MCCQE Sample Questions

MCCQE Sample Questions
MCCQE1
Questions 3001 - 3500
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3001. Retrolental fibroplasia is a complication of:

a. chemotherapy
b. hydrotherapy
c. radiotherapy
d. physiotherapy
e. oxygen therapy
3002. Cardioversion may be indicated in the treatment of:
a. complete AV block
b. digitalis toxicity
c. atrial fibrillation
d. multifocal atrial tachycardia
e. repeated short lived tachycardias
3003. Parkinsonian side effects of phenothiazine are best treated
with:
a. haloperidol
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. chlordiazepoxide
d. benztropine mesylate
e. lithium carbonate
3004. The etiologic agent in molluscum contagiosum (painless
/small/firm/umbilicated/white surface papules) is:
a. RNA virus
b. DNA virus (poxvirus)
c. chlamydia trachomatis
d. staphylococcus aureus
e. papilloma virus
3005. Ruptured Baker's cyst (which causes a painful swelling of the
popliteal fossa) is most to be seen in:
a. osteoarthritis
b. gout
c. ankylosing spondylitis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
e. psoriatic arthritis
3006. Heparin effect is neutralized by:
a. warfarin sodium
b. protamine sulphate
c. phenylbutazone
d. streptokinase
e. tissue type plasminogen activator
3007. The most common breast tumor is:
a. papillary carcinoma
b. medullary carcinoma
c. inflammatory carcinoma
d. infiltrating ductal scirrhous carcinoma
e. fibroadenoma
3008. Carcinoma of the prostate is treated with:
a. tolazamide
b. prednisone
c. bromocriptine
d. androgen
e. estrogen
3009. Atropine poisoning is treated with:
a. amitriptyline
b. epinephrine
c. pilorocaprine
d. neostigmine
e. physostigmine
3010. Imipramine is indicated in treatment of following disorders,
EXCEPT:
a. acute panic disorder
b. acute mania
c. major depression
d. enuresis
e. cataplexy
3011. Sprengel's deformity is a congenital elevation of:
a. hip
b. patella
c. scapula
d. sternum
e. clavicle
3012. 7 year old boy presents with right upper thigh and right knee
pain when walking, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. Kohler's disease
b. Osgood Schlatter's disease
c. Legg Calve Perths' disease
d. congenital dislocation of the hip
e. slipped capital femoral epiphysis

3013. Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bones) is NOT associated
with:
a. deafness
b. tall stature
c. blue sclerae
d. bone fragility
e. skull deformity
3014. Regarding osteoarthritis, which of the following is TRUE?
a. usually affects small joints
b. more common in men than in women
c. joint pain is precipitated by exertion
d. more common in thin and athletic people
e. onset is generally before 40 years of age
3015. 3 months after a measles infection, a 7 year old boy develops
seizures, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. phenylketonuria
b. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. benign febrile seizures
d. maple syrup urine disease
e. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
3016. 12 year old boy presents with fever and bilateral parotid
enlargement, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. mumps
b. sarcoidosis
c. typhoid fever
d. acute leukemia
e. mixed (pleomorphic) tumor of parotid
3017. Hypertension is most likely to be associated with:
a. mastocytosis
b. Addison's disease
c. cardiac tamponade
d. carcinoid syndrome
e. Recklinghausen's disease (neurofibromatosis)
3018. Short PR interval and normal QRS interval without a delta
wave are seen in:
a. hypokalemia
b. hypermagnesemia
c. first degree heart block
d. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
e. Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
3019. A baby turns blue whenever stops crying, the most likely
diagnosis is:
a. lung abscess
b. cystic fibrosis
c. mitral stenosis
d. choanal atresia
e. tetralogy of Fallot
3020. Which of the following should be ruled out in a 15 year old boy
with gynecomastia?
a. Down's syndrome
b. Edward's syndrome
c. Turner's syndrome
d. fragile X syndrome
e. Klinefelter's syndrome
3021. Children with pectus excavatum (funnel breast) are most likely
to develop:
a. kyphosis
b. sarcoidosis
c. osteosarcoma
d. cystic hygroma
e. achondroplasia
3022. X-ray of lateral neck of a 6 year old child shows thumb-print
sign, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. croup
b. epiglottitis
c. cystic fibrosis
d. bronchial asthma
e. epiglottal cancer
3023. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is:
a. most commonly caused by fungus

b. associated with inspiratory stridor
c. usually occur in ages 10 to 15 years
d. more common in males than in females
e. characterized by high fever for 3 days
3024. A man with barrel-chest and a long history of shortness of
breath on exertion, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. emphysema
b. pneumothorax
c. bronchial asthma
d. bronchial cancer
e. iron deficiency anemia
3025. The best test for a child with pneumonia, nasal polyps and
meconium ileus is:
a. sweat test
b. Guthrie test
c. secretin test
d. nasal challenge test
e. glucose tolerance test
Sample questions 3001 to 3025 of 9515

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3025
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3026. Giant cell pneumonia is most likely to occur following:

a. mumps
b. rabies
c. tetanus
d. measles
e. impetigo
3027. Half-and-half nails (white proximal half and pink or brown distal
half) is most likely to occur in:
a. psoriasis
b. hepatic cirrhosis
c. respiratory disease
d. iron deficiency anemia
e. renal disease with azotemia
3028. Risk factors for developing acute renal failure include:
a. jaundice
b. anesthesia
c. increased age
d. ECF volume contraction
e. all of the above
3029. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in endstage renal
failure?
a. anemia
b. hematuria
c. proteinuria
d. hypertension
e. large kidney size
3030. SIADH is associated with:
a. oat cell carcinoma
b. thymoma
c. pneumonia
d. encephalitis
e. all of the above
3031. SIADH is associated with:
a. Hodgkin's disease
b. tuberculosis
c. brain tumor
d. head trauma
e. all of the above
3032. Regarding Q fever, which of the following is TRUE?
a. is a rickettsial disease
b. caused by coxiella brunetii
c. spread mainly by inhalation
d. has an incubation period of 1 to 3 weeks
e. all of the above

3033. Patients with hepatitis B virus (HBV) may develop:
a. polyarteritis nodosa
b. hepatocellular carcinoma
c. serum sickness-type syndrome
d. membranous glomerulonephritis
e. all of the above
3034. Regarding hepatitis B virus (HBV), which of the following is
TRUE?
a. incubation period is between 20 to 30 days
b. individuals with HBsAg are highly infectious
c. about 60% of infected patients become chronic carriers
d. the incidence peaks in the 15 to 19 year old age groups
e. all of the above
3035. Regarding hepatitis A virus (HAV), which of the following is
FALSE?
a. mortality rate is less than 0.1%
b. diagnosis is based on serologic tests
c. incubation period is between 2 to 6 weeks
d. patients are most infectious prior to or during the icteric
stage
e. the finding of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates recent
infection
3036. HTVL-1 and 2 are most likely to cause:
a. erythema infectiosum
b. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
c. infectious mononucleosis
d. T cell leukemia and lymphoma
e. decreased CD4 cells and immunosuppression
3037. Regarding molluscum contagiosum, which of the following is
FALSE?
a. rare in children
b. caused by poxvirus
c. nodules are usually painless
d. treated with liquid nitrogen
e. spread by contact or sexual intercourse
3038. Subcutaneous nodule at injury site with associated nodular
lymphangitis which appears up to 6 months is seen in:
a. carbuncle
b. candidiasis
c. blastomycosis
d. sporotrichosis
e. scalded skin syndrome
3039. Dinner fork deformity is associated with:
a. Mallet's finger
b. Colles' fracture
c. Smith's fracture
d. Gamekeeper's fracture
e. Dupuytren's contracture
3040. The most common wrist fracture in young adults is:
a. hamate fracture
b. pisiform fracture
c. capitate fracture
d. trapezium fracture
e. scaphoid (navicular) fracture
3041. Ulna is fractured in (nightstick fracture) and in:
a. Pott's fracture
b. Boxer's fracture
c. Mallet's fracture
d. Bennett's fracture
e. Monteggia's fracture
3042. Roseola infantum (exanthema subitum) is caused by:
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
c. varicella-zoster virus
d. herpes simplex virus (HSV)
e. human herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6)
3043. Following could be caused by Epstein-Barr virus, EXCEPT:
a. Alport's syndrome
b. Burkitt's lymphoma
c. acute mononucleosis
d. chronic fatigue syndrome
e. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3044. Which of the following has been reported to be associated with
Guillain Barre syndrome?
a. helicobacter pylori
b. campylobacter jejuni
c. klebsiella pneumonia
d. borrelia burgdorferi
e. pseudomonas aeruginosa
3045. Which of the following viruses is associated with hepatoma?
a. HPV
b. RSV
c. EBV
d. HIV
e. HBV
3046. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalitis (PML) is caused by:
a. HIV
b. EBV
c. RSV
d. JC virus
e. adenovirus
3047. Weakness of knee extension is caused by lesion at:

a. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
c. L5-S1
d. S1-S2
e. S2-S3
3048. Weakness of knee flexion is caused by lesion at:
a. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
c. L5-S1
d. S1-S2
e. S2-S3
3049. Weakness of great toe flexion is caused by lesion at:
a. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
c. L5-S1
d. S1-S2
e. S2-S3
3050. Weakness of great toe extension is caused by lesion at:
a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

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3050
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3051. Virus most commonly involved in pleurodynia, myocarditis and

pericarditis is:
a. adenovirus
b. mumps virus
c. coronavirus
d. coxsackievirus B
e. respiratory syncytial virus
3052. Virus most commonly involved in pharyngitis is:
a. adenovirus
b. mumps virus
c. coronavirus
d. cytomegalovirus
3053. The most common cause of granulomatous cervical
lymphadenopathy in children is mycobacterium:
a. marinum
b. kansasii
c. fortuitum
d. scrofulaceum
e. avium-intercellulare
3054. Goats and sheep are most likely to transmit:
a. yersinia
b. brucella
c. schistosoma
d. giardia lamblia
e. pasteurella multocida
3055. Hansen's disease is diagnosed by:
a. Ham's test
b. Frei's test
c. Coomb's test
d. Lepromin test
e. Schirmer test
3056. Infants with cyanosis, respiratory distress, drooling saliva,choking
and regurgitation immediately after birth is most commonly due to:
a. tetralogy of Fallot
b. aspiration pneumonia
c. hyaline membrane disease
d. bronchial asthma
e. esophageal atresia
3057. Following are contraindications for live measles vaccine, EXCEPT:
a. antineoplastic and steroid therapy
b. mitral stenosis
c. allergy to neomycin
d. immunodeficiency disorders
e. systemic malignancy
3058. Following are absolute contraindications to further pertussis
vaccination, EXCEPT:
a. high fever
b. collapse state
c. encephalopathy
d. unusual high-pitched cry
e. family history of seizures
3059. Which of the following is a familial disorder of Hartnup's disease
characterized by hypercalcemia and nephrocalcinosis?
a. cretinism
b. alkaptonuria
c. Wilson's disease
d. blue-diaper syndrome
e. progressive muscular dystrophy
3060. Mentally retarded child with protruding belly,large head,membranous
corneal veil,thick lips and tongue,the most likely diagnosis is:
a. congenital hypothyroidism
b. Down's syndrome
c. gargoylism
d. Wilson's disease
e. progressive muscular dystrophy
3061. Following are side effects of estrogen therapy, EXCEPT:
a. nausea
b. headache
c. weight loss
d. breast tenderness
e. menstrual bleeding
3062. Following are absolute contraindications for renal biopsy, EXCEPT:
a. hydronephrosis
b. nephrotic syndrome
c. bleeding diathesis
d. renal hemangioma or tumor
e. renal abscess or large cysts
3063. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of acute
pancreatitis?
a. atropine
b. meperidine
c. morphine
d. calcium sulphate
e. serum albumin
3064. A pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding and cramps but her
pregnancy continues, the most likely diagnosis is:

a. inevitable abortion
b. incomplete abortion
c. missed abortion
d. threatened abortion
e. complete abortion
3065. In polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein Leventhal syndrome):
a. both FSH/LH are increased
b. FSH is normal/LH is increased
c. FSH is increased/LH is normal
d. both FSH/LH are decreased
e. none of the above
3066. Oliguria is associated with:
a. renal tubular acidosis
b. Fanconi's syndrome
c. lithium therapy
d. hypercalcemia
e. congestive heart failure
3067. Which of the following is/are NOT seen in hemolytic uremic
syndrome?
a. anuria/oliguria with acute renal failure
b. thrombocytopenia/hemolysis
c. hematuria/edema/hypertension
d. positive Coombs test
e. anemia/fragmented WBCs/fibrin deposition in kidneys

3068. The most common cause of empyema is:
a. staphylococcus aureus
b. streptococcus pyogenes
c. escherichia coli
d. pneumococcus (streptococcus) pneumoniae
3069. Major depression with melancholia may be diagnosed by:
a. CT scan of the head
b. electroencephalography
c. X ray of the head
d. dexamethasone suppression test
3070. Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is due to deficiency of the enzyme:
a. cytathionine synthase
b. fructose 1 phosphatase
c. homogentisic oxidase
d. alpha L iduronidase
e. acid lipase
3071. Self examination of the breast should be advised to:
a. postmenopausal women only
b. nulliparous women only
c. women with history of mammary dysplasia only
d. all women over age 50 only

e. all women over age 30
3072. Following are common psychiatric disorders seen in the elderly,
EXCEPT:
a. schizophrenia
b. depression
c. hypochondria
d. anxiety
e. paranoid ideation
3073. Following are characteristics of ketoacidosis (ketosis/acidosis in
IDDM), EXCEPT:
a. hypernatremia
b. rapid deep breathing
c. low arterial blood pH
d. low plasma bicarbonate
e. hyperglycemia/hypotension
3074. Cheilosis is particularly common in association with deficiency of:
a. thiamine (B1)
b. niacin
c. pantothenic acid
d. riboflavin (B2)
e. folic acid
3075. Which of following types of nails is most likely to be seen in patients
with nephrotic syndrome/hypoalbuminemia?
a. yellow nails
b. Mees' lines (transverse lines)

c. Terry's nail (white proximal two thirds)
d. Beau's lines (horizontal nail depression)
e. Muehrcke's nails (two horizontal white stripes)

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3076. Sudden pain with rapidly scrotal enlargement, relieved by elevation

of the scrotum is most likely to be caused by:
a. spermatocele
b. testicular torsion
c. hydrocele
d. acute epididymitis
e. testicular neoplasm
3077. The progress of the disease in insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(IDDM) is best detected by:
a. glucose tolerance test
b. serum fructosamine
c. glycosylated hemoglobin
d. ketonuria
e. glycosuria
3078. Inpatients with pregnancy induced hypertension are usually treated
with:
a. reserpine or labetol
b. clonidine or propanolol
c. nifedipine or diazoxide
d. hydralazine or methyldopa
e. captopril or nitroprusside
3079. Chronic anal fissure is the most common cause of painful defecation
and is LEAST likely to be associated with:
a. constipation
b. rectal bleeding
c. pruritus ani
d. sentinel pile
e. hypertrophied papilla
3080. True statement regarding urinary tract infection UTI include:
a. in neonates/infants is more common in girls than in boys
b. after 5 years of age is more common in girls
c. bacteriuria during adolescence is more common in boys
d. the incidence of UTI in women decreases with age
e. of all ages, UTI is more common in males than in females
3081. Long term schizophrenia is best treated with supportive
psychotherapy combined with:
a. benzodiazepine
b. lithium carbonate
c. amphetamine
d. phenothiazine
e. naloxone
3082. The most common cause of hemoptysis in children is:
a. lung cancer
b. pneumonia
c. foreign body
d. pulmonary embolism
e. bronchiectasis
3083. A bluish pigmentation spot over the lower back or buttocks of a dark
skinned infant may suggest the diagnosis of:
a. milia
b. capillary hemangioma
c. petechiae
d. Mongolian spot
e. lanugo
3084. Close personal contacts of patients with hepatitis A should receive:
a. rifampin
b. hepatitis B vaccine
c. gamma globulin
d. corticosteroids

3085. Following are features of cretinism (juvenile hypothyroidism),
EXCEPT:
a. delayed bone age
b. stippling of epiphysis on bone X ray
c. pot belly with umbilical hernia
d. increased serum cholesterol
e. decreased serum TSH
3086. Following are associated with anorexia nervosa, EXCEPT:
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. osteoporosis
c. hypercarotenemia
d. tachycardia
e. hypothermia
3087. The initial symptoms of Lyme disease are regional lymphadenopathy
and:
a. facial nerve palsy
b. cardiac arrhythmia
c. skin lesion
d. back pain
e. joint pain
3088. Intentionally avoiding thinking about disturbing problems, wishes,
feelings, or experiences is called:
a. dissociation
b. sublimation
c. undoing
d. splitting
e. suppression
3089. Marjolin ulcer:
a. is an advanced gastric ulcer
b. occurs in secondary syphilis
c. is a malignant intestinal lesion caused by trauma
d. is a malignant skin lesion in a burn scar
e. is a basal cell carcinoma in a burn scar
3090. The most common cause of dysphagia is:
a. achalasia
b. scleroderma
c. esophageal varices
d. esophageal carcinoma
e. esophageal stricture
3091. 11 year old boy with reddish purple patches on the eyelids and rash
over the dorsum of the hands, your diagnosis is:
a. atopic dermatitis
b. dermatomyositis
c. psoriasis
d. scleroderma
e. dermatitis herpetiformis
3092. Approximately 40% of patients with coarctation of the aorta have:
a. tricuspid atresia
b. mitral valve disease
c. bicuspid aortic valve
d. tetralogy of Fallot
e. subclavian steal syndrome
3093. Whipple operation is used in surgical treatment of the carcinoma of:
a. lung
b. pancreas
c. bladder
d. spleen
e. kidney
3094. Pulsus paradoxus (decreased systolic BP > 10mmHg during
inspiration) is NOT a clinical feature of:
a. pulmonary embolism
b. hypovolemia
c. myocarditis
d. pericarditis
e. asthma
3095. Following are associated with hirsutism (hypertrichosis), EXCEPT:
a. Cushing's syndrome
b. hyperprolactinemia
c. congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. granulosa cell ovarian tumor
e. acromegaly
3096. Following are promoters of the absorption of iron, EXCEPT:
a. gastric acid
b. sugar
c. alcohol
d. cereals
e. ascorbic acid
3097. The best investigation for a child with recurrent bronchiolitis, nasal
polyps, malabsorption and failure to thrive is:
a. bronchography
b. pulmonary function tests
c. blood gases
d. sweat chloride test
e. lung scan
3098. Following are risk factors for acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
a. hyperparathyroidism
b. family history of pancreatitis
c. hypocalcemia
d. thiazide diuretic therapy
e. estrogen therapy
3099. Which of the following types of polyps of colon is usually a
premalignant lesion?
a. hyperplastic
b. juvenile
c. adenomas
d. inflammatory
e. hamartomas
3100. The most common presentation of symptomatic Meckel's
diverticulum is:
a. vomiting
b. abdominal pain
c. abdominal distention
d. painful rectal bleeding
e. painless rectal bleeding

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3100
9515
3101. The first stage in dying patients is:

a. anger
b. acceptance
9500
c. bargaining
d. denial
e. depression
3102. A woman presents with serosanguinous discharge from the
nipple, your diagnosis is:
a. carcinoma
b. mammary dysplasia
c. fibroadenoma
d. intraductal papilloma
e. abscess
3103. The most useful investigation for a patient with flank pain, fever
and hematuria is:
a. liver biopsy
b. muscle biopsy
c. cystoscopy
d. intravenous pyelogram
e. urine culture
3104. Undescended testicles (cryptorchidism) usually descent:
a. immediately after birth
b. between second-fourth month of life
c. during the first nine months of life
d. between first-third year of life
e. before one month of age
3105. The most common site of tinea versicolor is:
a. intertriginous areas
b. face/scalp
c. upper/lower extremities
d. upper trunk/neck
e. fingers/toes
3106. The first symptom of Paget's carcinoma of the breast is:
a. bleeding
b. superficial erosion
c. ulceration
d. itching/burning
e. palpable mass
3107. Abortion is defined as termination of gestation before the:
a. 5th week of pregnancy
b. 10th week of pregnancy
c. 15th week of pregnancy
d. 20th week of pregnancy
e. 25th week of pregnancy
3108. Pruritus is LEAST likely to be associated with:
a. acne vulgaris
b. pregnancy
c. hyperthyroidism
d. carcinoid syndrome
e. cholestasis
3109. A swollen epididymis due to epididymitis is differentiated from

testicular tumor initially by:
a. X ray
b. ultrasound
c. technetium scan
d. testicular biopsy
3110. Which of the following is contraindicated in treatment of digitalis
induced tachyarrhythmia?
a. potassium chloride
b. phenytoin
c. propanolol
d. quinidine
e. synchronized DC shock
3111. The first step in ophthalmoscopic examination is to look for:
a. cloudiness of the vitreous
b. disorders of the iris
c. abnormalities in the aqueous
d. red fundus reflection
e. lesions on cornea
3112. In ovarian failure:
a. both FSH/LH are increased
b. FSH is normal/LH is increased
c. FSH is increased/LH is normal
d. both FSH/LH are decreased

3113. Primary prevention includes:
a. breast cancer screening
b. INH prophylaxis of a positive tuberculin test
c. genetic counseling
d. Pap smear screening
e. rehabilitation
3114. Following are features of Kawasaki syndrome (mucocutaneous
lymph node syndrome), EXCEPT:
a. generalized pruritus
b. maculopapular red rash
c. high fever
d. peeling of the fingers
e. angitis of coronary arteries
3115. Following are associated with hyperprolactinemia, EXCEPT:
a. stress/sleep/depression
b. hypothyroidism
c. diabetes mellitus
d. reserpine therapy
e. nipple stimulation
3116. The first step in the management of ruptured abdominal aortic
aneurysm is:
a. laparoscopy
b. blood cross match

c. abdominal X ray
d. electrocardiogram
e. abdominal CT scan
3117. Following are side effects of isoniazid (INH), EXCEPT:
a. central nervous system toxicity
b. peripheral nervous system toxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. nephrotoxicity
e. jaundice/skin rash
3118. Fine downy growth of hair over the shoulder and back of a
newborn is called:
a. lanugo
b. capillary hemangioma
c. petechiae
d. vernix caseosa
e. milia
3119. Acute orchitis (increased testicular size/erythema /fever) in
adolescents is usually due to:
a. leprosy
b. schistosomiasis
c. tuberculosis
d. syphilis
e. mumps
3120. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

(usually asymptomatic) is:
a. carcinoma of one parathyroid gland
b. carcinoma of all parathyroid glands
c. adenoma of one parathyroid gland
d. adenoma of all parathyroid glands
e. hyperplasia of all parathyroid glands
3121. When verapamil IV (Isoptin) fails to treat paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia, the drug of choice is:
a. propanolol
b. digoxin
c. atropine
d. procainamide
e. lidocaine
3122. The most common complications of acute pancreatitis are:
a. jaundice/blindness/psychosis
b. intraperitoneal bleeding/DIC
c. abscess/pseudocyst formation
d. pleural effusion/atelectasis
e. gastrointestinal bleeding/acute tubular necrosis
3123. In X-linked dominant disorders:
a. both sexes are affected equally
b. affected males have normal daughters but affected sons
c. the trait is more severe in daughters than sons
d. affected male transmits the trait only to his daughters

e. males are affected twice as often as females
3124. When one fragment of the bone is driven into the other side of
fractured bone, this is called:
a. comminuted fracture
b. avulsion fracture
c. impacted fracture
d. compound fracture
e. depressed fracture
3125. 70 year old man presents with a solitary midlateral pulsatile neck
mass, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. Graves' disease
b. Hodgkin's disease
c. Pancoast syndrome
d. carotid body tumor
e. sarcoidosis

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3125
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3126. The best treatment for hypernephroma is:
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a. preoperative chemotherapy/radical nephrectomy

b. chemotherapy/radiotherapy
c. preoperative irradiation/radical nephrectomy
d. radical nephrectomy with chemotherapy
e. radical nephrectomy with regional node dissection
3127. Following are disorders transmitted from human to human by sexual
route, EXCEPT:
a. hepatitis B
b. toxoplasmosis
c. codylomata lata
d. codylomata acuminata
e. molluscum contagiosum
3128. Following are features of seborrheic keratosis, EXCEPT:
a. stuck on lesion
b. autosomal dominant trait
c. involvement of epidermis only
d. superficial ulceration
e. occurrence after 30 years of age
3129. Following are features of mania, EXCEPT:
a. excessive spending
b. aggressive behavior
c. hypoactivity
d. exhibitionistic behavior
e. reduction of sleep
3130. High calcium, high phosphorus, high or normal alkaline phosphatase
and low parathyroid hormone are most likely seen in:
a. osteoporosis
b. osteomalacia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. hyperparathyroidism
e. Paget's disease of the bone
3131. Keratoacanthoma closely resembles squamous cell carcinoma and is
characterized by:
a. very slow growth lesion
b. very malignant lesion
c. response to antibiotic therapy
d. stuck on lesion
e. central crater filled with keratin
3132. Which of the following medications is safely administered to pregnant
women?
a. isoniazid
b. streptomycin
c. metronidazole
d. tetracycline
e. cortisone
3133. The most common site of polyps of colon is:
a. ascending colon
b. discending colon
c. transverse colon
d. cecum/ileo cecal area
e. sigmoid/rectum
3134. The most common breast mass or lesion in 35 to 40 years old
women is:
a. Paget's disease
b. mammary dysplasia (fibrocystic disease)
c. fibroadenoma
d. intraductal papilloma of the breast
e. breast cancer
3135. Penicillin therapy in pregnant women with syphilis prevents
congenital syphilis in:
a. 10% of cases
b. 30% of cases
c. 50% of cases
d. 70% of cases
e. 90% of cases
3136. A positive Mantoux test means the patient:
a. has silicosis and Pott's disease
b. not necessarily has tuberculosis
c. has disseminated (miliary) tuberculosis
d. is taking isoniazide for active tuberculosis
e. has tuberculosis complicated by Hodgkin's disease
3137. Which of the following was the cause of Black Death (a disease
which killed 25 million Europeans 4 centuries ago)?
a. brucella suis
b. campylobacter
c. yersinia pestis
d. proteus vulgaris
e. klebsiella pneumonia
3138. Which of the following is transmitted mainly by human lice?
a. brucellosis
b. listeriosis
c. psittacosis
d. leptospirosis
e. relapsing fever
3139. Weil's syndrome is also known as:
a. acute brucellosis
b. ocular listeriosis
c. chronic psittacosis
d. chronic shigellosis
e. icteric leptospirosis
3140. Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly and anemia are most likely
due to:
a. schistosoma
b. giardia lamblia
c. trypanosoma cruzi
d. entamoeba histolytica
e. visceral leishmaniasis
3141. Apical aneurysms of the heart, megaesophagus and megacolon are
associated with infections due to:
a. schistosoma
b. giardia lamblia
d. entamoeba histolytica
e. visceral leishmaniasis
3142. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted by sexual
contact?
a. schistosoma
b. giardia lamblia
d. trichomonas vaginalis
e. entamoeba histolytica
3143. Cellophane tape test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. schistosoma
b. tinea saginata
c. toxicara canis
d. trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
e. enterbius vermicularis (pinworm)
3144. Down's syndrome has been linked to:
a. Still's disease
b. Refsum's disease
c. Briquet's disease
d. Hodgkin's disease
e. Alzheimer's disease
3145. Part of chromosome 5 is missing in:
a. Turner's syndrome
b. Cri-Du-Chat syndrome
c. Huntington's syndrome
d. Lesche Nyhan syndrome
e. Wegener's granulomatosis
3146. Abnormal vision with refractory errors is diagnosed by:
a. tonometry
b. slit lamp
c. cover test
d. pinhole test
e. all of the above
3147. Oliver's sign (tracheal tug) is positive in:
a. pericarditis
b. hiatal hernia
c. aortic aneurysm
d. esophageal reflux
e. carotid body tumor
3148. Palpable mass in the right abdomen with absence of bowel sounds in
the RLQ (Dance's sign) is pathognomonic for:
a. midgut volvulus
b. intussusception
c. congenital megacolon
d. mesenteric artery obstruction
e. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
3149. 32 year old man presents with intermittent right lower quadrant pain
and perirectal abscesses, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. diverticulitis
b. Crohn's disease
c. acute appendicitis
d. ulcerative colitis
e. carcinoma of colon
3150. In patients with fat embolism syndrome, petechiae are found in:
a. 5 to 10%
b. 20 to 30%
c. 30 to 40%
d. 50 to 60%
e. 80 to 90%

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3151. HLA A3, B7, and B18 are associated with:

a. Reiter's disease
b. myasthenia gravis
c. multiple sclerosis
d. chronic active hepatitis
e. gluten-sensitive enteropathy
3152. Human leukocyte antigen B8 (HLA B8) is associated with:
a. myasthenia gravis
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. gluten-sensitive enteropathy
d. chronic active hepatitis
e. all of the above
3153. Which of the following is increased in hypovolemic shock?
a. urine flow
b. pulse rate
c. cardiac index
d. blood pressure
e. central venous pressure
3154. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in children with
cytomegalic inclusion disease?
a. cataract
b. jaundice
c. retinitis
d. macrocephaly
e. optic atrophy
3155. The most likely diagnosis of respiratory distress after birth in full-term
infants with heart sounds heard to the right chest is:
a. pyloric stenosis
b. aspiration pneumonia
c. hyaline membrane disease
d. diaphragmatic hernia
e. esophageal atresia
3156. Hair-on-end appearance in the calvarium on skull X-ray is
characteristically seen in:
a. anencephaly
b. sarcoidosis
c. thalassemia
d. hydrocephalus
e. achondroplasia
3157. The best blood group/type given to patients with unknown
crossmatching is:
a. O Rh+
b. O Rhc. A Rh+
d. B Rhe. AB Rh3158. Varicella can develop after exposure to:
a. mumps
b. measles
c. rubella
d. tetanus
e. shingles
3159. Acute pericarditis is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. severe chest pain
b. friction rub
c. ST segment elevations
d. nausea/vomiting
e. increased myocardial enzymes
3160. The most common type of lung cancer associated with heavy
cigarette smoking in males is?
a. metastatic
b. small cell
c. alveolar cell
d. adenocarcinoma/epidermoid
3161. The most common cause of nongonococcal proctitis in homosexual
men is:
a. cytomegalovirus
b. staphylococcus aureus
c. herpes simplex virus
d. chlamydia trachomatis
3162. Telescoping of a segment of bowel into the adjacent segment
showing (E) sign on X-ray is seen in:
a. Meckel's diverticulum
b. congenital megacolon
c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
d. congenital duodenal atresia
e. intussusception
3163. Surgical treatment of tetralogy of Fallot is intended to increase the
blood flow in the:
a. aorta
b. right ventricle
c. pulmonary artery
d. subclavian artery
e. superior vena cava
3164. Carcinoma of the esophagus/cervix most commonly are:
a. adenocarcinoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. transitional cell carcinoma
d. metastatic carcinoma
3165. The drug of choice for the treatment of amebic liver abscess is:
a. tetracycline
b. streptomycin
c. chloramphenicol
d. erythromycin
e. metronidazole
3166. Osler nodes, Janeway lesions and Roth spots are seen in:
a. infective endocarditis
b. chronic pancreatitis
c. ulcerative colitis
d. viral hepatitis
e. toxic shock syndrome
3167. A mid or late diastolic low pitched mitral murmur (Austin Flint
murmur) can be heard in:
a. mitral stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. severe aortic regurgitation
d. mitral regurgitation
e. tricuspid regurgitation
3168. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in rheumatic fever?
a. skin rash
b. arthritis
c. pericarditis
d. joint deformities
e. increased antistreptolysin titer
3169. Pleural effusion can be detected on anteroposterior chest X ray when
pleural fluid is:
a. 10 mL
b. 20 mL
c. 100 mL
d. 150 mL
e. 250 mL
3170. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with lung
cancer?
a. arsenic
b. nickel
c. asbestos
d. silicon dioxide
e. petroleum
3171. Chronic inhalation of cotton or linen dust is associated with:
a. berylliosis
b. bagassosis
c. byssinosis
d. sequoiosis
e. suberosis
3172. Eggshell calcifications on chest X ray is seen in:
a. asbestosis
b. pneumoconioses
c. radiation pneumonitis
d. bronchial asthma
e. silicosis
3173. The most common abdominal mass found in the neonatal period
after the first week of life is:
a. neuroblastoma
b. splenomegaly
c. hydronephrosis
d. Wilm's tumor
e. intestinal tumor
3174. Which of the following tests is LEAST helpful in diagnosis of
pulmonary hypertension?
a. pulmonary function tests
b. perfusion lung scan
c. echocardiogram
d. pulmonary angiography
e. chest X ray
3175. The most common cause of pneumonia in in children over 5 years of
age is:
a. coxiella brunetii
b. histoplasma capsulatum
c. chlamydia trachomatis
d. mycoplasma pneumoniae
e. mycobacterium tuberculosis
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3175
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3176. The average life expectancy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
e. 50 years
3177. Which of the following medications worsens brochospasm and is
contraindicated in patients with COPD or bronchial asthma?
a. prednisone
b. atropine sulphate
c. aminophylline
d. propanolol
e. cromolyn sodium
3178. Clubbing of the digits is LEAST likely to be caused by:
a. bronchial asthma
b. infective endocarditis
c. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
d. cyanotic congenital heart disease
e. pulmonary arteriovenous malformation

3179. The most common cause of congenital stridor is:
a. laryngeal webs
b. vocal cord paralysis
c. laryngomalacia
d. subglottic stenosis
e. subglottic hemangioma
3180. The leading cause of death from skin disease is:
a. Bown's disease
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. malignant melanoma
e. keratoacanthoma
3181. Which of the following dermatologic disorder is more common in
fishermen/meat handlers:
a. erysipelas
b. erythrasma
c. erysipeloid
d. pemphigus
e. pityriasis rosea
3182. The causative organism in erysipelas (Saint Anthony's fire) is:
a. clostriduim
c. escherichia coli
d. streptococcus pyogenes group B
e. virus
3183. The causative organism in foruncolosis is:
a. klebsiella
c. escherichia coli
d. clostriduim
e. bacterioides
3184. Which of the following is contraindicated in treatment of chronic
discoid lupus erythematosus?
a. dapsone
b. corticosteroids
c. radiotherapy
d. chloroquine
e. quinacrine
3185. The most common skin disorder is:
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. seborrheic dermatitis
c. erythema multiforme
d. acne vulgaris
e. pityriasis rosea
3186. Skin (Herald patch)/(Christmas tree) configurations are seen in:
b. seborrheic dermatitis
d. pemphigus
e. pityriasis rosea
3187. Acantholysis is a hallmark of:
b. psoriasis
d. pemphigus vulgaris
e. bullous pemphigoid
3188. Toxic epidermal necrolysis and Steven Johnson syndrome (erythema
multiforme major) are most commonly produced by:
a. amoxicillin
b. ampicillin
c. penicillin
d. sulfonamides
e. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole
3189. Generalized pruritus in patients on hemodialysis is usually due to:
a. scabies
b. uremia
c. atopic dermatitis
d. psoriasis
e. lichen planus
3190. Following are associated with carcinoid syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. tricuspid regurgitation/pulmonic stenosis
b. abdominal cramps/diarrhea
c. mitral stenosis or regurgitation
d. increased urinary 5 HIAA
e. edema of head/neck
3191. The initial treatment of back pain due to spinal cord compression by
tumor mass is:
a. surgical excision
b. chemotherapy
c. radiotherapy
d. corticosteroids
3192. Following diseases are more common in the elderly, EXCEPT:
a. tuberculosis
b. craniopharyngioma
c. polymyalgia rheumatica
d. herpes zoster infection
e. cataracts/otosclerosis
3193. The most common cause of bilateral vocal cord paralysis is:
a. brain stem lesion
b. supranuclear lesion
c. thyroidectomy
d. cortical lesion
e. congenital central lesion
3194. Which of the following dermatologic disorders may associate with
lesions of the oral cavity?
a. lichen planus
b. keratoacanthoma
c. tinea versicolor
d. erythrasma
e. erysipeloid
3195. The most common cause of facial (peripheral seventh nerve)
paralysis is:
a. acoustic neuroma
b. Guillain Barre syndrome
c. surgical trauma
d. Bell's palsy
e. temporal bone fracture (trauma)
3196. The most common cause of tinnitus (sensation of noise in the ear) is:
a. ototoxicity
b. presbycusis
c. acoustic neuroma
d. congenital aneurysms
e. temporal bone fracture
3197. In sensorineural deafness, air conduction threshold and bone
conduction threshold are:
a. unequally increased
b. equally increased
c. unequally decreased
d. equally decreased
3198. Deafness in patients with otosclerosis usually starts:
a. at birth
b. in the first decade of life
c. in the second-third decade of life
d. in the third-fourth decade of life
e. after the fifth decade of life
3199. Surgical therapy instead of medical therapy of epilepsy is required in:
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 40%
e. 50%
3200. The best diagnostic test for spinal cord tumor is:
a. CT scan
b. electromyography
c. plain film
d. MRI
e. X ray

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3201. The most frequent indication for lumbar puncture is suspected:

a. meningitis
b. ruptured Berry aneurysm
c. subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. head injury
e. brain tumor
3202. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is:
a. infection
b. blunt trauma
c. penetrating injury
d. neoplastic invasion
e. connective tissue disorder
3203. Arterial occlusion is differentiated from arterial vasoconstriction
by:
a. Brodie Trendelenburg test

b. Allen test
c. Schwartz test
d. Adson's test
e. Tinel's test
3204. Malabsorption of bile salts and vitamin B12 (cobalamin) typically
occur after:
a. total colectomy
b. jejunal resection
c. hemorrhoidectomy
d. ileal resection
e. splenectomy
3205. The most common site of volvulus (twisting of bowel around
mesenteric root) is:
a. splenic flexure
b. cecum
c. transverse colon
d. sigmoid colon/gastric
e. ascending colon
3206. The most common cause of spleen rupture is:
a. typhoid fever/malaria
b. pregnancy
c. infectious mononucleosis
d. blunt abdominal trauma
e. leukemia/lymphoma
3207. Puestow/Du Val procedures are used in surgical treatment of:
a. splenic rupture
b. chronic pancreatitis
c. inguinal hernia
d. reflux esophagitis
e. carcinoma of the colon
3208. The most common presenting complaint in patients with
carcinoma of the gallbladder is:
a. weight loss
b. painless jaundice
c. palpable mass
d. constipation
e. intermittent right upper quadrant pain
3209. Following are major complications of acute cholecystitis,
EXCEPT:
a. perforation
b. bleeding
c. abscess
d. fistula
e. empyema
3210. The most common symptom of gastric carcinoma is:
a. melena
b. epigastric mass
c. dysphagia
d. weight loss
e. hepatomegaly
3211. The most common cause of emphysematous cholecystitis is:
a. gram positive bacilli
b. aerobic bacilli
c. clostridial infections
d. enterobacterial infections
e. bacterioides
3212. The most common site of intraperitoneal abscess is:
a. subdiaphragmatic
b. pelvic
c. lower quadrants
d. subhepatic
e. paracolics
3213. Perforated duodenal ulcer causes mid epigastric pain which is
usually radiated to the:
a. back
b. shoulders
c. right upper quadrant
d. left lower quadrant
e. right lower quadrant
3214. Following are risk factors for carcinoma of esophagus, EXCEPT:
a. reflux esophagitis
b. esophageal diverticula
c. chronic iron deficiency
d. congenital esophageal tylosis
e. carcinoma of the head/neck
3215. Nissen fundoplication is the most effective surgical procedure in
treatment of:
a. achalasia
b. reflux esophagitis
c. hiatal hernia
d. esophageal diverticula
e. esophageal cancer
3216. The most common heart tumor is:
a. myxoma
b. fibroma
c. lipoma
d. teratoma
e. sarcoma
3217. The most common cause of pericarditis is:
a. bacterial contamination
b. acute myocardial infarction
c. tuberculosis
d. rheumatic fever
e. unknown (idiopathic)
3218. Following are associated with sarcoidosis, EXCEPT:
a. positive Kveim test
b. hypercalciuria
c. hypocalcemia
d. erythema nodosum
e. leukopenia
3219. Spontaneous pneumothorax is most common in:
a. infants
b. males 50 to 70 years of age
c. females 15 to 35 years of age
d. males 15 to 35 years of age
e. females after menopause
3220. Tietze's syndrome is a painful nonsuppurative inflammation of
the:
a. pleura
b. lung
c. intercostal muscle
d. mediastinum
e. costochondral cartilage
3221. The most common type of thyroiditis is:
a. Riedel's thyroiditis (struma)
b. acute suppurative thyroiditis
c. subacute granulomatous (DeQuervain's) thyroiditis

d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
3222. The most common presentation of thyrotoxicosis is:
a. diarrhea
b. atrial fibrillation
c. tachycardia
d. weakness
e. constipation
3223. The most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland is:
a. adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. clear cell carcinoma
c. mucoepidermoid carcinoma
d. adenocarcinoma
e. squamous cell carcinoma
3224. The most common tumor of the nasal cavity is:
a. melanoma
b. sarcoma
c. adenocarcinoma
d. esthesioneuroblastoma
e. squamous cell carcinoma
3225. Pyomyositis (acute pyogenic infection of muscles) is usually due
to:
a. klebsiella
c. escherichia coli
d. clostriduim
e. bacterioides

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3225
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3226. The most common pathogen in surgical wound infection is:

a. klebsiella
c. haemophilus influenzae
d. clostriduim
e. bacterioides
3227. The most common cardiac disease is:
a. valvular heart disease
b. congenital heart disease
c. coronary artery disease
d. congestive heart failure
e. cardiac tumor
3228. The most common pulmonary complication in patients who have
abdominal surgery is:
b. pneumothorax/pleural effusion
c. pulmonary aspiration
d. postoperative pneumonia
e. atelectasis
3229. The most common pulmonary complication among patients who die
after surgery is:
b. pneumothorax/pleural effusion
c. pulmonary aspiration
d. postoperative pneumonia
e. atelectasis
3230. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a complication of
ileostomy?
a. gallstones
b. kidney stones
c. paraileostomy abscess
d. malignant transformation
e. diarrhea
3231. The main complaint in patients with Guillain Barre syndrome
(ascending paralysis or acute polyneuropathy) is:
a. dyspnea
b. weakness
c. tachycardia
d. abnormalities of sweating
e. impaired sphincter control
3232. Asymptomatic gynecomastia in a 13 year old boy is best managed
by:
a. mammography
b. surgical excision
c. reassurance
d. chest X ray
e. excisional biopsy
3233. Diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is confirmed by:
a. indirect antiglobulin test
b. Schilling test
c. specific enzyme test
d. Ham's (acidified serum) test
e. Coomb's test
3234. Adult polycystic kidney disease is usually discovered:
a. at birth
b. in the first decade of life
c. in the second or third decade of life
d. in the fourth or fifth decade of life
e. after the sixth decade of life
3235. The most common presentation of mumps is:
a. high fever
b. abdominal pain
c. nausea/vomiting
d. scrotal swelling
e. parotid swelling
3236. Botulism is characterized by:
a. hepatosplenomegaly
b. fever
c. rash
d. diplopia
e. hypercalcemia
3237. Symptoms of pyridoxine (B6) deficiency are similar to those seen
with the deficiency of:
a. cyanocobalamin (B12)
b. ascorbic acid
c. niacin
d. riboflavin (B2)
e. thiamine (B1)
3238. The drug of choice for symptomatic patients with toxoplasmosis
(caused by protozoon) is:
a. corticosteroids
b. clindamycin
c. pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine
d. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole
e. tetracycline
3239. Toxoplasmosis is caused by:
a. virus
b. parasite
c. protozoa
d. spirochete
e. rickettsia
3240. Courvoisier's law (palpable gallbladder and jaundice) and
Trousseau's sign (migratory thrombophlebitis) are associated with:
a. splenic rupture
b. hepatoma
c. peptic ulcer
d. gastric cancer
e. pancreatic cancer
3241. Following are criteria for the diagnosis of systemic lupus
erythematosus, EXCEPT:
a. malar rash
b. photosensitivity
c. leukocytosis
d. serositis
e. thrombocytopenia
3242. Systemic lupus erythematosus is LEAST likely to be associated with:
a. hepatitis
b. synovitis
c. myocarditis
d. conjunctivitis
e. pleurisy (pleuritis)
3243. The sulfonamides are contraindicated in the latter part of pregnancy
because of the risk of neonatal:
a. hemorrhage
b. blindness
c. deafness
d. teeth discoloration
e. kernicterus
3244. The most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver in North America is:
a. hemochromatosis
b. alcoholic hepatitis
c. drug induced hepatitis
d. viral hepatitis
e. primary biliary cirrhosis
3245. Congenital intracranial aneurysms:
a. are usually symptomatic
b. are more common in children than in adults
c. usually occur at arterial biforcations
d. are never multiple
e. cause epidural hemorrhage when rupture
3246. The most reliable test for diagnosis of transient ischemic attacks is:
a. bilateral carotid arteriography
b. CT scan of the head

c. ultrasound
d. X ray of the head
e. electroencephalogram
3247. Drop attacks (atonic seizures, falls without warning/without loss of
consciousness) are associated with:
a. epileptic seizure
b. migraine headache
c. pseudotumor cerebri
d. subarachnoid hemorrhage (saccular aneurysms)
e. transient ischemic attacks (vertebrobasilar ischemia)
3248. Following are features of cholera, EXCEPT:
a. severe (rice-water) diarrhea
b. marked dehydration
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. marked hemoconcentration
e. hypotension/hypokalemia
3249. Nearly all patients who receive a full course of radiation therapy for
cancer of the lung/breast develop:
a. leukemia
b. hepatitis
c. skin ulcers
d. polycythemia
e. pulmonary fibrosis
3250. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is best treated with:
a. bronchodilators
b. anticholinergics
c. antimediators
d. corticosteroids/prednisone
e. theophyllines/amphotericin B

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3251. Cystic fibrosis is LEAST likely to be associated with:

a. digital clubbing
b. abnormal xylose absorption
c. glomerulonephritis
d. nasal polyps
e. gallstones/biliary cirrhosis
3252. Intrauterine device (IUD) has a failure rate of 2%-3%. absolute
contraindication/s of (IUD) is/are:
a. multiple sexual partners
b. pregnancy/pelvic inflammatory disease

c. diabetes mellitus/history of ectopic pregnancy
d. severe dysmenorrhea/endometrial hyperplasia
e. valvular heart disease
3253. The typical site of herpes zoster (shingles) is:
a. lower extremities
b. face/hands
c. intertriginous areas
d. lower abdomen
e. distribution of a nerve root
3254. The average incubation period in varicella (chickenpox) is:
a. 4 days
b. 9 days
c. 14 days
d. 20 days
e. one month
3255. Stein Leventhal syndrome (polycystic ovary syndrome) is
characterized by amenorrhea/hirsutism/obesity and:
a. low estrogen levels
b. high serum FSH
c. high serum LH
d. low urinary 17 ketosteroids
e. low plasma testosterone
3256. Sheehan's syndrome is associated with pituitary:
a. trauma
b. adenoma
c. fibrosis
d. hyperplasia
e. hemorrhagic necrosis
3257. The most important test for the diagnosis of adrenogenital syndrome
is:
a. plasma cortisol
b. urinary 17 ketosteroid
c. urinary gonadotropines
d. serum LH
e. dexamethasone suppression test
3258. The most common malignant bone tumor after 60 years of age is:
a. osteogenic sarcoma
b. Ewing's tumor
c. primary chondrosarcoma
d. multiple myeloma
e. fibrosarcoma
3259. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is:
a. idiopathic
b. inflammatory
c. thyroidectomy
d. neoplastic
e. congenital
3260. The most common site of osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) is:
a. distal metaphysis of the humerus
b. proximal metaphysis of the humerus
c. proximal metaphysis of the ulna
d. distal metaphysis of the femur
e. diaphysis of the humerus
3261. Which of the following is caused by human herpes virus type 6 and
7?
a. roseola
b. measles
c. rubella
d. infectious mononucleosis
e. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
3262. Which of the following is caused by human parvovirus B19?
a. roseola
b. measles
c. rubella
3263. Which of the following is caused by paramyxovirus?
a. roseola
b. measles
c. rubella
3264. In North America, AIDS is most common among:
a. hemophiliacs
b. heterosexual individuals
c. homosexual or bisexual men
d. homosexual intravenous drug users
e. homosexual or bisexual intravenous drug users
3265. In ages less than 50 years, arcus senilis indicates:
a. hyperammonemia
b. hyperprolactinoma
c. hyperaldosteronism
e. hypercholesterolemia
3266. Which of the following types of glaucoma is the most common?
a. congenital glaucoma
b. normal pressure glaucoma
c. chronic open angle glaucoma
d. acute angle closure glaucoma
e. chronic angle closure glaucoma
3267. Following are characteristics of SIADH, EXCEPT:
a. salt wasting
b. hyponatremia
c. concentrated urine
d. high plasma osmolarity
e. high urinary osmolarity
3268. Tzanck smear or cells (multinucleated giant cells) are seen in 75% of
cases of:
a. impetigo
b. tularemia
c. gonorrhea
d. erythrasma
e. genital herpes
3269. Renal secretion of potassium is decreased by:
a. alkalosis
b. aldosterone
c. spironolactone
e. diet high in potassium
3270. Sever skeletomuscular pain is characteristic of:
a. malaria
b. dengue fever
c. yellow fever
d. typhoid fever
3271. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by:
a. diarrhea
b. hyperaldosteronism
c. adrenal insufficiency
d. chronic renal failure
e. methanol (methyl alcohol) poisoning
3272. Respiratory acidosis is most compatible with:
a. pH = 7.41, HCO3 = 30, Pco2 = 42
b. pH = 7.42, HCO3 = 42, Pco2 = 40
c. pH = 7.31, HCO3 = 28, Pco2 = 62
d. pH = 7.48, HCO3 = 16, Pco2 = 18
e. pH = 7.67, HCO3 = 46, Pco2 = 48
3273. Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy) is associated with primary
glomerulonephritis type:
a. membranous
b. minimal changes
c. non-proliferative
d. mesangial proliferative
e. focal segmental sclerosis
3274. Which of the following ECG changes is typical of hypokalemia?
a. widening QRS
b. tall T waves
c. prominent U waves
d. prolonged PR intervals
e. all of the above

3275. During pregnancy:
a. RBF is decreased
b. GFR is decreased
c. kidney size is decreased
d. serum creatinine and urea are decreased
e. renal pelvis and ureters are constricted

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Answ ers
3275
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3276. A patient with leukemia develops pneumonia, which of the following

is most likely to be the cause?
a. echovirus
b. adenovirus
c. coronavirus
d. cytomegalovirus
3277. An AIDS patient with decreased vision develops hemiparesis and
then quadriparesis, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. poliomyelitis
b. multiple sclerosis
c. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
d. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSP)
e. progressive multifocal leukoencephalitis (PML)
3278. The most common cause of anaerobic infection in humans is:
a. bacteroides
b. fusobacterium
c. anaerobic cocci
d. clostridium difficile
e. clostridium perfringens
3279. Abdominal cramps is LEAST likely to be caused by:
a. vibrio cholerae
b. bacillus cereus
c. escherichia coli
e. clostridium perfringens
3280. Following are symptoms of acute viral hepatitis, EXCEPT:
a. rash
b. fever
c. jaundice
d. dark urine
e. dark stools
3281. The most common form of acute hepatitis in children in hepatitis:

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
3282. Cigarette smoking causes anal cancer and:
a. macrosomy
b. renal cancer
c. thyroid cancer
d. chronic hepatitis
e. all of the above
3283. ECG shows large R waves with ST-segment depression in leads V1
and V2, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. LBBB
b. hyperkalemia
c. inferior infarct
d. posterior infarct
e. pericardial effusion
3284. Arterial blood values show pH = 7.42, Pco2 = 42 and HCO3 = 24, the
most likely diagnosis is:
a. normal status
b. metabolic acidosis
d. respiratory acidosis
e. respiratory alkalosis
3285. The safest tetracycline given to patients with renal failure is:
a. minocycline
b. doxycycline
c. methacycline
d. demeclocycline
e. oxytetracycline
3286. Auer rod (an eosinophilic needlelike blast cell) is pathognomonic of:
a. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b. acute myeloid (myeogenous) leukemia
c. chronic myelocytic leukemia
d. hairy cell leukemia
e. Hodgkin's lymphoma
3287. The most common cause of sepsis (septicemia) and death in burn
patients is:
a. klebsiella pneumonia
b. pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. escherichia coli
e. haemophilus influenzae
3288. The causative agent in bubonic plague (transmitted by flea
bite/treated with streptomycin) is:
a. bacterial
b. viral
c. chlamydial
d. protozoal
e. unknown
3289. The causative agent in Kawasaki's disease is:
a. bacterial
b. viral
c. chlamydial
d. protozoal
e. unknown
3290. Bubonic plague is caused by:
a. yersinia pestis (aerobic gram-negative rod)
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. borrelia recurrentis
e. rickettsia prowazekii
3291. Epidemic louse-borne typhus (classical typhus fever) is caused by:
a. donovania granulomatis
e. rickettsia prowazekii
3292. Relapsing fever is caused by:
a. donovania granulomatis
3293. Strawberry spots on the vaginal mucosa are most likely to be seen
in:
a. syphilis
b. gonorrhea
c. candidiasis
d. trichomoniasis
e. granuloma inguinale
3294. Raspberry or strawberry tongue is associated with:
a. trichomoniasis
b. measles
c. mumps
d. scarlet fever
e. infective endocarditis
3295. Starvation decreases glucose and insulin, increases glucagone and
ketone body in the blood and causes:
a. hypochromic microcytic anemia
b. hypochromic normocytic anemia
c. hyperchromic macrocytic anemia
d. hemolysis

3296. Self mutilation/hyperuricemia are associated with:
a. Wilson's disease
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Fabry's disease
d. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
e. Von Hippel Lindau disease
3297. Progressive renal failure is most likely to occur in:
a. Wilson's disease
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Fabry's disease
d. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
e. Von Hippel Lindau disease
3298. A karyotype of 46XX is often seen in:
a. Down's syndrome
b. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. testicular feminization
e. true hermaphroditism
3299. A karyotype of 46XY is associated with:
a. Down's syndrome
b. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. testicular feminization
e. true hermaphroditism
3300. Following are associated with mental retardation (IQ below 70),
EXCEPT:
a. congenital hypothyroidism
b. homocystinuria
c. McArdle's disease
d. retinoblastoma
e. Tay Sachs disease

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Answ ers
3300
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3301. Following are associated with mental retardation, EXCEPT:

a. neurofibromatosis
b. homocystinuria
c. Niemann Pick disease
d. galactosemia
e. Tay Sachs disease
3302. Death from systemic lupus erythematosus is usually due to:
a. pneumonia
b. cardiac failure
c. asphyxia
d. renal failure
e. sepsis
3303. Absolute contraindication to combined birth control pill include:
a. hypertension
b. diabetes mellitus
c. migraine headache
d. history of hepatic tumor
e. active gallbladder disease
3304. Mittelschmerz is the pain caused by:
a. pericardial effusion
b. pleural effusion
c. ectopic pregnancy
d. ovarian torsion
e. ruptured follicular cyst at the time of ovulation
3305. Blepharitis is particularly common in children with:
a. necrotizing enterocolitis
b. maple syrup urine disease
c. phenylketonuria
d. Down's syndrome
e. coarctation of the aorta
3306. Characteristic (E shape) of esophagus on barium swallow is
seen in:
a. patent ductus arteriosus
b. coarctation of the aorta
c. mitral valve prolapse
d. aortic stenosis
e. atrial septal defect
3307. Continuous machinery murmur is heard in:
b. Ebstein's anomaly
c. mitral valve prolapse
d. aortic stenosis
e. atrial septal defect
3308. Osteogenic sarcoma/Ewing's sarcoma of the bone most
frequently present:
a. painful bone mass
b. no symptoms
c. headache
d. paraplegia
e. painless bone mass
3309. Periosteal elevation/lytic destruction/(onion skin or onion peel)
appearance on bone X ray are seen in:
a. multiple myeloma
b. osteogenic sarcoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d. osteomyelitis
e. eosinophilic granuloma of bone
3310. The most common brain tumor in children is:
a. astrocytoma
b. medulloblastoma
c. glioblastoma multiforme
d. craniopharyngioma
e. oligodendroglioma
3311. Children with neuroblastoma (the most common congenital tumor
occurring during the first year of life) usually present:
a. maculopapular rash
b. polyuria
c. constipation
d. nausea/vomiting
e. palpable abdominal mass
3312. Histoplasmosis is best treated with:
a. metronidazole
b. vancomycin
c. amphotericin B
d. griseofulvin
e. streptomycin
3313. Schistosomiasis is best treated with:
a. furazolidone
b. praziquantel
c. metronidazole
d. pyrimethamine
e. mebendazole
3314. The most common presentation of acquired toxoplasmosis is:
a. cervical adenopathy
b. maculopapular rash
c. fever
d. splenomegaly
e. chorioretinitis
3315. The most characteristic feature of Lyme disease is:
a. fever/chills
b. headache/myalgia
c. Bell's palsy
d. arthritis
e. erythema migrans
3316. Weil's disease (icterohemorrhagic fever) is characterized by
jaundice and high mortality rate which is a severe form of:
a. tularemia
b. listeriosis
c. psittacosis
d. leptospirosis
e. relapsing fever
3317. Relapsing fever (borreliosis) is usually diagnosed by:
a. blood culture
b. muscle biopsy
c. lymph node biopsy
d. microscopic examination of the blood
e. microscopic examination of the urine
3318. Chlamydia psittaci (psittacosis) is transmitted to humans mainly
by:
a. humans
b. cows
c. birds
d. raccoons
e. skunks
3319. Classic (snowstorm) appearance on chest X ray is seen in:
a. mycoplasmal pneumonia
b. sarcoidosis
c. legionella infection
d. miliary tuberculosis
e. bronchial asthma
3320. The most common cause of acute purulent otitis media is:
a. staphylococcus epidermatidis
b. escherichia coli
c. staphylococcus aureus
d. streptococcus (pneumococcus) pneumonia
e. haemophilus influenzae type B
3321. Group B streptococcal disease (which is most common in
infants) is best treated with:
a. penicillin G
b. amphotericin B
c. ampicillin
d. erythromycin
e. corticosteroids
3322. Which of the following is the most common cause of septic
arthritis in childern less than 2 years:
a. salmonella
b. escherichia coli
c. neisseria gonorrheae
3323. Cholera is best prevented by:
a. amoxicillin
b. ampicillin
c. streptomycin
d. kanamycin
e. vancomycin
3324. Shigellosis (bacillary dysentery) is best treated with:
a. amoxicillin
b. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole
c. streptomycin
d. kanamycin
e. vancomycin
3325. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding is:
a. trauma
b. tumor
c. infection
d. coagulopathy
e. dysfunctional uterine bleeding

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Answ ers
3325
3326. The usual site of ganglion is:

a. ankle
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b. elbow
c. vertebral spine
d. finger
e. wrist
3327. The lesion in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (coxa plana) is located in:
a. tibial tubercle
b. calcaneus
c. vertebral ring
d. femoral head
e. tarsal navicular
3328. Volkmann's ischemic contracture (compartment syndrome) is
associated with:
a. fracture of the hip
b. fracture of the femoral head
c. fracture of the patella
d. fracture of the clavicle
e. supracondylar fracture of the humerus
3329. Air in bowel wall and/or in biliary tree is seen in:
a. Meckel's diverticulum
b. necrotizing enterocolitis
c. drug induced colitis
d. Hirschsprung's disease
e. ulcerative colitis
3330. Meckel's diverticulum (usually presents as painless rectal
bleeding/best treated with excision)is best diagnosed by:

a. abdominal X ray
b. ultrasound
c. 99mTc scan
d. stool examination
e. intestinal biopsy
3331. Congenital fusion of the cervical vertebrae is seen in:
a. osteoporosis
b. Tay Sachs disease
c. Marfan syndrome
d. Prader Willi syndrome
e. Klippel Feil syndrome
3332. Long fingers/toes (arachnodactyly) is associated with:
a. myasthenia gravis
b. Tay Sachs disease
c. Marfan syndrome
d. Prader Willi syndrome
e. Down syndrome
3333. Primary brain tumors in children most commonly are:
a. craniopharyngiomas
b. germ cell tumors
c. glial cell tumors
d. meningeal tumors
e. lymphomas
3334. The hallmark of early renal failure is:
a. hypertension
b. oliguria
c. uremia
d. hypercreatininemia
e. hyperkalemia
3335. Chlamydial pneumonia with conjunctivitis and cough, occurs most
commonly in ages:
a. 2 to 12 weeks
b. 1 to 2 years
c. 4 to 6 years
d. 6 to 10 years
e. 12 to 14 years
3336. Fever is LEAST likely to be associated with:
a. bacterial pneumonia
b. viral pneumonia
c. mycoplasmal pneumonia
d. chlamydial pneumonia
e. aspiration pneumonia
3337. Mediastinitis is usually due to a complication of:
a. radiotherapy
b. lung cancer
c. chylothorax
d. esophageal carcinoma
e. iatrogenic esophageal perforation
3338. Which of the following is/are LEAST likely to cause bloody diarrhea?
a. shigella/escherichia coli
b. cryptosporidium/yersinia
c. clostridium perfringens
d. clostridium difficile/campylobacter
e. salmonella/vibrio parahaemolyticus
3339. Following are associated with blood in stool, EXCEPT:
a. giardia lamblia
b. cryptosporidium
c. shigella
d. clostridium difficile
e. salmonella
3340. The most common small bowel cancer in children is:
a. adenocarcinoma
c. lymphosarcoma
d. leiomyosarcoma
3341. Olive sized mass in the subphrenic location is usually felt in:
a. intussusception
b. hiatal hernia
c. pyloric stenosis
d. Meckel's diverticulum
e. congenital megacolon
3342. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction in the first 2 years
of life is:
a. foreign body
b. intestinal lymphoma
c. pyloric stenosis
e. intussusception
3343. 2 year old child with a sausage shaped mass in upper abdomen and
blood-stained stools, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. intussusception
b. hiatal hernia
c. pyloric stenosis
e. congenital megacolon
3344. (String sign) on X ray is associated with:
a. hiatal hernia
b. congenital megacolon
c. Meckel's diverticulum
d. peptic ulcer/ulcerative colitis
e. pyloric stenosis/Crohn's colitis
3345. The most common pathogen in myocarditis/ pericarditis is:

a. mumps virus
b. cytomegalovirus
c. herpes virus
d. coxackievirus A
e. coxackievirus B
3346. The most common cyanotic congenital heart defect presenting after 2
weeks of age is:
a. hypoplastic left heart syndrome
b. tricuspid atresia
c. pulmonary atresia
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
e. transposition of the great arteries
3347. Midsystolic click followed by late or midsystolic murmur is heard in:
b. ventricular septal defect
c. atrial septal defect
d. mitral valve prolapse
e. coarctation of the aorta
3348. Among congenital heart diseases, the incidence of ventricular septal
defect is about:
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 45%
e. 50%
3349. The most common cause of congestive heart failure in children is:
a. rheumatic fever
b. respiratory disease
c. sepsis/acidosis
d. myocarditis
e. congenital heart disease
3350. The most common anterior mediastinal mass in infants is:
a. thymoma
b. lymphoma
c. thymic cyst
d. normal thymus
e. teratoma

Show Answ ers
3350
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3351. The most common cause of rapidly developing mediastinal

compression in children is:
a. thymoma
b. lymphosarcoma
c. bronchogenic cyst
d. neuroblastoma
e. neuroganglioblastoma
3352. The most common solid malignant tumor in children under the
age of 4 years is:
a. Wilm's tumor (nephroblastoma)
b. lymphosarcoma
c. adenocarcinoma of pancreas
d. neuroblastoma
e. hepatoma
3353. The most common cause of acute hospital admission in children
less than 2 years of age is:
a. viral croup
b. bronchitis
c. bronchiolitis
d. laryngomalacia
e. epiglottitis
3354. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in chlamydial
pneumonia:
a. fever
b. wheezes
c. cough
d. conjunctivitis
e. nasal discharge
3355. Diagnosis of laryngomalacia (congenital laryngeal stridor) is
established by:
a. laryngeal biopsy
b. laryngoscopy/X-ray
c. pulmonary function tests
d. chest X-ray
e. arterial blood gases
3356. Following are features of viral croup, EXCEPT:
a. stridor
b. barking cough
c. epiglottid enlargement
d. absence of fever in most cases
e. subepiglottid narrowing (steeple sign)
3357. Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed by:
a. urinalysis
b. monospot test
c. sputum culture
d. chest X ray
e. lymph node biopsy
3358. Tiny ulcers on the anterior palate of the oral cavity are most likely
due to:
a. infectious mononucleosis
b. measles
c. oral thrush
d. herpangina
e. oral syphilis
3359. The most common cause of tonsillar abscess is:
a. staphylococcus aureus
b. beta hemolytic streptococci
c. alpha hemolytic streptococci
d. escherichia coli
e. bacterioides fragilis
3360. Death in patients with Ludwig's angina is usually due to:
a. starvation
b. pneumonia
c. sepsis
d. congestive heart failure
e. sudden airway obstruction
3361. Ranula is a:
a. cutaneous ulcer
b. mediastinal mass
c. parotid cyst
d. sublingual cyst
e. sublingual node
3362. Perleche (fissure of the angle of the mouth) is usually due to:
a. candida albicans
c. escherichia coli
d. streptococcus (pneumococcus)
3363. The most common cause of recurrent sinusitis is:
a. septal deviation
b. allergic sinusitis
c. nasal polyps
d. foreign body
e. cystic fibrosis
3364. The most common presentation of acute sinusitis in children is:
a. retro - orbital pain
b. fever
c. headache
d. periorbital swelling
e. nasal discharge
3365. The most common infectious disease is:
a. toxoplasmosis
b. mycoplasmal pneumonia
c. acute viral rhinitis
d. amebiasis
e. measles
3366. Recurrent otitis media is effectively treated with:

a. penicillin / erythromycin
b. sulfisoxazole / amoxicillin
c. streptomycin / kanamycin
d. gentamycin / ampicillin
e. tetracycline / chloramphenicol
3367. Recurrent otitis media is defined as 3 or more episodes of otitis
media within a:
a. 2 month period
b. 4 month period
c. 6 month period
d. 12 month period
e. 24 month period
3368. The most common ocular disorder in children is:
a. uveitis
b. conjunctivitis
c. retinitis pigmentosa
d. blepharitis
e. corneal ulcers
3369. The most common cause of infectious neonatal conjunctivitis is:
a. viral
b. gonococcal
c. pneumococcal
d. chlamydial
e. staphylococcal
3370. Granuloma annulare is best treated with:
a. corticosteroids
b. kwellada
c. antibiotics
d. radiotherapy
3371. Lindane (gamma benzene hexachloride, Kwell) is used in
treatment of:
a. scabies
b. tinea versicolor
c. herpes simplex
d. molluscum contagiosum
e. atopic dermatitis
3372. Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholinergic
effects of mushroom poisoning?
a. naloxone
b. physostigmine
c. ethanol
d. atropine
e. methylene blue
3373. Carbon monoxide poisoning is treated with:
a. naloxone
b. physostigmine
c. ethanol
d. atropine
e. oxygen
3374. Alopecia/scaly dermatitis are associated with deficiency of:
a. vitamin C
b. pyridoxine
c. pantothenic acid
d. biotin
e. cyanocobalamin (B12)
3375. Vitamin E (tocopherols) appears to protect against coronary
artery disease, its deficiency is associated with:
a. beriberi
b. hemorrhage
c. osteomalacia
d. xerophthalmia
e. hemolytic anemia

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Answ ers
3375
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3376. Which of the following is a component of hemoglobin (hematocrit)?

a. zinc
b. iron
c. cobalt
d. iodine
e. fluorine
3377. Salpingitis (pelvic inflammatory disease/ cervical motion tenderness)
in a 20 year old female is best diagnosed by:
a. ultrasound
b. laparoscopy
c. culdocentesis
d. uterine biopsy
e. urinalysis/cervical gram stain
3378. The most common complaint of women with pelvic inflammatory
disease is:
a. fever
b. vaginal discharge
c. abdominal pain
d. dysuria
e. excessive menstrual bleeding
3379. The most common initial presentation of acoustic neuroma is:
a. vertigo
b. tinnitus
c. headache
d. ipsilateral deafness
e. facial weakness/numbness
3380. The most common breast disorder in adolescent girls is:
a. intraductal papilloma
b. fibroadenoma
c. fibrocystic disease
d. breast hypertrophy
e. carcinoma of the breast
3381. After accidents, the second most common cause of death in
adolescents/young adults is:
a. suicide
b. pneumonia
c. infection
d. neoplasms
e. heart disease
3382. Diagnosis of necrotizing enterocolitis is confirmed by:
a. rectal biopsy
b. blood culture
c. complete blood count
d. presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on X ray
e. presence of blood in the stool
3383. The most common presenting sign in necrotizing enterocolitis is:
a. bradycardia
b. abdominal distention
c. vomiting
d. decreased urine output
e. increased apnea
3384. The mortality rate for neonatal meningitis is approximately:
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 35%
e. 50%
3385. The most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
is:
a. meconium aspiration syndrome
b. hyaline membrane disease
c. spontaneous pneumothorax
d. congenital pneumonia
e. pleural effusion
3386. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing occurs from cutting
the:
a. optic nerve
b. optic tract
c. optic chiasma
d. geniculocalcarine tract
e. all of the above
3387. Which of the following can NOT cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. H2O
b. CO2 and O2
c. protein and cholesterol
d. non-ionized (lipid-soluble) drugs
e. ionized (non-lipid-soluble) drugs
3388. Respiratory response to exercise result in increased:
a. venous Pco2
b. O2 consumption
c. CO2 production
d. ventilation rate
e. all of the above
3389. Shift of hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve to the left (e.g. fetal
hemoglobin / carbon monoxide poisoning) causes increased:
a. pH
b. Pco2
c. 2,3 DPG
d. temperature
e. all of the above
3390. The most common cause of ophthalmia neonatarum in North
America is:
a. s. aureus
b. chlamydia
c. herpes simplex
d. silver nitrate use

e. neisseria gonococcal
3391. Cholecystokinine (CCK) is a GI hormone which inhibits:
a. gastric emptying
b. contraction of gallbladder
c. pancreatic enzyme secretion
d. growth of exocrine pancreas
e. all of the above
3392. Regarding GI motility, the frequency of slow waves is lowest in the
stomach and highest in the:
a. colon
b. ileum
c. rectum
d. duodenum
e. esophagus
3393. Which of the following gastric hormones stimulates insulin release?
a. gastrin
b. secretin
c. cholecystokinin (CCK)
d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
e. all of the above
3394. Which of the following gastric hormones is chemically homologous to
glucagon?
a. gastrin
b. secretin
c. cholecystokinin (CCK)
d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
e. all of the above
3395. Which of the following is decreased during hemorrhage?
a. angiotensin II
b. renin and heart rate
c. aldosterone, ADH and TPR
d. epinephrine and norepinephrine
3396. Parotid gland swellings are malignant in:
a. 20%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 75%
e. 90%
3397. Submandibular gland swellings are malignant in:
a. 20%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 75%
e. 90%
3398. Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency:
a. causes hyperkalemia
b. causes hyperpigmentation
c. causes volume contraction
d. causes metabolic alkalosis
e. is due to primary ACTH deficiency
3399. Secretion of growth hormone (somatotropin) is increased by:
a. obesity
b. pregnancy
c. hypoglycemia
d. somatostatin
e. somatomedins
3400. Conn's syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by:
a. hypotension
b. hyperkalemia
d. increased renin secretion
e. all of the above

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Answ ers
3400
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3401. Childhood constipation could be caused by all of the following,

EXCEPT:
a. cerebral palsy
b. hyperthyroidism
c. meningomyelocele
d. central hypotonia
e. Hirschsprung's disease
3402. Oat cell cancers of lung and prostate are best treated with:
a. adenosine
b. tamoxifen
c. etoposide
d. doxorubicin
e. methotrexate
3403. Tall stature, long extremities and dissecting aneurysm risk are
features of:
a. Reye's syndrome
b. Marfan's syndrome
c. Beiter's syndrome
d. Cushing's syndrome
e. fragile X syndrome
3404. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by:
a. X-linked recessive
b. macroorchidism
c. long face and jaw
d. large ears
e. all of the above
3405. Which of the following is a risk factor for amniotic fluid embolism?
a. multiparity
b. large fetus
c. rapid labor
d. late maternal age
e. all of the above
3406. Angiomyolipoma (renal hamartoma) is found in approximately
45% to 80% of patients with:
a. hydrocephalus
b. achondroplasia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. multiple sclerosis
e. tuberous sclerosis
3407. Sarcoidosis is associated with:
a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphocytosis
c. increased ESR
d. hypoglobulinemia
e. lowered angiotensin convering enzyme
3408. Regarding antenatal monitoring, fetal bradycardia occurs in all of
the following, EXCEPT:
a. acute cord prolapse
b. maternal hypotension
c. uterine hypercontractility
d. rapid descent during labor
e. maternal use of sympathomimetics
3409. Regarding antenatal monitoring, fetal bradycardia occurs in:
a. maternal fever
b. chorioamnionitis
c. acute cord prolapse
d. fetal or maternal anemia
e. maternal hyperthyroidism
3410. Polyhydramnios occurs in:
a. 1/50 deliveries
b. 1/100 deliveries
c. 1/250 deliveries
d. 1/450 deliveries
e. 1/750 deliveries
3411. The most common cause of premature labor is:
a. idiopathic
b. preeclampsia
c. polyhydramnios
d. maternal smoking
e. multiple gestation
3412. Maternal contraindications to tocolysis (inhibition of uterine
contractions) include:
a. preeclampsia
b. chorioamnionitis
c. placenta previa or abruption
d. diabetes and heart disease
e. all of the above
3413. Fetal contraindications to tocolysis include:
a. fetal distress
b. multiple gestation
c. erythroblastosis fetalis
d. severe congenital anomalies
e. all of the above
3414. Which of the following is classified as paraphilia?
a. fetishism
b. transvestitism
c. sexual sadism
d. exhibitionism
e. all of the above

3415. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with lesion mainly in the
cranial nerve type:
a. X (vagus)
b. VII (facial)
c. XI (accessory)
d. IX (glossopharyngeal)
3416. 72 year old woman has shingles, she develops sudden, severe
facial weakness and pain, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. Reye's syndrome
b. Reiter's syndrome
c. Behcet's syndrome
d. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
e. Guillain Barre syndrome
3417. The most common presentation of bladder carcinoma is:
a. pain
b. hematuria
c. irritation
d. no symptoms
e. clot retention
3418. Adenomyosis (endometrial glands found within the myometrium
which occurs in parous women 40-50 years old) is NOT
associated with:
a. dyscoria
b. dyschezia
c. dypareunia
d. menorrhagia
e. dysmenorrhea
3419. Testicular feminization syndrome is associated with:
a. infertility
b. short stature
c. presence of ovaries
d. normal male phenotype
e. normal female karyotype
3420. Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian carcinoma?
a. nulliparity
b. late menopause
c. Caucasian race
d. positive family history
e. all of the above
3421. Which of the following is a complication of cesarean section?
a. infection
b. hemorrhage
c. lacerations of the uterus
d. subsequent rupture of the uterus
e. all of the above
3422. Social inhibition, timidity and hypersensitivity to negative
evaluation are characteristics of personality disorder type:
a. avoidant
b. paranoid
c. dependent
d. antisocial
e. borderline
3423. The percentage of the population with the Gilbert's syndrome is:
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 7%
d. 16%
e. 23%
3424. If one of the parents has Huntington's disease, the risk of
developing the disorder for their children is one in:
a. 2
b. 30
c. 50
d. 75
e. 100
3425. The average daily caloric requirement for young people (in
kcal/day) is:
a. 1100 for females and 1500 for males
b. 2000 for females and 2700 for males
c. 3200 for females and 3800 for males
d. 4100 for females and 4500 for males
e. 5200 for females and 5600 for males


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Answ ers
3425
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3426. The incidence of thalassemia is highest among:

a. Asians
b. Afro-Americans
c. Native Indians
d. South Americans
e. Mediterranean decent
3427. Which of the following cancers is/are more common in Caucasians
than in African-Americans?
a. oral
b. gastric
c. laryngeal
d. esophageal
e. bladder and renal
3428. Nulliparity is associated with lower incidence of:
a. osteoporosis
b. breast cancer
c. ovarian cancer
d. endometrial cancer
e. pelvic inflammatory disease
3429. Following are characteristics of carcinoid syndrome (serotoninsecreting, argentaffin cell tumor), EXCEPT:
a. diarrhea/abdominal pain
b. bronchoconstriction/dyspnea/wheezing
c. cutaneous flushing
d. right sided cardiac valve disease
e. increased urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
3430. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in glaucoma?
a. diazepam
b. epinephrine
c. pilocarpine
d. timolol maleate
e. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
3431. (Bamboo spine) is a late radiographic sign of:
a. psoriatic arthritis
b. osteoarthritis
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. ankylosing spondylitis
e. gouty arthritis
3432. (Wrist drop) is associated with the injury to which of the peripheral
nerves?
a. sciatic
b. median
c. ulnar
d. radial
e. peroneal
3433. Capillary hemangioma (strawberry nevus or birthmark) is usually
treated with:
a. fluorouracil (5-FU)
b. surgical excision
c. steroid creams
d. radiotherapy
3434. Frohlich's syndrome is associated with amenorrhea and:
a. galactorrhea
b. gigantism / acromegaly
c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair
d. obesity / hirsutism / adipose tissue deposits
e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy
3435. Chiari Frommel's syndrome is associated with amenorrhea and:
a. galactorrhea
d. obesity / hirsutism / osteoporosis

3436. Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) is associated with
amenorrhea and:
a. galactorrhea
d. obesity / hirsutism / hypertension
3437. Basophilic adenoma of pituitary (Cushing's disease) is associated
with amenorrhea and:
a. galactorrhea
d. obesity / hirsutism / hypertension / osteoporosis
3438. Acidophilic adenoma of pituitary is associated with amenorrhea and:
a. galactorrhea / uterine atony
b. acromegaly / gigantism / bitemporal hemianopsia
d. obesity / hirsutism / osteoporosis
3439. Chromophobe adenoma of the pituitary is most likely to cause
amenorrhea and:
a. hirsutism / osteosarcoma
b. increased libido / hypotension

c. postpartum hemorrhage / cardiomegaly
d. gigantism / acromegaly / bitemporal hemianopsia
e. hyperprolactinemia / persistent lactation / uterine atony
3440. Which of the following types of abortions is associated with high
incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
a. missed abortion
b. inevitable abortion
c. habitual abortion
d. incomplete abortion
e. complete abortion
3441. At the end of third month of gestation, the fetus weighs:
a. 4 grams
b. 14 grams
c. 140 grams
d. 600 grams
e. 1000 grams
3442. Podophyllin is contraindicated in pregnancy and used for treatment of
lesions smaller than 2 cm caused by:
a. treponema pallidum
b. herpesvirus hominis type 1
c. herpesvirus hominis type 2
d. human papilloma virus
e. herpes zoster virus
3443. The most common cause of herpes genitalis is:

a. Epstein Barr
b. herpesvirus hominis type 1
c. herpesvirus hominis type 2
d. human papilloma virus
e. herpes zoster virus
3444. Following are risk factors for endometrial carcinoma, EXCEPT:
a. obesity
c. hypertension
d. prolonged use of estrogens
e. prolonged use of oral contraceptives
3445. Following are absolute contraindications for birth control pills,
EXCEPT:
a. coronary artery disease
c. impaired hepatic function
d. thromboembolic disease
e. breast cancer
3446. The initial treatment of choriocarcinoma is:
a. estrogens
b. tamoxifen
c. methotrexate
d. radiotherapy
e. hysterectomy
3447. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of gonorrhea?
a. urinalysis
b. Frei test
c. Papanicolau smear
d. darkfield examination
e. Thayer Martin medium
3448. The most common complication of ovarian cyst is:
a. rupture
b. torsion
c. intestinal obstruction
d. peritonitis
e. malignant transformation
3449. Rectal strictures may be found in females and homosexual males
with:
a. genital warts
b. lymphogranuloma venereum
c. chancroid
d. gonorrhea
3450. Donovan bodies are found in:
a. syphilis
b. lymphogranuloma venereum
c. chancroid
d. gonorrhea

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Answ ers
3450
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3451. White cheesy or curd like, adherent vaginal discharge is seen in:
a. gonorrhea
b. genital candidiasis
c. trichomoniasis
d. syphilis
3452. Green-yellow/frothy/malodorous vaginal discharge is most likely to be
caused by:
a. gonorrhea
b. genital candidiasis
c. trichomoniasis
d. syphilis
3453. The incidence of appendiceal perforation in children with acute

appendicitis is:
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
e. 40%
3454. Aortoiliac occlusive disease (LeRiche's syndrome) is best diagnosed
by:
a. ultrasound
b. aortography
c. abdominal X ray
d. aortic wall biopsy
e. abdominal CT scan
3455. The incidence of colorectal carcinoma in patients with familial
polyposis is:
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 80%
e. 100%
3456. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome may be caused by:
a. amantidine
b. levodopa
c. bromocriptine
d. dantrolene
e. tricyclic antidepressants
3457. Mortality rate for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is about:
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
e. 40%
3458. Following are drugs used in treatment of Parkinson's disease,
EXCEPT:
a. benztropine / cycrimine
b. amitriptyline / imipramine
c. bromocriptine / ethiopropazine
d. trihexyphenidyl / biperiden
e. levodopa / chlorphenoxamine
3459. The drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii pneumonitis
(pneumocytosis) is:
a. corticosteroids
b. clindamycin
c. pyrimethamine
d. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole
e. tetracycline
3460. Rabies immune globulin is recommended for all:
a. close personal contacts with hepatitis A
b. health care personnel

c. pregnant women
d. individuals bitten by wild animals
e. individuals with meningococcal meningitis
3461. Slow/deep respiration (Kussmaul breathing) is a characteristic of:
a. cystic fibrosis
b. bronchial asthma
c. diabetic ketoacidosis
d. respiratory distress syndrome
e. chronic obstructive lung disease
3462. Shyness/timidity/loneliness/social discomfort/fear of rejection are
seen in personality disorder type:
a. avoidant
b. paranoid
c. dependent
d. antisocial
e. borderline
3463. Which of the following personality disorders occurs almost
exclusively in women?
a. avoidant
b. histerionic (hysterical)
c. dependent
d. schizotypal
e. passive - aggressive
3464. Morphea (dermal fibrosis producing plaques of thickened skin) is

associated with:
a. dermatomyositis (polymyositis)
b. polyarteritis nodosa
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)
e. systemic lupus erythematosus
3465. The most common cancer in Caucasians is the cancer of:
a. lung
b. colon
c. skin
d. liver
e. kidney
3466. Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) after pregnancy may
suggest the diagnosis of:
a. carcinoma of the cervix
b. uterine choriocarcinoma/hydatidiform mole
c. carcinoma of the uterine corpus
d. granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
e. anencephalic pregnancy
3467. Sepsis (septicemia) in abruptio placentae is usually due to:
a. listeria monocytogen
b. clostridium perfringens
c. clostridium difficile
d. staphylococcus vaginalis
e. neisseria gonorrheae
3468. Dilatation and curettage (D and C) is most useful in women with:
a. vulvar pruritus
b. postcoital bleeding
c. abdominal distention
d. postmenopausal bleeding
e. postcoital abdominal pain
3469. Fetal meningomyelocele is best detected by:
a. amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein (AFT)
b. amniotic fluid chromosomal study
c. maternal urinary estirol
d. fetal blood sampling
3470. The main symptom in children with methemoglobulinemia is hypoxia
and:
a. abdominal distention
b. skin rash
c. diarrhea
d. cyanosis
e. edema
3471. In acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis), positive blood
culture usually indicates the presence of:
a. streptococci
b. staphylococci
c. meningococci
d. gonococci
3472. Following are associated with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian
crisis), EXCEPT:
a. lymphadenopathy
b. high fever
c. petechiae
d. abnormal skin pigmentation
e. hyperglycemia/alkalosis
3473. Subclavian artery compression in cervical rib compression is ruled
out by:
a. Brodie Trendelenburg test
b. Allen test
c. Schwartz test
d. Adson's test
e. Tinel's test
3474. The most common nosocomial infection is:
a. urinary tract infection
b. surgical wound infection
c. respiratory tract infection
d. hepatobiliary tract infection
e. gastrointestinal tract infection
3475. Maternal tetracycline therapy is associated with fetal:

a. blindness
b. gray baby syndrome
c. aplastic anemia
d. teeth discoloration
e. kernicterus

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Answ ers
3475
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3476. Gray baby syndrome is a circulatory collapse that can occur in

premature and newborn infants receiving large doses of:
a. tetracycline
b. streptomycin
c. griseofulvin
d. erythromycin
e. chloramphenicol
3477. Which of the following hepatic tumors occurs almost exclusively in
men?
a. hemangioma
b. adenoma
c. focal nodular hyperplasia

d. primary liver cancer
3478. Tardive dyskinesia (more common in women/can be treated with
reserpine) may occur after at least 6 months of treatment with:
a. lithium
b. tricyclic antidepressants
c. anxiolytic agents (sedatives)
d. antipsychotics (neuroleptics)
e. carbamazepine
3479. Familial Mediterranean fever is caused by:
a. virus
b. anaerobic bacillus
c. rickettsia
d. spirochete
e. uncertain etiology
3480. Anthrax is caused by:
a. aerobic bacilli
b. anaerobic bacilli
c. gram positive cocci
d. gram positive bacilli
e. spirochetes
3481. Leptospirosis is also known as Weil's disease or icterohemorrhagic
fever which is caused by:
a. spirochetes
b. anaerobic bacilli
c. rickettsias
d. parasites
e. viruses
3482. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in Reiter's
syndrome?
a. stomatitis
b. carditis/aortic regurgitation
c. dactylitis (sausage digits)
d. hepatosplenomegaly
e. keratoderma blennorhagica
3483. Following are features of Gaucher's disease (increased cerebroside
deposition/splenomegaly), EXCEPT:
a. hepatomegaly/protuberant abdomen
b. Gaucher's cells in marrow/seizures
c. bone and joint pain/anemia/lethargy
d. increased serum cholesterol
e. increased serum acid phosphatase/thrombocytopenia
3484. Antidote for dipyridamole (persantine) overdose is:
a. atropine
b. aminophylline
c. nitrate
d. naloxolone
e. chlorpromazine
3485. Wegener's granulomatosis is best treated with:
a. amantidine
b. azathioprine
c. prednisone
d. thiazide
e. cyclophosphamide
3486. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be involved in Wegener's
granulomatosis?
a. spleen
b. kidney
c. middle ear
d. sinuse
e. lung
3487. TORCH syndrome (TORCH complex) refers to all of the following
disorders, EXCEPT:
a. toxoplasmosis
b. rubella
c. cytomegalic inclusion disease
e. syphilis/herpes simplex virus
3488. The most important initial diagnostic procedure for a one year old
child with seizures is:
a. EEG
b. arterial blood gases

c. CT scan of the head
d. spinal tap
e. brain X ray
3489. Simple febrile seizures (febrile convulsion syndrome) most commonly
occur between ages:
a. 2 weeks to 2 months
b. 2 to 6 months
c. 6 months to 3 years
d. 5 to 10 years
e. 10 to 15 years
3490. Flexion deformity of the proximal interphalangeal joint is seen in:
a. Boxer's fracture
b. Dupuytren's contracture
c. Mallet's finger
d. carpal tunnel syndrome
e. Boutonniere deformity
3491. Patent ductus arteriosus is kept open by:
a. histamine
b. indomethacin
c. catecholamines
d. acetylcholine
e. prostaglandins
3492. Following promote the closer of patent ductus arteriosus, EXCEPT:
a. histamine
b. indomethacin
c. catecholamines
d. acetylcholine
e. prostaglandins
3493. In term infants, patent ductus arteriosus usually closes:
a. immediately after birth
b. 24 hours after birth
c. 1 to 3 days after birth
d. 8 to 15 days after birth
e. during the last month of pregnancy
3494. Pheochromocytoma/neuroblastoma are associated with increased
urinary:
a. 5 hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5 HIAA)
b. vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
c. urobilinogen
d. aldosterone
e. hydroxyproline
3495. The most common soft tissue malignant tumor in adults is:
a. liposarcoma
b. fibrosarcoma
c. neurofibrosarcoma
d. rhabdomyosarcoma
e. synoviosarcoma
3496. The most common soft tissue malignant tumor in children is:
a. liposarcoma
b. fibrosarcoma
c. neurofibrosarcoma
d. rhabdomyosarcoma
e. synoviosarcoma
3497. The usual site of Ewing's sarcoma is:
a. periosteum
b. epiphysis
c. metaphysis
d. diaphysis
e. articular cartilage
3498. Bone X ray in bronchogenic carcinoma characteristically shows:
a. aneurysmal bone cyst
b. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
c. linear calcifications
d. bony erosions/osteophytes
e. generalized demineralization
3499. The initial complaint of patients with Paget's disease of bone (osteitis
deformans) usually is:
a. deafness
b. palpitations
c. bone pain
d. bowing of legs
e. paraplegia
3500. Following are causes or predisposing factors for osteoporosis,
EXCEPT:
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. Cushing's syndrome
c. homocystinuria
d. steroid therapy
e. multiparity

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