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A320 Series Aircraft Systems Exam

Student Name
Instructor
Name
Date

Select the best available answer in the space provided. There is only one correct answer for each
question. Please read each question carefully. You have 1.5 hours to complete the exam. All classroom
posters and graphics may be used as a reference. NO AIRCRAFT MANUALS are allowed to complete the
exam!

1.

What component unrelated to the CVR must be selected ON for a successful CVR test?
a) RMP # 1
b) Cockpit speaker
c)

2.

Parking brake

If the CAPT and PURS/CAPT switch on the EVAC panel is set to CAPT, the complete
Evacuation Alert System is activated by selecting what pushbutton(s) to on?
a) Cockpit COMMAND pb
b) Cockpit COMMAND pb or cabin CMD pb
c)

3.

Cabin CMD pb

If RMP # 2 is set to tune a navaid (i.e., the NAV pb is selected on and the green light is
illuminated), which FMGC(s) lose auto tuning capability?
a) FMGC # 2
b) FMGC # 1
c)

4.

Both FMGCs

Which position of the INT/RAD switch must be used with care since it creates a hot
mike for interphone communications?
a) INT
b) Neutral
c)

5.

RAD

If a mechanic is stationed at engine 1 and communicating on the service interphone,


which ACP selection knob must be released to hear the mechanic?
a) INT
b) CAB
c)

VHF 3

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6.

In the event of a failed ACP, how can the pilot continue to make ACP selections?
a) No pilot action is required. The failed ACP is automatically replaced with ACP 3
b) The failed ACP must be reset by selecting the ACP OFF then ON
c) The failed ACP can be replaced by ACP 3 using the AUDIO SWITCHING
selector

7.

An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend?
a) MECH
b) ATT
c)

8.

CALL

The ADIRS ALIGN lights flash to indicate an alignment fault. Which of the following is
an alignment fault that causes the ALIGN lights to flash?
a) Excessive movement during alignment
b) First officer enters present position
c)

9.

The nosewheel steering is disconnected during alignment

A fast alignment occurs by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and
back to NAV within how many seconds?
a) Ten
b) Five
c)

10.

Three

ADIRU # 2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays?


a) Captains PFD and ND
b) First officers PFD and ND
c)

11.

Captains PFD and first officers ND

At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, all of the following
occur except?
a) The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates
b) ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated
c)

12.

The external horn is activated

Assuming GPS is available, the ADIRUs calculate all of the following positions, except?
a) An IRS position
b) A GPS/IRS hybrid position
c) A MIX IRS position

13.

If selected ON, which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear
retracted?
a) Nose lights (taxi and takeoff)
b) Landing lights
c)

14.

Wing lights

Regardless of switch position, the SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs illuminate
automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?

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a) 10,000 (+/- 350 feet)


b) 10,800 (+/- 350 feet)
c) 11,300 (+/- 350 feet)
15.

When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by
either the DC ESS SHED bus or what other power source?
a) AC BUS 1
b) Internal batteries
c)

16.

BAT BUS

When illuminated, the emergency escape path marking system (exit markers [A319] or
exit markers AND escape path lights [some A321s]) are powered ONLY by what power
source?
a) BAT BUS
b) DC ESS SHED bus
c) Internal Batteries

17.

The 12 minute internal batteries are charged by what power source, provided the
lights, signs and/or markers are NOT illuminated?
a) BAT BUS
b) DC ESS SHED BUS
c)

18.

AC BUS 1

If Cabin Pressure Controller 1 fails, what occurs automatically provided no other


abnormals are present?
a) The manual mode activates
b) Cabin Pressure Controller 2 activates
c)

19.

The outflow valve drives full open

The following are Cabin Pressure Controller modes of operation except?


a) Go-around
b) Climb
c)

20.

Abort

In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing?
a) The pilot using the MAN V/S CTL switch
b) The active Cabin Pressure Controller
c)

21.

The pilot using the DITCHING pb

If the LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, the active Cabin Pressure Controller
receives destination field elevation from what source?
a) ADIRS
b) FMS
c)

22.

ACARS

What is a reason to move the LDG ELEV selector out of the AUTO position and
manually select destination field elevation?
a) Dual Cabin Pressure Controller failure

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b) Dual FMGC failure


c)
23.

Dual FCU channel failure

A return to the departure airport is required immediately after takeoff. Which


statement is true regarding automatic pressurization?
a) The pilot must select the manual mode (MODE SEL pb to MAN)
b) The active pressure controller automatically returns the cabin altitude to
departure field elevation
c)

24.

The outflow valve remains in its last position

During descent, the cabin pressure rate is controlled so that:


a) The cabin is slightly pressurized at landing
b) The cabin descends at 1000 feet per minute
c)

25.

The aircraft is fully depressurized prior to landing

Which of the following statements best describes the function of the safety valves?
a) They prevent excessive positive differential pressure only
b) They prevent excessive positive or negative differential pressure
c)

26.

They prevent excessive negative differential pressure only

The zone temperature selectors on the AIR COND panel perform what function?
a) Modulate the trim air valves
b) Signal temperature demands to the AC Controllers
c)

27.

Modulate the pack bypass valves

The presence of FAULT lights on both PACK pbs during preflight without an ECAM fault
message most likely indicates what?
a) No bleed air available
b) Pack overheat
c)

28.

The pack pbs are selected to OFF

The forward cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:
a) cannot be controlled from the cockpit
b) allow only cabin air to ventilate the cargo compartment if closed
c) close automatically if smoke is detected

29.

Which of the following statements best describe the use of engine bleed air
a) The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is
insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source
of bleed air.
b) The BMCs use HP air to augment IP air when necessary. HP and IP bleed air are
used simultaneously during high demand.
c) The BMCs only open the HP valve during ground operations

30.

In the AUTO position, the XBLEED (crossbleed) valve will:


a) Open when the APU bleed valve opens
b) Normally be open
c)

Open if a leak is detected

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31.

If engine 1 bleed valve fails in the closed position, engine anti-ice is:
a) Provided through electric heating
b) Unavailable to that engine
c) Unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed air supply that
is independent of the pneumatic system

32.

If the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open, the BMCs:
a) Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air
b) Close the APU bleed valve and opens the engine bleed valves giving priority to
engine bleed air
c)

Open the engine bleed valves and allow the engine and APU bleed air to pressurize
the pneumatic system simultaneously

33.

The wings contain what type of bleed leak detection?


a) Single loop
b) Dual loop
c) Triple lindy

34.

From highest to lowest, what is the priority order for normal electrical power?
a) GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR
b) EXT PWR, APU GEN, GEN (engine)
c) GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN

35.

If an IDG pb is pushed in response to an abnormal condition:


a) The pilot may push it again to reconnect the IDG
b) The pilot is merely backing up the auto disconnect feature of the IDG
c) The IDG can only be reconnected by maintenance

36.

In the normal configuration, what bus powers the AC ESS BUS?


a) AC BUS 2
b) AC ESS SHED BUS
c) AC BUS 1

37.

During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the BAT pbs are selected to OFF to conduct
a voltage check. What is the minimum voltage for a successful battery check?
a) Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts
b) Greater than 26.5 volts
c) Greater than 25.5 volts

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38.

The crew is dispatched with the APU inoperative. During cruise GEN 2 fails. What
aircraft electrical systems are unpowered?
a) AC BUS 1
b) All aircraft systems are powered
c) Galley is partially shed

39.

Which statement is true?


a) Black circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM
b) Green circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM
c)

40.

Red circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM

Which of the following statements regarding the emergency electrical configuration is


true?
a) The emergency generator provides only emergency DC power
b) The RAT automatically extends and the emergency generator connects if
AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered in-flight
c)

The RAT must be manually extended using the RAT MAN ON pb if AC BUS 1 and AC
BUS 2 are unpowered in-flight

41.

What cockpit lighting is available during the emergency electrical configuration?


a) F/Os dome light, captains main panel flood lights, and the standby
compass light
b) F/Os dome light and the standby compass light
c)

42.

Dome lights only

Each aircraft generator (engine and APU) can supply up to 90 KVA while the emergency
generator supplies how much power?
a) 45 KVA
b) 15 KVA
c) 5 KVA

43.

During refueling, the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed on the E/WD because a
significant amount of fuel is in the center tank and the wing tanks are not full. What
action is required by the crew?
a) No maintenance action is required since refueling is in process
b) Call maintenance to fix or defer the malfunction
c)

44.

Reset the system with the MODE SEL pb on the overhead FUEL panel

Which statement best describes the differences between wing tank pumps and center
tank pumps on the A-319?
a) The center tank pumps only operate during takeoff or when the slats are extended
b) The wing tank pumps are fitted with pressure reducing valves
establishing center tank pump priority
c)

The center tank pumps are fitted with pressure reducing valves establishing wing
tank pump priority

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45.

Which of the following is the approximate total weight of useable fuel the A-319 can
carry?
a) 41,200 lbs
b) 42, 500 lbs
c)

46.

42,100 lbs

Which of the following is the approximate total weight of useable fuel the A-321 can
carry with no Additional Center Tanks (ACTs)?
a) 51,000 lbs
b) 46,000 lbs
c) 41,000 lbs

47.

At approximately what total Fuel On Board (FOB) will the outer tank fuel transfer valves
open on the A319?
a) 1650 lbs
b) 6,300 lbs
c)

48.

No outer tanks are installed on the A-319

At approximately what total Fuel On Board (FOB) will the outer tank fuel transfer valves
open on the A-321?
a) 1650 lbs
b) 6,300 lbs
c) No outer tanks are installed on the A321

49.

If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in-flight, they are commanded closed:
a) By pushing the TRANSFER pb
b) Automatically during the refueling process
c)

50.

Automatically in-flight when all outer tank fuel has transferred

On the A-319s, the center tank pumps shut off automatically with the MODE SEL pb in
AUTO and the PUMP 1 and 2 pbs on (lights out) for all of the following criteria except:
a) Engine failure
b) Slats extended
c)

51.

Low level is sensed

On the A-319, without selecting the FUEL SD page, the crew can confirm center tank
feeding by observing:
a) The overhead FUEL panel and observe all fuel pump pbs are lights out
b) The E/WD displays CTR TK FEEDG message
c) The CRUISE page displays CTR TK FEEDG message

52.

A major difference between the A-319 and A-321 fuel systems is:
a) The A321 only transfers fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.
There is no center tank fuel feed to the engines
b) The wing tank pumps on the A-321 are only controlled manually with the pump pbs
c) The A-321 contains a fuel XFEED valve

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53.

When do the fuel used (F USED) indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to
zero?
a) After landing
b) Engine shutdown
c) Engine start

54.

If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected OFF:
a) The PTU pressurizes the BLUE system
b) The RAT deploys automatically and powers the BLUE system
c) The Blue system shuts down (unpressurized)

55.

If a GREEN ENG 1 PUMP failure occurs:


a) The PTU transfers YELLOW system fluid to operate the GREEN system
b) The PTU automatically pressurizes the GREEN system without
transferring any fluid
c)

56.

The PTU transfers BLUE system fluid to operate the GREEN system

Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the
ENG 2 FIRE pb?
a) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN
system fluid to operate the YELLOW system
b) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates
the YELLOW system
c)

ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU does not operate
the YELLOW system

57.

Which of the following criteria is true for inhibiting the PTU between engine starts?
a) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches and nosewheel steering
connected
b) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches), parking brake off and
nosewheel steering connected
c) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or
noewheel steering disconnected

58.

In addition to inhibiting the PTU between engine starts; it is also inhibited during what?
a) Engine failure
b) Cargo door operation
c)

59.

YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb selected to ON

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions?
a) YELLOW
b) BLUE
c) GREEN

60.

When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?
a) After selecting the BLUE ELECP PUMP to ON after engine start
b) Automatically, after the first engine start
c)

Automatically, after both engines are started

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61.

In the event of an engine fire, the respective ENG FIRE pb and ENG panel FIRE light
illuminate red until:
a) The respective ENG FIRE pb is pushed and released
b) The fire is out
c)

62.

The respective ENG MASTER switch is selected OFF

If an engine fire detection loop fails (ECAM displays ENG 1 FIRE LOOP A FAULT):
a) Fire detection for that engine is unavailable
b) The other loop can provide fire detection
c) The pilot must select the other loop (loop B)

63.

If an ENG FIRE pb is pushed:


a) AGENT 1 and AGENT 2 are armed
b) AGENT 1 only is armed
c)

64.

AGENT 1 discharges automatically and AGENT 2 is armed

Can the APU fire test be accomplished on battery power only?


a) No, external power is required to accomplish the APU fire test
b) Yes, no lights are illuminated for the test
c) Yes, the SQUIB, DISC, and APU FIRE pb lights illuminate providing a valid
test of the system

65.

The APU fire protection system is different from the engine fire protection system in
that:
a) The APU uses a carbon dioxide fire bottle
b) The APU is protected by only one fire bottle
c)

66.

The APU fire can only be manually discharged

During the exterior preflight, the pilot observes the illumination of the APU FIRE light
on the external power panel (near the nosewheel) and hears the external warning horn
followed by the APU emergency shutdown. Outside the cockpit, the pilot must do what
to discharge the APU fire bottle?
a) Push the FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
b) Push the APU SHUT OFF pb on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
c) Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shuts down and automatically
discharges the APU fire bottle

67.

The red disk on the outside of the fuselage adjacent to the APU compartment
indicates:
a) The APU fire bottle has discharged due to over pressure
b) The APU fire bottle has not been discharged due to over pressure
c)

68.

The APU fire bottle requires servicing

Smoke detectors are provided for all of the following except:


a) Each lavatory
b) Wheel well
c)

Cargo compartment

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69.

With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
a) There is one fire bottle that discharges into both cargo compartments
b)

There is one fire bottle for each cargo compartment

c) There is one fire bottle that can be discharged into one compartment only
and both DISC lights illuminate when either FWD or AFT pb is pushed
70.

The crew should expect the red SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel:
a) To extinguish after discharging the fire bottle
b) To remain illuminated even if the source of the smoke is extinguished
after discharging the fire bottle
c) To flash indicating the source of the smoke is still present after discharging the fire
bottle

71.

Which of the following is true concerning FADEC?


a) Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during automatic starts on
the ground only
b) Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic starts
c)

Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic and manual
engine starts

72.

During an automatic start in-flight, FADEC provides all of the following except:
a) Abnormal start indications
b) Abort authority
c)

73.

N1 and N2 limits protection

If performing a manual engine start (overhead ENG MAN START pb ON):


a) FADEC opens the start valve and provides ignition and fuel flow 30 seconds after
the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
b) Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER switch is
selected ON
c)

74.

FADEC only opens and closes the start valve

In the event of an engine flame-out:


a) Continuous ignition is only activated by selecting the ENG MODE selector to
IGN/START
b) FADEC automatically provides continuous ignition on both engines
c)

75.

Continuous ignition is unavailable

If the ENG MODE selector is moved to the CRANK position:


a) The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN START pb is selected
ON
b) Fuel and ignition are inhibited
c)

76.

The engine will begin to motor immediately with fuel and ignition inhibited

During an automatic start of engine 1, the crew notices only igniter B is powered. Is
this normal?
a) No. Contact maintenance and advise igniter A is inoperative
b) Yes. FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts

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c)
77.

Yes. FADEC only uses igniter B to start engine 1

Which of the following is true?


a) FADEC will only prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in reverse thrust
b) FADEC will always prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits and EGT limits
c) FADEC will prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in both forward
and reverse thrust

78.

On the ground with an engine shut down, can the pilot deploy that engines thrust
reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit?
a) Yes, as long as the YELLOW hydraulic system is pressurized
b) Yes, as long as GREEN hydraulic system is pressurized
c) No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an
inoperative engine from the cockpit

79.

Which of the following is true?


a) Each engine shares oil with its respective IDG
b) Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by fuel
c)

80.

Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by ambient air

All of the following are required to start the APU except:


a) BAT pbs selected to AUTO
b) APU MASTER and START switches to ON
c) EXT PWR pb selected to ON

81.

APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except:
a) Engine starting
b) Pack operation
c) Wing ant-ice

82.

Prior to engine start, the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL and the APU START pb indicates
AVAIL, what source is powering the aircraft?
a) The APU
b) External power
c)

83.

The aircraft electrical systems are not powered

Which of the following emergency lights are controlled by the EMER LT switch on the
overhead SIGNS panel?
a) Escape slide lights
b) Photo-luminescent floor path markings
c) Cabin emergency lights

84.

What are the power sources for the emergency lighting systems
a) AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
b) DC ESS SHED BUS and AC ESS SHED BUS
c) DC ESS SHED BUS and Internal batteries

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85.

The emergency lights can be activated from the flight attendant station:
a) Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the ARM position
b) Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the OFF position
c) Regardless of which position the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS
panel

86.

The cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy (drop)when the cabin altitude
exceeds:
a) 10,000 feet
b) 12,500 feet
c) 14,000 feet

87.

In normal law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled back, can the aircraft exceed the
maximum G Load?
a) No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid
excessive G loads
b) No. The sidestick commands are deactivated for five seconds above 2.0Gs
c)

88.

Yes. The pilot should avoid rapid sidestick commands

In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle obtainable with the sidestick fully
deflected?
a) 33 degrees
b) 67 degrees
c)

89.

There is no bank limitation in normal law

The pilot is hand flying the aircraft in normal law and initiates a 30 degree bank.
Which of the following is true?
a) Beyond 25 degrees of bank, sidestick pressure must be continuously applied to
maintain the desired bank angle
b) If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, the aircraft will
maintain 30 degrees of bank indefinitely
c)

If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, positive spiral stability returns


the bank angle to 25 degrees

90.

The Spoiler Elevator Computers (SECs) provide spoiler and backup elevator control
except:
a) SEC 1. SEC 1 does not provide spoiler control
b) SEC 2. SEC 2 does not provide backup elevator control
c) SEC 3. SEC 3 does not provide backup elevator control

91.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about rudder control?


a) In normal law, the FACs provide turn coordination and yaw dampening without
rudder pedal deflection
b) Mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power
c)

The FACs provide rudder limiting based on airspeed

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92.

What is the only protection available in alternate law?


a)

High Speed

b) Angle of Attack
c) Maneuver Protection
93.

In alternate law:
a) Pitch trim is automatic
b) Turn coordination is automatic
c)

94.

Roll is the same as normal law (roll rate)

If flaps FULL is selected with the speedbrakes extended:


a) The flaps will not extend until the speedbrakes are fully retracted
b) The speedbrakes will automatically retract
c)

The flaps will extend and the speedbrakes remain extended. There will be an
ECAM warning message

95.

The Alpha Lock feature of the Slat and Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) prevents:
a) The extension of flaps at a speed greater than the maximum flap extension speed
b) The retraction of the flaps during a high angle of attack/ low speed situation
c) The retraction of the slats during a high angle of attack/low speed
situation

96.

Engine anti-ice is applied to what component of the engine?


a) The nacelle leading edges
b) The spinner and nacelle leading edges
c)

97.

The fan and nacelle leading edges

If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, the engine anti-ice valve:
a) Closes
b) Opens
c)

98.

Remains in its current position

Is probe/window heat available prior to engine start?


a) No
b) Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANT ICE panel must be selected to AUTO
c) Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANT ICE panel must be selected
to ON

99.

What is the airspeed limit for operation of the windscreen wipers?


a) 230 knots
b) 250 knots
c)

200 knots

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100.

If electrical power supply to the wing anti-ice valve fails, the wing anti-ice valve:
a) Closes
b) Opens
c)

101.

Remains in its current position

The wing anti-ice system provides:


a) Anti-icing capability for only the outboard leading edge devices of each
wing
b) Anti-icing capability for all leading edge devices of each wing
c)

102.

Anti-icing capability for all leading edge and trailing edge devices of each wing

Which hydraulic system does the Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) use
to extend and retract the landing gear?
a) GREEN
b) YELLOW
c)

103.

BLUE

When does the alternate braking system become operational/active?


a) The failure of the Alternate Brake Control Unit (ABCU)
b) The failure of the autobrakes
c) The failure of the green hydraulic system

104.

Which hydraulic system does the alternate braking system use


a) GREEN
b) YELLOW
c)

105.

BLUE

The crew performs a landing with autobrakes selected to MED. What triggers the
application of the autobrakes?
a) The application of the brake pedals by the pilot
b) The signal to extend the spoilers
c)

Reverse thrust is selected

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