activity of sweat and oil glands
C. Decreased circulation to the skin
D. All of the above
60. What has beneficial effects similar to exercise?
A. Active joint movements
B. Passive joint movements
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
61. What stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Pre-event sports massage
B. 15-minute chair massage
C. Short, invigorating massage
D. All of the above
62. Which stroke is generally applied first?
A. Vibration
B. Superficial gliding
C. Percussion
D. Friction

63. Which stroke is appropriate for treating a baseball pitcher with a sore arm?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Cross-fiber friction
D. Percussion
64. Which stroke is not a type of friction?
A. Transverse
B. Cross fiber
C. Cupping
D. Circular
65. Which stretching technique has the client stretch into resistance and apply light contraction?
A. Ballistic stretching
B. Unassisted static stretching
C. Assisted static stretching
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
66. What technique on the leg would create mobility at the hip joint?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Reiki
D. Gliding
67. Which stroke would be best for a ticklish client?
A. Light effleurage
B. Nerve strokes
C. Feather strokes
D. Compression
68. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage in the second and third trimesters?
A. Light effleurage
B. Lying prone
C. Side-lying position
D. Supine position
69. What is initially induced by cryotherapy?
A. Vasodilation
B. Rest
C. Diathermy
D. Vasoconstriction
70. What is appropriate for a client with chronic constipation?
A. Stimulate peristaltic contraction of the large intestine
B. Prescribe herbal remedies
C. Reschedule the massage
D. Perform the massage but avoid the abdomen
71. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Lengthen and stretch SCM and anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch upper trapezius and splenius
C. Lengthen and stretch adductors and iliotibial tract
D. Shorten erector spinae
72. If a client has toeing out when walking, what is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints
B. Stretch the plantar flexor muscles
C. Stretch the biceps femoris
D. Stretch the latissimus dorsi
73. What is done if a client has thoracic outlet syndrome?
A. Lengthen serratus anterior and soleus
B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and teres major
C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs, pecs, and neck extensors
D. Lengthen biceps and triceps brachii
74. What would trigger points along the psoas, quadratus lumborum, and hamstrings contribute to?
A. Brachial plexus impingement
B. Sciatica
C. Tension headaches
D. Low back pain
75. Where on the SOAP chart are referrals documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan

76. Which is outside the scope of practice of a massage therapist?

A. Postural assessment
B. Prescribing treatment
C. Manipulating soft tissues
D. Homework
77. What is the joint movement that requires the therapist to move the relaxed client?
A. Active range of motion
B. Compensation pattern
C. Passive range of motion
D. Range of motion
78. A tight and short psoas would decrease the function of which muscle?
A. Rectus abdominis
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Pectineus
D. Erector spinae
79. What would most likely make the pelvis tilt forward?
A. Tight hamstrings
B. Weak low back muscles
C. Weak abdominal muscles
D. Flexed knees
80. If a client has lordotic posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong?
A. Anterior abdominals
B. Hamstrings
C. Low back
D. Medial rotators of hip
81. If a client complains of tension headaches and tight muscles in the back of the neck, what posture is most likely the cause?
A. Lordotic posture
B. Flat back
C. Flexed knees
D. Forward head and round upper back
82. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens with a low longitudinal arch?
A. Flat foot
B. Slue-footed
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Calluses under ball of foot
83. Which are short and strong with the right hip adducted and medially rotated and left hip abducted?
A. Right lateral trunk muscles, right hip adductors and left hip abductors
B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior
C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus
D. All of the above
84. What is the appropriate incline for the back of a chair for good alignment in sitting posture?
A. 0 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
85. How does a therapist test the left arm flexors?
A. Client holds left arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure
B. Client holds right arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure
C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure
D. Client holds right arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure
86. What should be obtained during the client consultation?
A. Availability for next appointment
B. Payment in cash
C. Informed consent
D. Referrals
87. What type of assessment involves temperature, texture, tenderness, and tone?
A. Palpation
B. Gait
C. Needs
D. Functional
88. What is an acceleration/deceleration injury to the head and neck?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Migraine
C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Whiplash

89. What is tennis elbow?

A. Trigger finger
B. Lateral epicondylitis
C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Golfer's elbow
90. What is an increase in the normal thoracic kyphotic curve?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Iliotibial band contracture
91. What light massage technique did Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder develop?
A. Neuromuscular therapy
B. Manual lymph drainage
C. Reflexology
D. Ayurveda
92. What type of sports massage is used for severe injuries?
A. Pre-event massage
B. Recovery massage
C. Chair massage
D. Rehabilitation massage
93. Who developed Touch for Health?
A. Dr. Milton Trager
B. Dr. Ida Rolf
C. Dr. John Thie
D. Per Henrik Ling
94. Which massage system uses effleurage, petrissage, vibration, friction, and tapotement?
A. Swedish
B. German
C. French and English
D. All of the above
95. What involves an energy flow along a nerve tract?
A. Countertransference
B. Proprioceptor
C. Synergist
D. Meridians or channels
96. Which massage system uses acupressure?
A. Chinese and Japanese
B. Swedish
C. Greek
D. Indian and Hindu
97. What are service limits and boundaries as determined by legal, educational, competency, and accountability factors?
A. Code of ethics
B. Informed consent
C. Scope of practice
D. Deductions
98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics?
A. Informed consent
B. Misleading claims
C. Right of refusal
D. Contract
99. What is sexual touch from a professional bodyworker to a client considered?
A. Appropriate
B. Erotic
C. Hostile
D. Touch technique
100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics?
A. Exploiting the power differential
B. Working on a minor with parental consent
C. Informed consent violations
D. Misleading claims
101. What is in the therapeutic relationship?
A. Confidentiality
B. Scope of practice
C. Client-centered actions and words
D. All of the above

102. What are lines that separate, limits, barriers, borders, and edges?
A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries
C. Medical advice
D. None of the above
103. What is needed before working on a minor?
A. Psychological counseling
B. Parental consent
C. Contract
D. None of the above
104. What is name-dropping?
A. Confidentiality violation
B. Practicing beyond scope of practice
C. Violation of law
D. None of the above
105. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a public place?
A. Ask how the last massage was
B. Do not bring up anything about the massage
C. Ask when the therapist can expect payment
D. None of the above
106. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop taking their prescription medication now?
A. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider
B. Tell the client it is OK to stop taking the medication
C. Answer A and B are correct
D. None of the above
107. Massaging a family member involves what type of issue?
A. Financial impropriety
B. Scope of practice
C. Dual relationship
D. None of the above
108. Who licenses?
A. The government
B. Associations
C. Answer A and B are correct
D. None of the above
109. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics?
A. Client relationships
B. Professionalism
C. Tax
D. Scope of practice
110. What is appropriate for the therapist to discuss with the client?
A. Finances
B. Gossip
C. Personal issues
D. That the therapist has a cold
111. What is the most appropriate response if a client asks to be touched in a sexual manner?
A. Act as if nothing happened
B. Call 911
C. Remain professional and explain the services
D. Provide a referral
112. What is inappropriate activity during a massage session that would be considered misconduct
involving sexual contact?
A. Touching breasts for nontherapeutic purposes
B. Intercourse
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above
113. A therapist having discomfort in what area would indicate the massage table is probably too high?
A. Upper back
B. Arms
C. Shoulders
D. All of the above

114. What are the main reasons for using lubricants?

A. Reduce risk of disease
B. Reduce friction and increase comfort
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation
115. Which is a noninfectious disease?
A. Athlete's foot
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis B
D. Diabetes
116. Which first aid kit item would be used to clean a wound?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
117. What uses leverage and structural alignment to prevent fatigue?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
C. Laterally recumbent
D. Symmetric
118. Which stance is best for deep effleurage?
A. Asymmetric
B. Seated
C. Laterally recumbent
D. Symmetric
119. What are the main reasons for draping?
A. Reduce risk and prevent disease
B. Reduce friction and increase comfort
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation
120. Which vitamin is synthesized by ultraviolet radiation?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Saw palmetto
121. What are advantages of self-employment?
A. Can focus on massage
B. Can set own schedule
C. Steady income
D. All of the above
122. What would be used as a road map to achieve goals?
A. Business plan
B. Resume
C. Marketing material
D. Financial records
123. What is barter income?
A. Reportable to the IRS
B. Tax deductible
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
124. Which protects against an adverse reaction to a lotion?
A. General liability insurance
B. Product liability insurance
C. Professional liability insurance
D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters
125. What is deductible as a business expense?
A. Royalties
B. Barter income
C. Tips
D. Continuing education expenses