August 1996-2004 Neuro Compilation

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Muscle innervated by the radial nerve:

a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis
d. Abductor pollicis longus
Overlapping of receptive field improves this phenomenon of sensation:
a. Localization
c. specific nerve energies
b. Contrast
d. projection
Stimulation of the vagus nerve may be expected to result in:
a. Decreased blood pressure and increased cardiac contractility
b. Vasodilatation and bradycardia
c. Vasodilatation and tachycardia
d. Vasoconstriction and increased heart rate
Type of nerve fiber that has the fastest conduction:
a. Large myelinated axons
c. small myelinated axons
b. Small unmyelinated axon
d. large unmyelinated axon
A lesion of the subthalamic nucleus will result in:
a. Tremors
c. athetosis
b. Hemiballismus
d. rigidity
The arcade of Frohse may compress the:
a. Ulnar nerve
c. median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. posterior interosseous nerve
The nerve that crosses the elbow as a pure sensory is the:
a. radial
c. ulnar
b. median
d. musculocutaneous
Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter of the:
a. Postganglionic sweat glands
c. Preganglionic autonomic findings
b. Majority of the postganglionic sympathetic endings d. Myoneural junction
Proprioception is characterized by:
a. The rapid adaptation of the receptors
c. all of these
b. A strong affect
d. stimulation of the receptors by joint motion
Neck side flexion isometric movements is a test for muscles innervated by roots:
a. C3-C4
c. C5-C6
b. C1-C2
d. C4-C5
In the contrast to a nerve action potential a muscle action potential has:
a. A shorter duration
c. a slower conduction velocity
b. A more negative resting membrane potential
d. a lower overshoot
The following cranial nerves have spinal sensory functional components, EXCEPT:
a. The vestibulocochlear nerve
c. the glossopharyngeal nerve
b. The olfactory nerve
d. the optic nerve
The primary function of the posterior lobe of the cerebellum is:
a. Maintenance of equilibrium
c. coordination of skilled movement
b. Regulation of muscle tone
d. maintenance of posture
The ventricles of the brain are lined
a. Ependymal cells
c. ordinary connective tissue
b. Choroid epithelium
d. neuroglia cells
The only prehension pattern that can be observed in a patient with a median nerve injury:
a. Three jaw chuck
c. cylindrical grasp
b. Lateral pinch
d. palmar grasp
A fan knife trust into the medial and midpart aspect of the arm may injure the following, EXCEPT:
a. Median nerve
c. brachial artery
b. Radial nerve
d. ulnar nerve
A razor slash at the anterior surface of the wrist will likely damage the:
a. Median nerve
c. all of these
b. Ulnar nerve
d. radial nerve

18. Branch of the vertebrobasilar artery of the brain:

a. Lenticulostriate artery

c. anterior cerebral artery

b. Internal auditory artery

d. ophthalmic artery
19. Most important function of the astrocyte:
a. Structural support to nervous tissue
c. repair of damaged tissue
b. Production of myelin
d. central nervous system scavenger
20. The origin of the parasympathetic preganglionic nerve fibers supplying the urinary bladder is:
a. Inferior mesenteric ganglion
c. dorsal motor nucleus of vagus nerve
b. Sacral spinal cord segments 2,3,4
d. lumbar spinal cord segments 1, 2, 3
21. Considering the pain distribution along the medial border of the dorsum of the foot, which spinal level is represented
by the saphenous nerve?
a. L5
c. L2
b. L3
d. L4
22. Largest branch of the lumbar plexus:
a. Ilioinguinal
c. anterior crural
b. Genitofemoral
d. iliohypogastric
23. The nerve necessary for a normal precision grips.
a. Radial
c. median
b. Ulnar
d. radial and ulnar
24. Muscle which may compress the sciatic nerve as the nerve passes underneath it:
a. Rectus femoris
c. piriformis
b. Quadrates femoris
d. gluteus maximus
25. The lateral cord continues as the:
a. Axillary nerve
c. radial nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. ulnar nerve
26. Branch of the facial nerve innervating the lacrimal gland:
a. Temporal branch
c. chorda tympani
b. Zygomatic branch
d. petrosal nerve
27. The decerebrate posture generally indicates lesion of the:
a. Cerebellum
c. medulla
b. Midbrain
d. trapezoid
28. In contrast to axons, dendrites are typically:
a. Thinner
c. product one or more synaptic and feet
b. Receive more synaptic contacts
d. longer
29. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in:
a. Buccinator
c. tensor tympani
b. All of these
d. posterior belly of digastric muscles
30. A brainstem level reflex:
a. Body righting acting on the body
c. crossed extension
b. Positive supporting reaction
d. neck righting
31. This cranial nerve has NO connection with the parasympathetic system:
a. CN VII
c. CN III
b. CN V
d. CN XI
32. Which of the following statements is true:
a. The ulnar n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the flexor Digitorum Profundus,
the median half of Profundus is supplied by the median n.
b. The median n. supplies al of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus;
the median half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve
c. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the Flexor Digitorum Sublimis
d. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Digitorum Profundus
33. This nerve innervates the superior oblique and exits the brain stem posteriorly:
a. Abducens nerve
c. Facial nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
34. In polyneuropathy, lesions of the occur bilaterally and the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in
distal parts of the extremities:
a. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true

35. The following statements describe a lower motor neuron paralysis, EXCEPT:
a. Babinski sign is not present

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b. Weakness of movement is due to a lesion of the motor cell or its axon

c. Muscle fasciculations may be present
d. Characterized by diminished tonus
e. Reflex arc is interrupted resulting in exaggerated stretch reflex
In Erb-Duchenne palsy, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT:
a. Limb will medically rotated by the unopposed sternocostal part of the pectoralis major
b. Causes excessive traction or tearing of C3 and C4 roots of the brachial plexus
c. The forearm will be pronated due to the loss of the biceps and there will be less of sensation down the lateral
side of arm
d. Injuries result from excessive displacement of the head to the opposite side and depression of the shoulder or
the same side
e. The musculocutaneous, nerve to the subclavian, musculocutaneous and axillary nerves will be denervated
This injury causes paralysis of the Pronator Teres and Quadratus
a. Ulnar nerve injury above the elbow
c. Median nerve injury above the elbow
b. Radial nerve injury above the elbow
d. None of these
Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, face of
extremities:
a. Myoclonus
c. Hyperkinesia
e. Athetosis
b. Tremor
d. Chorea
The human torsos nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves is evidenced by its segmental development. One
pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin. This is known as a:
a. Dermatome
c. Terminal Branches
b. Spinal Nerves
d. Myotome
The pained spinal nerves are as follows:
a. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
b. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
c. 8 cervical 10, thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
d. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
The spinal accord tapers at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra called:
a. Cauda equina
c. Coccyx
b. Filum terminale
d. Corpus medullaris
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called:
a. Parameter
c. Choroid plexus
b. Dura mater
d. Meninges
This structure separates the left and right cerebral hemisphere:
a. Lateral Fissure
c. Parieto-occipital fissure
b. Medial longitudinal fissure
d. Central Sulcus
Which of the following statements is true of lesions of the basal ganglia:
a. Muscle tone abnormalities and involuntary movements
b. Disorders involving initiation of movement
c. Difficulty in continuing and stopping movement
d. All of these
Functions of the Cerebellum include:
a. None of these
b. It receives proprioceptive impulses via the spinal cord (spinocerebellar tracts) from tendons, joints and muscle
c. All of these
d. It receives proprioceptive impulses from the semicircular canal
Myelin sheath is possessed by peripheral and central nerve fibers, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have:
a. Node of Ranvier
c. None of these
b. Neurolemma
d. Schwann cell
This muscle is innervated by two branches of the femoral nerve, and performs hip flexion and extension. The tendon
of origin may be palpated in the V-shaped area between the Sartorius and the tensor fascia latae when the hip is
flexed:
a. Vastus Intermedius
c. Vastus Medialis
b. Rectus Femoris
d. Vastus Lateralis
This mixed nerve supplies the muscles of mastication and divides into three major peripheral nerve, namely
ophthalmic, maxillary and the mandibular:
a. Trigeminal
c. Trochlear nerve
b. Abducens nerve
d. Oculomotor nerve
Two major grooves on the lateral surface of the brain:
a. None of these
c. Central sulcus of Rolando

b. Both of these
d. Lateral fissure of Sylvius
50. This thick plate of commissural fibers unite the two cerebral hemispheres:
a. Corpus Callosum
c. Gyrus cinguli
b. Uncus
d. Parahippocampal gyrus
51. Involuntary, but slower, twisting movements causing transient, odd and unnatural posturing, most evident in distal
parts:
a. Tremor
d. Hyperkinesia
b. Chorea
e. Hypoclonus
c. Athetosis
52. The following statements describe Parkinsons Disease, EXCEPT:
a. It affects mostly the elderly
b. Bradykinesia and rigidity are characteristics of the disease
c. It is due to the degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons
d. Its clinical manifestations include tremors
e. It can be completely reversed by giving L-dopa
53. The following statements apply to Percussion and Vibration, EXCEPT: # 20 1998
a. Recommended for patients with impaired cognition or poor coughing ability
b. Recommended for the patient who is intubated and mechanically ventilated
c. Used to enhance mucociliary clearance from both central and peripheral airways
d. The exact mechanism of action of chest percussion is unknown, but there is some evidence that physical
stimulation alters airflow and is associated with the release of pulmonary chemical mediators
e. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more
effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls
54. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are transmitted via: #23 1998
a. Trigeminal nerve
d. facial nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
e. vagus nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
55. Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to: #25 1998
a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
d. spasticity of the ipsilateral side
b. Paralysis of the contralateral side
e. Paralysis of the ipsilateral side
c. Tremors of the ipsilateral side
56. Innervates the lateral rectus eye muscle: #29 1998
a. Trigeminal nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
d. Abducens nerve
57. In radial nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT: #38 1998
a. Extension in drop-wrist position is due to tendon action, not active contraction
b. Wrist drop develops
c. Grip strength may be good if the wrist is supported in extension by means of a splint
d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp
58. The following statements apply to the ulnar nerve, EXCEPT: #41 1998
a. Innervates the hypothenar, all interossei, two medial lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and part of the flexor
pollicis brevis via its deep palmar branch in the hand
b. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the 4th and 5th digits in the forearm
c. Carries fibers from the C8 and T1 roots.
d. In early or minimal lesions of the ulnar nerve, there is atrophy of the first dorsal interosseus and sensory loss
distally in the fifth digit
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost
59. The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is: #44 1998
a. Median nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
e. radial nerve
c. Radio-ulnar nerve

60. The following statements apply to the 11th cranial nerve, EXCEPT: #52 1998
a. Lifting the shoulders up toward the ear then resisting the movement from above tests the trapezius

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This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the
trapezius muscles
c. Testing the function of the 11th nerve also tests for involvement of functions by motor neuron disease and
dystrophy
d. Testing the function of the 11th nerve will detect weakness of either central or peripheral nuclei of origin
e. The nuclei of origin of the various parts of this nerve are not adjacent and differential paresis may occur from
central nuclear lesions
Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level crosses the anterior portion of the middle of the thigh: #56 1998
a. L2
d. L3
b. L1
e. S1
c. L4
The neurological basis for sexual dysfunction in men with spinal cord injury (SCI) are as follows: EXCEPT: #59 1998
a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for
mediating reflexogenic erection
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex are that receives sensory afferents from the genitals
c. The neural output from the hypothalamus to the sexual organs courses in the anterolateral columns to terminate
in the intermediolateral cell columns of T-10 to L-3
d. In men, the sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic component of
penile erection
e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S-4 segments
of the sacral cord
In root compression syndrome, the following statements are true, EXCEPT: #65 1998
a. Paresthesia are common and are usually experienced distally, in the hand or foot
b. Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be exaggerated
c. Pain in the segment distribution of a root is the hallmark of these syndrome
d. Weakness and atrophy in the corresponding myotomal distribution result from prolonged or severe root
compression
e. Findings to confirm the syndrome are those which relate spinal movement to the radiating pain
Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamus causes all of the following, EXCEPT: #74 1998
a. Sweating
c. Increased respiration
b. Cutaneous vasodilatation
d. Shivering
This reflex, with a C6 component, primarily indicates the neurologic integrity of C5: #92 1998
a. Triceps reflex
d. Brachioradialis reflex
b. Biceps reflex
e. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
c. Flexor reflex
The following statements describe Parkinsons Disease, EXCEPT: #102 1998
a. Functional limitations in bed mobility, transfers, and gait may becomes severely disabling as the disease
progresses
b. Results from neurotransmitter imbalances associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra
c. Mobility of the neck, torso, and extremities is lost
d. The primary impairments typically are rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor and postural instability
e. Presents stooped, flexed posture, characterized by excessive lumbar kyphosis and loss of thoracic lordosis
The following statements apply to the common peroneal nerve, EXCEPT: #105 1998
a. Subject is able to walk on his toes and Achilles reflex is preserved
b. Interruption of the nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of ankle and toes and in loss of eversion of the foot
c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss
d. Received fibers from the L4, L5, S2, and S2 roots
e. There is varying sensory loss along the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot
To test this nerve, the subject protrudes the tongue and moves it from side to side: #106 1998
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Spinal accessory nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Despite the presence of third cranial nerve paralysis, upon examination it was determined that the eyes is able to
rotate inward, indicating that the superior oblique muscle is intact. This indicates: #111 1998
a. All of these
d. Cranial nerve IV is intact
b. Cranial nerve II is only partially denervated
e. Cranial nerve IV is also denervated
c. None of these

70. Functional limitations observed in patients with cerebellar dysfunction may include the following, EXCEPT: #117 1998
a. Hypertonicity
d. Dyssynergia

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b. Gait ataxia
e. postural instability
c. Fatigability and weakness
The following statements apply to lower lumbar root compression, EXCEPT: #127 1998
a. Atrophy of the gastrocnemius may be seen
b. Severe foot drop is unlikely, but toe drop is common with atrophy of the anterior compartment
c. Percussion by fist or hammer over the lower lumbar segments may aggravate pain in the thigh or leg
d. Ankle jerk reflex is commonly diminished or absent in S1 root impingement but may be normal in L5 root
syndromes
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side
The following statements describe the patellar reflex, EXCEPT: #128 1998
a. While the reflex may be significantly diminished, it is rarely totally absent
b. A deep tendon reflex mediated through nerves emanating from L2, L3 and L4 neurologic levels
c. To test, the subject sits on a chair with one leg crossed over his knee
d. Even if the L4 nerve root is pathologically involved, the reflex may still be present
e. For clinical application, the patellar reflex is to be considered an L4 reflex
In the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles, this cranial nerve mediates the reflex are:
a. Facial
d. Glossopharyngeal
b. Accessory
e. Trigeminal
c. Hypoglossal
The Babinski sign is the single most important sign in neurology. The following statements apply to Babinski sign,
EXCEPT:
a. The normal response is flexion with adduction of the toes
b. When the sign is absent, then the system is diseased
c. When present after age 12-16 months, it indicates dysfunction of the corticospinal motor system
d. About one second is an appropriate time for the stimulus
e. The abnormal response is dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the others with withdrawal at the knee and
hip
The following are characteristics of Myasthenia Gravis, EXCEPT:
a. Involvement is often selective and asymmetric
b. There is weakness and excessive fatigability of muscle
c. Dysfunction arises from imperfect neuromuscular transmission
d. The degree of paresis does not vary during the day
e. Incidence is highest in young women and elderly men
The following are characteristics of fasciculations, EXCEPT:
a. Refers to low-voltage potentials which results from independent contractions of single, denervated muscle
b. Especially prominent in end characteristics of chronic, progressive, motor neuron disease
c. When infrequent and not accompanied by atrophy, are not necessarily evidence of progressive disease
d. A result of almost any disorder of a motor neuron resulting in spontaneous, irregular, recurrent contraction
e. Occasionally occurs in otherwise normal subjects
So that fibers conveying impulse from a visual field accompany one another to the same cortical center, fibers from
each retina cross behind the eyeball in what is known as:
a. Visual Path
c. Macula Lutea
b. Optic chiasm
d. Optic Tract
Following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramidal tract, EXCEPT:
a. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb
b. About 1/3 of the axons in the pyramidal tract arise from the primary motor cortex in areas 4 and 6
c. About 90% of the tracts decussate to the opposite side at the lower level of the medulla
d. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from
area 8
The most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the cerebral cortex is:
a. Dopamine
d. GABA
b. Noradrenaline
e. none of the above
c. Glycine

80. Following spinal cord injury (SCI), myths as to whether men can biologically father children abound. The following
statements are true of male fertility following SCI, EXCEPT:

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High immotile sperm count is caused by lifestyle factors (such as elevated scrotal temperature, or ejaculation
frequency)
b. Immotile sperm count may be due to factors within the seminal plasma
c. Semen can be obtained from almost all men with SCI through the use of vibratory or electrical stimulation
d. Most men with SCI experience impairments in erectile and ejaculatory functions
e. While their ejaculated often have normal sperm counts, more immotile sperm are found than men
A patient with long thoracic nerve injury will have the most difficulty in:
a. Folding blanket
d. washing his face
b. Reaching at shoulder level
e. eating
c. Combing his hair
Sensation to the middle finger is supplied by neurologic level:
a. C8
d. T1
b. C5
e. C6
c. C7
The following statements apply to the radial nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Extension of the distal phalanges, which appears to be absent in wrist drop, will be found to be possible if ulnar
and median nerves are intact
b. Classically paralyzed by ischemia from pressure in the drunken and comatose and also in lead poisoning
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened
d. Partly mediates flexion and supination at the elbow through innervations of the bronchioradialis muscle
e. A finger drop may result when a penetrating injury of the dorsal forearm spares branches that mediate
dorsiflexion of the wrist but sever the posterior interosseus branch that mediates extension of the thumb and
fingers
Lesion of the seventh cranial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen results in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Can still close the eye on the side of the paralysis
b. Bells palsy
c. The buccinators is paralyzed, and the cheek puff out during expiration
d. Total paralysis of facial expression muscles on that side
The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscle
a. Extensor Indicis Propius
d. Flexor Digitorum Communis
b. The Medial Lumbricals
e. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
c. Two Radial Lumbricals
Denervation hypersensitivity
a. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors.
c. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve
e. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter.
Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root.
a. Erector pili
d. Epidermis
b. Dermatome
e. Dermis
c. Myotome
Proximal side to side tremor found on heel thin or finger-nose testing:
a. Cerebellar tremor
c. Myoclonus
b. Parkisonian tremor
d. Senile Tremor
The following statements describe the Median Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus.
b. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries.
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the anterior interosseous nerve
d. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
e. It enters with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles and all lumbricals
The following statement characterize the Radial Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. A little father down the arm, it passes obliquely lateral wards to run behind the humerus in its spiral groove, deep
to the Triceps
b. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge: the
Brachioradialis and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
c. It is the largest nerve of the upper limb
d. Its nerve divides include C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
e. The nerve divides into a long Superficial Branch and Deep Branch or Posterior Interosseous Nerve.

91. The following statement characterize De Quervains disease, EXCEPT:

a. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease

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Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the
tendons
c. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
d. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
e. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb
back and away from the hand.
These procedures stretch the spinal cord and reproduce pain. The patient is in supine and asked to forcibly flex his
head onto this chest with his hands behind his head. The result may be pain in cervical spine, and occasionally in the
low back or down the legs indicating meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement or irritation of the dural covering of
the nerve root.
a. Kernig Test
d. Hoover Test
b. Milgram Test
e. Naffziger Test
c. Gaeslans Sign
Deep tendon reflexes are
a. Polysynaptic nerve response
d. Excitatory presynaptic potential
b. Excitatory transmission
e. Bisynaptic reflex pressure
c. Monosynaptic reflex response
A pathway of communication between the two hemispheres to created as these fibers cross the midline from one
hemisphere to the other.
a. Transhemisphere
d. Superior Longitudinal Bundle
b. Projection
e. Association
c. Commissural
Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside
a. Active Potentials
d. Depolarization
b. Action Potential
e. Resting membrane potential
c. Hyperpolarization
Transaction of the pituitary stalk will produce
a. Increased LH Ant.
d. increased FSH
b. Decreased TSH Ant.
e. increased ACTH
c. Decrease prolactin
The following statements apply to Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT:
a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement
b. Contractures are common and patients seldom survive into the third decade
c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty infiltration and the muscles are weak.
d. A primary, genetic disorder characterized by early weakness and enlargement of the musculature of the calves,
thighs, hips and shoulders
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs almost exclusively in boys
Following statements are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT:
a. Provides final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
b. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motorneuron in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei.
c. Completely contained within the central nervous system
d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
e. Lesion results in exaggerated deep reflexes and muscle rigidity.
The following statements are true of the Pituitary Gland, EXCEPT:
a. Its rich blood supply is derived from the small branches of the Right and Left Internal Carotid Arteries
b. It is made of the Anterior and Posterior Lobe that function differently
c. It is a pea-size gland hanging by a stalk, the infundibulum, from the floor of the third ventricle of the brain, just
behind the optic chiasm
d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature pine cone, projecting backwards from the back of the roof of the
ventricle.
This great parasympathetic nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen.
a. Abducens
d. Vagus
b. Hypoglossal
e. Glossopharyngeal
c. Pelvic Splanchnic
The following statements characterize carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT
a. Pain, numbness and tingling of the hands
b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the hypothenar eminence and an apparent clumsiness of the hand
c. Condition may affect both hands or only the dominant hand
d. Symptoms are most often acute while sleeping
e. Uncomfortable sensations are usually felt on the first three fingers and the base of the thumb
Shortly after the brachial plexus exit the vertebral bodies and pass between the scalenus anticus and medius
muscles, the nerve roots of C5 and C6 join to form
a. The middle trunk
d. the upper trunk
b. The posterior cord
e. the lower trunk
c. The lateral cord

103. Coordination disturbances are usually assessed through the following methods, EXCEPT:
a. finger-to-nose test
d. unilateral tapping tracking tasks

104.

105.

106.

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108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

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114.

115.

116.

b. Reciprocal tracking tasks

e. kinematic analysis
c. Tracking tasks
The sensory cranial nerve supply of the eyeball is
a. Fourth (Trochlear
d. Opthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal)
b. Third (Oculomotor)
e. Seventh (Facial)
c. Sixth (Abducens)
Following statements are true of lower motor neuron lesions, EXCEPT:
a. Muscle atrophy may begin to show within a few weeks
b. Even with the loss of sensory feedback to the nervous system coordinated movements are still properly
accomplished
c. The muscle loses both its voluntary and reflex response
d. Hypotonia is observed as well as absence of muscle stretch reflex
This nerve provides innervations to the superior, inferior and medial rectus, and the inferior oblique muscle of the
eye.
a. Trigeminal
d. Abducens
b. Oculomotor
e. Trochlear
c. Optic
The left and right cerebral hemisphere is separated by the
a. Medial longitudinal fissures
d. parieto-occipital fissures
b. Anterior median fissures
e. lateral fissure
c. Central sulcus
Babinskis sign is a strong indication of a disorder of:
a. Basal nuclei
d. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Reticulospinal tract
e. Tectospinal tract
c. Corticospinal tract
This elbow flexor is innervated by the radial nerve and attaches proximally to a ridge on the humerus above the lateral
epicondyle:
a. None of these
c. Biceps
b. Brachioradialis
d. Brachialis
The ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the body:
a. Sensory extinction
d. Graphesthesia
b. Cutaneous tactile localization
e. Sensory inattention
c. Stereognosis
This nerve supplies the Serratus Anterior Muscle and arises from the C5, C6 and C7 roots of the brachial plexus:
a. Subscapular Nerve
c. Long Thoracic Nerve
b. Musculocutaneous Nerve
d. Lateral Pectoral Nerve
The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. All interossei
d. Palmaris Longus
b. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus e. All Hypothenar
c. Adductor Pollicis
This tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the optic nerve and the anterior and middle cerebral arteries supply
most of the cerebral hemisphere.
a. Occipital Artery
d. Subclavian artery
b. External Carotid Artery
e. Optic Artery
c. Internal Carotid Artery
The somatic sensory examination is the most difficult and least reliable part of the evaluation. The following rules and
generalizations will be helpful, EXCEPT:
a. Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity
b. Peripheral nerve lesions are often associated with diminished or absent sweating, dry skin, tropic changes in the
nails and loss of subcutaneous tissue
c. The test ordinarily used for the sensory examination are rather crude and the findings are imprecise, the more so
the less complete the lesion
d. Subjective symptoms of numbness and paresthesia are unfortunately much the same qualitatively whether they
result from thalamic, spinal, radicular or peripheral neural deficits
e. Cutaneous sensitivity is greater on the face, hand, forearms genitalia and feet. Avoid testing calloused areas
Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:
a. Anterior communicating arteries
c. Circle of Willis
b. None of these
d. Posterior communicating arteries
Following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramidal tract, EXCEPT:
a. About 1/3 of the axons in the pyramidal tract arise from the primary motor cortex in areas 4 to 6.
b. About 90 percent of the tracts decussate to the opposite side at the lower levels of the medulla.
c. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from
area 8.
d. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb

117. The following statements describe ataxia, EXCEPT:

a. Can result from damage to the dorsal and ventricular spinocerebellar pathways and pontine nuclei

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

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124.

125.

126.

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128.

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131.

b. Can result from damage to the afferent pontine of peripheral nerves and the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
c. Can result from damage to several different motor or sensory regions of the central nervous system.
d. Can result in high amplitude tremor that accompanies movement
e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion
Constricts the pupil and is involved in light and accommodating reflexes due to their connections with postganglionic
neurons.
a. Facial Nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
b. Trigeminal Nerve
e. Oculomotor nerve
c. Optic Nerve
Occupies an extensive area n the medial aspect of the hemisphere, this lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere
is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parieto-occipital fissures to the pre-occipital notch and
a. Temporal
d. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
e. Occipital lobe
c. Insular lobe
Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual defects, EXCEPT:
a. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the optic chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness and a temporal field
defect in the other eye
b. Transaction of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness
c. Lesion on the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia
d. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia
Lesion on the right optic tract would result to what visual field defect?
a. Right nasal and left temporal hemianopsia
c. Left nasal and temporal hemianopsia
b. Bilateral quadrantinopsia
d. Bilateral blindness
During cranial nerve testing, a light was directed on your patients left eye. You observed that both pupils remained
dilated. To further confirm where the problem was, the right eye was stimulated. You noted that both pupils
constricted. What nerve was possibly injured?
a. Right optic
c. left optic
b. Left oculomotor
d. right oculomotor
The brachial plexus is formed by the
:
a. Anterior rami of C5-T1
c. posterior rami of C5-T1
b. Anterior rami of C6-T1
d. posterior rami of C6-T1
If the lateral cord of the brachial plexus is severed, which muscle is expected to be weak?
a. Pectoralis minor
c. pectoralis major
b. Latissimus dorsi
d. serratus anterior
An isolated lesion on this nerve results in vertical diplopia and tilting of head to align the eyes:
a. Trochlear nerve
c. facial nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
d. abducens nerve
Center for respiration, blood pressure and heart rate regulation:
a. Midbrain
d. diencephalon
b. Pons and medulla
e. cerebral cortex
c. Hypothalamus
Tic douloreux is involvement of :
a. Trigeminal nerve
c. abducens nerve
b. Facial nerve
e. Oculomotor nerve
Spasticity is produced in this correct sequence:
I. discharge of Ia and II endings
II. uninhibited discharge of gamma motor neurons
III. contraction of the ends of the muscle spindle
IV. contraction of the extrafusal muscle
V. impulses will reach the spinal cord innervating the alpha motor neuron
a. II, I, III, V, IV
d. I, V, II, III, IV
b. III, II, I, V, IV
e. I, II, III, IV, V
c. II, III, I, V, IV
The tapered end of the spinal cord is called as
:
a. Conus medullaris
c. denticulate ligament
b. Cauda equine
d. sacral cord segment
Lenticulostriate artery is a branch of
:
a. Middle meningeal artery
d. middle cerebral artery
b. Anterior cerebral artery
e. vertebrobasilar artery
c. Posterior cerebral artery
Hemiballismus is a movement disorder involving the
:
a. Basal ganglia
d. subthalamic nucleus
b. Posterior limb of internal capsule
e. corpus callosum
c. Pyramidal tract

132. Description of the human peripheral nervous system:

a. 10 pairs of cranial nerves and 30 pairs of spinal nerves

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146.

b. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves

c. 11 pairs of cranial nerves and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
d. 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
e. 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 33 pairs of spinal nerves
This muscle is spared in posterior interosseous nerve syndrome:
a. ECRL
d. extensor carpi ulnaris
b. ECRB
e. extensor pollicis longus
c. Extensor digitorum
Lesion on the anterior lobe of the pituitary will result in
:
a. Decreased production of follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone
c. Decreased production of prolactin-inhibiting hormone
d. Increased production of adrenocorticortropic hormone
e. Decreased production of somatostatin
Dermatome represented by the medial arm:
a. C7
d. T2
b. C8
e. T5
c. T1
The following statements characterize syringomyelia, EXCEPT:
a. There is no sensory impairment in the lower extremities.
b. There is progressive cavitation around or near the central nerve fibers.
c. There is loss of pain and temperature sense with a segment distribution in both upper extremities.
d. Even in later stages, paralysis and muscle atrophy of the segment involved does not occur.
e. Touch and pressure sense in the affected parts are preserved.
A severed peripheral nerve has some capacity to repair itself, and axon cylinders sprout from nerve endings at a rate
of 1 to 2 mm per day, with some going astray. Chance determines whether connections can be re-established and
functions restored.
a. The first statements is true, the second statement is false.
b. Both statements are false.
c. Both statements are true.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
This condition is characterized by sudden severe, lancinating pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve:
a. Tic Douloreux
c. Temporal arthritis
b. Mobic Syndrome
d. Churg Syndrome
Severe brain injury is defined as coma lasting more than:
a. 8 hours
c. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
An SCI patient has intact biceps, deltoids, and rotator cuff muscles. Independent transfer with a sliding board is
possible. What is his SCI level?
a. C3-C4
c. C8-T1
b. C5-C6
d. C7-C8
If the axillary nerve was cut, what muscle could laterally rotate the humerus?
a. Infraspinatus
c. latissimus dorsi
b. Teres minor
d. subscapularis
A patient who suffered shoulder dislocation came to you for evaluation and treatment. Which nerve is most likely
affected?
a. Axillary
d. Long Thoracic
b. Thoracodorsal
e. Musculocutaneous
c. Spinal accessory
Following statements are true of lower motor neuron lesions, EXCEPT:
a. Muscle atrophy may begin to show within a few weeks
b. Even with loss of sensory feedback to the nervous system coordinated movements are still properly
accomplished
c. The muscle both loses both its, voluntary and reflex response
d. Hypotonia is observed as well as absence of muscle stretch reflex
This nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle and arises from the C-5, C-6, C7/roots of the brachial plexus:
a. Subscapular nerve
c. long thoracic nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. lateral pectoral nerve
A functional map of the motor cortex resembling an image of the body turned upside down and reversed left to right:
a. Brodmanns area
d. Homonculus
b. Hemisphere
e. Premotor Cortex
c. Parietal lobe
Characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs and the
movements are slow and fluid.
a. Dystonia
d. Ballismus
b. Chorea
e. Spasticity
c. Athetosis

147. The following are tests for testing pathology involving either median or ulnar nerves, EXCEPT:
a. Wartenbergs sign
c. Pinch grip test

b. Elbow flexion test

d. Mills test (Radial nerve, tennis elbow)
148. When considering prescribing an orthosis for an L3 SCI patient, what is the most important concern?
a. Presence or lack of hip or knee contracture
c. Appropriate angles of foot placement
b. Ability to don and doff the orthosis
d. Proper fit of orthosis
149. Description of human peripheral nervous system
a. 10 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves
b. 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
c. 11 pairs of cranial nerves and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
d. 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
e. 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 33 pairs of spinal nerves
150. Which of the following muscles does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate?
a. Piriformis
b. Iliopsoas
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gluteus Medius
e. Hamstrings
151. Which part of the Medulla Oblongata has both Inspiratory and Expiratory Control?
a. Anterior
c. Dorsal
b. Posterior
d. Ventral
152. This nerve innervates the masseter and the temporalis muscles and supplies sensory innervations to the face?
a. CN III
c. CN IV
b. CN V
d. CN X
153. All this muscles are innervated by the facial nerve except:
a. Risorius
c. Frontalis
b. Masseter
d. Mentalis
154. The following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramidal tract except:
a. About 1/3 of the axon of the pyramidal tract arise from the primary motor cortex in area 4 & 6
b. About 90% of the tract decussates to the opposite site of the lower level of the medulla
c. The fibers arise from the neuron in the ventral part of the area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from
area 8
d. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb
155. This is a form of indirect Inhibition of the nerve cell
a. After hyperpolarization
d. Presynaptic interneuron
b. Renshaw inhibition
e. Refractory Period
c. IPSP due to interneuron33. These neurons carry motor impulses from the brain to the motor neuron in the spinal
cord?
a. Interneuron
c. Lower motor neuron
b. First order neuron
d. Upper motor neuron
156. A pathway of communication between the two hemispheres is created as these fibers cross the middle from one
hemisphere to another?
a. Transhemisphere
c. Commissural
b. Projection
d. Association
157. These are specialized cells that form the Cerebrospinal fluid that cushions the brain.
a. Arachnoid Villa
c. Purkinje Cells
b. Choroid Plexus
d. Betz Cells
158. Lesion in the hypothalamus will result to decrease in which of the following hormones?
a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
c. Thyroid Hormone
b. Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone
d. Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
159. You are performing a neurological evaluation on a patient that has a vascular injury with the following impairments:
loss of consciousness, coma, inability to speak and hemiplegia. Based on this information, which of the following
area does this vascular injury occur?
a. Anterior Cerebral artery
c. Posterior cerebral artery
b. Middle cerebral artery
d. Vertebrobasilar artery
160. What corresponding to the lateral heel dermatomal level of your patient?
a. S1
c. S3
b. S2
d. S3-S4
161. What tract is involved in contralateral facial weakness?
a. Corticobulbar
c. Corticospinal
b. Spinocerebellar
d. Reticulospinal
162. This type of contractions are quick, jerky reactions responding to a single stimulus and usually less than a tenth of a
second

a. Fibrillation
b. Titanic contraction
c. Convulsion

d. Fasciculation
e. Twitch

163. Differentiation of these vesicles at the costal end of the neural tube initiates brain development.
a. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon & metencephalon
d. Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon & Metencephalon
b. Telencephalon, Mesencephalon & Rhombencephalon
e. Prosencephalon, Rhombencephalon & Myelencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon & Rhombencephalon
164. Deep somatic pain is transmitted by
a. C fibers
c. B fibers
b. D fibers
d. A fibers
165. The following statements apply to salutatory conduction except:
a. Conserves energy for the axons
b. Action potential occurs at the nodes of Ranvier
c. While there is an increase in nerve conductions, energy is wasted on the axons
d. The mechanism increases nerve transmission velocity in myelinated fibers as much as 5 to 60 times
166. The PT completed lower extremity ROM activities with an SCI patient. While exercising the patient, the PT notices that
the patients urine is extremely dark and has a distinctive foul smelling odor. Which of the following is the most
appropriate thing to do?
a. Verbally report the observation of the client physician
b. Verbally report the observation to the client nurse
c. Document and verbally report the observation to the client nurse
d. Document and verbally report the observation to the director of the rehabilitation
167. All of the following are tested under perception except:
a. (L) and (R) disorientation
c. Sterognosis and 2 point discrimination
b. Vibration
d. Homonymous Hemianopsia
168. Denervation hypersensitivity
a. Due to increased number of receptor
b. Due to decreased sensitivity of the receptor
c. Due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitter release
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve
e. Due to increase sensitivity of the neurotransmitter
169. Transection of the pituitary stalk will produce:
a. Increased LH
d. Increased FSH
b. Decreased TSH
e. Increased ACTH
c. Decreased Prolactin