SBI CLERKS

MODEL PAPER
GENERAL AWARENESS

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The term Smart Money refers to _____

(1)Foreign currency
(2)Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4)Travelers cheque
(5) Credit Cards
Which actor won the Academy Award for best supporing Actor for 2014 (Oscar Award)
1) Jared Leto
2) Emmanuel Lubezki
3) Mathew Mcconaveghey
4) Alfonso Cuaron5) None
Who has been appointed as new Chief of Air staff of the Indian Air Force ?
1)Arjan Singh
2)Pradeep Vasant naik
3) ohit Aggarwal
4) Arup Raha
5) None
The RBI takes which of the following measures when it intends to ease th liquidity
crunch in the country ?
(A) It prints and supplies additional currency notes in the market
(B) It takes steps to increase the flow of foreign direct investment
(C) It reduces SLR and CRR
(1)only A
(2)only B
(3)only C
(4)only A and B
(5) All A,B and C
With which among the following neighbours. India recently conducted the Ex-surya
kiran Drills VI Joint Military excercise ?
1) srilanka
2) Bangladesh 3) Nepal
4) Bhutan
5) None
The RBI on Monday (March 3, 2014) granted an additional nine months for the public
to exchange currency notes printed before including, Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000
denominations and set a deadline of January 1, 2015.
1) 2003
2) 2004
3) 2005
4) 2006
5) None
The 64th National Basket ball Championship concluded on 5 March 2014 at the
Thyagaraj Indoor Stadium in New Delhi. Which team on the mens title ?
1) Chhattisgarh
2) Tamilnadu
3) Karnataka
4) Indian Railways
5) None
Which prominent sports associatiion of India was terminated by the recognized world
body of this sport on 4th march 2014 ?
(1)Swimming pools
(2) Bridge rooms
(3) Squash courts
(4) Boxing
(5) None
Which chinse city came to limelight on 1st march 2014 due to a violent attack by
terrorists of separatist group who murdered 29 persons by stabbing them ?
(1) Toulouse (France)
(2) Kunming (China)
(3) Nungua (Ghana)
(4) Binalud (Iran)
(5) None
Approximately, what fraction of India;s GDP is shared by the Micro, small and Medium
enterprises (MSME) sector ?
(1)6%
(2)8%
(3)10%
(4)4%
(5) None
Which among the following countries has finished top in the medal tally in the recently
concluded sochi winter olympics ?
(1)China
(2)USA
(3) Russia
(4) Japan
(5) None
The International wool mark prize is an award given in which of the following fields.
(1)Fashion Design
(2)Textile Industry
(3) Handi crafts
(4) Small scale industry
(5) None

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Who was slected for the 23rd GD Birla Award for Scientific research for the year 2013 ?
1) Rajehs Prahlad
2) Monash Khiyati
3) Rajesh Gopakumar
4) Puran Chand Pradhan
5) None
As per the data in FDI released by department of Industrial policy and promotion
(DIPP) on 20 March 2014, the foreign direct investment (FDI) grew in Jan 2014 by
what percent to 2.18 billion dollar compared to jan 2013 ?
1) 0.98%
2) 1.08%
3) 1.28%
4) 1.50%
5) None
The RBI issued notice to banks on 19 March 2014 to take measure to counter the
threat expected to arise from discount inuation of the support from microsoft of which
software from 8 April 2014 ?
1) Windows NT 2) Window XP 3) Winodws 7
4) Windows 8
5) None
Who among the following has own the National Billiards championship 2014 ?
(1)Pankaj Advani
(2) Sourav Kothari
(3) Ashok kumar
(4)Sourav Goshal
(5) None
Which team won the 68th edition of National Football championship for the Santosh
Trophy on 9 March 2014 ?
1) Nagaland
2) Mizoram
3)East Bengal
4) Goa
5) Pune
Who is the author of book Beyond the Lines An Autobiography ?
(1)Kuldip Nayar(2) Kushwant Singh
(3) General J.J.Singh
(4) Sharad pawar
(5) None
Which of the following is NOT a banking related term ?
(1)SME Finnce
(2)Overdraft
(3) Drawing power
(4) Sanctioning Authority
(5) Equinox
Who among the following is the author of the controversial book the Hindus An
Alternative History ?
(1) Christopher Minkowski
(2) Wendy Doniger
(3) Stanley wolpert
(4) Thomas Trautmann
(5) None
Who among the following has been named best woman foot baller of the year (2013)
at the Indian Sports awards ?
(1)Usha Rani Das
(2)Tikina Samal
(3)Ansha
(4) Oinam Bembem Devi
(5) None
As we know the Government is paying much attention to Micro Finance these days.
Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance ?
(1)Insurance for life
(2)Self Helpt Groups
(3) letter of credit
(4)Investments in mutural funds (5) None
At present who is prime Minister of Nepal ?
(1) Khil raj Ragmi
(2) Baburam battarai
(3) Sushil Koirala
(4) Thalanath khanal
(5) None
Which of the following organizations/agencies frame the monetary and credit policy
which is followed by all banks in India ?
(1) Indians Bank Association (2)RBI
(3) Govt of India
(3) SEBI
(5) None
The Central Board of Direct Taxes has made e-filling of income tax returns mandatory
for all assesses whose annual earnings exceed..
(1) Rs. 5 lakh during the fiscal (2) Rs. 10 lakh during the fiscal
(3) Rs. 15 lakh during the fiscal(4) Rs. 20 lakh during the fiscal
(5) None
World Autism Awareness Day is celebrated on?
1)1 April
2) 2 April
3) 3 April
4) 4 April
5) None
Which of the following rates is not decided by the RBI?
1) CRR
2) Prime Lending Rate
3) Reverse Repo Rate
4) Repo Rate
5) Bank Rate
Which among the following states has launched the Arogya Vani for helath ?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Karnataka
4) Gujarat
5) Asom
Antyodaya scheme is meant to help the
1) Muslims
2) Minorities
3) Poorest of the poor section of the society
4) Harijans
5) None

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Ponzi schemes refers to as a fraudulent invement operation that pay return to its
investors from
A. their own money
B. the money paid by investors.
C. profit earned by the individuals
D. profit earned by organization running the operation
1) A and B
2) A and C
3) C and D
4) B and D
5) None
Till what amount are deposits of public in NBFCs insured?
1) Rs. 1 lakh
2)Rs. 50,000
3) Not insured 4) None
5) All of these
Bank assurance is
1) an insurance scneme co insure bank deposits
2) an insurance scheme to insure bank advances
3) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance products
4) a bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
5) None
As per RBI guidelines, under NEFT. the maximum amount per transaction for cashbased remittances is limited to
1) Rs 2.00.000 2) Rs. 25.000
3) Rs. 50,00
4) No Limit
5) None
What is CRISIL ?
1) A multinational bank
2) A stock exchange
3) An insurance company
4) A credit rating agency
5) None
Which of the following statements is not correct about NBFCs?
1) An NBFC cannot accept demand deposits
2) These institutions trade in the capital market in a variety of assets and liabilities
3) An NBFC can issue cheques drawn on itself
4) Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
is not available for NBFC depositors
5) NBFIs act as brokers of loanable funds and in this capacity they intermediate
between the ultimate saver .and the ultimate investor
The term Moral Suasion refers to
1) the bankers duty of secrecy as regards the affairs and accounts of his customers.
2) moral duty of a borrower to deal with only one bank
3) moral duty of a borrower to deal with more banks
4) the advice given by Reserve Bank to banks/financial institutions in the matter of
their lending and other operations with the objective that they might implement or
follow
5) All of the above
A MICR demand draft may be issued for maximum amount of
1) Rs. 20 lakh
2) Rs. 5 lakh
3) Rs. 1 lakh
4) Below Rs. 10 lakh
5) No maximum limit
RBI has issued a notification making it mandatory for all demond drafts of and above
to be account payee only ___
1) Rs. 10,000 2) Rs. 20,000 3) Rs. 30,000
4) Rs. 40,000
5) Rs. 50,000
For lending to the priority sector, the RBI has demanded all RRBs to increase the
limit for home loans from Rs. 5 lakh to ___
1) Rs. 10 lakh 2) Rs.15 lakh 3) Rs.20 Lakh
4) Rs. 12 lakh
5) Rs. 18 lakh
Which of the following is not a credit rating agency ?
1) CARE
2) ICRA
3) Dow Jones
4) CRISIL
5) SMERA

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GENERAL ENGLISH

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-52): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to
locate them while answering some of the questions.
In the second week of August 1998, just a few days after the incidents of bombing
the US embassies in Nairobi and Dar-es-Salaam, a high-powered, brain-storming
session was held near Washington D.C., to discuss various aspects of terrorism. The
meeting was attended by ten of Americas leading experts in various fields such as
germ and chemical warfare, public health, disease control and also by the doctors
and the law-enforcing officers. Being asked to describe the horror of possible bioattack, one of the experts narrated the following gloomy scenario.
A culprit in a crowded business centre or in a busy shopping mall of a town
empties a test tube containing some fluid, which in turn creates an unseen cloud of
germ of a dreaded disease like anthrax capable of inflicting a horrible death within 5
days on any one who inhales it. At first 500, or so victims feel that they have mild
influenza which may recede after a day or two. Then the symptoms return again and
their lungs start filling with fluid. They rush to local hospitals for treatment, but the
panic-stricken people may find that the medicare services run quickly out of drugs
due to excessive demand. But no one would be able to realise that a terrorist attack
has occurred. One cannot deny the possibility that the germ involved would be of
contagious variety capable of causing an epidermic. The meeting concluded that such
attacks, apart from causing immediate human tragedy, would have dire long-term
effects on the political and social fabric of a country by way of ending peoples trust on
the competence of the government.
The experts also said that the bombs used in Kenya and Tanzania were of the
old-fashion variety and involved quantities of high explosives, but new terrorism will
prove to be more deadly and probably more elusive than hijacking an aeroplane or a
gelignite of previous decades. According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on
political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto - to overthrow a
colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about
planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality.
Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political
terrorist? want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. Old terrorism
sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe
that the world has gone beyond redemption, he added.
Hoffman says, New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its
short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of
religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular.
Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a government and
see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum
amount of pain on the victim.
In the context of the passage,, the culprits act of emptying a test tube containing
some fluid can be classified as
1) a terrorist attack
2) an epidemic of a dreaded disease
3) a natural calamity
4) panic created by an imaginary event
5) None
In what way would the new terrorism be different from that of the earlier years ?
A. More dangerous and less baffling
B. More hazardous for victims
C. Less complicated for terrorists
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 3) A and B only 4) All the three
5) None

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What was the immediate provocation for the meeting held in August 1998?
1) the insistence of Americas leading
2) the horrors of possible bio-attacks
3) a culprits heinous act of spreading germs
4) peoples lack of trust in the government
5) None
What could be the probable consequences of bio-attacks, as mentioned in the passage ?
A. several deaths
B. political turmoil
C. social unrest
1) A only
2) B only
3) Conly
4) A and B only 5) All the three
The authors purpose of writing the above passage seems to explain
1) the methods of containing terrorism
2) the socio-political turmoil in African countries
3) the deadly strategies adopted by modern terrorists
4) reasons for killing innocent people
5) the salient features of terrorism of yester years
According to the author of the passage, the toot cause of terrorism is
A. religious fanatism
B. socio-political changes in countries
C. the enormous population growth
1) A only
2) B only
3) Conly
4) A and B only 5) All the three
The phrase such attacks, as mentioned in the last sentence of the second paragraph,
refers to
1) the onslaught of an epidemic as a natural calamity
2) bio-attack on political people in the government
3) attack aimed at damaging the reputation of the government
4) bio-attack monoeuvred by unscrupulous elements
5) None
The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to Hoffman, was to
1) plant bombs to kill innocent people
2) remove colonial power or capitalist system
3) make people realise the incompetence of the government
4) give a setback to socio-political order
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 49-50) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
gloomy
1) discouraging 2) disgusting
3) bright
4) tragic
5) versatile
cacophonous
1) loud
2) melodious
3) sonorous
4) harsh
5) distant
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-52): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
perpetrators
1) opponents 2) followers
3) sympathisers 4) leaders
5) monoeuvrers
elusive
1) harmful
2) fatal
3) destructive
4) baffling
5) obstructing
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 53-57): Below each sentence has given four possible substitutions
for the bold part. If one of them 1) , 2) , 3) or 4) is better than the underlined part,
indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter 1) , 2) ,
3) or 4) . If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate 5) as your
response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a No improvement response will be signified by
the letter 5) .
Errors may be in grammar, appropriate word usage or idioms. There may be a necessary
word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
It was my business to cross the bridge to explore the bridgehead and to find out the
extent to which the enemy had advanced.
1) how much
2) the extent where
3) the point where
4) limit at which
5) No improvement

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The world is becoming increasingly polarised between the rich and the poor.
1) among rich
2) around the rich
3) in between the rich
4) amid rich persons
5) No improvement
I laid all the facts before him so that he could make his own Judgement.
1) laid all the facts in front of him
2) lay all the facts before him
3) lay all the facts in front of him
4) did I lay all the facts before his
5) No improvement
If only she had told me about her problem I would have helped her.
1) would help
2) could help
3) had helped
4) would not help
5) No improvement
Apollo was worshipped as long as the Roman Empire continued.
1) was continued
2) ruled
3) lasted
4) did not exists
5) No improvement
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-62): In each question below a sentence with four words printed
in bold type is given. These are indicated as 1) , 2) , 3) and 4) . One of these four words
may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your
answer. If all he four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of
the sentence, mark 5) i.e. All Correctas your answer.
His derogatory (1)/remark humiliated (2)/me, but I kept my cool (3)/and didnt
allow my work to be affected (4)/by it. All Correct.(5)
The suspected (1)/criminals (2)/who were accused (3)/of snatching ladies necklesses
(4)/were finally booked. All Correct. (5)
The objective (1)/of the programme (2)/is to entertain (3)/the spectators (4)/All
Correct.(5)
Enforcement of laws and clean and efficiency(1)/administration are fundamental(2)/
functions of the government machinery(3)/known as bureaucracy (4)/All Correct.(5)
The quantification (1)/of intellectual property is more complicating (2)/than most
pricing because today it is relatively (3)/inexpensive (4)/to make copies of most
intellectual property. All Correct.(5)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-67): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions
given below them.
(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at once truly raise our
productivity or merely help us spin our wheels faster?
(B) More important, theyre exploring what can be done about it-how we can work
smarter, live smarter and put our beloved gadgets back in their proper place, with us
running them, not the other way around.
(C) The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and communicate so readily
also disrupt our work, our thoughts and what little is left of our private lives.
(D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and the economic costs of
the interrupted life - in dollars, productivity and dysfunction.
(E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and metnal channel switching taking on our
ability to think clearly work effectively and function as healthy human beings?
(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts and informationtechnology researchers have begun to explore those questions in detail.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F

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Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-72): In each of these questions, each sentence has four bold
words or phrases marked 1) , 2) , 3) and 4). Choose one word or phrase that must be
changed for the sentence to be correct. If all the four world or phrases are gramatically
correct in the context of sentence, mark (5) i.e., No error as your answer.
Engines used (1)/in space shuttles are much larger (2)/and more strong (3)/than the
ones used (4)/in jet planes. No error.(5)
Banglore is a beautiful city (1)/which in (2)/people have successfully blended (3)/the
modem with (4)/the traditional. No error.(5)
The bus(1)/was hired (2)/by (3)/the ladies for its picnic (4)/No error.(5)
The ways of (1)/travelling has changed (2)/dramatically since (3)/the late nineteenth
century (4)/No error.(5)
Usually (1)/the climate in mountainous areas becomes much(2)/windy(3)/at higher
(4)/altitudes.No error.(5)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more 73 in governance.
The Prime Ministers announcement that his Government is 74 drafting legislation to
establish the citizens right to information is indeed welcome . Though the talk on the
right to information is not new, we may 75 the bill to be brought early this time. The
previous Government had set up a high-level committee to prepare a draft bill. But
nothing has been heard about the matter since. 76 the committee did quite some
work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be 77
further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign judge once said, while 78 the
unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know
that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the 79 to
provide them with answers, 80 of authority, or of public finances, for personal or
party ends is less likely to happen.
1) strictness
2) rudeness
3) leniency
4) economy
5) transparency
1) personally 2) busy
3) not
4) reluctantly
5) absolutely
1) expect
2) wait
3) try
4) frustrate
5) appeal
1) even
2) as
3) because
4) until
5) though
1) found
2) expected
3) delayed
4) looked
5) longed
1) nurturing
2) criticising
3) demanding
4) appreciating 5) upholding
1) pretention 2) affect
3) substance
4) obligation
5) property
1) misuse
2) governance
3) dishonour
4) curbing
5) breach

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NUMERICAL ABILITY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-90): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?

81.
82.
83.

3
4
5
of
of
of 1015 = ?
5
7
12

1) 220
2) 340
1.5 x 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1
1) 0.28
2) 0.27
2
1.5 x 0.0225 = ?
1) 0.3375
2) 3.275

3) 240

4) 145

5) None

3) 025

4) 0.235

5) None

3) 32.75

4) 0.0375

5) None

86.
87.
88.

89.

4) 14.80

5) None

3) 23

4) 46

5) None

3) 245

4) 236.50

5) None

3) 3.3

4) 4.7

5) None

3) 43974

4) 43576

5) None

7
3
1
7 1 ?
11 11 2
10
11

2) 14

6
11

3) 14

9
11

4) 10

17
22

5) None

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1) 13
90.

3) 13.90

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0.0289 12 1.5 = ?
1) 1.36
2) 2.06
125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500
1) 32
2) 56
45% of 750-25% of 480 = ?
1) 216
2) 217.50
758.5 + 75 3.8 = 75 ?
1) 4.9
2) 3.6
39798 + 3798 + 378 = ?
1) 49532
2) 43984

5) Other than those given as options

1080 12 10 = ?
1) 900
2) 90
3) 120
4) 12
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs.91-95): Study the following chart to answer the questions given
below:

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Villages

% population below poverty

line
45
52
38
58
46
49
51

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B
C
D
E
F
G

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Proportion of population of seven villages in 1995

91.

A
13%

G
15%

B
16%

F
13%

C
8%

E
18%

D
17%

In 1996, the population of villages A as well asB is increased by 10% from the year
1995. If the population of village A in 1995 was 5000 and the percentage of population
below poverty line in 1996 remains same as in 1995, find approximately the population
of village B below poverty, line in 1996.
1) 4000
2) 45000
3) 2500
4) 3500
5) None
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State
Year
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998

99.
100.

B
Qual.
540
720
650
920
850

Sel.
60
84
70
86
90

C
Qual.
350
525
400
560
640

App.
5200
6500
4800
7400
7500

Sel.
55
65
48
70
82

App.
7100
6800
5600
7500
4800

D
Qual.
650
600
620
800
500

Sel.
75
70
85
65
48

App
6400
8200
7500
7800
8000

E
Qual
700
680
720
810
850

Sel.
75
85
78
82
94

What is the average number of candidates appeared over the years for State B ?
1) 8900
2) 7900
3) 7400
4) 8100
5) None
What approximately is the percentage of total number of candidates selected to the
total number of candidates qualified for all the five states together during the year
1996?
1) 11%
2) 15%
3) 12%
4) 16%
5) None
For which of the following years is the percentage of candidates selected over the
number of candidates qualified the highest for state C ?
1) 1997
2) 1995
3) 1996
4) 1994
5) None
For which of the following states the average number of candidates selected over the
years is the maximum ?
1) A
2) E
3) C
4) D
5) None
For which of the following states is the peTcentage of candidates qualified to appeared
the highest during the year 1997?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) None
The number zero (0) is surrounded by the same 2-digit number on both (left and
right) the sides; for example, 25025, 67067, etc. The largest number that always divides
such a number is
1) 7
2) 11
3) 13
4) 1001
5) None
The number of 3-digit number exactly divisible by 5 is
1) 181
2) 180
3) 179
4) 199
5) None
If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest in 12 years, what would
be the rate of interest per annum ?

101.

App.
6400
7800
7000
8800
9500

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Sel.
75
60
80
75
70

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A
Qual.
600
485
950
850
800

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96.

App.
4500
5700
8500
7200
9000

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94.

ha

93.

If in 1997 the population of village D is increased by 10% and the population of village
G is reduced by 5% from 1995 and the population of village G in 1995 was 9000,
what is the total population of villages D and G in 1997?
1) 19770
2) 19200
3) 18770
4) 19870
5) None
If in 1995 the total population of the seven villages together was 55,000 approximately,
what will be population of village F in that year below poverty line ?
1) 3000
2) 2500
3) 4000
4) 3500
5) None
If the population ofvillageC below poverty line in 1995 was 1520, what was the
population of village Fin 1995 ?
1) 4000
2) 6000
3) 6500
4) 4800
5) None
The population ofvillageC is 2000 in 1995. What will be the ratio of population of
village C below poverty line to that of the village E below poverty line in that year ?
1) 207:76
2) 76:207
3) 152:207
4) Data inadequate
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions
given below it.

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92.

102.

103.

1) 8

1
3

2) 10

3) 12

4) 14

5) None

104. Three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount to a single discount of
1) 36.28%
2) 34.68%
3) 37%
4) 32.68%
5) None
105. The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last year. This year, the price
of A is increased by 25% and that ofBbyRs 50000. If their prices are now in the ratio
9 :10, the price of A last year was
1) Rs 3,60,000 2) Rs 4,50,000 3) Rs 4,80,000 4) Rs 5,00,000
5) None

10609 793.81 = ?

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106. During a journey of 80 km a train covers first 60km with a speed of 40 km/h and
completes the remaining distance with a Speed of 20 km/h. What is the average
speed of the train during the whole journey?
1) 30 km/h
2) 32 km/h
3) 36 km/h
4) 40 km/h
5) None
107. An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to
reach its destination 1500 km away in time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/
h from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
1) 1000 km/h 2) 750 km/h
3) 850 km/h
4) 650 km/h
5) None
108. A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs 3,600 in 40 annual instalments which form an
AR When 30 of the instalments are paid, he dies leaving one-third of the debt unpaid.
Find the value of the first instalment.
1) 55
2) 53
3) 51
4) 49
5) None
109. A tank 30 m long, 20 m wide and 12 m deep is dug.in a field 500 m long and 30 m
wide. By how much will the level of the field rise, if the earth dug out of the tank is
evenly spread over the field?
1) 0.33 m
2) 0.5 m
3) 0.25 m
4) 0.4 m
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 110-114) : Find the next term in the given series in each of the
questions below.
110. 198,194,185,169,....
1) 136
2) 144
3) 9
4) 92
5) None
111. 6,9,7,10,8,11,....
1) 12
2) 13
3) 9
4) 14
5) None
112. 5,6,8,9,11,....
1) 15
2) 12
3) 17
4) 20
5) None
113. 35,30,25,20,15,10,....
1) 15
2) 10
3) 5
4) 2
5) None
114. 0,2,6,12,20,.....
1) 38
2) 30
3) 45
4) 60
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 115-120): Find out the approximate value which should replace
the question mark (?) in the following questions. (You are not expected to find out the
exact value).

1) 9200
2) 81973
2 3 ?
116. [[(13) ] ] = 2197
1
3

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1) 3

2)

3) 8553.3

4) 8682.7

5) None

3) 0.5

4) 4

5) None

4) 241

5) None

4) 18102

5) None

4) 17

5) None

4) 8200

5) None

117. 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = ?

1) 253
2) 231
3) 211
118. (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = ?
1) 10812
2) 18012
3) 10910
119. 8959 ? 4 5 = 26.35
1) 15
2) 25
3) 30
120. 3739 + 164 x 27 = ?
1) 10540
2) 4000
3) 8400

TEST OF REASONING
121. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to
1) Cow
2) Buffalo
3) Camel
4) Zebra
5) None
122. Which one is different from the remaining three?
1) GIJK
2) DFGH
3) CEFG
4) ABCD
5) None
123. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has
as many letters in the same sequence between them in the word as in the english
alphabet ?
1) Four
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None
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124. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are reversed, then the last
three letters are added and then the remaining letters are reversed and added, then
which letter will be exactly in the middle. ?
1) H
2) N
3) R
4) S
5) None
125. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right.
When they interchange their places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth
from the left. Then, what will-be Monas Position from the right?
1) 4th
2) 14th
3) 8th
4) 15th
5) None
126. In a certain coding system, RBM STD BRO PUS means the cat is beautiful. TNH PUS
DIM STD means the dog is brown. PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS means the dog has the
cat. What is the code for has ?
1) CUS
2) BRO
3) DIM
4) STD
5) None
127. If NAXAL1TE is written in a certain code as LYVYJGRC how will INTEGRATE be written
in the same code ?
1) LGRECYPRC 2) GLRCEPYRC 3) PYWMNOPQR 4) BLACKHOLE 5) None
128. If light is called morning, morning is called dark, dark is called night, night is
called sunshine and sunshine is called dusk, when do we sleep ?
1) Dusk
2) Dark
3) Night
4) Sunshine
5) None
129. X told-Y, Though I am the son of your father, you are not my brother. How is X related
to Y ?
1) Sister
2) Son
3) Daughter
4) Father
5) None
130. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the north.
When the post offfice was 100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved
50 metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla. He then moved in the same direction
for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many metres away he
was now . from the post office?
1) 0
2) 150
3) 90
4) 100
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-135): In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly know facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
131. Statement: A. Some boys are rains.
B. All rains are clouds.
C. Some clouds are cars.
Conclusions : I. Some clouds are boys.
II. Some cars are boys.
III. Some cars are rains.
IV. Some rains are boys
1) Only II follows
2) Only IV follows
3) Only I follows
4) Both I and IV follow
5) None
132. Statement:
A. All bricks are flowers.
B. Some houses are flowers.
C. All pens are houses.
Conclusions : I. Some houses are bricks.
II. Some pens are flowers.
III. Some flowers are bricks.
IV. No pen is flower.
1) Only either II or IV and III follow
2) Only either II or IV and I follow
3) Only either I or II and IV follow
4) Either.II or IV follow 5) None
133. Statement:
A. All lions are ducks.
B. No duck is a horse.
C. All horses are fruits.
Conclusions: I. No lion is a horse.
II. Some fruits are horses.
III. Some ducks are lions.
IV. Some lions are horses.
1) All follows
2) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow
3) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow
4) Neither I nor II follow
5) None
11

134. Statements:

139.

140.

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137.

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135.

A. Some stones are bricks.

B. All plants are stones.
C. No flower is a plant.
Conclusions : I. No flower is a stone.
II. Some bricks are plants.
III. No bricks are plants,
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only III follows
4) Either II or III follows
5) None
Statements:
A. All tigers are jungles.
B. No jungle is a bird.
C. Some birds are rains.
Conclusions: I. No rain is a jungle.
II. Some rains arejungles.
III. No bird is a tiger.
1) Only either II or III follows
2) Only I and II follow
3) Only either I or II and III follow
4) Neither II nor III follow
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-140): Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions that follow.
(I) M, N, P, Q, S and T are six members of a group in which there are three female
members. Females work in three departments -Accounts, Administration and
Personnel and sit in three different floors - 1st, 2nd and 3rd. Persons working in the
same department are not on the same floor. On each floor, two persons work.
(II) No two ladies, work in the same department or on the same floor. N and S work in
the same department but not in personnel. Q works in Administration. S and M are
on the 1st and 3rd floors respectively and work in the same department. Q, a lady,
does not work on 2nd floor. P, a man, works on the 1st floor.
Which of the following groups of persons is females ?
1) SQT
2) QMT
3) QPT
4) Data inadequate
5) None
T works in which department ?
1) Accounts
2) Administration
3) Personnel
4) Accounts or Personnel
5) None
Which of the following pairs of persons work on IInd floor?
1) PT
2) SM
3) QN
4) Data inadequate
5) None
If T is transferred to Accounts and S is transferred to Administration, who is to be
transferred to Personnel to maintain the original distribution of females on each floor ?
1) P
2) N
3) Q
4) Data inadequate
5) None
Which of the following pairs of persons works in Administration ?
1) QP
2) QN
3) SP
4) Data inadequate
5) None
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 141-145): In each of these questions a group of letters is given
followed by four combinations ofnumbers codes lettered 1) , 2) , 3) and 4) . The group
of letters is to be coded with the numbers codes and the condition given below. The
serial number of the number combination. Which correctly represents the letter
group, is your answer.

Letters
Numbers Codes

D
3

J
9

K
7

Q
6

H
4

V
8

N
2

E
1

B
5

A
0

Conditions : If the first or the last letter or both in the letter group is /are a vowel
then the same is/are to be coded by symbol #.
141. EHNDJV
1) #42389
2) 142398
3) #42398
4) 14239#
5) None
142. KQDJNH
1) 763942
2) 736924
3) #36924
4) #63924
5) None

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143. AJNVQE
1) #9286#
2) 09286#
3) #92861
4) 092861
5) None
144. QHJVND
1) 648923
2) 649823
3) #49823
4) 64892#
5) None
145. JKEDHA
1) 97#34#
2) 971340
3) 971430
4) 97134#
5) None
DIRECTIONS : (Qs. 146-150): In the questions given below, certain symbols are
used with the following meaning:
A @ B means A is greater than B.
A + B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
A B means A is smaller than B
A B meansA is either smaller than or equal to B.
A $ B means A is equal to B
Now in each of the following questions assuming the giveu statements to be true
find which of the two conclusions 1 and II given below them is /are definitely true.
Give answe:
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either I or II is true.
4) if neither 1 nor II are true.
5) if both I and II are true.
146. Statements:
T $ G, K. @ P, M T, P + M
Conclusions: I. K@
II.G$P
147. Statements:
R + N, S B, A @ B $ A
Conclusions: I. S $ N
II. A @ N
148. Statements:
G $ K F @ J. K + Q, Q + F
Conclusions: I. K $ F
II. F K.
149. Statements:
W @ S. K Z, U + H W, S $ K
Conclusions: I. U @ K
II. Z @ S
150. Statements:
G $ E, D K, E S, K x G

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151.

Conclusions: I. S @ D
II. D E
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 151-155): These questions are based on the following letter/
number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
3 B E 4 # W 9 A 2 J K * 1 5 U Q R7 F @ H 16 $ V
How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
vowel but not immediately followed by a consonant ?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
61 : E4::A9 : ?
1) 7F
2) F@
3) R7
4) 7R
5) None
How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number ?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Which element is sixth to the right of eleventh from the right end ?
1) #
2) @
3) 1
4) H
5) None
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
the group?
1) W9#
2) BE3
3) 2 J A
4) HI@
5) RQ7

152.
153.

154.
155.

13

157.
158.
159.
160.

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156.

Directions (Q. 156-160) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions \given below.
P, A, D, Q, T, M, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is third to
the left of T who is fifth to the right of P. A is third to the right of B who is second to the
right of D, Q is second to the left of M.
Who is to the immediate right of D?
(1)M.
(2)Q
(3)B
(4) Data inadequate (5) None
Who is second to the right of M?
(1) B
(2) R
(3)T
(4)Q
(5) None
Who is second to the left of D?
(1)A
(2)Q
(3)B
(4) P
(5) Data inadequate
Who is third to the right of P ?
(1) D
(2) M
(3) R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None
Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A ?
(1)PT
(2)PB
(3)TQ
(4)PD
(5) None

MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

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161. Marketing in banks is defined as

1) Negotiable Instruments Act 2) Banking Regulation Act
3) Reserve Bank of India Act
4) Companies Act
5) None
162. Value-added services means
1) giving full value for money
2) better value for better price
3) costlier service
4) additional service
5) All of these
163. Marketing is not required for which one of the following products?
1) Corporate Loans
2) Export Business
3) Import Business
4) Credit Card Business
5) None
164. The traditional marketing style involves
1) Telemarketing
2) Digital Marketing
3) Indirect Marketing
4) Direct Marketing
5) All of these
165. Motivation means
1) inspiring employees to perform better
2) better communication skills
3) sales coaching
4) market research 5) None
166. In marketing terms, attitude can best be defined as a
1) rude behaviour of salesperson
2) rude behaviour of consumer
3) mental state of consumer
4) ego of the marketing executive
5) None
167. Which among the following is included in fringe benefits available to an employee ?
1) old age survivours benefits 2) pensions
3) gratuities
4) Both 1) and 2)
5) None
168. According.to product life cycle theory, the profit is maximum in
1) developed Stage
2) early stage
3) matured Stage
4) declined Stage
5) None
169. In banks, loans & advances are considered as
1) assets
2) liabilities
3) resources
4) cause of expenditure 5) None
170. What is meant by the term psychological pricing?
1) The process of raising the customer awareness of the supposed values/qualities of
your product, so building its brand image.
2) The cutting out of wholesalers from the distribution chain.
3) Setting prices that reinforce the concept of value, e.g. 99 and not 100.
4) The forces of supply anc demand and how they determine price. 5) None
171. Market share can be measured by
1) counting the number of customers there are in a market, and for a particular firm
within it.
2) comparing the sales value for a company with the total unit sales for the whole market.
3) comparing the sales value for a company with the total sales value for the whole market.
4) comparing the number of outlets a firm has with the total number of outlets within
the market.
5) None
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172. A firm is productively efficient when

1) it is producing its product or service at the lowest unit cost that it can.
2) it is selling at the lowest price possible.
3) it has the highest labour productivity that it can.
4) it is making what its customers want.
5) None
173. Cell production is the modern production method where
1) buildings are made from prefabricated units, or cells.
2) production is done in small rooms.
3) the output from the Prison Service factories.
4) production on assembly lines is managed and run by groups of workers who are
responsible for the quality of their work.
5) None
174. Which of the following will NOT result following the introduction of a more decentralised
system of management?
1) Increased motivation amongst those empowered to make decisions.
2) Greater consistency in the decisions made.
3) The development of skills amongst the junior members of the management team.
4) An increase in the speed at which essential decisions are made. 5) None
175. Which of the following is the best definition of a centralised management system?
1) A system that encourages empowerment of workers.
2) A management structure that concentrates on developing the skills of junior
personnel.
3) A system that involves authority and responsibility for decision-making being in the
hands of senior managers.
4) A system that encourages faster decision-making.
5) None
176. Which of the following is NOT normally a sign of poor morale amongst a workforce?
1) High levels of absenteeism. 2) High levels of turnover.
3) Increased levels of personal productivity.
4) A poor external image and difficulties attracting good recruits. 5) None
177. The dominant firm in a market is operating at near full capacity, and the other firms
caado little to significantly increase their supply to the market. This will lead to all of
the following, except
1) rising prices as demand begins to outstrip supply.
2) high and rising profit margins.
3) increased levels of marketing, especially advertising.
4) new firms considering entering the market.
5) None
178. Find the incorrect statement
1) Marketing has no relevance in public sector banks
2) Marketing has no relevance in private sector banks
3) Marketing has no relevance in foreign banks 4) All of these
5) None
179. Public relations is required for
1) improving customer service in the company
2) improving marketing functions in the company
3) better atmosphere in the company
4) All of these
5) None
180. Vegetable market in India is nearly an example of
1) perfect Competition
2) monopoly
3) oligopoly
4) imperfect competition
5) high monopsony
181. Which of the following is a web browser ?
1) Paint
2) PowerPoint
3) Firebox
4) Word
5) All of these
182. Editing a document consists of.reading through the document youve created, then
1) Correcting your errors
2) Printing it
3) Saving it
4) Deleting it
5) None
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183. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer readable are known as
1) an ASCII code
2) a magnetic tape
3) an OCR scanner
4) a bar code
5) None
184. In addition to keying data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a (an)
1) input form 2) table
3) field
4) data dictionary 5) None
185. If you type a word that is not in words dictionary, a wavy _____underline appears
below the word.
1) red
2) green
3) blue
4) black
5) None
186. Use the______, to choose a slide layout.
1) Quick Styles gallery
2) Format gallery 3) Layout gallery
4) Layout collection
5) None
187. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage
1) CB
2) KB
3) MB
4) TB
5) None
188. Which of the following are objects in an acess database ?
1) table, form
2) queries, reports
3) macros, modules
4) All of the above
5) None
189. The______shows all the web sites and pages thai you have visited over a period of
time.
1) status bar 2) task bar
3) history list.
4) tool bar
5) None
190. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer.
1) The platform
2) The operating system
3) Application-software
4) The motherboard
5) None
191. An example of non-numeric data is
1) Bank balance
2) Examination marks
3) Real numbers
4) Employee address
5) None
192. For seeing the output, you use
1) monitor
2) keyboard
3) mouse
4) scanner
5) None
193. Where are programs and data kept while the processor is using them?
1) Main memory
2) Secondary memory
3) Disk memory
4) Program memory
5) None
194. What doesC represent in MICR?
1) Code
2) Column
3) Computer
4) Character
5) None
195 ACD-RWdisk
1) has a faster access than an internal disk
2) is a form of optial disk, so it can only be written once
3) holds less data than a floppy disk
4) can be erased and rewritten
5) None
196. To take information from one source and bring it to your computer is referred to as
1) upload
2) download
3) transfer
4) de-link
5) None
197. Which of the following could do to remove a paragraph from a report you had written?
1) Delte and edit
2) Highlight and delete
3) Cut and paste
4) Undo typing
5) None
198. Which equipment is used to capture information and commands?
1) Output device
2) Input device
3) Storage device
4) Telecommunication device
5) None
199. A file that contains definitions of the paragraph and character styles for your document
and all things you customised like toolbars and menus is called a
1) guide
2) pattern
3) base document
4) template
5) None
200. A computer cannot boot if it does not have the
1) Compiler
2) Loader
3) Operating System 4) Assembler
5) None

M N
16

KEY
4.3
19.5
34.4
49.3
64.5
79.4
94.3
109.2
124.4
139.3
154.4
169.1
184.1
199.4

5.3
20.2
35.3
50.2
65.5
80.1
95.2
110.2
125.2
140.1
155.5
170.3
185.1
200.3

6.3
21.4
36.4
51.5
66.2
81.4
96.2
111.3
126.1
141.3
156.1
171.3
186.2

7.2
22.2
37.4
52.4
67.3
82.3
97.1
112.2
127.2
142.5
157.3
172.1
187.4

8.4
23.3
38.2
53.3
68.3
83.1
98.4
113.3
128.4
143.1
158.4
173.4
188.4

9.2
24.2
39.1
54.5
69.2
84.1
99.2
114.2
129.1
144.2
159.2
174.2
189.3

10.2
25.2
40.3
55.5
70.4
85.5
100.1
115.1
130.3
145.4
160.5
175.3
190.2

11.3
26.2
41.1
56.5
71.2
86.2
101.4
116.3
131.4
146.4
161.5
176.3
191.5

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17

12.1
27.2
42.2
57.3
72.2
87.4
102.2
117.2
132.1
147.2
162.4
177.3
192.1

13.3
28.3
43.5
58.5
73.5
88.3
103.1
118.1
133.5
148.3
163.5
178.4
193.1

14.4
29.3
44.5
59.4
74.2
89.2
104.4
119.4
134.4
149.1
164.4
179.5
194.4

.n
et

3.4
18.1
33.5
48.4
63.1
78.2
93.4
108.3
123.3
138.5
153.3
168.1
183.4
198.2

ha

2.1
17.2
32.3
47.4
62.2
77.3
92.1
107.2
122.4
137.3
152.1
167.5
182.1
197.2

ra
tib

1.5
16.2
31.3
46.1
61.1
76.5
91.4
106.2
121.3
136.1
151.3
166.3
181.3
196.2

15.2
30.1
45.3
60.3
75.1
90.5
105.1
120.4
135.3
150.5
165.1
180.1
195.4