Promotion Book 2011

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA
PREPARED BY SBLC PANCHKULA

(UPDATED UPTO 1ST June 2011)
(For Internal Circulation only)
Promotion Booklet
(Updated upto 01-06-2011)
STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

Sector-14, PANCHKULA
PHONE: 0172-4569401
While we have taken utmost care in incorporating latest information on
various topics, errors and omissions are likely. Hence the readers are
requested to be guided by the circulars issued by the Bank from time to
time and SBLC, Panchkula is not liable for any such inadvertent mistakes
and omissions, if any. We also request our readers to kindly bring to our
notice, any mistakes/omissions noticed by them to make suitable
corrections in the subsequent edition.

PROMOTION BOOKLET
INDEX
Chapter
Name of the Chapters
no.
Page
Number
Policy Guidelines
1-5
Annual Results
6-8
General Banking
9-29
Inspection& Audit,
30-37
Basel-II, Capital Adequacy & Risk management
38-49
P-Segment Liability Products
50-68
P-Segment Assets Products
69-126
SME Liability Products
127-138
Micro Advances, PMEGP, SGSY,
139-142
10
SME Advances
143-201
11
NPA Management
202-208
12
Legal Aspects of Banking
209-245
13
International Banking
246-316
14
Agriculture Advances
317-386
15
Cash Deptt. Procedures & Govt. Business
387-411
16
CBS , Technology Products
412-463
17
Information Security System
464-475
18
BPR
476-480
19
Cross Selling
481-494
20
Awareness of Banking Finance & Economy
495-531
Policy Guidelines 2011-12

1.
As per Policy Guidelines Net Profit of S B I has been targeted to increase by

_______%, during the year 2011-12
a)
c)
2.
b)
d)
20
30
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, Corporate Centre has fixed the target for
growth in deposits for at:______
a)
c)
3.
18
25
23%
18.5%
b)
d)
32%
15.5%
Target for growth of advances (excluding food) for whole bank, as

Policy Guidelines has been fixed at:_________
a)
c)
20%
23%
b)
d)
per
22%
28%
4.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, the return on equity has been targeted
at.. %
a) 18.50
b)
19.50
c) 15.20
d)
16.20
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12., increase in CASA ratio for the whole bank
is to go up by , basis points.
a)
c)
6.
b)150
d)200
ALL SME customers with limit of Rs-----cr and above are to be provided with
CINB in 2011-12.
a)
c)
7.
120
140
1.00
2.5
b)
d)
3.00
1.5
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 the Bank has to focus on increasing other
income by ______%.
a) 28
c) 30
b) 26
d) 40
1

8.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, target for growth in Housing and auto
loans in NBG has been fixed at .% & %.
a)
c)
9.
the return on assets has to increase by

b)
d)
3
7
1.08
1.03
the overheads growth is to be restricted
b)
d)
5
0 (SAME LEVEL)
1.00lac
1.50lac
b)
d)
0.50lac
0.75lac`
20 & 25
30 & 30
b)
d)
25 ,25
50 & 50
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, ------- % growth has been set for education
loan
a)
c)
15.
2.27
3.25
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12,

the Forex retail purchases and retail
sales must grow by ------ % & .% .
a)
c)
14.
2
1.90
ratio for the whole Bank
Under Green Channel counter bank seeks to achieve ------transactions by 2012

a)
c)
13.
b)
d)

to-----a)
c)
12.
3.50
1.15

.%
a)
c)
11.
b) 27, 22
d) 26, 35
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 Gross NPA

should be ------ %
a)
c)
10.
20, 30
25, 32
25
45
b)
d)
30
40
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, -------- number of new mobile banking users
are to be added .
a)
c)
20lac
25 lac
b)
d)
10lac
30lac
2
16.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, ------ lac new Retail users of INB are to be
added .
a)
c)
17.
120
200
b)
d)
300
150
10
25
b)
d)
20
15
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, net interest margin for the bank should be
-----------a)
c)
20.
50
25
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 the NRI deposits have been budgeted to
increase by %. Under the overall growth target for deposits.
a)
c)
19.
b)
d)
Income from cross selling Buisness is targeted to increase by ..% in 2011-12

a)
c)
18.
24
30
3.5
4.2
b)
d)
3.40
2.85
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 in the growth in agriculture advances is set

at ---------%
a)
c)
20
40
b)
d)
30
25
Key to Policy Guidelines 2011-12

1
C
6
A
11
B
16
A
2
A
7
B
12
A
17
B
3
C
8
D
13
B
18
A
4
D
9
B
14
A
19
B
5
C
10
D
15
A
20
D

Policy Guidelines 2011 - 12
1.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12. Target of cash recoveries in NPAs and also
upgradation of NPAs has been budgeted at crores,&..crores.
a)
c)
3000,5560
5000 ,6750
b)
d)
4000,4500
4200, 3200
2.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12, out of total advances to micro and small
enterprises ----- % should go to micro enterprises.
a) 40
b) 55
c) 60
d) 45
3.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 , --------- no of Finanacial plans including

General plans have been budgeted to be prepared.
a) 1,20,000
c) 1,50,000
4.
b)
d)
1,00,000
2,00,000
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 , the market share of Deposits and Advances
is to increase by more than .. & .basis points .
a)
c)
60, 45
45, 40
b)
d)
65, 50
70, 65
5.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, %age of transactions through alternate

channels should be------%.
a) 40
b) 50
c) 60
d) 45
6.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, our capital adequacy should be above---------%

a)
c)
7.
b)
d)
15
13
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, the average Daily Average Hits at ATMs
have to Increase from
a)
c)
8.
12
14
365 to 370
340 to 350
b)
d)
370 to 390
400 to 410
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, all accounts under --------are to be RINB

enabled
a) SME
b) CSP
c) Saving Plus
d) Current a/c
4
9.
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012 the target for increase in Govt .

Commission is Budgeted to increase by about %
a) 35
b) 40
c) 33
d) 20
10.
The target for Credit Linking of SHGs for the year ending 31-03-2012 has been
fixed at Lacs
a)
c)
11.
4
3.5
b)
d)
As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012 the target for opening of No Frill a/cs has
been fixed at --------lacs
a) 15
c) 10
12.
13.
3
2
b)
d)
30
25
Per deposits and advances growth target set for SCE branches for the year
2011 -12 is ----- % & ------- %
a) 40, 40
b)35 , 35
c) 60, 40
d)50, 30
Net NPA %age for the year 2011-12 should be -------a) 1.00
b) 2.05
c) 2
d) 1.50
Key to Policy Guidelines 2011 - 12

1
C
6
D
11
D
2
C
7
A
12
B
3
A
8
B
13
A
4
C
9
D
5
B
10
A
ANNUAL RESULTS 2010-2011
1. The % of share held by government of India in SBI s equity is ----(a)59.63
(a)59.60
(c)59.40
(d)49.40
2. The total deposits of the bank as on 310311 have crossed ----- Cr.
(a) 833000
(b)923000
(c)933000
(d)943000
3. The total advances of the bank as on 310311have crossed.cr.

(a)350,000
(b)771000
(c)781000
(d)791000
4. Operatig profits of the bank have grown upto Rs. cr. For the year ending
2011.
(a)5000
(b)25335
(c)38351
(d)28351
5. The bank has declared a dividend of per share of Rs.for the year ending
2011 .
a)30
(b) 25
(c) 28
(d) 29
6. Interest income on loans has grown by% over FY 2010 .

a) 22.12
7
b) 20.26
c) 18.45
d) 23
The Bank has recorded a NIM of (Net Interest Margin ) % for the year
ending 2011 .
a) 3.09
b) 3.32
c) 2.83
d) 2.73
8. Market share in deposits for the year ending 31.03.2011 is ..%

a) 17.03,
b)15.40
c) 17.40
d) 16.40
9. How many domestic branches of SBI are there as on 31.03.11

a)
12596
b)
135332
c)
13542
d)
12156
10. The CASA ratio has improved from 46.67% as on March 2010 to -------as on Mar.2011 .
a) 48.66
b) 47.94
c)45.32
d) 46.01
11. The net profit of State Bank of India for the year ended 31st March 2011
was:____
a) Rs. 8361.52 crore
c) Rs. 8264.52crore
12.
b)
d)
Rs.9381 crore
Rs.9564.45 crore
The paid up capital of State Bank of India as on 31st March 2011 was:
a)
c)
Rs.562.29 crore
Rs.500 crore
b)
d)
Rs.1000 crore
Rs.635 crore
13. The authorised share capital of State Bank of India as at the end of 31st
Mar2011 was:
a) Rs.100 crore
c) Rs.500 crore
b)
d)
Rs.200 crore
Rs.1000 crore
14. The paid up capital and reserves of State Bank of India as at the end of 31st
March 2011 was in the range of:
a)Rs.50000 Rs. 60000 crore
c)Rs.45000 Rs. 48000 crore
15.
b)
d)
Rs.68000 Rs.70000 crore

Rs.64000 Rs.65000 crore
The number of State Bank Group ATMS as on 31st March.2011 are:

a) 25006
c) 25003
b)
d)
25005
24500
16. Profit for the fourth Quarter ending 2011 was -------- Rs.
a)28.08
17.
18.
b) 24.01
c) 20.88
d) 20.46
Earning per share (EPS) of State Bank of India for the year 2010-2011
was:
a) Rs.132.15
b) Rs.140.15
c) Rs166.31
d) Rs. 130.16
The Buisness growth for the year ending 31.03.2011 is Rs..Crores
a)250142
b) 190145
c )260139
d) 240139

19.
The credit deposit ratio for the year ending 2010-2011 is...%
a)75.74
20.
b)76.32
c)7 6.03
Gross and Net NPA,s as at the end of

a)3.28, 1.63
b) 2.98, 1.78
22.
b)11.98
Basel 11 is .% for the year ending

c)10.69
d) 11.79
The Bank has reached a provision coverage ratio of % for the year
ending 2011
a)64.95
23.
31.03.2011 are .,..%

c) 2.48 ,1.90 d) 3.05, 2.09
21. Banks Capital Adequacy Ratio as per

31032011 .
a)11.78
d) 74.94
b) 60.63
c)71.63
d) 59.37
Our Banks Cost of Deposits has decreased to % as on 31.03.2011

a)5.26
b)5.39
c)6.60
d)6.90
24. The return on equity for the year ending March 2011 is-------.
a)12.84
25.
b) 11.90
c)15.23
d)12.01
The return on average assets for the year ending 2011 is -------- %
a)0.71
b)0.65
c)0.63
d)0.68
KEY TO ANNUAL RESULTS 2010-2011

1
C
6
C
11
C
16
C
21
B
2
C
7
B
12
D
17
D
22
A
3
B
8
D
13
D
18
C
23
A
4
B
9
C
14
D
19
B
24
A
5
A
10
A
15
B
20
A
25
A
SAFE DEPOSIT LOCKERS/SAFE CUSTODY

1.
A has hired a locker with your branch, he sends the key by post with an
intention to surrender the locker, in this situation---------a) Bank will be discharged of its liability, if key is accompanied by a letter stating
the contents of the lockers as NIL
b) The bank will not be discharged of its liability
c) The bank should not accept
d) Bank can accept subject to its rights under reserve
2.
Your branch has a locker account in the joint names of A and B to be operated
as either or Survivor. You receive information of death of B, in this event--------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender
there of. How would you react?
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
B can surrender the locker

B cannot surrender the locker
If contents are nil he can surrender
None of the above
When a locker is broken open the presence of which of the following is not must-------a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
A can operate the locker with legal heirs of B

For operations of locker permission of court is needed
A can operate the locker
None of the above
Locker hirer or his legal heirs

Two independent witnesses
Branch officials
Representative of local police
A and his wife B have hired a locker in joint names; A is residing abroad. B
informs about loss of key of the locker and asks for breaking open the locker, in
this event-----:
a) Bank will not accept the request
b) Bank can accept on the basis of indemnity
c) Bank can accept the request on the basis of indemnity bond and power of
attorney in her favour from A
d) None of the above

6.
When a hirer surrenders a locker, the surrendered locker-------------a)

b)
c)
d)
7.
A locker on hire can not be given to which of the following-----------:

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Cannot be allotted to any other person

After interchanging the lock of the locker with any other empty locker, it can
be allotted to any new hirer
The surrendered locker can be allotted to new hirer only after 3 years from
date of surrender
None of the above
A minor
An illiterate person
To clubs, societies & associations
All of the above
A and his wife B are having locker with either or survivor clause. A informs that
his wife has gone insane and requests the bank not to allow her to operate the
locker. The bank--------------a) Will allow operation by B till A gives a certificate to the bank to the affect that
B has become insane and bank is satisfied with this.
b) Will not allow operation by her
c) Only joint operations here after
9.
What would be the course of action in case of loss of safe custody receipt by the
customer----------:
a)
If satisfied, the bank can issue a duplicate on written request from the
customer
b) The contents would be seized
c) The bank can issue a duplicate after obtaining indemnity bond.
d) Duplicate cannot be issued as it is not a negotiable instrument
10.
When the bank accepts articles for keeping in safe custody, the relationship
between the banker and the customer is that of-----------a)
b)
c)
d)
Trustee and beneficiary

Bailor and bailee
Chief and agent
Bailee and Bailor
10
11.
A customer keeps NSCs in the name of his minor son in safe custody with the
bank. Immediately after attaining majority the son approaches the bank with a
request that the certificates be delivered to him as he is major now, in this event---------,
a) Bank will not deliver to him
b) Bank will deliver to him after attaining proper introduction and discharge
c) Bank will neither deliver him nor let him have the details
d) Bank will deliver to the father who had handed over the certificates to the
Bank
12.
Articles left in safe custody cannot be delivered on the basis of a succession

certificate because----:
a)
These are not included in debt and securities as defined under Indian
succession act 1925
b) It is not allowed under RBI act
c) It is not permitted under negotiable instruments act
13.
A minor wants to keep certain articles in safe custody. The Bank -----------a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
A, while keeping a sealed packet in safe custody gives instruction to the bank
that the packet should be delivered to the B after his death. In this event, bank --------a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Will not accept the articles

Can accept and keep articles in safe custody
Can accept if it is a fixed deposit in his name
None of the above
Can accept the articles

Should not accept the packet
Can accept with power of attorney in favour of B
None of the above
In case of accepting articles in safe custody, the nomination facility is available

under
a)
b)
c)
d)
Negotiable instruments act 1981

Banking Regulations act 1949
RBI act 1934
Indian contract act 1872
11

16.
Mr. X, approaches your branch to deposit in safe custody, his term deposit
receipt (issued by other bank), How would you react----------------------a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which one
of the following seals------------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
It can be accepted, provided the other bank has no objection to this

It can be accepted, if the customer provides indemnity bond
It can be accepted in normal course
It cannot be accepted, since it is a term deposit issued by another bank, this
has primary lien on deposit.
Seal of the Bank

Seal of the depositor
Both the above
None of the above
The relationship between the bank and hirer of a locker is that of------------:
a)
c)
19.
Debtor-Creditor
Licensor -Licensee
b)
d)
Bailor-Bailee
Principal-agent
Locker hiring Charges for a locker (small type) in a Urban Branch are------:
a)
c)
Rs. 550 p.a.

Rs. 1000/- p.a.
b)
d)
Rs. 750/- p.a.

None of the above
20. Safe custody receipt in respect of branch duplicate keys is kept in the
a)
b)
c)
d)
joint custody of the branch manager and manager cash

sole custody of the branch manager in his hand safe.
joint custody of the accountant and cash officer
sole custody of accountant
KEY : Safe Deposit Lockers/Safe custody
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
a
11
b
2
c
12
a
3
b
13
c
4
d
14
b
5
c
15
b
6
b
16
c
7
a
17
b
8
c
18
c
9
c
19
c
10
d
20
b
12
DISPOSAL OF ASSETS OF DECEASED CONSTITUENTS

1.
The term intestate is used with reference to -----------a) Settlement of claim in case of a deceased customer
b) Payment to the nominee in case of a deceased customer
c) A person died without leaving a will.
d) A person died after leaving a will
2.
As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased

constituents accounts, no separate affidavit (COS 539) would be required for an
aggregate amount upto Rs.______
a) Rs. 0.50 lacs
b) Rs. 1 lac
c) Rs. 2 lacs
d) Rs. 3 lacs
3.
As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased

constituents accounts, for an aggregate amount above Rs. 1 lac separate
stamped affidavit (COS 539) would be required, which should be signed by:
a) One person
b) Two persons
c) Three person
d) four persons
4.
A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of_.....year or more, the
persons who would have normally known of his existence have not heard of him /
known of his existence:
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
5.
When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court to
manage his estate is called:
a)
An executor
b)
An attorney
c)
An administrator
d)
A trustee
A box was kept as a safe deposit article at your branch. The legal heir to the
estate of the deceased has now requested you to deliver the article to him.
Which of the following documents is to be obtained?
a) Succession certificate
b) Letter of administration
c) Affidavit -cum-indemnity bond
d) A simple receipt signed by the heir
6.
13

7.
A Probate is-------------------------a) Will of the deceased.

b) The last will of a person certified by legal heirs
c) A copy of will certified by a court for settlement of property of the deceased.
d) A registered will of the deceased.
8.
A will is Probated by the Court under which of the following Act-------------------a) Indian Succession Act
b) Banking Regulation Act
c) Indian Contract Act
d) Hindu Succession Act
9.
An Executor is-------------:
a) A person appointed by the court to sell the assets of a deceased person.
b) A person who is named in the will of a deceased person to manage his estate
c) A person appointed by the legal heirs to execute their orders.
d) None of the above.
10
As per extant instructions as regards to payment of balances in the deceased

constituents accounts, no surety would be required for an aggregate amount upto
Rs.----------a) Rs.1, 000
b) Rs. 50,000
c) Rs. 10,000
d) Rs. 20,000
11
A succession certificate is--------------a) A document in the form of a court certificate which authorises a person to
succeed to the properties of a deceased person.
b) A document which authorises to receive property
c) An order by a court.
d) A petition approved by a court.
12.
A succession certificate issued by a court of law is operative ---------a)

b)
c)
d)
13.
Within the Distt.

Within the State
Within India.
At a place specified in the certificate.
A succession certificate is issued in respect of which of the following-----:

a)
Debts and Securities due to the deceased (i.e. deposits and
shares/securities)
b) Gold Silver etc.
c) Gold offered as security of loan.
14
14.
Which of the following statement is not correct----------?

a) Nomination can be made by illiterate depositor
b) Nomination can be made in joint Accounts also
c) Only one person can be nominated in deposit accounts
d) Two persons can be nominated in the Joint Deposit Accounts
15.
Nomination by illiterate to be witnessed by------------a)

b)
c)
d)
16
For a deposit account in the name of a minor, who can make the nomination-----a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
The natural guardian or legal guardian

The minor himself
No nomination in minor deposits
None of the above
Nomination, cancellation of Nomination and change in nomination require--------a)

b)
c)
d)
18.
One person
Two persons
A Bank Official
Nominee
Registration with Revenue authorities

Registration with Co. Act
Registration with RBI under BR Act
No Registration is required
In case the nominee predeceases the account holder, the nomination---------------a)

b)
c)
d)
Automatically Stands cancelled

Requires request for cancellation
Legal representation is required
Will require renewal
19.
Nomination can be made in favour of------------:

a) Institutions/Societies
b) Joint Nominee
c) Individuals
d) Blood Relation only
20
The person who makes a Will is

a) Legatee
b) Testator
c) Executor
15
21.
The person who inherits property under a Will is

a) Legatee
b) Testator
c) Executor
22.
A will to be valid must be ------a) Attested or witnessed by 2 or more witnesses

b) Attested or witnessed by one witness is sufficient
c) Attested or witnessed by 4 or more witnesses
d) Need not be attested or witnessed
23.
A will to be valid must be ------a) Should be stamped

b) Attracts advalorem
c) No stamp duty is required
d) To be executed on a stamp paper
24.
The document that alters, adds or explains a will and is deemed to be part of a
will is------a)
b)
c)
d)
Annexure
Add-on will
Codicil
None of these
25.
While opening account in the name of an executor we must obtain---a) Original Will
b) Probate
c) Succession Certificate
d) Letter of Administration
26.
Balance in the account of a deceased constituent can be attached by a

a) Garnishee order issued by the Court
b) Attachment order of Revenue Authority
c) None of these
27.
Which of the following documents you will call for in permitting removal of the
contents of the locker in case of death of locker hirer who has not nominated any
one?
a)
Heir ship certificate
b)
Succession certificate
c)
Certificate of administration general
d)
Letter of administration
16
28.
As per RBI instructions claim upto Rs. ________ can be settled without legal
representation if there is no dispute and Bank has no reasonable doubt about the
claimant and all legal heirs join in indemnifying.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 lacs
25 lacs
100 lacs
No limit
29.
Payment to the claimants of deceased claim cases is made---------a)

by credit to the accounts of claimants
b)
by adding the name of the claimants to the accounts of the deceased
constituent
c)
to be made through Bankers Cheque, which should be properly
discharged
d)
by cash
30.
What is the procedure of delivering the gold ornaments pledged to the bank
without legal representation?
a)
The Letter of Indemnity is to be obtained on the appropriate form
b)
The receipt of the claimants is to be obtained in the Gold Loan Ledger
under authentication of the joint custodians
c)
A separate receipt detailing the items delivered is to be obtained from the
claimants
d)
All the above
31. As per RBI instruction the claims up to a threshold limit of Rs------------ will be
entertained without insisting for valid death certificate in case of missing persons.
a)1.00lac
b) 0.50lac
c)2.00lac
d)1.50lac
32. The documents required for settling claim in respect of missing persons without
production of valid death certificate are
a) FIR
b)Non-traceable report issued by the police authorities.
c) Indemnity from the claimant
d) all the above
17
Answers
DISPOSAL OF ASSETS OF DECEASED CONSTITUENTS
1
c
11
a
21
a
31
2
b
12
c
22
a
a
3
a
13
a
23
c
32
4
c
14
d
24
c
d
5
c
15
a
25
b
6
b
16
a
26
b
7
c
17
d
27
d
8
a
18
a
28
d
9
b
19
c
29
c
10
b
20
b
30
d
18
TRANSFER PRICE MECHANISM

1. MRFTP STANDS FOR
(a) Money related funds transfer procedure
(b) Money related funds transfer pricing
(c) Market related funds transfer procedure
(d) Market related funds transfer pricing
2. MRFTP has been launched with the undernoted objectives in mind
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
the previous exercise use to take lot of pain & labour

to save considerable time
to facilitate consolidation & transmission of the TPM reports to corporate center
Maintenance of backup registers, manual calculations /interventions and
validations were making the whole process of preparations of P Form a
cumbersome one
(e) All of the above
3. MRFTP is a scientific internal funds

supplement the .
(a) Top management
(b) Profitability
(c) Asset Liability management
(d) Market pricing
4.
transfer price mechanism evolved to
MRFTP is a system under which the market is scanned on a daily basis to arrive at
the &
(a) TP Bid rates
(b)TP Offer rates
(c) Interest Rates
(d) a & b above
5. TP Bid rate is equivalent to

(a) C.O interest rates for deposits
(b) SBAR
(c) Bank Rate
(d) None of the above
19
6. TP offer rate is equivalent to

(a)C.O interest rates for advances
(b)SBAR
(c) Bank Rate
(d)None of the above
7. TP rates are arrived at by a method called
( a) market Pricing
(b) Security Pricing
(c) Matched maturity funding
(d) T P Funding
8 TP rates are calculated by taking into consideration . of the account.
(a) the origination date
(b)Maturity date
(c ) repayment schedule
(d)repricing characteristics
(e)All of the above
9 Under MRTFP , TP rates are assigned to each deposit /advance account except for
(a) Cash Credit Account
(b) MTL A/c
(c) Demand Deposits
10 TP rates are different for different market segments
(a) Are same for all the segments and population groups
(b) Similar for AGR & SIB segments only
(c) Different for metros, urban , Semi Urban & Rural areas
(d) Same for metro and urban and different for semi urban and rural
11
For staff deposits TP bid rate is ------basis points over and above the interest
tate of the account
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) 15
20

12 For all term deposit products the TP bid rates are picked up from the .., on
the date of origination of the deposit, for the tenor/period of the deposit.
(a) Market
(b) ALM Deptt
(c) RBI
(d) TP Bid Curve
13.
The Demand deposits are non maturity deposit accounts like Savings account,
Current Account where maturity pattern is arrived at based on the behavioral
study of . .
(a) Customers
(b) Share Market
(c) Debt Market
(d) the said accounts
14.
For Savings , it is assumed that 10 % of the balances are paid on the . day
and the remaining balance of 90 % is paid at the end of the 1st year, 3rd Year
and 5th Year in equal proportions.
a)
14th
b)
10 th
c)
30th
d) 15th
15.
TP bid rate for Savings account is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16.
TP bid rate for Current account is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17.
14day rate* 0.10,+(1 yr rate*0.3)+(3 yrs rae*0.3 )+5 yrs rate *0.3)
10day rate *0.10,+(1 yr rate*0.3)+(3 yrs rae*0.3 )+5 yrs rate *0.3)
14day rate* 0.15,+(1 yr rate*0.3)+(3 yrs rae*0.3 )+5 yrs rate *0.25)
TP bid rate for special schemes/ Foreign currency deposits is arrived at by

adding to the interest rate of the deposits
(a) Expenses
(b) Commission
(c) 30 basis points
21
18.
For cash balance Tp offer rate of-----day/days as on date of transfer pricing date
is taken
(a) 14
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 3
19. For fixed rate loans as demand deposits,(except demand deposits against banks
own securities and term loans TP offer rate is arrived at by a method called -----(a) duration
(b) behavioural analysis
(c) moving averages
(d) projection
20. For fixed rate loans like CC&OD TP offer rate is arrived , just like in
(a) DL
(b) TL
( c) SB/CA
(d) one of the above
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
TRANSFER PRICE MECHANISM
1
D
6
A
11
A
16
A
2
E
7
C
12
D
17
C
3
C
8
E
13
D
18
C
4
D
9
C
14
A
19
A
5
A
10
A
15
A
20
C
22

Remittances/Collections-1
1. RTGS stands for ----------a) Risk Taking Guarantee Scheme
c) Right Transaction General Scheme
b)
Real Time Gross Settlement

None of the above
d)
2. RTGS Scheme is managed by---------a) State Bank of India

c) Reserve Bank of India
b)
Indian Banks Association

3. For customer to customer transaction minimum amount that can be sent is

a)
b)
c)
d)
Rs2.00lacs
Rs5.00lacs
Rs1.00lacs
No minimum
4. Transactions under RTGS are reconciled at--------a) CDC Belapur

c) F.D. Calcutta
b) IOR Deptt. C.O. Mumbai

d) Reserve Bank Of India
5. In case of payment of IOI, the paying Banker is protected under

section_______ of Negotiable Instrument Act1881, if other conditions are
satisfied:
a) 85
c) 131
b) 85A
d) 138
6. A duplicate IOI can be issued for an amount up to Rs. ____ without waiting for
the non-payment advice from the drawee branch:
a) Rs.5,000
c) Rs.15, 000
b)
d)
Rs.10, 000
Rs.15, 000
7. For valued constituents, a duplicate IOI can be issued without insisting for any
surety, where the amount of IOI is below Rs. --------a)
b)
c)
d)
Cannot be issued without obtaining surety

Rs.60, 000/Rs.80, 000/Rs.50, 000/-
23

8. The drawer of a cheque has the right to stop its payment. In the case of a IOI-----:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The branch issuing the IOI has a right to stop its payment
Only the applicant for the IOI has a right to stop its payment
Payment of IOI cannot be stopped
None of the above]
9. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through
clearing, by two different banks on the same day, the Bank------------a) Will pay the duplicate
c) Will return both
b) Will pay the original

d) both will have to be paid
10. Hologram will be affixed on all IOI of Rs.____ & above includingIOI issued on
continuous stationary:
a)
c)
Rs.0.50 lac
Rs. 2 lacs
b) Rs.1 lac
d) Rs. 10 lacs
11. In case of collection of IOI the collecting Banker is protected under section..
Of Negotiable Instrument Act1881.
a)
c)
85
131
b)
d)
85 A
131 A
12. Branches will provide immediate credit to customers accounts in respect of

outstation cheques up to Rs _______ as per RBI directives:
a) Rs.5, 000
c) Rs.15, 000
b)
Rs. 7,500
d)
Rs. 20,000
13. While making the payment of a Bankers Cheque by cancellation, which of the
following statement is not true:
a) A stamped letter of Indemnity on COS 537 would be required
b) The purchaser can give a simple request letter for cancellation
c) His receipt on the back of the Bankers Cheque (on a revenue stamp if the
amount is Rs 500 and above) under the words, Received Payment by
Cancellation would need to be obtained
d) Strict identification should be insisted upon if the amount is paid in cash
24

14. The present ceiling limit per transaction under Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)
is ------------:
a) Rs. 1 lac
c) Rs. 2 crores
b)
d)
Rs. 5 lacs
No Ceiling since 01-11-04
15. Interest on delayed collection of instruments is paid by debit to------:

a) Interest Account
c) Savings Bank Interest Account
b) Charges Account-Sundries
d) None of these
16. Drop box facility should not be used for which of the following type of
instruments-----------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Local Clearing Cheques

Cheques drawn on Branch
Cheques against Government Challans
Outstation cheques for collection
17. A drop box with 03 slits/compartments has three coloured powder coated
compartments-which are these colours:
a) Red, Blue, Green
c) Blue, Red, Yellow
b) Blue, Green, Yellow

d) Red, Green, Yellow
18. As per extant RBI instructions relating to payment of compensation for delayed
collection of instruments, banks should pay interest @ ______________ for the
period of delay.
a) 2% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay
b) 1.5% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay
( c) 1% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay
( d) Savings Bank Rate
19. Bank has decided to waive, issue of draft advices in Agency Clearing upto Rs.-----:
a) 25,000
c) 10,000
b) 50,000
d) 1,00,000
20. A customer X deposits Rs. 5000/- with the bank for remittance by way of
telegraphic transfer for credit of Ys account at other station. The relationship
between Y and bank in this case is that of a:a) Principal and agent
c) Debtor and Creditor
b) Beneficiary and trustee

d) Trustee and beneficiary
25
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Q.
Ans
Q.
Ans
1
b
11
d
2
c
12
d
3
c
13
a
4
d
14
d
5
b
15
b
6
b
16
c
7
d
17
c
8
c
18
d
9
a
19
c
10
b
20
b
26
21. An IOI can be revalidated--------a) Once
b) Twice
c) No restrictions
d) It cant be revalidated
22. Banker Cheques are to be credited to charges account if they are unclaimed
for-------a) Six months
b) One year
c) Three years
d) None of these
23. Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is
a) Rs100,00,00,000
c) 99,00,00,000
b) Rs99,99,99,999
d) none of these
24. Which one of the following is required to be submitted by an applicant for

issuance of DDs, BCs of Rs. 50,000 and above-------a) Form 60/61
c) Neither a nor b
b) PAN No.
d) either a or b
25. IOI has ----------digit running serial number

a) 12
b)10
c)11
d)16
26. IOI is valid for----a) 6 months

c) so long it is revalidated
b) 12 months
d) none of the above
27. IOI instruments when examined under Ultra violet rays will show the water mark
of--------a) our corporate centre building
c) words SBI
28. The Hologram has nine digit number.
a) Circle code
c) RBI allotted code for our bank
b) SBIs logo
The first two digits represent --------b) First two digits of BSR code
d) First two digits of branch code
27

29. Before allowing immediate credit facility (DDP), it is to be ensured that, --------a) Account has been opened for a period not less than six months
b) Minimum balance requirements are met
c) Cheques deposited for collection/credit to the account have not been returned
unpaid
d) All the above
30. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our own branches),
between Metropolitan Centres/ Major A Class cities?
a) 6 days
c) 8 days
b) 7 days
d) 10days
31. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on other bank
branches), between Metropolitan Centres/ Major A Class cities?
a) 6 days
c) 8 days
b) 7 days
d) 10days
32. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our own branches),
between Metropolitan Centres / Major A Class cities and State Capitals (Other
than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?
a) 6 days
c) 8 days
b) 7 days
d) 10days
branches), between Metropolitan Centres / Major A Class cities and State
Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?
a) 6 days
c) 8 days
b) 7 days
d) 10days
branches), between centres other than Metropolitan Centres/ Major A Class
cities and State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?
a) 8 days
c) 14 days
b) 7 days
d) 10days
35. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our bank branches),
between centres other than Metropolitan Centres/ Major A Class cities and
State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?
a) 8 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 10days
28
37.The compensation on account of delays in collection of instruments in foreign

currency would be-a) At 5% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45
days where proceeds of the instruments are to be credited to deposit accounts
b) At 4% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45
c) At 1.5% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45
d) At 2% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45
38.If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as--------a) Normal Delay
b) Abnormal dealy
b) Delay is delay, it hardly matters whether normal or abnormal
d) No such classification
39.If there is abnormal delay in realization of collection and the proceeds were
meant for credit to overdraft or loan account of the customer, the interest payable
would be at------a) Savings Bank Rate
b) SBAR
c) Rate applicable on Overdraft/Loan
d)1% above the applicable interest rate to the loan account or SBAR, whichever is
lower
40.Force Majure means
a) external acts over which the Bank has control
b) the Bank is liable to compensate the customers for such acts
c) These are the acts done by the customer
d) these are unforeseen events beyond the control of the Bank
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
21
a
31
a
22
c
32
b
23
b
33
c
24
b
34
d
25
a
35
c
26
a
36
d
27
a
37
a
28
a
38
b
29
d
39
d
30
c
40
d
29
INSPECTION/AUDIT-I
1.
RFIA stands for--------a) Return Focus Internal Audit

c) Risk Focused Internal Audit
2.
Inspection and Management Audit Department, Corporate Centre is located

at--a) Navi Mumbai
c) Hyderabad
3.
b)
c)
d)
Inspection and Management Audit Department, Corporate Centre,

Hyderabad
Circle Audit Department
RBI Auditors
Concurrent Auditors
Statutory Audit is conducted by----------a)

b)
c)
d)
5.
b) Jaipur
d) Lucknow
Who conducts Credit Audit?

a)
4.
b) Risk Factor Internal Audit

Banks Internal Auditors

RBI Officials
Charted Accountants empanelled by RBI
Concurrent Auditors
What is true in respect of RFIA?

a) RBI introduced Risk Based Supervision in banking industry due to frequent
changes in International Banking Scenario & globalisation,
b) RBI announced the move towards Risk Based Supervision in its monitory
policy for 2001-02
c) RFIA is part of RBS
d) All the above
6.
Frequency of circle audit is

a) once a year
b) in between two corporate centre audits
c) Once in two years
d) As directed by RBI
30

7.
Under circle audit branche has to submit compliance remarks within
months?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Serious Drawback in Risk management

Serious Deviations in Risk management
Serious Deficiency in Risk management
Small Deficiency in Risk management
When was RFIA introduced in SBI?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
SDRM
MRDS
DRSM
None of the above
SRDM stands for------a)

b)
c)
d)
10.
4
1
3
2
Serious Irregularities under Group Heading (SIGH) of the erstwhile inspection

report format has been replaced by------a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
-------
01-04-2003
01-04-2002
01-01-2003
None of these
New branched are eligible for RFIA in ---months

a)
12
b)
24
c)
15
d)
18
12.
Audit conducted in respect of a particular area either at the request of controller
or decided by Inspection dept, LHO depending on circumstances is called?
a)
b)
c)
d)
controlled audit
internal audit
concurrent audit
spot audit
31
13.
What is a Management Letter?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
Under RFIA Branches are categorised into ------- groups

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
High Risk
Medium Risk
Low Risk
No Risk
Group-III branches are ------a)

b)
c)
d)
18.
Group I
Group II
Group III
No such criteria
Group-II branches are ------a)

b)
c)
d)
17.
Two
Three
Five
Seven
All branches with a minimum aggregate advance of Rs15 cr are placed under
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
It indicates the staff strength of a branch

It describes the customer service of the branch
It highlights crucial issues of concern
It is the confidential report on the various functionaries at the branch
High Risk
Medium Risk
Low Risk
No Risk
All CAG ,MCG and SAMG branches come under?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Group I
Group II
Group III
No such criteria
32

KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
INSPECTION/AUDIT-I
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
c
11
a
2
c
12
d
3
a
13
c
4
c
14
b
5
d
15
b
6
b
16
b
7
d
17
c
8
a
18
a
9
b
19
10
a
20
33
INSPECTION/AUDIT-II
1
ARF stands for

a) Audit related form
b) Audit rating format
c) Audit report format
d) audir review form
2. Under RFIA ARF

a)
b)
c)
d)
for different branches is-------?
Different for different categories of branches

Same for all branches
Same for group I and II
Same for Group II and III
3. Which parameter has been delinked from RFIA?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4
Risk Rating based on Risk Parameters (1000 Marks)

Business Rating based on Business Parameters (500 Marks)
General Efficiency Rating on the basis of aggregate of Tier I & Tier II
None of these
One of the following is not covered in ARF of Group I branches?

a) External compliance
b) Credit risk management
c) Operational risk management
d) Hardware risk management
5 Maximum credit risk management score for group I branch in ARF is ----a)
b)
c)
d)
525
425
600
750
6 Maximum credit risk management score for group I branch in ARF is-------a)
b)
c)
d)
400
425
500
650
34

7. Maximum operational risk management score for group II branch in ARF is____
a) 700
b) 750
c) 800
d) 650
8 Out of total score of 1000 marks under Risk Rating a branch rated as
Unsatisfactory
has a score of--------a)
b)
c)
d)
9
less than 50%

less than 55%
less than 45%
less than 40%
Which of the following does not fall under high risk under Zero Tolerance
a) false certification of substantive nature in Branch Manager Monthly Certificate
b) Non-checking of VVRs/BGL by a person other than whom they relate to
c) Maintenance of password secrecy and prompt reporting of loss of password of
the INB Customer to the Security Manager, INB Mumbai.
d) Proper custody and accounting of preprinted INB Kit, ATM Pin Mailers and
Welcome Kit
e) None of the above
10.
What is the revised periodicity of RFIA with effect from 01-01-2006 for branches
scoring >85% under Group I?
a) within 18 months
c) within 15 months
11.
scoring 70 -85 % Group II?
a) within 21 months
c) within 15 months
12.
b) within 12 months
d) within 21 months
b) within 12 months
d) within 18 months
scoring 50%> under Group I ?
a) within 18 months
c) within 12 months
b) within 15 months
d) within 21 months
35

13. What is the revised periodicity of RFIA with effect from 01-01-2006 for branches
scoring 50%> under Group II and III?
a) within 12 months
c) within 15 months
14.
b) within 18 months
d) within 21 months
< scoring 50%?
a) 10-12 months
c) 8-10 months
15.
What is the revised periodicity of RFIA with effect from 01-01-2006 for Newly
opened branches?
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
17.
within 18 months
within 12 months irrespective of Group
within 6-8 months irrespective of Group
within 10 months
One of the following is not covered under operational risk----a) customer service
b) control system
c) general branch mangement
d) problem loan management
One of the following is not covered under credit risk---?
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
b) 6-8 months
d) 7-9 months
Pre sanction
Problem loan management
remittances
post sanction
Post Audit process comprises of------a) Rectification of irregularities by branches

b) Causes of deficiencies to be identified
c) Controllers to submit action taken for correction along with recommendations for
closer of report
d) All the above
19.
Credit Audit covers borrower accounts with credit limits -----a)

b)
c)
d)
Rs. 5 crore and above

Rs10 crore and above
Rs. 15 crore and above
Rs.3 crore and above
36

20.
Systems audit has been renamed as

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
Procedure audit
Operational audit
Compliance audit
Systems and procedure audit
RBI Audit is conducted under------?
a)
b)
c)
d)
section 35 of Banking Regulation Act

section 51 of Banking Regulation Act
section 35 of RBI Act
section 35 of SBI Act
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
INSPECTION/AUDIT-II
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
c
11
d
21
a
2
a
12
c
3
b
13
a
4
d
14
b
5
a
15
b
6
c
16
d
7
b
17
d
8
a
18
d
9
e
19
b
10
a
20
d
37

BASEL II, Capital Adequacy & Risk Managment
1. The worlds oldest international financial organization, Bank for International
Settlements (BIS) having 55 member central banks is situated at:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Paris
Tokyo
London
Basle/Basel, Switzerland
2. The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision [BCBS], is a committee of central

banks that meets_____________ at the Bank for International Settlement [BIS] in
Basel, to provide broad policy guidelines governing the capital adequacy of
internationally active banks
a)
b)
c)
d)
Every month
Every three months
Every six months
Once in a year
3. The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision [BCBS], was set up in ________

by G-10 countries.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1970
1972
1975
1978
4. Basel standards are being used as a benchmark by ____________ in conducting

their assessment of the banking system of a country.
a)
b)
c)
d)
IMF
World Bank
Both of the above
None of the above
5. Basel II norms relate to

a)
b)
c)
d)
Corporate Governance
Non Performing Assets
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
None of the above
38

6. The Rationale for maintaining Capital Adequacy is
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
To meet the unexpected losses or losses beyond normal range of operations

To meet the expected losses
Both of the above
None of the above
International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A

Revised Framework (Basel II ) released by BCBS on __________
a)
b)
c)
d)
26 June 2004
30 June 2004
30 August 2004
26 July 2004
8. The Basel II revised framework consists of three mutually reinforcing pillars. Which
among the following is not the reinforcing pillar ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Minimum capital requirement

Market discipline
Supervisory review of capital adequacy
ALM Management
9. The Risks Which Determine Capital Requirement under Pillar 1

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Credit Risk
Market Risk
Operational Risk
All of the above
As per Basel II Capital Adequacy Ratio should be :

a)
b)
c)
d)
8%
9%
10%
11%
11. As per RBI Capital Adequacy Ratio should be :

a)
b)
c)
d)
8%
9%
10%
11%
39

12.
As per Basel II Capital Adequacy Ratio is :

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
As per the Prudential Guidelines on Capital Adequacy issued by RBI, Indian

banks having operational presence outside India shall adopt Basic Indicator
Approach with effect from
a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
Tier 1 + Tier 2/ Risk Weighted Assets for Credit risk + Operational risk
Tier 1 + Tier 2/ Risk Weighted Assets for Credit risk +Market risk
Tier 1 + Tier 2/ Risk Weighted Assets for Market risk + Operational risk
Tier 1 + Tier 2/ Risk Weighted Assets for Credit risk +Market risk +
Operational risk
March 31, 2010

March 31, 2009
March 31, 2008
March 31, 2007
Basel II recognises the element of diversification of risk in the

___________sector/s and has assigned a lower risk weight for retail exposure
under standardised approach.
a)
b)
c)
d)
SME
AGL
Both of the above
None of the above
15.
RBI has put forward a framework consisting of few options for

calculating
operational risk capital charges in a continuum of increasing sophistication and
risk sensitivity. These options are:
a) The Basic Indicator Approach (BIA)
b) The Standardised Approach (TSA)
c) Advanced Measurement Approaches (AMA).
d) All of the above
16.
Under the Basic Indicator Approach, banks have to hold capital for operational
risk equal to __________ of average Gross Income for the preceding 3 years.
a)
b)
c)
d)
15%
18%
20%
10%
40

17.
For measuring Credit Risk which of the following menu of Approaches is not
suggested:
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
For measuring Market Risk which of the following menu of Approaches is not
suggested:
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
Standard Approach
Internal Models Approach
Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
None of the above
For measuring Operational Risk which of the following menu of Approaches is

not suggested:
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
Standardised Approach
Foundation Internal Rating Based (IRB) Approach
Advanced Internal Rating (IRB) Approach
Internal Models Approach
Basic Indicator Approach

Standardised Approach
Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
None of the above
The Revised Framework (Basel II) consists of _______Pillar/s

a) Minimum Capital Requirements
b) Supervisory Review of Capital Adequacy
c) Market Discipline
d) All of the above
21.
The Bank has migrated to Basel II Framework with effect from:

a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
31-03-2008
31-03-2009
31-03-2007
01-01-2008
RBI has asked banks to submit applications for implementing The Standardized
Approach (TSA) by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
31-03-2008
01-04-2009
01-04-2010
01-01-2010
41

23.
The Standardized Approach (TSA) involves the reclassification of the income and
interest expenses of the Bank into ________ business lines:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 7
d) 9
24.
For implementation of TSA all new accounts being opened have to be classified
either under Retail Banking or Commercial Banking. Which of the following
statements are correct in this regard:
I. All advances and deposits in PER segment will be treated as Retail
Banking.
II. Exposure (fund based & non-fund based) to an individual person or
persons or to a small business will be treated as Retail Banking.
III. All existing Deposit accounts in National Banking Group (NBG) shall be
classified under Retail Banking Group.
IV. All Deposit accounts in Corporate Accounts Group (CAG) and Mid
Corporate Group (MCG) will be treated as Commercial, except Staff
accounts.
a)
c)
25.
(i) & (iv)

(i), (iii) & (iv)
b)
d)
(ii) , (iii) & (iv)

All of the above
For implementation of TSA Small Business is defined as one:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
a)
c)
where the total annual turnover is less than Rs. 50 crores

The maximum aggregate Fund Based exposure should not exceed the
absolute threshold limit of Rs. 5 Crores irrespective of the existing
segmentation into SSI, C&I.
The maximum aggregate exposure (Fund Based + Non Fund Based)
should not exceed the absolute threshold limit of Rs. 5 Crores
irrespective of the existing segmentation into SSI & C&I.
the maximum aggregate exposure (Fund Based + Non Fund Based)
should not exceed the absolute threshold limit of Rs. 5 Crores
irrespective of the existing segmentation into SSI, C&I or AGL
(i) & (iv)
(i) & (iii)
b)
d)
(i) & (ii)

None of the above
42
KEY
BASEL II, Capital Adequacy & Risk Managment
1
d
11
b
21
a
2
b
12
d
22
c
3
c
13
c
23
b
4
c
14
a
24
d
5
c
15
d
25
a
6
a
16
a
7
a
17
d
8
d
18
c
9
d
19
d
10
a
20
d
43
BASEL II, CAPITAL ADEQUACY & RISK MANAGMENT

1.
The overall responsibility for overseeing the risk management processes in our
Bank is of _____________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
The Chairman and convener of Operational Risk Management Committee is ______:

a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
b)
c)
d)
To limit the impact of a disruption caused by any disaster, on people,

processes and infrastructure
To ensure continuity, resumption and recovery of critical business
processes at an agreed level, to be approved for each business
function/Office
To take into account the potential for major disasters that could impact an
entire region and plan for minimizing its impact on business and staff.
All of the above.
Business Continuity policy applies to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
Chairman
Managing Director & CCRO
CGM (Risk Management)
CGM (I & A)
The objective/s of the Business Continuity Plan is/are:

a)
4.
Chairman
The Risk Management Committee of the Board (RMCB)
Risk Management Department, Corporate Office
None of the above.
Branches only
Corporate office
LHOs and Administrative Offices
All business and functional areas within the Bank which includes all its
branches and offices.
As per regulatory requirements, the Bank needs to put in place BCP for all its
offices within a specified time frame by ___________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
31-03-2008
31-03-2009
31-03-2010
No time limit has been fixed by RBI for the purpose.
44

6.
The deadline for switching over to the New CRA Models (CRA 2007) by all
Branches was:
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
30th September, 2007

26th November, 2007
31st December, 2007
31st March, 2008
The new CRA models will be applicable to all accounts in :

Non-Trading Sector (C&I, SSI & AGL segments)
Trading Sector (Including Services).
Both of the above
All segments of the Bank
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
The new CRA models will be applicable to all accounts with Aggregate Exposure
(FBL + NFBL) of Rs. ____________
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
CRA 2007 have ______________ models:

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Simplified Model
Regular Model
Both of the above
Basel Model
Simplified Model covers accounts with exposure of

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
10 lacs and above

25 lacs and above
50 lacs and above
100 lacs and above
Rs. 10 lacs and above, but upto Rs. 1 crore.

Rs. 25 lacs and above, but upto Rs. 2 crores.
Regular Model covers accounts with exposure

a)
b)
c)
d)
above
above
above
above
Rs. 1 crores.
Rs. 2 crores.
Rs. 5 crores.
Rs. 10 crores.
45
12.
Simplified Model has __________rating/s

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
Regular Model has __________rating/s

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
08, SB 08
10, SB 10
12, SB 12
16, SB 16
The Rating Scale under Facility Rating has been expanded to _______ Grades
(FR1 to ______)
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
Borrower Rating
Facility Rating
Country Rating
Both (a)&(b)
The Rating Scale under Borrower Rating has been expanded to _______ Grades
(SB1 to ______)
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Borrower Rating
Facility Rating
Country Rating
All of the above
08, FR 08
10, FR 10
12, FR 12
16, FR 16
Hurdle Grade under Borrower Rating is ______ & under Facility Rating is
________
a)
b)
c)
d)
SB 04 & FR 04
SB 08 & FR 08
SB 10 & FR 10
SB 12 & FR 12
46
17.
Units having ____________will be eligible for additional Score under Borrower

Rating.
a)
Solicited Ratings from recognised External Credit Rating Agencies

( ECRA)
Current Ratio > 1.33:1
TOL/TNW < 1.50
None of the above
b)
c)
d)
18.
Country Ratings are applicable for units having ________Assets/ Cash flows
originating outside India:
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
25% or more Assets

25% or more Assets & cash flows
20% or more Assets
20% or more Assets & cash flows
Country Ratings circulated by

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
Credit Policy and Procedures Department

Credit Risk Management Department
Foreign Department /GMU Kolkata
Risk Management Department
While mapping ratings of borrowers as per the new CRA Model vis--vis the old
Model, which of the following combination is not correct:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
a)
c)
(ii)
(ii) & (iii)
New Rating
SB1, SB2
SB3, SB4, SB5
SB 10
SB8, SB9
b)
d)
Old Rating
SB1
SB2
SB5
SB4
(iii)
None of the above
47
21.
While mapping ratings of borrowers as per the new CRA Model vis--vis the old
Model, which of the following combination is not correct:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
a)
c)
22.
(iv)
None of the above
All branches,
All CPCs
Administrative Offices & LHOs
All branches, CPCs and other offices of the Bank.
Risk Register is required to be introduced by 30-6-2009 and requisite data

relating to FY 2009-10 starting from _________ till date should be incorporated
therein.
a)
b)
c)
d)
24.
b)
d)
Old Rating
SB 6
SB 3
SB 7
SB 8
"Risk Register" is to be maintained to capture and record the range of high level
risk events that might have an impact on the performance of an operating unit
and the plans for mitigating them by :
a)
b)
c)
d)
23.
(ii)
(ii) & (iii)
New Rating
SB11, SB12
SB6, SB7
SB 13, SB 14
SB 15, SB 16
01-04-09
01-06-09
01-07-09
01-01-09
Under Centralised Access Control Policy for de-provisioning of user-IDs, the

User-ID of the staff who has been posted abroad/ outside the Bank in other
organisation etc. (on deputation) will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
De-activated. However, it can be activated by LHO functionaries as and

when required.
Permanently deactivated with past records
Deactivated by the respective transferor branch. The user-IDs will be
reactivated upon resuming duty at the transferee branch.
None of the above.
48

25.

User-ID of the staff who has been transferred to other branch/office will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
26.

User-IDs not put to use in CBS for 15 days and above will be automatically
Deactivated in CBS and reactivation will be made at the request of branch head/
department head/ controller
a)
c)
27.
De-activated. However, it can be activated by LHO functionaries as and

when required.
Permanently deactivated with past records
Deactivated by the respective transferor branch. The user-IDs will be
reactivated upon resuming duty at the transferee branch.
None of the above.
15 days
45 days
b)
d)
30 days
60 days
One of the prerequisites for migration to Internal Rating Based (IRB) Approach
under Credit Risk is that the Bank should have capability to estimate
a)
Probability of Default (PD)
b)
Loss Given Default (LGD)
c)
Exposure at Default (EAD)
d)
All of the above
Key
BASEL II, Capital Adequacy & Risk Management
1
b
10
c
19
c
2
b
11
c
20
d
3
d
12
a
21
b
4
d
13
d
22
d
5
d
14
d
23
a
6
b
15
d
24
a
7
c
16
c
25
c
8
b
17
a
26
a
9
c
18
b
27
d
49
ASSIGNMENT 1 (Deposit Accounts)

01
As per Savings Bank Rules- Minors who can adhere to uniform signature and are
not less than 10 years old, can open Savings Bank Accounts in their single name
and can maintain a maximum balance of:
a)
b)
02
Rs 1.00 lac
Rs 5.00 lac
Rs.1/Rs.10/-
b)
d)
Rs.5/Rs.50/-
Rs. 5/Rs. 50/-
b)
d)
Rs. 10/Rs. 100/-
Rs. 5/- per entry

Rs.15/- per entry
b)
d)
Rs.10/- per entry

Rs.20/- per entry
What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a current

account by Non-Individuals in Rural Areas & Other Areas
a)
c)
07
b)
d)
What are the service charges for debit entries in excess of thirty entries excluding
alternate
channels like transactions through State Bank ATMs and Internet
Banking during a half year in Savings Bank Account?
a)
c)
06
Rs. 50000/Rs 20.00 lac
What is the minimum permissible amount for withdrawal from a Savings Bank
Account?
a)
c)
05
Rs.50,000/Rs.2,00,000/-
What is the minimum cash amount that can be deposited in a Savings Bank
Account?
a)
c)
04
b)
d)
The Maximum deposit in the minors a/c under guardianship can be up to-----:
a)
c)
03
Rs.20,000/Rs.10,000/-
Rs.2500 & Rs. 5000/- respectively b) Rs. 5000 & Rs. 10000/- respectively
Rs.2000 & Rs. 5000/- respectively d) Rs.1000 & Rs. 5000/- respectively
What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a current

account by Individual in Rural Areas & Other Areas
a)
c)
50
08
What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a non cheque

book operated Saving Bank account in Rural Areas & Other Areas
a)
c)
09
What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a cheque book

operated Saving Bank account in Rural Areas & Other Areas
a)
c)
10
7 days & 120 months

15days & 60 months
b 7 days & 60 months

d) 15 days & 120 months
Rs.1000/Rs.500/-
b)
d)
Rs.100/Rs. 5000/-
What is the minimum & maximum period for S.T.D.R accounts?

a)
c)
14
b 7 days & 60 months

d) 15 days & 120 months
What is the minimum amount of deposit that can be accepted as Term / Special
Term Deposit:
a)
c)
13
14 days & 60 months

15days & 60 months
What is the minimum & maximum period for Term Deposits of Rs 1 crore &
above ?
a)
c)
12
What is the minimum & maximum period for Term Deposits of less than Rs 1
crore?
a)
c)
11.
3 months & 60 months

b) 6 months & 120 months

d) 12 months & 120 months
What is the minimum & maximum period for R.D. accounts?

a)
c)

b) 6 months & 120 months

d) 12 months & 120 months
51

15
Recurring Deposits are accepted in monthly installments of :

a)
b)
c)
d)
16
The maximum amount of loan that can be granted against Term Deposits is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
c)
d)
b)
d)
Rs.20,000/Rs.1,00,000
A fresh nomination needs to be obtained every time the deposit is renewed

The nomination taken at the time of issuance of the deposit can be treated
as a valid nomination for the term deposit renewed on maturity unless the
depositor would like to change the nomination
A fresh nomination is required if the periodicity of deposit at the time of
renewal is different from the original periodicity.
A fresh nomination is required if the renewed deposit is different from the
matured deposit.
On premature payment of time deposits, interest will be applied @ _______below

the rate applicable for the period the deposit has run.
a)
c)
20.
Rs.10,000/Rs.50,000/-
Which of the following statement is correct in respect of a nominated Term deposit

account, when it is renewed?
a)
b)
19
85% of principal amount

85% of principal amount + accrued interest
90% of principal amount
90% of principal amount + accrued interest
U/s 269 T of the Income Tax Act, the branches will make payment of time deposits
with interest thereon amounting to Rs.______ and above by way of credit to
account/Bank Draft/crossed cheque only:
a)
c)
18.
Minimum Rs. 50/- Maximum Rs. 1000/Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs. 10,000/Minimum Rs. 100/- and thereafter in multiple of Rs. 10/Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs. 5,000/-
Zero %
1%
b)
d)
0.5 %
2.0%
As per Section 194A of the Income Tax Act, banks are required to deduct tax at
source whenever interest on time deposits credited or paid or likely to be credited
or paid to the account of a customer, exceeds Rs _____ per person, per branch
in a financial year.
a)
c)
Rs.5, 000
Rs.2, 500
b)
d)
Rs.10, 000
Rs.20, 000
52

21. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank Account
in the name of illiterate person:
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
c)
22.
Only (i)
(i), (ii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank

Account in the name of a person not knowing either English or Hindi language?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
c)
23.
An illiterate person may open an ordinary Savings Bank account in his sole
name or jointly with other person(s).
Where one of the depositors is literate a cheque-operated joint account
payable to any one, survivors can be opened
The thumb impression of the depositor on the Savings Bank account closing
form are to be witnessed in all cases, by an independent witness acceptable
to the Bank.
Accounts of illiterate depositors may be transferred, at their request, from
one branch to another like the other accounts.
Account can be opened in regional language known to person.

Account cant be opened
Account can be opened jointly with the person knowing English or Hindi
language.
Account can be opened on the same terms and conditions as for an illiterate
person if not knowing regional language also.
Only (i)
(i), (iii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (iii)

Only (ii)

Account in the name of a visually impaired / blind person?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
c)
If a blind person is illiterate, or literate but unable to sign uniformly, account

can be opened on the same terms and conditions as for an illiterate person.
Operation by cheque in the blind / visually impaired depositor's account in the
sole name is not permitted.
Operation by cheque in the blind / visually impaired depositor's account in the
sole name may continue to be permitted, only under the signature of a duly
constituted power of attorney of the account holder or after furnishing an
undertaking that the self operated cheque book facility be provided / extended
to the depositor / customer at her / his own risk.
In case of self operated cheque facility account of visually impaired / blind
depositors, the third party cash payment of self drawn cheques is not
permitted.
Only (i)
b) Both (i) & (ii)
(i), (iii) & (iv)
53
24.

Account in the name of pensioners?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
c)
25.
Only (i)
(i), (ii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
In satisfactorily conducted accounts, immediate credit will be afforded for

outstation instruments deposited up to___________:
a)
c)
26.
Rs. 15,000
Rs. 20,000
b)
d)
Rs. 10, 000

Rs. 30, 000
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of issuance of

TDR/STDR?
i)
The receipts for fixed deposits viz. Term Deposit / Special Term Deposits is to
be issued in the form of a system generated advice on preprinted Non
security form look alike receipt format
Statement (i) is applicable to all branches of the bank irrespective of the
location and type of the branch
Statement (i) is applicable to all market segments
Statement (i) is applicable to any amount of deposit tendered
Statement (i) is not applicable to Term Deposit / Special Term Deposits
received under State Bank Tax Saving Scheme 2006.
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
a)
c)
27.
50% concession is being allowed in minimum balance to be maintained.

50% concession is being allowed in service charges for not maintaining
minimum balance.
Account can be opened in joint names with the family pensioner
nominated in the PPO, in case pension paying Department permits.
Accounts of pensioners may be transferred, at their request, from one
branch to another.
Only (i)
(i), (ii) (iii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
Loans against NR(E)RA and FCNR(B) deposits either to the depositors or third
parties can be granted up to a maximum limit of_________.
a)
c)
Rs. 20 lac
Rs.100 lac
b)
d)
Rs. 50 lac
Rs. 500 lac
54
Key to Assignment 1 (Deposit Accounts)

Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
d
11
a
21
d
2
c
12
a
22
c
3
c
13
b
23
c
4
c
14
d
24
d
5
a
15
c
25
d
6
b
16
d
26
d
7
a
17
b
27
c
8
a
18
b
9
b
19
c
10
d
20
b
55

1. The minimum amount of initial deposit allowable for Multi Option Deposit Accounts
(MODs) is:____________.
a) Rs. 10,000
c) Rs. 1,000
b) Rs. 5,000
d) Rs. 500
2 Multi Option Deposit Scheme, is the combination of :

a) TDR/STDR & R.D.
c) S.B. A/c & TDR/STDR
b) TDR/STDR & C. A/c / S.B. A/c

d) S.B. A/c & R.D.
3. For partial withdrawal/ break up of MODs the unit amount is:

a) Rs. 10,000
c) Rs. 1,000
b) Rs. 5,000
d) Rs. 500
4. What is the maturity period of Multi Option Deposits?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6 months and above, maximum 3 years.

1 year and above, maximum 3 years.
1 year and above, maximum 5 years
5. While making premature payment of MODS (unitised break up), which of the
following method will be applicable-----a)
b)
c)
d)
First in first out (FIFO)

Last in first out (LIFO)
Any one can be broken as opted by customer.
None of the above.
6. What is the maturity period of MODs issued under Saving Plus Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 months and above, maximum 5 years.

1 year and above, maximum 3 years.
6 months, 12 months, 24 months or 36 months.
7. Under Saving Plus Account the minimum Threshold Amount should be Rs.
_______, however the depositor may opt for a higher threshold amount.
a) 15,000/c) 1,000/-
b) 10,000/d) 5,000/56
8. In Saving plus Scheme the Auto Sweep is operative on _______________and

MODs are issued for eligible amount.
a) 5th and 20th of every month
b) 10th and 20th of every month
c) Once a week (any day) or once a month (any date) as opted by the depositor.
d) 15th and 30th of every month
9. Loan against deposits held under Saving Plus Scheme is granted up to--------a) 75% of deposit
c) 90% of deposit
b) 85% of deposit
d) Not permitted
10. Under Liquid Term Deposit (LTD) scheme, the maximum period of deposit is-----a) One year
c) 7 Year
b) 5 Years
d) 10 Years
11. The minimum amount of Liquid Term Deposit (LTD) is-----a) Rs. 1,500/c) Rs.25000/-
b) Rs.10000/d) Rs.50,000/-
12. Under LTD Scheme, the partial withdrawal is permitted in units of Rs. --------a) Rs.500/c) Rs.5000/-
b) Rs.1000/d) Rs.10, 000/-
13. Under Liquid Term Deposit (LTD) scheme, the minimum period of deposit is-----a) 15 days
c) 1 year
b) 6 months
d) 7 days
14. Banks are required to deduct tax at source (TDS) from interest payable on Time
Deposits wherever such interest paid or accrued per person and per branch during a
financial year exceeds -------------a) Rs.20000
c) Rs.5000
b) Rs.10000
d) Rs.50000
57
15. The minimum amount of deposit under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is
Rs.___________ and in multiples of ___________.
a) Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 100
c) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 1,000
b) Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 500

d) Rs. 1,500 and Rs. 100
16. The minimum amount of withdrawal under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is stipulated
at ______ and in multiple of ________ ..
a) Rs. 100/- and Rs 100/c) Rs. 1,000/- and Rs. 500/-
b) Rs. 500/- and Rs. 100/d) Rs. 1,500/- and Rs. 100/-
17. The minimum period of deposit under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is:
_______________.
a) 12 months
c) 3 months
b) 6 months
d) 15 days.
18. Under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna deposit can be accepted for a maximum period of
_______.
a) 3 years
c) 7 years
b) 5 years
d) 10 years
19. The minimum amount of Corporate Liquid Term Deposit (CLTD) is-----a) Rs.5, 000/c) Rs.25000/-
b) Rs.10000/d) Rs.50, 000/-
20. Under CLTD Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit allowable subsequent to
initial deposit is:
a) Rs. 5000/c) Rs. 25,000/-
b) Rs. 10000/d) Rs. 50,000/Key to Assignment 2 (Deposit Accounts)
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
a
11
a
2
b
12
a
3
c
13
c
4
c
14
b
5
c
15
d
6
c
16
b
7
d
17
a
8
c
18
d
9
d
19
d
10
b
20
c
58

1) To be eligible for differential rate of interest under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme,
the minimum age of the depositor is-------a) 58 years
c) 65 years
b) 60 years
2) Under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, the minimum period of deposit is________.
a) 3 months
c) 1 year
b) 6 months
d) 15 days
3) Under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit is_______.
a) Rs. 500/c) Rs. 5,000/-
b) Rs. 1,000/d) Rs. 10,000/-
4) Differential rate of interest under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme is ---------------a) 1%

c) 0.25%
b) 0.50%
5) Which of the following statement is not true in respect of CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
It is a product for parking of capital gains for a max. period of 3 years.

Funds parked in the account are to be utilised for capital investment.
All branches are authorised to open accounts under CAPGAIN Scheme.
None of the above.
6) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit which can be held
in TDR is
a) Rs. 500/c) Rs. 5,000/-
b) Rs. 1,000/d) Rs. 10,000/-
7) Amount withdrawn under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme is to be utilised within ---------------days.

a) 15
c) 60
b) 30
59

8) Which of the following facilities are available to the account holder under CAPGAIN
PLUS Scheme.
a) Cheque Book
c) Loan facility
b) ATM Card
9) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme withdrawal of amount can be permitted only by way
of DD in favour of payee if amount of such withdrawal exceeds Rs. ----------a) Rs. 5000/c) Rs. 25,000/-
b) Rs. 10,000/d) Rs. 50,000/-
10) No Frill Account can be opened by an individual if his

a)
b)
c)
d)
Age is > 10 years

Age is > 10years & earning is Rs. 5000/- or less
Age is > 18 years
Age is > 18 years & earning is Rs. 5000/- or less
11) Initial deposit required to open No Frill Account is Rs. ___________and thereafter
minimum balance of Rs. ________ can be maintained.
a)
c)
Rs 50 & Rs. 100 respectively

Rs 50 & Rs. 50 respectively
b) Rs 100 & Rs. 100 respectively

d) Rs 50 & Rs. 0 respectively
12) Maximum balance that can be maintained in the No Frill Account is Rs.
___________
a) Rs 50,000
b) Rs 25,000
c) Rs 10,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
13) Rate of interest payable in No Frill Account is:
a) As applicable to Savings Bank account if a minimum balance of Rs.500/- or more
is maintained.
b) No interest is to be paid.
c) As applicable to Savings Bank account.
60
14) Which of the following scheme/s have been discontinued from 01-04-2009.
a) Money Box
c) Both of the above
b) Kanak Dhara
15) Which of the following scheme has been discontinued from 01.06.2011.
a) Annuity Deposit Scheme
c) SB Yuva Account
b) Floating Rate Term deposit

Key to Assignment 3 (Deposit Accounts)
Q.
A
Q
A
1
b
11
d
2
c
12
c
3
d
13
c
4
b
14
c
5
d
15
b
6
c
7
c
8
d
9
c
10
d
61

SALARY PACKAGE ACCOUNTS
1
Corporate Salary Package Account will be available to the employees of a

Corporate or Institution, only when the organisation has:
a)
A minimum number of 25 employees with a minimum payout of Rs.1.25

lacs p.m.,
A minimum number of 20 employees with a minimum payout of Rs.1.00
lacs p.m.,
Minimum gross monthly salary per account of Rs. 5,000/Both (a) & (c)
Both (b) & (c)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.
PBBU Heads of the Circle have the discretion to permit deviation in eligibility
criteria and approve a tie up with a Corporate/ Institution having minimum
number of ___ employees opening their salary accounts with us.
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
10
15
20
No deviation is allowed
Circle CGM may permit coverage of employees having salaries of less than
Rs. 5,000 per month under Silver variant, provided :
(a)
(b)
All the salary accounts are maintained with our Bank

The employees drawing gross salary of less than Rs.5,000/- should not be
more than 20% of total.
The employees drawing gross salary of less than Rs.5,000/- should not be
more than 25% of total.
Both (a) & (b)
Both (a) & (c)
(c)
(d)
e)
4.
The Corporate Salary Package has _______ variants:

a)
c)
5.
2
4
b)
d)
3
5
SBI Vishesh status is being provided for holders:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Platinum Account
Gold Account
Diamond Account
Both (a) & (c)
62

6.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Silver variant of

Corporate Salary Package Account:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 5,000/- and Rs. 20,000/-.
Free Domestic ATM Card is provided
Unlimited cheque book leaves free in a year except for bulk
requirementfor EMIs payable to other banks/FIs
Charges are recovered for Cash Deposit transactions in excess of 3
transactions per month
a) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
7.
Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 20,000/- and Rs. 50,000/Free International Gold Debit Card is provided
Unlimited cheque book leaves free in a year
Charges are recovered for Cash Deposit transactions in excess of 3
transactions per month
a) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Diamond variant of

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 50,000/- and Rs. 1.00 lac.
Free International Gold Debit Card is provided
Unlimited cheque book leaves free in a year
No limit on number of cash deposit transactions.
a) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
9.
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Gold variant of

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
8.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Platinum variant of

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Gross Monthly Salary should be more than Rs. 1,00,000/-.

Free International Gold Debit Card is provided
No limit on the number of Cheques.
No limit on number of cash deposit transactions.
a) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
63
10.
Overdraft facility limited to 2 months Net Salary can be provided under

Corporate Salary Package Account to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11.
The Defence Salary Package has _______ variants:

a)
c)
12
2
4
b)
d)
3
5
Army personnel will be categorised into eligible variants as per their :

a)
b)
c)
d)
13
Platinum Account
Silver Account, Gold Account,
Silver Account, Gold Account & Diamond Account
All the four variants
Ranks
Salaries
Ranks and Salaries both
None of the above.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Defence Salary

Package Account?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
All Army personnel including the Defence Civilian Staff will be eligible to
open DSP accounts. Currently however, civilians have been excluded.
The facilities under DSP accounts will be continued even for pension
accounts after retirement, provided the officer/ PBOR has had his salary
account with us and also draws his pension through us.
The Army numbers to be used in ID First field.
The DSP account can be operated as a joint account.
a) Only (i)
c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

All of the above
14. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Salary Package
Account?
a) RTGS/NEFT charges to be recovered as applicable to other accounts.
b) RTGS/NEFT charges to be recovered at concessional rates upto Rs. 2 Lacs and
thereafter as applicable to other accounts
c) RTGS/NEFT charges waived whilst uploading salary/other credits to employee
accounts through our CINB.
64
15.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Platinum variant of

Salary Package Account:
i. ATM Issue and Annual Maintenance Fee of Rs. 300/- from second year waived.
ii. Any Number of transactions subject to maximum Rs. 1,00,000/- per day in India
(USD $ 2,000 per day Abroad).
iii. Personal Accident Insurance cover Rs. 5 lacs
iv. Personal Accident Insurance cover Rs. 2 lacs
a) Only (I & iv)
c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
16.
b)
d)
Both (i) & (ii)

Only ( i) & (iii)
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Salary Package

Account:
facility all variants with minimum
i.For availing overdraft
residual service of 6 months are eligible for Overdraft up to 2 months
Net Monthly Income adjustable from next months salary (ies) within a
period of 6 months.
ii.For Platinum account holders the application for availing overdraft to be
obtained at the time of opening new accounts.
iii.For availing the facility the account holder of all other variants have to
submit an application for overdraft at the time of availing the facility.
iv.All of the above.
1
d
11
c
2
a
12
a
3
d
13
d
KEY
SALARY PACKAGE ACCOUNTS
4
5
6
7
8
c
a
d
c
c
14
15
16
c
c
d
9
d
10
d
65

SBI Gold Deposit scheme & Rupee Loan against gold deposit
1.
2.
Who can open Gold Deposit Account?

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Individual (Singly or jointly)

Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
Trust
Company
(a)
(c)
Only (i)
Both (i) & (ii)
Which of the following statement/s is not correct in respect of joint account under
SBI Gold Deposit scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
In single name in individual capacity

In Joint names in individual capacity
To all type of depositors
Both a & b
____ Branch has been designated as Nodal Branch for Gold Deposit Scheme:
d)
e)
f)
g)
5.
Facility for deposits in two names, as `Former or Survivor', will be

available to all categories of depositors.
Subsequent addition of a second holder with payment instruction being
`Former or Survivor' will also be permitted.
The rights of the second holder will automatically lapse, when the first
applicant transfers the SBI Gold Deposit Certificate to another person.
None of the above
Under SBI Gold Deposit nomination facility will be available if the deposit is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Mumbai Main Branch

Overseas Branch, Mumbai
New Delhi Main Branch
Nagpur Branch
Under SBI Gold Deposit Minimum Quantity of gold that can be deposited is :
a) 50 gms (gross)
c) 500 gms (net)
6.
(b) (i) ,(ii) & (iii)

(d) All of the above
b)
d)
100 gms (gross)

500 gms (gross)
Maximum tenor of Deposit under Under SBI Gold Deposit is :

a)
c)
3 years
7 years
b)
d)
5 years
10 years
66
7.
Which of the following statement/s is not correct in respect of payment of interest

under SBI Gold Deposit scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
The depositor will have the option of taking interest annually as on 31st
March every year (i.e. non-cumulative) or compound it annually for
payment at the time of maturity(i.e. cumulative).
The interest will be calculated in grams but paid in rupees only.
Interest will be payable from the date of deposit of gold with the
designated branch.
None of the above
Gold will be accepted in the ___________form.

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Gold bars & coins

Scrap
Jewellery without any stone, gem, etc.
a) & c)
Which of the following statement/s is not correct in respect of repayment/

redemption under SBI Gold Deposit scheme?
i)
The depositor will have the option for redemption of the principal on
maturity either in gold or in rupees
For redemption in gold, the deposit will be redeemed in gold of 995/999
fineness, in the multiples of 10 gm bars, at the discretion of the Bank. Any
fraction quantity in excess of multiple of 10 gm bars will be repaid in
rupees only.
In case the repayment in rupees is taken after the date of maturity, the
rate applicable on the date of payment will be taken into account.
In case the maturity date is a non-business day in Mumbai, the deposit will
be redeemed on the next working day (at the conversion rate of the date
of maturity) and no additional interest will be paid for extra day(s).
ii)
iii)
iv)
(a)
(c)
10.
Only (iv)
Both (i) & (ii)
(b) Only (iii)

Which of the following statement/s is not correct in respect of Rupee Loan

against gold deposit?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Loan can be granted to all depositors under Gold Deposit Scheme.

In case of joint holding loan can be granted to all the depositors jointly.
Loan can not be given against deposits held on behalf of a minor.
Loan can not be given to third parties against deposits held by a Trust/
HUF/ Minor.
67

(a)
(c)
11.
Only (i)
Both (ii) & (iii)
(b) Only (iii)

What is the minimum loan amount under Rupee Loan against gold deposit?
a) Rs. 50,000/c) Rs. 5,00,000/-
12.
b)
d)
What is the maximum loan amount under Rupee Loan against gold deposit
without any administrative clearance?
a) Rs. 500,00,000/c) Rs. 50,00,000/-
13.
b)
d)
Rs. 100,00,000/Rs. 10,00,000/-
Margin under Rupee Loan against gold deposit is _____ of the principal value of
the Gold Deposit Certificate.
a) 20%
14.
Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 10,00,000/-
b)
25%
c) 30%
40%.
Loan under Rupee Loan against gold deposit may be sanctioned by :

a) Designated branch
c) Nodal Branch
15.
d)
b)
d)
All branches
Both a) & c)
Which of the following statement/s is not correct in respect of Rupee Loan

against gold deposit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The loan can be granted for any purpose.

Maximum period of loan is 36 months.
The loan can be either in the form of a Demand Loan or an Overdraft.
None of the above.
KEY
SBI Gold Deposit scheme & Rupee Loan against gold deposit
1
d
11
b
2
a
12
a
3
a
13
b
4
b
14
b
5
d
15
b
6
b
7
c
8
b
9
b
10
c
68

P SEGMENT ADVANCES
HOME LOANS
ASSIGNMENT 1
1.
Individual(s) over ______ years of age with independent source of regular income
are eligible for finance under Housing Loan Scheme.
a)
c)
18
21
b) Project cost
d)
all of the above
30
55
b) 40
d) 25
For determining maximum permissible Housing Loan amount of a customer

having Annual Income above Rs. 2 lacs and upto Rs. 5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
should not exceed__________%
a)
c)
6.
LTV
EMI/NMI ratio

having Annual Income upto
Rs. 2 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not
exceed__________%
a)
c)
5.
Cost of land, additional amenities

Insurance premium, charges for purchase
Stamp duty & registration
All of above
The maximum permissible loan amount under H/L scheme, for an applicant is
linked to _________
a)
c)
4.
20
25
The total project cost of Housing Loan includes:

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
b)
d)
40
55
b) 50
d) 60

having Annual Income above Rs. 5 lacs and upto Rs10.00lacs, the EMI/NMI
ratio should not exceed__________%
a)
c)
40
55
b) 50
d) 60
69
7.
The authority for increase in EMI/NMI ratio upto____ vests with controller of
Branch/RACPC, depending on the family size and availability of disposable
surplus income.
a)
c)
8.
5%
2
1%
10%
What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for individuals upto
45 years of age?
a)
c)
9.
b)
d)
12 years
20 years
b)
d)
15 years
25 years subject to liquidation of
the loan before the borrower
reaches the age of 70 years
Maximum no of borrowers should not ordinarily exceed ------a) 5

b) 3
c) 6
d) no limit
10.
In addition to the applicants income, Income of spouse/children /parents /
siblings may be considered for arriving at maximum loan amount
a) spouse /children
b) parents
c) siblings
d) all of the above
11.
HL should be ordinarily repaid by the age of _____years.

a)
58
b)
70
c)
60
d)
No such limit
12.
Fixed rate of interest can be charged if repayment period do not

Exceed ___years
a)
c)
13.
20
5
b)
d)
10
25
The maximum permissible loan amount under H.L. Scheme for repairs or
renovation of house (without obtaining prior administrative clearance of the
Network GM), is:__
a)
c)
Rs. 5 lakh .
Rs. 15 lakh
b)
d)
Rs. 10 lakh
Rs. 20 lakh
70

14.
The maximum permissible loan amount under H.L. Scheme for furnishing and
consumer durables is: _____________.
a) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 2 lacs whichever is less.
b) 20 % of the project cost or Rs. 3 lacs whichever is less.
c) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 3 lacs whichever is less.
d) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 4 lacs whichever is less.
15.
The minimum margin required under H.L. Scheme for house under construction,
for a loan upto Rs 75 lacs , is : __________.
a)
c)
16.
15%
25 %
10 % of project cost
b)
d)
Minimum loan amount in case of home loan to businessman is Rs------lac

a)
c)
18.
b)
d)
The minimum margin required under H.L. Scheme for house under construction,
for a loan above Rs 75 lacs , is : __________.
a)
c)
17.
10 %
20 %
25
30
b)
d)
10
40
Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the

borrower in housing from own resources during the preceding -------months.
a)6
b)10
c)12
d)24
19.
While computing maximum eligible loan amount, expected rent accruals from
the proposed house/flat being let out (net of taxes, cess etc.) may be reckoned,
subject to maximum amount
a) equivalent to the applicants Net Monthly Income(NMI)/Net Annual Income
(NAI).
b) equivalent to the amount of annual rent or annual income whichever is lower
c) equivalent to the cost of construction
d) equivalent to the 50% of annual rent
20. Rental income is not allowed to be considered when giving loan for
a)purchase of house
b)construction of house
c)purchase of flat
d)purchase of plot
71
21.
Depreciation is allowed to be added back to compute net annual income in case

of
a)
all businessmen.
b)
only those business being run on proprietorship basis which have
obtained loan for the asset on which depreciation is claimed from our
bank.
c)
those borrowers who have availed any loan from our bankl.
d)
Salaried employees who are obtaining loan for furniture and furnishings
KEY
HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT 1
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
a
11
b
2
d
12
b
3
d
13
b
4
a
14
c
5
b
15
c
6
c
16
b
7
a
17
a
8
d
18
c
9
b
19
a
10
d
20
d
21
b
72
P SEGMENT ADVANCES
HOME LOANS & HOME LOANS TO NRIs
ASSIGNMENT 2
1.
No. of Co-borrower is ordinarily restricted to maximum______ including spouse

with son/daughter. However AGM(Region/Branch) can relax maximum no of coborrowers.
a)
1
b) 2
c)
3
d) no such limit
2.
The Moratorium period ordinarily available under HL Scheme building upto 7

floors is: ______________
a) 12 months from the date of
completion, whichever is earlier
b) 18 months from the date of
c) 18 months from the date of
d) 24 months from the date of
3.
first disbursement or 2 months after

Under Housing Loan Scheme, no prior administrative clearance is required for

loans upto: ___, if the proposal is strictly within the scheme.
a)
c)
Rs. 5 crore
Rs. 10 crore
b)
d)
Rs. 7.5crore
Rs. 15 crore
4.
With effect from 1st May 2011 processing fees is to be recovered at the time of
a) pre sanction
b) initial scrutiny
c)Sanctioning
d)documentation
5.
Capitalisation of pre EMI interest is allowed only if the moratorium period does
not exceed-----months
a) 24
b) 36
c) 18
d)
6
6.
Under Housing Loan Scheme, prior administrative clearance (from next higher
authority) is required in respect of a loan for purchase of a house which is more
than _____ years old.
a)
c)
20
10
b)
d)
15
7
73

7.
Loan to value ratio in cas of loan above Rs 20.00lac for home under construction
should be ---------%
a)
c)
75
80
b)
d)
60
90
8.
For Home Loans above Rs.25000/- , if the irregularity exceeds EMI or
Installment amount, for a period of one month, then penal interest should be
recovered ------------% p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the overdue
amount for the period of default
a) 2
b) 1.
c) 3
d) 2.5
9. In case son/daughter /sibling /parents income is clubbed for arriving at loan amount
repayment has to be made through an account
a) in the name of any one of the borrower/ guarantor
b) in the name of any one of the borrower only
c) in the joint name of all the borrowers and guarantor
d) in the name of guarantor only
10.
Home loan borrowers can claim Income Tax benefits under section 80C upto
Rs. ___________ in respect of principal repayment of Home Loans.
a)
c)
20,000/1,00,000/-
b)
d)
30,000/1,50,000/-
11.
As per RBI guidelines housing loan for construction ,purchase of dwelling unit
upto Rs -----lac shall be eligible for classification under prirority sector
a)
10
b)
25
c)
15
d)
20
12.
Co borrower/guarantors whose income is being clubbed should normally be

employed ,in profession or be engaged in business for a minimum period of ------years
a)
c)
13.
3
1
b)
d)
5
2
To be eligible under Housing Loan Scheme for NRIs / PIO, the NRIs/PIOs should
be earning a minimum NMI equivalent to US$ ________or a NAI equivalent to
US$ _____.
74
a)
c)
14.
500(NMI) / 6000(NAI)
2000(NMI) / 24000(NAI)
b)
d)
1000(NMI) / 12000(NAI)
2500(NMI) / 30000(NAI)
The maximum amount of Housing Loan for NRIs/PIOs is detemined by

a)
b)
c)
d)
EMI/NMI of the borrower

age of the borrowe
stay of the borrower abroad
None of the above
15.
In case loan amount above Rs 10.00lacs is to be given foe pair and renovation
administrative clearance will be given by -------a) CGM of circle
b) GM of network
c) CGM PBBU
d) CCCI
16.
What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs upto
35 years of age subject to stipulation that the loan should be liquidated by the
age of 60 years or by the age of retirement, whichever occurs earlier?
a)
c)
17.
15 years
25 years
12 years
20 years
b)
d)
15 years
25 years
The minimum loan amount of Housing Loan under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs is
:_________
a)
c)
19.
b)
d)
What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs above
35 years and upto 45 years of age subject to stipulation that the loan should be
liquidated by the age of 60 years or by the age of retirement, whichever occurs
earlier?
a)
c)
18.
12 years
20 years
Rs. 1 lac
Rs. 3 lac
b)
d)
Rs. 2 lac
Rs. 5 lac
The Maximum Loan amount for repair and renovation by NRI is limited to
a) Rs. 10 lac
b) Rs. 15 lac
c) Rs. 20 lac
d) Rs. 25 lac
75

20.
The Maximum Loan amount for furnishing and consumer durables under
HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs is :______________
a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
One of the eligibility criteria for NRIs to avail of housing loan is that they should
have been employed abroad for at least _______ years and presently holding a
valid job contract/work permit and aged above____ years.
a)
c)
22.
1
2,21
b)
d)
2, 18
4
Maximum period of repayment permotted to an NRI borrower is ------years or

date of retirement whichever is earlier.
a)
c)
23
10 % of the project cost or Rs.3 lacs, whichever is lower

10 % of the project cost with no ceiling.
50
75
b) 60
d) 65
The AGM (Region)/(Branch) may permit the repayment of loan upto the age of----years provided the approving authority is satisfied about the continuity of the
income
a)65
c)72
b)70
d)75
Key to Assignment HOME LOANS 2

Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
c
12
c
23
b
2
b
13
a
3
b
14
a
4
d
15
b
5
c
16
d
6
b
17
c
7
c
18
c
8
a
19
a
9
c
20
a
10
c
21
b
11
d
22
b
76
HOME LOAN ASSIGNMENT 3

YUVA/PAL HOUSING LOAN QUESTIONNAIRE
1.Loan under Yuva housing loan is to be repaid within a fixed term of
a)25yrs
b)10 yrs
c)20yrs
d)15yrs
2.Minimum net monthly income for availing loan under Yuva Home loan is Rs-----a)25000/-
b)50000/-
c)100000/-
d)60000/-
3.Loan under this scheme can be extended to people in the age group
between -------and -----a)18 , 25
b)21,
35
c)30,
40
d)21, 35
4.Under this loan a person can get ------% more than the amount calculated as per
the normal EMI/NMI ratio.
a) 20
b)15
c)25
d)30
5.Minimum amount for which SBI home loan PAL can be extended is
a)Rs30.00lacs
b)Rs25.00lacs
c)Rs10.00lacs
6. SBI home loan PAL can be
extended
a)Branch only
c)Either at branch or racpc
b)Racpc only
d)Rs20.00lacs
at
d)RBO
7.PAL will be valid for --------a) 3mths
b)6mths
c)2mths
d)12mths
8.One of the following is not true about what is given in Preapproved Loan arrangement
letter.
a) If the time gap between PLAL and submission of Home Loan application by the
customer is more than one month, fresh CIBIL Credit report will be verified by the
RACPC.
b) Loan amount calculated on the basis of prevailing interest rates will be valid for a
period of 1 month.
77

c) Home Loan will have to be availed by the borrower from the same RACPC which
has issued the PLAL.
d) PLAL will be issued under the signatures of the processing officer.
9.The condition under which age under YUVA Home loan for availing the loan can be
extended upto 40 yrs is
a) if minimum contribution of each borrower in case of joint borrowing by husband and
wife to the combined NMI is 25%.
b) if minimum contribution of each borrower in case of joint borrowing by husband and
c) if minimum contribution of each borrower in case of joint borrowing by husband and
d) if minimum contribution of each borrower in case of joint borrowing by husband and
10.If a borrower availing loan under SBI Yuva housing loan is not getting benefit under
Corporate Salary Package he can get benefit of a festival loan equivalent of ---------months NMI repayable in 36mths
a) 2
b)5
c)3
d)6
KEY TO YUVA/PAL HOUSING LOAN QUESTIONNAIRE

1
2
3
4
a
b
b
a
5
6
7
8
c
b
c
d
9
10
a
c
78

HOME LOAN ASSIGNMENT 4
SBI Home Plus and earnest money loan
1.
For which purpose loan under SBI-Home Plus scheme can be granted?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Home Loan borrowers with a satisfactory repayment record of ____years and

who maintain a C./A or SBA/c are eligible for loan Under SBI Home Plus
a)
c)
3.
expenditure towards major repair, renovation and addition to residential

house/flat
purchase of furniture and fixture and consumer durables etc.
education/medical expenses of family, personal expenses etc.
All of above
1
3
Present market value of the house property (-) Margin of 25% on the
property value (-)Present outstanding in the Home Loan account
Rs. 10 lacs
Rs. 20 lacs
Least of a & b
b)
c)
d)
What is the minimum and maximum amount eligible under SBI-Home Plus?
a)
c)
5.
b)
d)
Rs. 15000/-& 2,00,000/Rs. 5000/-& 10,00,000/-
50
60
b)
d)
40
no such condition
Under SBI Home Plus, in case of borrowers with NMI of Rs. 10 lacs and above,
the ratio of EMI/NMI can be relaxed upto____%
a)
c)
7.
Rs. 25000/-& 10,00,000/Rs. 25000/-& 5,00,000/-
Under SBI Home Plus, EMI/NMI should not exceed_________%.

a)
c)
6.
2
4
The eligible loan amount under SBI-Home Plus is:

a)
4.
b)
d)
40
50
b)
d)
60
70
Where equitable mortgage is not extended to cover SBI Home plus, repayment
of loan granted under SBI Home Plus is_____
a)
20 years
b) 15 years
c)
10 years
d)
Lower of 10 years or residual
maturity of existing loan
79

8.
The moratorium within the overall repayment period of loan granted under SBI
Home Plus can be permitted upto _____months subject to servicing of interest.
a)
c)
9.
3
6
b)
d)
2
12
At any point of time no of loans granted under SBI Home Plus will not exceed ---subject to an overall ceiling of Rs. 10,00,000/- .
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
4
10.
Margin in case of loan for earnest money is waived subject to__________

a) Allotment letters / refund orders being routed through SBI
b) Lump sum amount equal to 6 months interest to be taken upfront
c) both a and b
d) Security equivalent to loan amount being provided
11.
Minimum monthly income to avail loan under earnest money deposit scheme
should be -----a)
Rs5000/b)
Rs10000/c)
Rs6000/d)
No minimum amount
12.. Maximum loan amount that can be given under loan for earnest money is ---------a) Rs5.00lac
b)Rs10.00lac
c)Rs20.00lac
d)Rs8.00lac
13.The Security under Loan for Earnest Money loan is waived subject to -------a) Allotment letters / refund orders are routed through SBI.
b) Lump sum amount equal to 6 months interest is taken upfront.
c) 2 PDCs one for the principal amount of EMD and another towards interest for
the next 6 months should be taken to meet the eventuality of refund getting .
delayed
d) all of the above
Key to Home Loans Assignment 4
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
d
11
d
2
a
12
b
3
d
13
d
4
a
5
c
6
d
7
d
8
d
9
b
10
c
80

1.
Loan under SBI Reality is granted for:

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
What is the maximum loan amount under SBI Reality?

a)
c)
3.
Rs.10 cr
Rs.20 cr
Loans above Rs------require

region/branch under SBI realty.
a)
c)
4.
purchase of house
construction of house
purchase of shop
purchase of plot of land for construction of a house
Rs. 10 lacs
Rs. 20 lacs
b)
d)
prior
Rs. 50 cr
Rs. 1cr
administrative
b)
d)
clearance
from
AGM
Rs.50 lacs
Rs. 25 lacs
For determining maximum permissible loan under SBI Reality a customer having
Annual Income upto Rs. 2 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not
exceed__________%
a)
c)
40
55
b)
d)
30
60
5.
Annual Income above Rs. 2 lacs and upto Rs. 5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should
not exceed__________%
a)
40
b)
50
c)
55
d)
60
6.
Annual Income above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 10 lacs the EMI/NMI ratio should not
exceed__________%
a)
c)
7.
40
55
b)
d)
45
60
Annual Income above Rs. 10 lacs the EMI/NMI ratio should not
exceed__________%
a)
40
b)
45
c)
55
d)
50
81
8.
Maximum time period stipulated for construction of house under SBI realty
scheme is______, from the date of availment of loan.
a)
c)
9.
2,
3,
3,
2,
higher
higher
lower
lower
12 years
20 years
b)
d)
15 years
25 years
Loan under SBI realty .can be granted as

a)
c)
12.
3 years
4 years
The maximum repayment period under SBI Realty Scheme is

_____________from the month following the month of disbursement of the loan.
a)
c)
11.
b)
d)
For loans above Rs50.00lacs property valuation should be done by -----empanalled valuers and ------of the assessments should be considered for loan
amount.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
2 years
5 years
term loan
either a) or b)
b)
d)
overdraft
neither
For loans above Rs 50.00lacs -----title reports ahould be taken

a) 4
b) 1
c) 3
d) 2
13.
The maximum limit under SBI Maxgain housing loan is :

a)
c)
14.
Rs. 100.00 lacs

Rs. 50.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 30.00 lacs

No upper limit
Which type of credit facility can be granted under SBI Maxgain?

a)
Cash Credit
c) Clean OD
b)
d)
Overdraft
Term Loan
82
15.
Drawing power under SBI Maxgain is reduced on a -------basis

a)daily
b)quarterly
c) yearly
d)monthly
16.
For being eligible under SBI Maxgain Housing loan scheme, the minimum loan
amount should be ___________.
a)
c)
17.
Rs. 10,000/Rs. 2000/-
Rs. 5,00,000/Rs. 10,00,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 5000/Rs. 1000/-
The criteria of minimum balance in SB/Current account for being eligible for SBI
Maxgain can be relaxed, if the customer is having______acccount with us.
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
b)
d)
For being eligible under SBI Maxgain, existing/prospective customer should have
minimum balance of Rs._______ in their SB/Current Account
a)
c)
18.
Rs. 2,00,000/Rs. 3,00,000/-
Cash Credit account

Overdraft account
Term Loan account
Salary account
Cheque book/ ATM cum Debit Card and Internet Banking facility shall be
provided to the SBI Maxgain housing loan borrower ___________and completion
of required formalities
a)
c)
At the time of opening the A/C b)

After full disbursement of loan d)
On completion of the house

6 months after the sanction of loan
Key to Advances
Home Loans Assignment 5
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
d
12
d
2
a
13
a
3
b
14
b
4
b
15
d
5
a
16
b
6
b
17
b
7
d
18
d
8
a
19
c
9
d
10
b
11
c
83
HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT - 6

1 To be eligible for a loan under SBI-Tribal Plus Home Loans, the age of the
applicant should be over ---- and not more than ------a)
c)
21- 55 years
18- 65 years
b) 21- 60 years
d) 21-65 years
2 The margin required under SBI-Tribal Plus Home Loans

construction/purchase of a new/existing house/flat, is:__________
Scheme,
for
3 The margin required under SBI-Tribal Plus Home Loans Scheme,

repairs/renovation of (or additions to) an existing house/flat is:__________
for
a)
c)
a)
c)
4.
b)
d)
10 %
20%
15 %
25%
10
15
b)
d)
12
20
For borrower other than salaried class, the total repayment period available
under SBI-Tribal Plus Home Loans Scheme is subject to liquidation of loan
before the borrower attains _______ years of age.
a)
c)
6.
10%
20%
b)
d)
For salaried borrowers, the total repayment period under SBI-Tribal Plus Home
Loans Scheme, should not exceed ______ years or the remaining period of their
service whichever is less.
a)
c)
5.
5%
15%
60
70
b)
d)
65
72
Under SBI-Tribal Plus Scheme, permanent employees of Central or State

Government / PSUs / reputed Private Sector undertakings / professionals, selfemployed, businessmen and agriculturists etc. with a minimum of ______ years
service / experience (in their respective fields) fall under the eligibility criteria.
a)
c)
5
3
b)
d)
4
2
84

7.
The amount of loan available under SBI-Tribal Plus Scheme, is : 36 times NMI
for employees / 2 times average NAI for the last 3 years for others, subject to a
maximum amount of Rs. _______ lacs.
a)
c)
8.
10
20
25
40
b)
d)
30
50
Under SBI-Tribal Plus Scheme, for professionals, self-employed, businessmen

or agriculturists borrowers, the aggregate value of liquid securities (Banks TDRs,
LIC/SBI Life/other insurers endowment policies, NSCs, KVPs, gold ornaments
etc.) should not be less than ______% of the loan amount
a)
c)
10.
b)
d)
Under SBI-Tribal Plus Scheme, for salaried borrowers, the aggregate value of
liquid securities (Banks TDRs, LIC/SBI Life/other insurers endowment policies,
NSCs, KVPs, gold ornaments etc.) should not be less than ______% of the loan
amount
a)
c)
9.
5
15
30
50
b)
d)
40
60
As Mortgage of land is not available under Tribal Plus, what will be taken as
security?
3rd party guarantee of another employee(s) employed with
Govt./PSU/reputed Private Sector Undertaking
b) Group guarantee of 3- 4 employees who are working in the same organization
and whose salaries are being routed through the bank on the basis of
irrevocable letter of authority.
c)
in case of loan to professional, self-employed, guarantor(s) networth should
be equal to or more than the loan amount.
d) any of the above
a)
11.
Gram Niwas Scheme is applicable in all rural and semi-urban centres. Rural
Area for the purpose of the Scheme is the area comprised in any village
including the area comprised in any town, the population of which does not
exceed ________ as per 2001 census.
a)
c)
10,000
20,000
b)
d)
12,000
50,000
85

12.
Which type of facility can be granted under Gram Niwas Scheme?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Term Loan
Overdraft
Clean Overdraft
a or b
13.
The maximum loan amount available under Gram Niwas Scheme, for
construction is Rs.___________
a)
1,00,000/b) 2,00,000/c)
3,00,000/d) 5,00,000/-
14.
The maximum loan amount available under Gram Niwas Housing Loan
Scheme, for repairs/renovation of house, is:___________
a)
c)
15.
b)
d)
Rs. 75,000/Rs. 2,00,000/-
5 % of project cost
b)
d)
5 % of project cost
b)
d)
Age criteria under Gram Niwas Scheme is:

a)
c)
19.
Rs. 50,000/Rs. 1,00,000/-
The margin required under Gram Niwas Scheme for loan above Rs. 50,000/and upto Rs. 5.00 lac is___________
a)
c)
18.
Rs. 75,000/Rs. 2,00,000/-
The margin required under Gram Niwas Scheme for loan upto Rs. 50,000/is___________
a)
c)
17.
b)
d)
The maximum loan amount available under Gram Niwas Housing Loan Scheme,
for purchase of land is:___________
a)
c)
16.
Rs. 50,000/Rs. 1,00,000/-
18 to 60 years
21 to 65 years
b)
d)
21 to 60 years
18 to 50 years
Under Gram Niwas maximum EMI/NMI ratio where average annual income is
above Rs5.00lacs is ---a)
c)
60%
55%
b)
d)
75%
50%
86
20.
The maximum repayment period available under Gram Niwas Scheme, as well
as under Sahyog Niwas Scheme, is: ____________ .
a)
c)
7 years
15 years
b)
d)
10 years
20 years
21.
Sahyog Niwas Scheme relates to---------------a) Financing SHG for on lending to members for housing in rural areas.
b) People residing in same village cooperate each other.
c) Scheme for financing rural people for construction of houses.
22.
Sahyog Niwas Scheme is operational in---------------a) In rural and semi urban areas where SHGs are operating.
b) In urban areas .
c) Both a & b.
23.
For being eligible under Sahayog Niwas Scheme, SHGs should be in existence,
with good track record of payment, for ____________.
a)
c)
24.
1 year
3years
4 times the saving of the corpus of SHG

Under Sahyog Niwas Scheme, after the disbursement of loan, SHG will on lend
to its members for housing subject to a maximum of Rs._________ per member
for purchase/construction of house OR Rs._________ for repairs / renovations /
purchase of plot.
a)
c)
26.
b)
d)
The maximum amount of housing loan under Sahyog Niwas Scheme, is

______________( including the loan outstanding in the limits already sanctioned
to SHGs).
a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
6 months.
2 years
50,000/-, 25,000/1,00,000/-, 50,000/-
b)
d)
75,000/-, 40,000/2,00,000/-, 1,00,000/-
Under Sahyog Niwas Scheme, SHGs should not charge to its members more
than _______% of interest rate charged by the Bank.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
87
Key to Assignment
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q
Ans.
1
b
10
d
19
a
2
c
11
d
20
c
3
c
12
d
21
a
4
c
13
d
22
a
5
b
14
d
23
c
6
a
15
c
24
d
7
b
16
b
25
a
8
b
17
c
26
b
9
c
18
d
88
CAR LOAN
1.
Minimum income criteria to be eligible under SBI Car Loan Scheme is?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Net annual income should be at least Rs. 75,000/

Net annual income should be at least Rs. 50,000/Net annual income should be at least Rs. 100,000/Net annual income should be at least Rs. 60,000/
The Minimum and Maximum age criteria for sanction of loan under SBI Car Loan
scheme is:
a) 18-60 years
c) 21-65 years
3.
b)
d)
30
18
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be granted to
professionals, self employed, agriculturists etc., would be restricted to ______
times the net annual income.
a) 1.5
c) 2.5
5.
21-45 years
21-60 years
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be granted to
salaried persons would be restricted to ________ times the net monthly income.
a) 36
c) 24
4.
b)
d)
b)
d)
2
3
What is the maximum loan amount under SBI Car Loan Scheme for
purchase of new Vehicle?
a)
c)
Rs. 15 lacs
Rs. 50 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 10 lacs
No upper ceiling
6.
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, EMI should not exceed ______ of Net Monthly
Income.
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 57.50%
d) 40%
7.
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme EMI/NMI may be relaxed upto ___by sanctioning
authority officer not below the rank of AGM in case of customer with NMI of Rs.
10 lac and above
a)
c)
50%
57.50%
b)
d)
60%
70%
89

8.
The margin required under SBI Car Loan Scheme is _______% of on road
price.
a)
c)
9.
10,
15,
12.
13.
10,000/20,000/-
b)
d)
5,
25,
25,000/25,000/-
Guarantor
Co-borrower
b)
d)
borrower
there is no such requirement
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, loans up to Rs. __________ may be granted on
fixed interest rate basis.
a)
c)
3 lac
10 lac
5 lac
loan on fixed rate of interest
basis is not granted.
A Car loan granted to an individual for purchase of new & old should be repaid
within --------years
a)
b)
c)
d)
8
7
6
5
b)
d)
The repayment cycle of SBI Car Loan Scheme for loans disbursed on or before
15th of the month and on or after 16th of the month the repayment date should be
fixed as _____&______of the following month respectively.
a)
c)
14.
15
20
Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, when the income of spouse or son/daughter is
clubbed with the borrower he is made ______
a)
c)
11.
b)
d)
Cost of accessories not to exceed ___% of cost of vehicle or Rs.________,

whichever is less.
a)
c)
10.
5
10
5th, 20th
10th, 20th
b)
d)
10th, 30th
no such stipulation
Penal interest @________ is charged when the Car Loan account is irregular
beyond 30 days for any reason.
a)
b)
c)
d)
@ 2 % p.a. on the entire loan outstanding for a default period.

@1% per month or 12% p.a on the irregular portion of loan
@ 2 % p.a. on the irregular portion of loan.
No penal interest is charged.
90
15.
Prepayment penalty is levied @__________under SBI

Scheme.
a)
b)
c)
d)
advantage Car Loan
1 % of the amount prepaid.

1.5% of the amount prepaid.
nil
2% of the amount prepaid if the loan is taken over by other bank, or if the
amount is repaid before expiry of half of the agreed tenure of loan, or if
there is partial repayment during the 1st year.
16.
Maximum number of co borrowers in case of car loan can be----a) 3

b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
17.
Car loan should be repaid before the age of ---a)

c)
70
75
b)
d)
65
60.
18.
Vehicle to be finanaced under under Car loan Scheme for used vehicle should
not be more than ------years old?
a)2 years
b)
4 years
c) 5 years
d)
7 years
19.
What is the maximum loan available under Car loan Scheme for used vehicle?
a)
Rs.10 lacs
b) Rs.20 lacs
c)
Rs.15 lacs
d) No limit
20.
The garage from which the valuation certificate is to be obtained should be

authorized by --------- in big cities
a)
GM of network
b)
Liasion officer at LHO/ZO
c)
AGM RACPC
d)
DGM CPPC
Key to Assignment
CAR LOAN
Q.
Ans.
Q
Ans.
1
c
12
b
2
c
13
c
3
b
14
a
4
c
15
c
5
d
16
b
6
a
17
a
7
d
18
c
8
b
19
c
9
b
20
b
10
c
11
d
91
CAR LOAN-II
1.
Under Car Loan Scheme, reimbursement of the cost of unencumbered vehicle

up to ______ years of age can be given under the takeover norms and other
terms of financing old vehicles.
a)
c)
2.
5
3
b)
d)
4
2
What is the quantum of service charge payable to the Car dealer for business of
up to 10 car loans (or loan amount up to Rs. 30 lacs) sourced by them during a
month?
a).
75% of loan amount
c) 1. 25% of loan amount
b)
d)
1.00% of loan amount

1. 50% of loan amount
3.
One of the following is not true in respect of takeover of car loans

a)the vehicle is not more than 2 years old
(b) it is a single ownership vehicle and no insurance claim has been availed
(c) Car should be either of Maruti, Tata or Honda
(d) the account of the borrower with the other bank is a Standard Asset
4.
What is the quantum of service charge payable to the Car dealer for business of
more than 25 car loans (or loan amount above Rs. 60 lac) sourced by them
during a month?
a)
c)

b)
d)

5.
In case of used vehicle maximum repayment period for self employed and
professionals is -------years
a)6
b)5
c)7
d)4
6.
What will be the repayment period of a loan granted for purchase of a used
vehicle?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 years
5 years
7 years
The loan will be repaid within 7 years from the date of original purchase.
92

7.
Which account is debited for payment of service charges payable to a Car

loan dealer?
a) Charges Account Miscellaneous
c) Commission Account
d)
8.
b) Interest Account
Branch Clg. Gen A/C-RBO
What is minimum amount for availing Car Loan as Overdraft facility?

a)Rs. 3 lacs
c)Rs. 7 lacs
9.
b)
d)
Rs. 2 lacs
Rs. 10 lacs
If Car Loan is granted as Overdraft facility, the rate of interest charged will
be ____bps higher than normal car loans.
a)25
b) 75
c)100
d) 50
10. To be eligible under NRI- Car Loan Scheme, the borrower & Guarantor
should be between ____&____year of age.
a)18, 60
c)21, 60
b)
d)
21, 65
21, 70
11. What are eligibility criteria for Resident Indian borrower under NRI-Car Loan
Scheme?
a) An individual/agriculturist/professional or self employed/ student etc or doing
business with economic activity
b) A parent of the NRI/PIO receiving pension or inward remittance at regular
intervals.
c) Physically fit with a driving license or in a position to engage a driver.
d) The borrower is to be related to NRI/PIO who extends his guarantee to
loan.
e) All of above
12.
What are eligibility criteria for Guarantor under NRI-Car Loan Scheme?
a) Having valid Indian passport & steady source of Income

b) Employed abroad for at least 2 yrs & holding a valid job contract/work
permit
c) Having NRI account with SBI for at least 12 months with min. average
balance of Rs. 50,000/- or New Account with USD 5000/- or equivalent.
d) All of the above
13.
Car loan for NRI should be repaid before the guarantor reaches the age ofa)70
b)60
c)72
d)65
93
14.
What should be the minimum NMI of the Guarantor under NRI Car Loan
Scheme?
a)
c)
15.
US$ 500
US$ 1200
7 years
5 years
b)
d)
9 years
3 years
What is the mode of repayment of EMI under NRI- Car Loan Scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
18 time NMI / 1.5 time NAI of Guarantor

No ceiling
What is the maximum repayment tenure under NRI- Car Loan Scheme
a)
c)
17.
US$ 1000
No restriction
What is the maximum loan amount, which can be granted under NRI-Car Loan
Scheme for new cars?
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
b)
d)
Remittance from abroad through normal banking channels

Out of funds in NRE/FCNR/NRO accounts
Out of local fund by close relatives of NRI Guarantor
Any of above
Under NRI-Car Loan Scheme, KYC norms of ________will be done

a)
c)
Borrower
Both a & b
b)
d)
Guarantor
No such requirement
19.
EMI/NMI ratio under this loan should not exceed------%

a)
55
b)
65
c)
70
d)
50
20.
NRI should be related to the Resident Indian who is the borrower to stand as
_________for the loan.
a)
c)
Guarantee
Co-borrower
b)
d)
Surety
None of the above
94

Key to Assignment
CAR LOAN -II
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
d
11
e
2
b
12
d
3
c
13
d
4
d
14
b
5
b
15
d
6
d
16
a
7
b
17
d
8
a
18
c
9
d
19
d
10
b
20
a
95

SBI ADVANTAGE CAR LOAN
1. The minimum income criteria to be eligible under SBI Advantage Car Loan
Scheme is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Net annual income should be at least Rs. 3,00,000/

Net annual income should be at least Rs. 1,50,000/Net annual income should be at least Rs. 2,50,000/Net annual income should be at least Rs. 2,00,000/
2. The Minimum and Maximum age criteria for borrowers to be eligible under SBI
Advantage Car Loan scheme is:
a) 18-60 years
c) 21-65 years
b)
d)
21-45 years
21-60 years
3. Under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be
granted to salaried persons would be restricted to ________ times the net
monthly income.
a) 36
c) 24
b)
d)
48
30
4. Under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be
granted to those other than salaried is be restricted to ______ times the net
profit/Gross taxable income after netting of depreciation and repayment of all
loans
a) 2.5
c) 4
b)
d)
2
3
5. Under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme, EMI should not exceed ______ of Net
Monthly Income for those with NAI of Rs 5.00lac
a) 50%
c) 57.50%
b)
d)
60%
40%
Monthly Income. for those with NAI above Rs5.00lac and upto Rs10.00lac.
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 57.50%
d) 40%
Monthly Income. for those with NAI above Rs10.00lac .
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 57.50%
d) 70%
96
8.
The margin required for purchase of car under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme
is _______% of on road price.
a) 5
b) 15
c) 10
d) 20
9.
Accessories and cost of accessories not to exceed ___% of cost of vehicle or

Rs.________, whichever is less.
a)
c)
10.
3 lac
10 lac
borrower
there is no such requirement
b)
d)
7
6
8
5
5th, 20th
10th, 20th
b)
d)
10th, 30th
no such stipulation
Margin on loan under SBI Advantage is --------%

a) 15
c) 18
.
15.
b)
d)
The repayment cycle of SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme for loans disbursed on
or before 15th of the month and on or after 16th of the month the repayment date
should be fixed as _____&______of the following month respectively.
a)
c)
14.
guarantor
co-borrower
5 lac
loan on fixed rate of interest
basis is not granted.
A SBI Advantage Car loan should be repaid within ------years
a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
5, 25,000/- respectively
Under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme, loans up to Rs. __________ may be
granted on fixed interest rate basis.
a)
c)
12.
b)
d)
Under SBI Advantage Car Loan Scheme, when the income of spouse is clubbed
with the borrower he/she is made ______
a)
c)
11.

b)
d)
20
25
Prepayment penalty is levied @__________under SBI Advantage Car Loan

Scheme.
97
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
1 % of the amount prepaid.

nil
2 % of the amount prepaid, irrespective of the time of prepayment.
2% of the amount prepaid if the loan is taken over by other bank, or if the
amount is repaid before expiry of half of the agreed tenure of loan, or if
there is partial repayment during the 1st year.
What is the minimum loan available under SBI Advantage Car loan Scheme?
a)
c)
Rs. 2 lacs
Rs. 5 lacs
b)
d)
Rs.10 lacs
Rs.1 lac
Key to Assignment
SBI ADVANTAGE CAR LOAN
Q.
Ans.
Q
Ans.
1
c
14
a
2
c
15
b
3
b
16
c
4
c
5
a
6
b
7
d
8
b
9
b
10
c
11
d
12
a
13
c
98
EDUCATION LOAN
1. Maximum loan available to a student for studies in India under SBI Student
Loan is:_______
a)
c)
Rs. 7.5 lac

Rs. 15 lac
b)
d)
Rs. 10 lac
Rs. 20 lac
2. Maximum loan available to a student for studies abroad under SBI Student
Loan is: _______
a)
c)
Rs. 10 lac
Rs. 20 lac
b)
d)
Rs. 15 lac
Rs. 25 lac
3. Minimum margin required for loans up to Rs. 4 lac under SBI Student Loan is:
___________
a) 15 %
b) 10 %
c) 5 %
d) NIL
4. Minimum margin required for loans above Rs. 4 lac for studies in India under
SBI Student Loan is : ___________
a)
c)
15 %
5%
b)
d)
10 %
NIL
5. Minimum margin required for loans above Rs. 4 lac for studies abroad under SBI
Student Loan is : ___________
a)
c)
15 %
5%
b)
d)
10 %
NIL
6. Under SBI Student Loan, repayment of loan will commence

____________________________________ , whichever is earlier.
a)
b)
c)
d)
from
6 months after completion of course or 6 months after securing a job

6 months after completion of course or 3 months after securing a job
One year after completion of course or 3 months after securing a job
Course period + 1 year, or 6 months after getting job
7. Under SBI Student Loan the repayment period (after commencement of

repayment) allowable for loans granted for studies in India is: ___________.
a) 5 years only
c) 5 to 10 years
b)
d)
5 to 7 years
3 to 7 years
99

8. Under SBI Student Loan the repayment period (after commencement of
repayment) allowable for loans granted for studies abroad is: ___________.
a)
7 years only
b)
5 to 15years
c)
5 to 10 years
d)
5 to 7 years
9. Under SBI Student Loan, for loan amount up to Rs. 4 lac granted for studies in
India as well as for studies abroad, the security to be obtained is
a)
b)
c)
d)
No security.
Suitable Third Party Guarantee
Tangible Collateral Security of suitable value or Third Party Guarantee
with assignment of future income of the student for payment of
installments
Tangible Collateral Security for full value of loan
10. Under SBI Student Loan, for loan amount above Rs. 4 lacs and upto Rs. 7.5
lacs granted for studies in India as well as for studies abroad, the security to be
obtained is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
No security.
Collateral in the form of a suitable Third Party Guarantee
with assignment of future income of the student for payment of
installments
11. Under SBI Student Loan, for loan amount above Rs. 7.5 lacs granted for
studies in India, the security to be obtained is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
No security.
Third Party Guarantee
Tangible collateral security of suitable value, along with the assignment of
future income of the student for payment of instalments
Tangible Collateral security for full value of loan
12. As per Reserve Bank of India guidelines, education loans up to the ceilings of
_____________are reckoned under priority sector advances.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rs. 10 lacs for studies in India

Rs. 20 lacs for studies abroad,
Rs. 10 lacs for studies in India & abroad
Both (a) & (b)
100
13.
If the student is not able to complete the course within the scheduled time,
extension of time for completion of course may be permitted for a maximum
period of _______ years.
a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
15.
Under SBI Student Loan, penal interest @ ________will be charged for

overdue amount and overdue period if amount of loan is above Rs. 4 lacs.
a) 1 %
b) 1.5 %
c) 2 %
d)
Nil
Under SBI Student Loan, concession of ______ % in interest rate is allowed if
full interest is serviced during the moratorium period.
a)
c)
16.
1 year
2 year
3 year
No extension is permitted
0.5
1.5
Under SBI Student Loan, processing fee is charged @ _____ of the loan
amount.
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
Nil
0.25 %
For loan upto Rs. 4 lac Nil, for loan above Rs, 4 lac 0.55 %
For loan upto Rs. 4 lac Nil, for loan above Rs, 4 lac 1.10 %
Under SBI Student Loan, how many wards of a parent/guardian can be covered
a)
c)
18.
b) 1
d) No concession is allowed
1
Family to be taken as unit
b)
d)
2
No such limit
What is/are the conditions to sanction second loan (Top up Loan) under SBI
Student Loan?
a) Second loan within the overall limit
b) Provided projected income of the student, after placement, is sufficient to
cover full loan repayment
c) Second loan being allowed with the security requirements as applicable to
the aggregate limit
d) All of the above
101

19. How will you react, if student approach for additional loan due to enhancement in
fees?
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
The maximum loan amount available under SBI Scholar Loan scheme
is______
a)
c)
21.
d)
Rs. 10 lac
Rs.20 lac
NIL
10 %
b)
d)
5%
15 %
No security.
Suitable Third Party Guarantee
with assignment of future income of the student for payment of installments
Under SBI Scholar Loan, the repayment period (after commencement of

repayment i.e after the moratorium) allowable is: ___________.
a)
c)
24.
b)
d)
Under SBI Scholar Loan, the security to be obtained is:

a)
b)
c)
23.
Rs. 7.5 lac

Rs.15 lac
The minimum margin required for a loan above Rs. 4 lac under SBI Scholar
Loan scheme is:___________
a)
c)
22.
The request cannot be entertained

The request will be permitted on case-to-case basis
The request will be permitted on case-to case basis in the context of
various ceilings for the security related issues.
None of the above
5 years
5 10 years
b)
d)
5 7 years
7 years
Under SBI Scholar Loan, extension of time for completion of course (for
ascertaining the moratorium period / commencement of repayment period) may
be permitted for max. period of _______ years if student is not able to complete
course within scheduled time,
a)
c)
1 years
3
b)
d)
2 years
No extension is permitted
102

25.
SBI Scholar Loan is sanctioned by ______branches

a)
b)
c)
d)
26.
An interest rate concession of __________is given to girl students

a)
c)
27.
NIL
0.10 %
b)
d)
0.50 %
1.00 %
An interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans

under
a)
c)
28.
Rural
Urban
Select list of branches
Bank can authorize branches at other centers in addition to select list of
branches
SBI Student Loans

SBI Student Loan to Staff / Ward of Staff
b) SBI Scholar Loan

d) All of the above.
Disposal of loan application (time norm) and finance ministry guidelines on

disposal of loan applications are as under:
a) 7 days, but not exceeding the time norms stipulated for disposing of loan
applications under priority sector lending.
b) No application for educational loan received should be rejected without the
concurrence of the next higher authority.
c) Both of the above
29.
Loan for Pilot Training Courses are covered in:

a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
SBI Career Loan Scheme

SBI Student Loan Scheme
SBI Scholar Loan Scheme
Both (a) & (b)
In SBI Student Loan Scheme the moratorium has been extended from the
current 12 months to 24 months in genuine cases. In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme
the moratorium has been extended from the current 6 months to __________
months.
a)
b)
c)
d)
12 months
18 months
24 months
Not extended
103
31. Under Interest Subsidy scheme on Education Loan for economically weaker
section, following is applicable:
a) Applicable to those students with annual gross parental/family income upto
Rs.4.5 lacs per year (from all sources).
b) The interest subsidy available only once either for the first undergraduate
degree course or the post graduate degree/diploma in India.
c) Nodal Bank for the Ministry of Human Resources Development for
implementation of the scheme is Canara Bank .
d) Maximum loan amount is Rs. 10 lacs.
e) All of the above.
Key to Assignment
EDUCATION LOAN
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
b
12
d
23
b
2
c
13
b
24
b
3
d
14
c
25
d
4
c
15
b
26
b
5
a
16
a
27
d
6
d
17
d
28
c
7
b
18
d
29
b
8
d
19
c
30
d
9
a
20
c
31
e
10
b
21
b
11
c
22
a
104

P SEGMENT ADVANCES ASSIGNMENT
PENSION LOANS
1.
SBI loan to the pensioners is available to all pensioners drawing pension from
our branches aged __________ years or less.
a)
c)
2.
65
72
62
70
b)
d)
65
72
Under SBI loan to pensioners, for pensioners of age up to 70 years, the

repayment is restricted to:__________ EMIs
a)
c)
6.
Maximum 9 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 50,000/Maximum 9 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 75,000/Maximum 12 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs.75,000/Maximum 12 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-.
Under SBI loan to pensioners, the age of the family pensioner should not
exceed ________ years, for eligibility under the scheme.
a)
c)
5.
Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 50,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 60,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 75,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-.
The ceiling for amount of loan for Family Pensioners under SBI loan to
pensioners is:_______
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
70
No age bar.
The ceiling for amount of loan for pensioners under SBI loan to pensioners is:
_______
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
b)
d)
36
60
b)
d)
48
72
Under SBI loan to pensioners, for pensioners of age above 70 years and up to
72 years, the repayment is restricted to:__________ EMIs
a)
c)
36
60
b)
d)
48
72
105

7.
Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme has been launched to meet the personal
expenses of young Defence Pensioners up to the age of _______years.
a)
c)
60
65
b)
d)
50
55
8. The eligible loan amount under Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme is ________
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
45 times net monthly pension subject to maximum Rs. 1 lac

None of the above
The maximum repayment period under

is________
a)
c)
10.
50,000/15,000/-
b)
d)
25,000/20,000/-
50%.
60%.
b)
d)
40%.
45%.
SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners Scheme is available to all Govt. / SBI

pensioners drawing pension from our branches aged __________ years or less.
a)
c)
13.
48 months
84 months
Under Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme, EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed?
a)
c)
12
b)
d)
No guarantee is required to be taken in case loan granted under Jai Jawan

Pension Loan Scheme is below Rs. ________
a)
c)
11.
60 months
45 months
Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme
65
72
b)
d)
70
No age bar.
The ceiling for amount of loan for pensioners under SBI Loan to Affluent
Pensioners Scheme is: _______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 2,00,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 3,00,000/Maximum 12 months pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-.
106
14.
The ceiling for amount of loan for Family Pensioners under SBI Loan to Affluent
Pensioners is:_______
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Under SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners, the age of the family pensioner should
not exceed ________ years, for eligibility under the scheme.
a)
c)
16.
b)
d)
65
72
36
60
b)
d)
48
72
Under SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners, for pensioners of age above 70 years
and up to 72 years, the repayment is restricted to:__________ EMIs
a)
c)
18.
62
70
Under SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners, for pensioners of age up to 70 years,

the repayment is restricted to:__________ EMIs
a)
c)
17.
Maximum 9 months family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/Maximum 9 months family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 2,00,000/Maximum 12 months family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/Maximum 12 months family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-
36
60
b)
d)
24
72
Under SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners, EMI should not be more than
_______of the net pension drawn by the family pensioner.
a)
c)
50%.
25%.
b)
d)
40%.
45%.
Key to Assignment
PENSION LOANS
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
C
11
b
2
d
12
c
3
a
13
c
4
b
14
a
5
c
15
b
6
b
16
a
7
b
17
b
8
c
18
c
9
d
10
b
107

PERSONAL LOANS
1.
What should be the minimum net monthly income (NMI) of an employee to be

eligible for a loan under Festival Loan Scheme for Public?
a)
c)
2.
3,000/5,000/-
4,000/10,000/-
2 times NMI, maximum Rs. 20,000/5 times NMI, maximum Rs. 30,000/8 times NMI, maximum Rs. 40,000/4 times NMI, maximum Rs. 50,000/-
60,000/
75,000/-
b)
d)
70,000/1,00,000/-
The loan under Festival Loan Scheme for Public should be repaid within a
maximum period of __________ months.
a)
c)
6.
b)
d)
Under Festival Loan Scheme for Public, loan upto Rs. ____________(restricted
to 4 times NMI) can be granted to employees with check off facility or well
established self employed individuals whose dealings with us have been
satisfactory in the past.
a)
c)
5.
Rs. 3,000/Rs. 5,000/-
The maximum amount of loan under Festival Loan Scheme for Public is
generally restricted to: ________________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
b)
d)
The minimum amount of loan available under Festival Loan Scheme for Public
is Rs.___________
a)
c)
3.
Rs. 2,500/Rs. 4,000/-
10 months
15 months
b)
d)
12 months
18 months
Under Festival Loan Scheme for Public, the processing fee will be charged @
__________.
a)
c)
1.10 % of the loan amount

b)
d)

Rs. 100/- per application.
108

7.
Under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property, individuals

who are less than _________ years of age, are eligible for finance.
a)
c)
60
70
b)
d)
65
72
8.
The minimum amount of loan that can be granted under Personal Loan Against
Mortgage of Immoveable Property, is: _________
a) Rs. 25,000/b) Rs 50,000/c) Rs 1 lacs
d) Rs 200000/-
9.
For being eligible under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable

Property, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) of a salaried person should
be ____________
a) Rs 6000/b) Rs 12000/c) Rs 5000/d) Rs 10000/-
10.
For being eligible under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable

Property, the Net Annual Income of Professionals & Self Employed and others
who are IT assessees / Agriculturists etc. should be at least : ____________
a)
c)
11.
Rs 100,000/-/Rs 1,50,000/-
Rs 1,44,000/Rs 2,00,000/-
The Maximum loan against mortgage of immoveable property (subject to

EMI/NMI < 50 %) is restricted to:__________________ .
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
24 NMI/ 2 times NAI subject to a maximum of Rs. 50 lacs.

24 NMI/ 2 times NAI subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 crore.
75 % of the market value of property, with a ceiling of Rs 50 lacs
75 % of the market value of property, with a ceiling of Rs. 1 crore
For repayment of Term Loan under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of

Immoveable Property, the maximum period is _______ months (or upto the
date of retirement, if it falls earlier) wherever Check-Off facility is available.
a)
c)
13.
b)
d)
48
72
b)
d)
60
120
Wherever Check-Off facility is not available, the repayment of Term Loan under
Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property is restricted to a
period of _______ months (or upto the date of retirement, if it falls earlier, for
employees).
a)
c)
36
60
b)
d)
48
72
109
14.
15.
Under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property, the

processing fee will be charged @ __________.
a)
b)
c)
1.00 % of the loan amount.
d)

maximum Rs. 50,000/1.10% of the loan amount.
Under Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property,margin is as

under:
a) 50% of the market value of the property
b) 40% of the market value of the property
c) 20% of the market value of the property
Key to Assignment
PERSONAL LOANS
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
b
11
d
2
c
12
d
3
d
13
c
4
d
14
b
5
b
15
b
6
a
7
a
8
a
9
b
10
c
110

PERSONAL LOANS--II
1)
Who among the following group of borrowers is not eligible for finance under MediPlus Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Permanent employees of Govt., PSUs and profit making Public Limited

Companies, with min. 2 yrs service with check-off, and 5 yrs in other cases.
Self employed engineers, doctors, architects, CAs, MBAs with minimum 5 years
standing, age 60 years or less.
Voluntarily retired pensioners of PSUs / Govt / PSBs / SBI age 60 years or less.
Traders, entrepreneurs with 5 years standing, age 60years or less.
Agents of Insurance/KVP/Mutual Funds etc. who are income tax assesses with
gross annual income of Rs. 3.00 lacs and above.
2)
In order to be eligible for finance under Medi-Plus Scheme, the minimum Net
Monthly Income (NMI) of employees/pensioners should be: ______________
a) Rs. 5,000/b)
Rs. 10,000/c) Rs. 12,000/d)
Rs. 15,000/-
3)
In order to be eligible for finance under Medi-Plus Scheme, the minimum Net
Annual Income (NAI) of a self employed person should be: ______________
a)
c)
4)
Rs. 1,50,000/Rs. 2,50,000/-
b)
d)
Exceeding Rs. 2,00,000/Exceeding Rs. 4,00,000/-
The minimum loan amount under Medi Plus Scheme is: ______________
a) Rs. 50,000/c) Rs. 20,000/-
6)
Rs. 2,00,000/Rs. 3,00,000/-
In order to be eligible for finance under Medi-Plus Scheme, the minimum Gross
Annual Income of an agent of Insurance/KVP/Mutual Funds should be: _______
a) Exceeding Rs. 1,50,000/c) Exceeding Rs. 3,00,000/-
5)
b)
d)
b)
d)
Rs. 25,000/Rs. 10,000/-
The maximum loan amount under Medi Plus Scheme for employees /self employed
persons, is 12 NMI / 1 year NAI, maximum Rs. _____________
a)
c)
1,00,000/2,00,000/-
b)
d)
1,50,000/3,00,000/-
111

7)
The maximum loan amount under Medi Plus Scheme available for VRS Pensioners
and Agents of Insurance/KVP/Mutual Funds is:____________
a)
c)
8)
b)
d)
15
25
60
36
b)
d)
48
24
50
75
b)
d)
60
100
Under Medi-plus scheme, where check-off facility is not available, the tangible
security should be at least ______ % of the loan amount.
a)
c)
12)
10
20
Under Medi-plus scheme, where check-off facility is available, the tangible security
should be at least ______ % of the loan amount.
a)
c)
11)
Rs.1,20,000/Rs.2,00,000/-
Under Medi Plus Scheme, the repayment should be done in maximum ___ EMIs.
a)
c)
10)
b)
d)
The margin required under Medi Plus Scheme is ______% of total cost of treatment
as per hospital bills.
a)
c)
9)
Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 1,50,000/-
60
100
b)
d)
75
110
Under Medi-plus scheme, the processing fee will be charged @ ______ % of the
loan amount.
a)
c)
1.00
0.55
b)
d)
1.10
0.50
Key to Assignment
PERSONAL LOANS-II
Q.
Ans
1
d
2
b
3
d
4
c
5
a
6
d
7
a
8
c
9
a
10
a
11
d
12
b
112

XPRESS CREDIT
1.
To be eligible under Xpress Credit an employee should have minimum _____

years length of service.
a)
c)
2.
36 months
60 months
20,000/
25,000/-
b)
d)
48 months
72 months
b)
d)
24,000/50,000/-
The maximum amount of loan available in all centres under XPRESS CREDIT
is: _____
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
2
There is no such stipulation
The minimum amount of loan available under XPRESS CREDIT is Rs.______

a)
c)
4.
b)
d)
The maximum repayment period available under Xpress Credit is : ____________

a)
c)
3.
1
3
12 months NMI with a ceiling of Rs. 5,00,000/12 months NMI NAI, with a ceiling of Rs. 7,50,000/24months NMI, with a ceiling of Rs. 10,00,000/24 months NMI, with a ceiling of Rs. 15,00,000/-
Xpress Credit is sanctioned to _______

a)
b)
c)
d)
Professional & self employed

Businessman
Employees
All of the above
6.
Which of the following has not been included under target groups under our
Xpress Credit Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Employees of government, semi-government, profit making PSUs

Employees of educational institutions of national repute
Employees of profit making companies with a net worth of Rs. 50 crore or above.
Employees of companies with CRA rating of SB 1 to SB5
113
7.
Under Xpress Credit Scheme, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) required
for eligibility under the scheme should be:_____________
a)
c)
8.
Rs. 2,500/Rs. 4,000/-
0.30
0.55
Under Xpress Credit

under___________
a)
c)
11.
Rs. 3,000/Rs. 6,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 3,000/Rs. 1,000/-
Under Xpress Credit Scheme, the processing fee will be charged @ ______ %
of loan amount.
a)
c)
10.
b)
d)
Under Xpress Credit Scheme, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) required
for eligibility under the scheme may be reduced to Rs.______only if salary
account of entire enterprise are with us.
a)
c)
9.
Rs. 2,500/Rs. 5,000/-
Upto/equal to50%
Upto/equal to60%
b)
d)
Scheme,
b)
d)
0.50
1.00
the
EMI/NMI
ratio
should
be
as
Upto/equal to55%
None of these
Which of following can be accepted in lieu of Check-off under Xpress Credit

Scheme:
a) The employer pays the borrowers salary into his SB/CA/c with our Bank.
b) The borrower gives an irrevocable Standing Instruction (SI) for recovery of the
loan installments from his aforesaid account; with the SI being synchronized with
the date of credit of salary
c) The employer undertakes to inform the Bank when there is a severance due to
borrowers transfer, resignation, retirement etc.
d) All of the above together
12. Under Xpress Credit Scheme, following type of loan can be sanctioned :
a)
b)
c)
d)
Either Overdraft or Demand Loan

Either Term Loan or Demand Loan
Either Term Loan or Overdraft
Either Term Loan or Demand Loan or Overdraft.
114
13. Under Xpress Credit Scheme, rate of interest will be applied as under :
a) The Interest rate is based on the category of Check off available
b) For Category I, 500 bps above Base Rate floating,Category II- 550 bps
above Base Rate, For Category III-700 bps above Base Rate will be applied
c) GM of the Network is vested with powers to extend the Category II rate to a
Category III borrower only in case of employees of SB1 to SB5 rated
companies who maintain their salary accounts with us.
d) All of the above is applicable.
14. Under Xpress Credit Scheme, penal interest will be charged as under :
a) Penal interest not to be charged for loans up to Rs.25,000.
b) For Loans > Rs.25000/- , if irregularity exceeds EMI or instalment amount,
for a period of one month, penal interest to be charged @2% p.a.(over
and above the applicable interest rate) on the overdue amount for the
period of default.
c) No penal intt., If part instalment /EMI remains overdue.
d) All of the above is applicable.
15. Credit Scoring Model is applicable to Xpress Credit in case of following customers:
a ) All borrowers other than DSP/PMSP Account holders
b) All borrowers including DSP/PMSP Account holders
c) All borrowers including DSP/PMSP Account holders with scores upto 41
as against 71 in case of other borrowers
Key to Assignment
XPRESS CREDIT
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
a
12
b
2
c
13
d
3
b
14
d
4
d
15
c
5
c
6
c
7
c
8
b
9
d
10
a
11
d
115

MISC. SCHEMES
1.
Under SBI Two Wheeler Loan, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) or NAI
should be Rs.___________& Rs. ________ for being eligible for purchase of
petrol/diesel/gas operated scooter & motor cycles.
a)
c)
2.
b)
d)
3,000/-, 36,000/- respectively

4 times NMI for salaried persons & rd of NAI in case of others

5 times NMI for salaried persons & 40% of NAI in case of others
5 % of loan amount, may be reduced to NIL if check-off is available

10% of loan amount, may be reduced to 5% if check-off is available
Under SBI Two Wheeler Loan, the loan is repayable within a maximum period
of ________ months.
a)
c)
6.

The minimum margin required for loan under SBI Two Wheeler Loan is:
___________
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

Under SBI Two Wheeler Loan, the maximum loan amount is restricted
to: ____
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
b)
d)
Under SBI Two Wheeler Loan, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) or NAI
should be Rs.___________& Rs. ________ for being eligible for purchase of
mopeds and battery-operated Two-wheelers.
a)
c)
3.

24
48
b)
d)
36
60
Processing fee under SBI Two Wheeler Loan, is 1.20% of loan amount
Min: Rs._____& and Max. Rs._______
a)
c)
100/-, 1000/250/-, 500/-
b)
d)
500, 10,000/Nil
116

7.
In order to be eligible under SBI credit Khazana the applicants need to be

individuals who have: ____________________
a) Availed the housing loan
b) Satisfactory serviced the loan for at least one year after the moratorium
period.
c) Created equitable mortgage and maintained security margin of at least
15% for purchase/construction of plot/house.
d) All of the above
8.
What are the benefits available to eligible borrowers under SBI credit Khazana?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Relaxation in minimum income criteria under eligible schemes.

Longer than usual repayment periods under eligible schemes.
Concession in rate of interest only.
Concession in rate of interest and margins for subsequent loans .
9.
The concession in interest rate, available under SBI Credit Khazana, for all
loans other than housing loans is: _______
a) 1.00 %
b) 0.75 %
c) 0.50 %
d) 0.10 %
10.
Which of the following schemes does not fall under the package of SBI Credit
Khazana for providing concessionary benefits to eligible borrowers?
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
The maximum quantum of loan for migration to Gulf countries (to meet
Registration expenses, Test & Interview expenses, Agency commission, Visa
charges, Airfare etc.) under Loan for Nurses Seeking Employment Abroad,
is:_____________
a)
c)
12.
Car Loan, Two Wheeler Loan

Personal Loan, Education Loan (for one of the dependents)
Gold Loan
Tractor Loan
Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 2,00,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 1,50,000/Rs. 3,00,000/-
The maximum quantum of loan for migration to UK/European countries under

Loan For Nurses Seeking Employment Abroad, is:______
a)
c)
Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 2,00,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 1,50,000/Rs. 3,00,000/-
117
13.
The maximum quantum of loan for migration to USA under Loan For Nurses
Seeking Employment Abroad is:________________
a)
c)
14.
Rs. 1,50,000/Rs. 3,00,000/-
30
40
b)
d)
35
45
Loan For Nurses Seeking Employment Abroad is repayable in EMIs within a

period of _________ years or in lump sum.
a)
c)
16.
b)
d)
The age of an applicant under Loan For Nurses Seeking Employment Abroad
should not be more than _________ years.
a)
c)
15.
Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 2,00,000/-
5
3
b)
d)
4
2
The minimum margin required under Loan For Nurses Seeking Employment
Abroad is: ____
a)
c)
10%
20%
b)
d)
15%
25%
Key to Assignment
MISC. SCHEMES
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
d
11
b
2
c
12
c
3
c
13
d
4
c
14
b
5
b
15
c
6
c
16
a
7
d
8
d
9
d
10
c
118

MISC. SCHEMES-II
1) Under SBI GETS Short Duration Loan, following is applicable:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Existing individual customers with good past relationship are eligible

Loan to be liquidated in maximum period of 12 months
Margin is 50% of the prevailing market prices in leading financial dailies
Rate of intt is 450 bps above Base Rate
All of the above
2) Under SBI GETS Short Duration Loan, following is applicable:

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Existing individual customers with good past relationship are eligible

Loan to be liquidated in maximum period of 36 months
Margin is 50% of the prevailing market prices in leading financial dailies
Rate of intt is 600 bps above Base Rate
All of the above.
3) Under Loans for Subscription to IPOs, the minimum amount of loan should be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rs. 5,000/Rs. 10,000/Rs. 20,000/50% of the application money stipulated in the IPO
4) Under Loans for Subscription to IPOs, the maximum amount of loan is restricted to:
______ subject to maximum exposure of Rs. 20 lacs per person.
a) Rs. 25,000/c) Rs. 50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 40,000/Rs. 1,00,000/-
5) The minimum margin required under Loans for Subscription to IPOs, is ____ % of
the issue price of share applied/bid.
a)
c)
50
30
b)
d)
40
25
6) Under Loans for Subscription to IPOs, the loan should be repaid within
_________of allotment.
a) 3 months
b) 2 months
c) 45 days
d) 30 days
119
7) The minimum margin required for loans against shares/debentures to individuals is

_______% of the prevailing market price of shares / non-convertible debentures in
the Stock Exchanges as reported in the Economic Times.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
8) The maximum amount of loan that can be granted against the security of
shares/debentures is Rs. _________ lac per borrower if securities are held in
physical form and Rs. ________lac if the securities are held in demat form.
a)
c)
25, 50
10, 20
b)
d)
20, 30
5 , 10
9) The loan granted against the security of shares/debentures, should be liquidated

within a maximum period of _________ months.
a)
c)
30
48
b)
d)
36
60
10) Before the sanction of loan against the security of shares, it should be ascertained
that the market price of the security is not at variance with the arithmetical average
of preceding 52 weeks high and low by more than _______ % in downward
direction.
a)
c)
20
30
b)
d)
25
40
11) Before the sanction of loan against the security of shares, it should be ascertained
that the P/E ratio of the company does not exceed _______ as published in
Economic Times. In case P/E ratio is not available the shares should not be
accepted as security.
a)
c)
30
40
b)
d)
35
50
12) For sanction of loan against the security of shares, the total number of shares of the
company traded on the NSE and BSE should exceed ________on the day of
financing and on each preceding 2 days.
a)
c)
10,000
20,000
b)
d)
15,000
25,000
120
13)
14)
What is the maximum amount of loan available under Gold Loan Scheme?
a) Rs. 1.00 lac
b) Rs. 2.00 lac
c)
Rs. 3.00 lac
d) Rs. 5.00 lac
The minimum amount of loan that can be granted under Gold Loan Scheme in
Rural/Semi-urban centres, is:________
a)
c)
15)
b)
d)
Rs. 15,000/Rs. 5,000/-
The minimum amount of loan that can be granted under Gold Loan Scheme in
Urban/Metro centres, is:________
a)
c)
16.
Rs. 20,000/Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 20,000/Rs. 10,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 15,000/Rs. 5,000/-
For loan against the security of RBI Relief Bonds to the public, a margin of
______% should be kept on bonds.
a)
c)
35
25
b)
d)
40
20
17.
Loan against the security of RBI Relief Bonds, is repayable within a period of
________ months.
a) 24
b) 36
c) 48
d) No repayment of principal and interest is compulsorily proposed.
The loan can be liquidated out of maturity proceeds of Bonds.
18.
The Central Board of the Bank has recently approved the inclusion of following
security/ies under the Banks list of Specified Securities.
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
7% SAVINGS BONDS 2002,

6.5% SAVINGS BONDS 2003 (NON TAXABLE)
8% SAVINGS (TAXABLE) BONDS 2003
All of the above.
The minimum margin required for all loans against the Primary/Collateral security
of mutual funds is _______% .
a)
c)
30
50
b)
d)
40
60
121
Key to Assignment
MISC. SCHEMES-II
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
e
11
c
2
e
12
d
3
d
13
c
4
c
14
d
5
a
15
c
6
d
16
b
7
c
17
d
8
c
18
d
9
a
19
c
10
b
122
P SEGMENT ADVANCES
REVERSE MORTGAGE LOAN ASSIGNMENT
1.
What is the objective of launching Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a) Withdrawal of Mortgage already created by the borrower
b) To provide a source of additional income for citizens of India who own
self-acquired and self occupied house property in India
c) To provide a source of additional income for senior citizens of India who
own self-acquired and self occupied house property in India
2.
Reverse Mortgage Loan will be granted in the name of _________

a)
b)
c)
d)
single borrower
single or jointly with spouse in case of living spouse
in the name of spouse
none of the above
3.
Which type of facility is granted under Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a) Term Loan
b) Cash Credit
c) Demand Loan
d) Non-renewable Overdraft without ledger folio charges
4.
What is the quantum of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a)
b)
c)
d)
75% of the value of the property

50 of the value of the property
5.
Reverse Mortgage Loan will be classified as __________in performance

reports as______
a) Personal Loan
b) Personal Loan against mortgage of immovable property
c) Xpress Credit
6.
What should be the age of first borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan?
a) Above 50 years
b) Above 58 years
c) Above 60 years
d) No such condition
123
7.
Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Borrower should not have more than one spouse
whose age should be above____years
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
50 years
58 years
60 years
No such condition
Under Reverse Mortgage Loan what is the criteria about residence of the
borrower
a. Borrower should be staying at self acquired and self owned house/flat
against which loan is being raised
b. Borrower should be staying at rented house/flat against which loan is
being raised
c. Borrower should be staying at self acquired and self owned house/flat
against which loan is being raised, as his permanent primary residence.
d. no such criteria
9. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan, the verification of title of property will be done for
a period of _______years.
a) 10
c) 15
b)
d)
20
30
10. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan, what should be the residual life of the property in
case of single borrower?
a) 20
c) 10
c)
d)
15
25
11. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan, what should be the residual life of the property in
case spouse of borrower is below 60 years of age?
a) 20
c) 10
c)
d)
15
25
12. What security will be taken under Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Equitable mortgage of residential property

Equitable mortgage of commercial property
Regd. Mortgage of commercial property
No security is required
124
13. In case the age of the younger of the borrowers is between 58 and upto 68
years. the maximum Tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan is___years
a) 15
c) 5
b)
d)
10
20
14. In case the age of the younger of the borrowers is above 68 years, the maximum
Tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan is___years
a) 15
c) 5
b)
d)
10
20
15. Disbursement of Reverse Mortgage Loan will be by___________

a.
b.
c.
d.
issuing banker cheque

issuing bank draft
TDR of the amount will be made
Credit to Saving Bank account in the joint name of the borrowers operated
by E or S
16. What is the periodicity of availing Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Monthly/half yearly
LumpSum
Monthly /quarterly
b&c
17. What is the Repayment/Settlement of Reverse Mortgage Loan?

a. When the last surviving borrower dies
b. When the last surviving borrower opts to sell the home or permanently
moves out of the home
c. Settlement with accumulated interest by sale proceeds of residential
property or prepayment by borrower and his next of kin
d. Any of the above
18. What will be the Pre-Payment penalty under Reverse Mortgage Loan?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1% of amount prepaid
0.5% of amount prepaid
no prepayment penalty
depends upon the sanctioning authority
125
19. What is the periodicity of valuation/Revaluation of property under Reverse

Mortgage Loan
a.
b.
c.
d.
3 years
once in 2 years
every year
5 years after initial valuation
20. What are the processing charges for loan granted under Reverse Mortgage
Loan?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.50% of loan amount, minimum Rs. 500/- and maximum Rs. 10,000/1.00% of loan amount, minimum Rs. 500/- and maximum Rs. 10,000/0.50% of loan amount, minimum Rs. 500/- and maximum Rs. 5,000/nil
21. Right of Rescission i.e right of the customer to cancel the transaction after
disbursement is within____days.
a.
b.
c.
d.
15 days
7 days
20 days
it is not allowed
22. The borrower will make a ________ and handover to the lender to enable him to
recover the loan.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Power of Attorney
Letter of Authority
Will
Registered Will
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT NO.

REVERSE MORTGAGE LOAN
1
c
12
a
2
b
13
a
3
d
14
b
4
b
15
d
5
b
16
d
6
c
17
d
7
b
18
c
8
c
19
d
9
d
20
a
10
a
21
b
11
d
22
c
126
ASSIGNMENT
SME POWERGAIN, POWERPACK & SAHAJ
1.
What is the required QAB for SME POWERGAIN?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
What is the required QAB for SME POWERPACK?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
Rs. 10,000/Rs. 1,00,000/Rs. 5,00,000/No such requirement
What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB for SME POWERGAIN

(a) Rs. 2,000/- per quarter
(b) Rs 5,000/- per quarter
(c) Rs 4,000/- per quarter
(d) Rs. 6,000/- per quarter
4.
What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB for SME POWERGAIN

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
Rs. 2,000/- per quarter

Rs 5,000/- per quarter
Rs 4,000/- per quarter
Rs. 6,000/- per quarter
What concession in charges is available for sending remittance under RTGS

under SME POWERGAIN
(a) 10%
6.
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) No concessions
What are the transaction charges of Multi City Cheques for SME POWERGAIN
accounts?
(a) Rs 25/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 50/- for amt. above Rs 5 lacs
(b) Rs 10/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 25/- for amounts above Rs 5 lacs
(c) Rs 50/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 100/- for amounts above Rs 5 lacs
(d) No charges
127

7.
What are the transaction charges of Multi City Cheques for SME POWERGAIN
accounts?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Rs 25/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 50/- for amt. above Rs 5 lacs
Rs 10/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 25/- for amounts above Rs 5 lacs
Rs 50/- per cheque up to Rs 5 lacs and Rs 100/- for amounts above Rs 5 lacs
No charges
What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME
POWERGAIN
(a) Rs 2500/(c) Rs 5000/-
9.
(b) Rs 1500/(d) No charges
What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME
POWERPACK
(a) Rs 2500/(c) Rs 5000/-
10.
Cheque return protection facility is available for amount upto-------for max period
of 10days at a time under SME POWERGAIN.
a)Rs50000/-
11.
c)Rs25000/-
d)Rs40000/-
b)Rs 1,00,000/-
c)Rs25,000/-
d)Rs40,000/-
.Under SME POWERGAIN maximum daily withdrawal limit through ATM is

a) Rs40000/-
13.
b)Rs 10000/-
Cheque return protection facility is available for amount upto-------for max period
of 10 days at a time under SME POWERPACK.
a)Rs50,000/-
12.
(b) Rs 1500/(d) No charges
b) Rs25000/-
c)Rs50000/-
d)Rs45000/-
.Under SME POWER PACK maximum daily withdrawal limit through ATM is
a) Rs40000/-
b) Rs25000/-
c)Rs50000/-
d)Rs45000/-
14.
One of the following facilities is not free either in SME POWERGAIN or

POWERPACK
a) issuing of duplicate statement

b) ledger folio charges
c) Issuance of Banker Cheque
d) collection of cheques drawn on other banks
128
15.
SAHAJ is a:
a) Home Loan product for Power sector employees
b) Current account for SME Entrepreneurs having small means
c) Education loan for students pursuing studies in prestigious institutes
d) Financing scheme for rural electrification projects
16.
What is QAB in respect of SAHAJ Current Account?

a) Rs 500/- per quarter
b) Rs 750/- per quarter
c) Rs 1000/- per quarter
d) Rs 2000/- per quarter
17.
SAHAJ Current Account can be opened by

a) Individual customers
c) Partnership Firms
18.
b) Proprietorship Firms
d) Any of these
The cheque book facility has now been extended to SME Sahaj current accounts
with one of the following conditions.
a) Number of cheque leaves to be issued per financial year to be restricted
to 25 leaves with a charge of Rs. 5 per leaf
b) Additional requirement of further cheque leaves may be permitted with a
charge of Rs.10 per leaf.
c) Drawings per cheque to be limited to Rs. 15,000/- Each cheque leaf to
carry this inscription.
d) All of the above
19.
What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in respect of SAHAJ Current

Account?
20.
One of the following is not true about SAHAJ Current Account?

a) Maximum amount for which cheque can be drawn is Rs10000/b) Maximum withdrawal permitted through ATM is Rs15000/c) Minimum balance required for opening the account is Rs1000/d) Internet banking facility is free of cost
129

KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME POWERGAIN, POWERPACK & SAHAJ
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
130
ASSIGNMENT
SME POWER, & SAHAJ
1.
QAB required to be maintained for SME power pack is?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Which of the following is not true?

a)
b)
c)
d)
QAB required to be maintained

for SME power gain is Rs. 1,00,000/for SME power advantage is Rs. 2,00,000/for SME power previlege is Rs 3,00,000/for SME power premium is Rs 5,00,000/-
3.Which of the following is not true in respect of SME power pack

a)
b)
c)
d)
Cash deposit in home branch is free upto any amount

Issue of draft and banker cheque is free
RTGS /NEFT is free
Outstation cheque collection is free
4.
The no of current accounts that can be opened under SME power is ----a) 8
b) 9
c) 7
d) 10
5.
The account with minimum QAB amongst the different current accounts under
SME power is
(a) SME super
6.
(b) SME lite
(c) SME base
(d) none of these
Multicity cheques are not issued free for which of the following?
(a) SME power gain
(b) SME power advantage
(c) SME power super
7.
Transaction charges on multicity cheques is not applicable in case of which of

the following type of SME power pack?
131
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
SME power super

SME power gain
SME power base
SME power lite
Cash withdrawal limit in case of international ATM card meant for SME power
pack,SME power premium and SME power privilege is
(a) Rs 50000/(c) Rs25000/-
(b) Rs 15000/(d) Rs45000/-
9.
Cash withdrawal limit in case of domestic ATM card meant for SME power
gain,SME power super and SME power base , SME power lite is
(a) Rs 50000/(b) Rs 30000/(c) Rs 40000/(d) 35000/-
10.
Cash deposit in home branch is free upto Rs------lac in SME Power advantage,
in a month
a)25
11.
c)20
d)40000
Cash deposit in home branch is free upto Rs------lac in SME Power base, in a
month.
a)4
12.
b)30
b) 3
c)5
d)6
.Charges for cash withdrawal at home branch in case of SME power base is
a) Rs25/-
b) Rs20/-
c)Rs15/-
d)nil
13.
.Standing instructions charges are nil in case of which of the following accounts
a) SME power gain
b) SME power base
c)SME power lite
d) SME power super
14.
Which of the following is not true about SME power gain
a) issuing of duplicate statement is free

b) pre approved car loan for promoters is there
c) ATM card issued to it is ATM power gain card
d) there are no charges for NEFT
132
15.
SAHAJ is a:
b) Current account for SME Entrepreneurs having small means
16.
What is QAB in respect of SAHAJ Current Account?

17.
SAHAJ Current Account can be opened by

a) Individual customers
c) Partnership Firms
18.
b) Proprietorship Firms
d) Any of these
The cheque book facility has now been extended to SME Sahaj current accounts
with one of the following conditions.
a) Number of cheque leaves to be issued per financial year to be restricted
to 25 leaves with a charge of Rs. 5 per leaf
b) Additional requirement of further cheque leaves may be permitted with a
charge of Rs.10 per leaf.
c) Drawings per cheque to be limited to Rs. 15,000/- Each cheque leaf to
carry this inscription.
d) All of the above
19.
What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in respect of SAHAJ Current

Account?
20.
One of the following is not true about SAHAJ Current Account?

a) Maximum amount for which cheque can be drawn is Rs10000/b) Maximum withdrawal permitted through ATM is Rs15000/c) Minimum balance required for opening the account is Rs1000/d) Internet banking facility is free of cost
133
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME POWER & SAHAJ
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
134
SME POWER, POWER JYOTI & SURABHI

1.
2.
QAB under the new SME Power can range from ------- to ---------a)Rs20000, Rs5.00lacs
b)Rs25000, Rs2.00lacs
c)Rs10000, Rs2.00lacs
d)Rs25000, Rs5.00lacs
A facility which is not available in the new power CA is
a) Free internet banking
b) unlimited free cash withdrawal at home branch
c) cheque return protection facility
d) Issue of multicity cheques free of charge
3.
RTGS facilty is not free for which of the following SME power CAs
a)Power gain b)Power lite c)power privilege d)power pack
4. Penalty for closure of account within 12 months in case of SME Power pack is
a)Rs2000/-
b)Rs5000/-
c)Rs10000/-
d)Nil
5. The charges for non maintenance of QAB varies from minimum of -------to maximum of ------depending upon the type of power CA
a)Rs3000/-, Rs7000/c)Rs3000/- , Rs10000/-
b)Rs2000/- , Rs10000/d)Rs 2000/- ,Rs15000/-
6.Which of the following is not true in respect of deposit of cash at home branch
a) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto Rs20.00lacs per month in case of
Power Advantage
b) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto Rs5.00lacs per month in case of
Power lite
c) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto Rs15.00lacs per month in case of
Power gain
d) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto Rs10.00lacs per month in case of
Power super.
7.
All categories of salary accounts are not permitted to be opened in case

of which of the following SME power accounts.
a)
b)
c)
d)
SME power gain

SME power previlege
SME power pack
SME power premium
135

8.
Which of the following is not true in respect of SME power base

a) Cheques drawn on non home branch and collected at home branch is free
intra city.
b) RTGS is free
c) ATM card provided is ATM power gain
d) CINB is free
9.
Issue of cheque books (other than multi city cheque ) is not free in case of
which of the following SME current accounts.
a)SME power lite
10.
b)SME power pack
c)SME power advantage
POWER JYOTI is a
b) Current account for fee collection
11.
What is QAB in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account?

b) Rs 50,000/- per quarter
c) Rs 1,00,000/- per quarter
d) Rs 25,000/- per quarter
12.
What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in respect of POWER JYOTI

Current Account?
13.
What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of

POWER JYOTI Current Account?
a) Rs 500/b) Rs 300/c) Rs 400/d) No charges
14.
One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current account
a) Transactions other than fee collection/donation are not permitted
b) Cheque book facility is not available
c) No fee collection charges are taken from the person remitting fees
d) Cash handling charges waived
136
15.
For activation of fee collection module under the POWER JYOTI Current Account
scheme the option to be chosen in core while opening the account is.
a) Statement/mail option/fee collection
b) Term a/c options
c) Govt/PPF/Cr card details
d) core options
16.
One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current account
a)
b)
c)
d)
17
No cheque book is issued on the account

Cash, transfer and clearing transactions are permitted
No overdraft is permissible
There are charges for CINB facility
Surabhi is a combination of fixed deposit and

a) current account
b) saving bank account
c) either a or b
d) neither a nor b
18.
19.
The amount of loan available under this scheme is

a) Rs10000/- b)80% of deposit
c)nil
d)75%
SBI Surabhi deposit account can be opened by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20.
Corporate
Institutions
Trusts
Small & Medium Enterprises who manage the PF
All of the above-
Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, any surplus funds in the account exceeding
the threshold limit are transferred to
a) Multi Option Deposits
c) Corporate Liquid Term Deposits
21.
of deposit
b) Special Term Deposits

d) Recurring Deposits
Minimum & maximum period of fixed deposit under SBI Surbahi is

a) 12 months & 60 months
c) 12 month & 36 months
b) 24months & 48 months

d) 12months & 24 months .
137

22.
Under SBI Surabhi, minimum amount of deposit to be maintained in Current

Account and Saving Account is Rs. _______ & Rs._______
a)
b)
c)
d)
23.
10,000/-,
15,000/-,
16,000/-,
17,000/-,
1000/2000/3000/4000/-
Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, the threshold balance required is

Rs.______over which sweep will take place.
a) Rs.25,000
24.
b) 1,00,000
c) Rs.50,000
d) Rs.1,000
Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, funds can be deposit for a the period
ranging from
a) 1 to 2 years
b) 1 to 3 years
c) 2 to 5 years
d)1 to 5 years
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME POWER, POWER JYOTI & SURABHI
1
a
10
b
19
e
2
c
11
d
20
c
3
b
12
a
21
c
4
b
13
a
22
a
5
c
14
c
23
c
6
b
15
a
24
b
7
a
16
d
25
c
8
b
17
c
9
d
18
c
138

MICRO ADVANCES
1.
The applicable rate of interest on DIR advances is:

a)
c)
2.
b)
d)
8000/12,000/-
20,000/15,000/-
b)
d)
10,000/12,000/-
10,000/15,000/-
b)
d)
12,000/18,000/-
Family Income under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 7200/- to Rs.
____ in Urban areas
a)
c)
6.
10,000/15,000/-
Family Income under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 6400/- to Rs.
____ in rural areas
a)
c)
5.
4%
6%
Loan limit for beneficiaries of Indira Awaas Yojana under DIR advances has been
increased from Rs. 6500/- to Rs. ____
a)
c)
4.
b)
D)
Loan limit under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 6500/- to
Rs. ____
a)
c)
3.
10%
7%
20,000/15,000/-
b)
d)
24,000/30,000/-
The new name of Prime Minister Rozgar Yojna is:

PRIME MINISTERS NEW EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME
(PMNEGP)
b) PRESIDENT EMPLOYMENT PROGRAMME (PEP)
c) PRIME
MINISTERS EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME
(PMEGP)
d) MINISTERS EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (MEGP)
a)
7.
Under PRIME MINISTERS EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME

(PMEGP), the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under manufacturing
sector is Rs.___ lakhs.
a)
c)
10
5
b)
d)
25
2
139

8.

(PMEGP), the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under
business/service sector is Rs.___ lakhs.
a)
c)
9.
60
90
50
80
b)
d)
60
95
2-3 years
3-5 years
b)
d)
3-4 years
3-7 years
3 months
18 months
b)
d)
12 months
6 months
Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of General category in
urban area will be _____%
a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
b)
d)
What is Moratorium Period under PRIME MINISTERS EMPLOYMENT

GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP):
a)
c)
13.
50
80

(PMEGP), the maximum repayment period is:
a)
c)
12.
25
2

(PMEGP), the Bank will sanction ___% of the project cost in case of SC/ST
Category of
a)
c)
11.
b)
d)

(PMEGP), the Bank will sanction ___% of the project cost in case of General
Category of
a)
c)
10.
10
5
10%
15%
20%
25%
Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of General category in
Rural area will be _____%
a)
c)
10%
20%
b)
d)
15%
25%
140
15.
Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of

SC/ST/OBC/Minority/Women/Ex-Servicemen/Physically Handicapped, in Hill &
Border areas of an urban area will be _____%
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of

SC/ST/OBC/Minority/Women/Ex-Servicemen/Physically Handicapped, in Hill &
Border areas of an rural area will be _____%
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
50,000/1,00,000/-
b)
d)
20,000/2,00,000/-
No Collateral Security will be taken for loan of Rs.____ granted to a Group under
SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)
a)
c)
20.
SELF GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA

SUDARSHAN GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA
SUPER GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA
SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA
No Collateral Security will be taken for loan of Rs.____ granted to an individual

under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)
a)
c)
19.
10%
35%
20%
25%
What is the meaning of SGSY:

a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
25%
15%
20%
35%
10,00,000/5,00,000/-
b)
d)
3,00,000/2,00,000/-
Subsidy under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)

is____.____ under General Category beneficiaries
a)
b)
c)
d)
10% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 5000/20% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 6000/30% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 7500/40% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 10,000/-
141

21.
Subsidy under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)

is____.____ under SC/ST beneficiaries
a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
Nodal agency for the implementation of PMEGP at the national level is:
a)
c)
23.
RBI
KVIC
b)
d)
NABARD
Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
Finance to SC/ST beneficiaries should not be less than ______% of total finance
under DIR Advances
a)
c)
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
10% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 5000/20% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 6000/30% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 7500/50% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 10,000/-
25
40
1
B
11
D
21
D
b)
d)
2
C
12
B
22
C
KEY MICRO
3
4
A
D
13
14
B
D
23
C
30
50
ADVANCES
5
6
B
C
15
16
A
B
7
B
17
D
8
A
18
C
9
D
19
A
10
D
20
C
142

DEFINITION OF SME & SBI SME COLLATERAL- FREE LOANS (SMECFL)
E1.11
1. SBI definition of SME is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Enterprises with a limit of Rs. 25 Crores

Enterprises with a limit of Rs. 50 Crores
Enterprises with a turnover of Rs. 50 Crores
Enterprises with a turnover of Rs. 25 Crores
2. As per MSMED Act, 2006 investment in Plant & Machinery of Micro

Enterprises will not exceed Rs._______ lacs in case of Industrial Enterprises &
Rs. ______lacs in case of Service Enterprises.
a)
b)
c)
d)
25, 10
10, 25
10, 10
15, 25
3. As per MSMED Act, 2006 investment in Plant & Machinery of Small

Enterprises will not exceed Rs._______ Crores in case of Industrial Enterprises
& Rs. ______Crores in case of Service Enterprises.
a)
b)
c)
d)
25, 10
10, 25
05, 02
25, 25
4. As per MSMED Act, 2006 investment in Plant & Machinery of Medium

Enterprises will not exceed Rs._______ Crores in case of Industrial Enterprises
& Rs. ______Crores in case of Service Enterprises.
a)
b)
c)
d)
25, 10
10, 05
05, 02
25, 25
5. Who can be granted credit facility under SBI SME collateral- free loans
(SMECFL) scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Micro & small Enterprises-Manufacturing

Micro & small Enterprises-Services
Traders
a&b
143
6. The purpose of granting credit facility under SBI SME collateral- free loans
Scheme is:
a) Equipment Finance
c) Term Loan
b)
d)
Working Capital
Working Capital & TL for building/Office,
Equipment purchase
7. Which type of credit facility will be granted under SBI SME collateral- free loans
Scheme is:
a) Cash Credit
c) Term Loan
b)
d)
L.C./B.G
All of the above
8. The Term Loan granted under SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme is
repayable in _________years including moratorium period.
a) 7
c) 4
b)
d)
5
3
9. Borrower is required to submit ________Stock Statement for loan upto Rs. 25

lacs under SBI SME collateral-free loans Scheme.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Monthly
Quarterly
Half Yearly
Yearly
10. What is the maximum quantum of advance that can be provided under SBI SME
collateral- free loans Scheme?
a) Rs. 10.00 lacs
c) Rs. 25.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 100.00 lacs

Rs. 50.00 lacs
11. In case a unit intends to avail credit facility under SBI SME collateral- free loans
Scheme, which type of collateral security the bank will take?
a) EM/RM
c) TPG
12.
b)
d)
May be covered under CGTMSE

Mandatory covered under CGTMSE
As per the scoring model for covered under SBI SME collateral- free loans
Scheme, a unit has to score minimum of ____% score to qualify under the
scheme
a) 50
c) 70
b)
d)
60
All bankable loans are eligible
144

13.
Working Capital Limit under SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme of a
manufacturing enterprises will be assessed at ____% of their projected annual
turnover & that of service enterprises will be assessed at ____% of their
projected turnover
a) 15, 15
c) 20, 15
14.
Traditional Method
PBS Method
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
b)
d)
SB-9 & above

SB-7 & above
Loan Processing and Service Charges under SBI SME collateral- free loans
Scheme is _________% of normal charges
a) 25
c) 60
19
b)
d)
For Loans between Rs.25 lacs to Rs. 1.00 Crore under SBI SME collateral- free
loans Scheme unit s rating should be
a) SB-8 & above
c) SB-10 & above
18.
50
100
The periodicity of stock statement in case of loan above Rs. 25.00 lacs under
SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme is
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
17
b)
d)
Limit under SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme to a manufacturing

enterprises will be assessed as per
a) Operating Cycle Method
c) Nayak Committee
16.
25, 15
20, 20
Term Loan under SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme to will be assessed at
_____% of project cost
a) 25
c) 75
15.
b)
d)
b)
d)
50
75
Bank has decided to make all loans to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) up to
Rs. _________ lacs compulsorily collateral free, subject to these being found
eligible for cover under the guarantee scheme of CGTMSE, except in cases
where the borrower opts out of the scheme and provides adequate and
acceptable collaterals.
a) 10
c) 25
b)
d)
15
50
145
20.
Under SBI SME collateral- free loans Scheme, the chief promoter /chief
executive should be __________ years of age
a) 21-65
c) 21-70
b)
d)
18-65
No specific age limit restrictions
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
DEFINITION OF SME & SBI SME COLLATERAL- FREE LOANS (SMECFL)
1
c
11
d
2
a
12
d
3
c
13
c
4
b
14
c
5
d
15
c
6
d
16
a
7
d
17
c
8
a
18
b
9
b
19
c
10
b
20
d
146
ASSIGNMENT
SME CREDIT CARD & SMART SCORE
1. Who can be granted credit facility under SME Credit Card Scheme?
a) Small industrial units
c) Prof. & self-employed
b)
d)
Small retail traders

All of above
2 What is the maximum quantum of advance that can be provided under SME
Credit Card Scheme?
a) Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Rs. 15.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 10.00 lacs

Rs. 20.00 lacs
3 Which type of credit facility can be provided under SME Credit Card Scheme?
a) Demand loan
c) Term Loan
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Both (b) and (c) above
4 Term Loan portion under SME Credit Card Scheme will be repaid in a maximum
of ____years in suitable instalments
a) 3
b)
5
c) 7
d)
9
5 In case a SSI unit intends to avail credit facility under SME Credit Card Scheme,
which type of collateral security the bank will take?
a) EM
c) TPG
b)
d)
RM
To be covered under CGTMSE
6 The limit sanctioned under SME Credit Card Scheme is valid for ____years
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
5
7 As per the scoring model for SME Credit Card Scheme, a unit has to score
minimum of ____% score to qualify under the scheme
a) 50
c) 70
b)
d)
60
80
147

8 In case a SBF unit intends to avail credit facility under SME Credit Card Scheme,
which type of collateral security the bank will take?
a) To be covered under CGTMSE
c) Third Party Guarantee
b)
d)
Moveable/Immovable property
Any of the above
9 Limit under SME Credit Card Scheme of a small business unit/retail trader will be
assessed at ____% of their annual turnover or ____% of turnover of the last 12
months in their accounts, whichever is higher
a) 10, 10
c) 20, 20
b)
d)
15, 15
25, 25
10 Limit under SME Credit Card Scheme to Professional and Self employed
persons will be assessed at _____% of gross annual income as declared in their
income tax return
a) 25
c) 75
b)
d)
50
100
11 Limit under SME Credit Card Scheme to a SSI unit will be assessed as per
a) Operating Cycle Method
c) Nayak Committee
b)
d)
Traditional Method
PBS Method
12 The periodicity of stock statement in case of SME Credit Card Scheme is

a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly (28TH Feb)
13 Under which segments, units can be covered for financing under Smart Score?
a) P
c) SME
b)
d)
Agr
None of above
14 Which category can be covered for financing under SME Smart Score?
a) Sole Proprietor
c) Closely held Public/Pvt. Ltd. Cos.
b)
d)
Partnership
All of above
15 The Chief promoter/Chief executive of the unit, who intends to avail credit facility
under SME Smart Score should be ____-____years of age
a) 18-60
c) 21-65
b)
d)
21-62
18-65
148
16 For becoming eligible to avail credit facility under SME Smart Score the minimum
overall score of the unit is ______%
a) 50
c) 70
b)
d)
60
80
17 The unit should score a minimum score of ___% under each sub head of
Business, Personal and Collateral for becoming eligible to avail credit facility
under SME Smart Score
a) 50
c) 70
b)
d)
60
80
18 In case of Working Capital needs, a SSI Unit can be granted __% of annual
turnover subject to a maximum of not exceeding Rs.__lacs under SME Smart
Score
a) 10, 15
c) 20, 50
b)
d)
15, 20
25, 30
19 In case of Term Loan, a SSI unit can be granted ___% of project cost subject to
a maximum of not exceeding Rs._________lacs under SME Smart Score
a) 47, 15
c) 67, 50
b)
d)
57, 20
75, 50
20 Moratorium on Term Loan under SME Smart Score can be provided for a period
not exceeding ____months
a) 3
c) 9
b)
d)
6
12
21 Term Loan under SME Smart Score will be repaid in maximum of ____years
excluding moratorium period
a) 5
c) 8
b)
d)
7
9
149
22 M/s. Parbod Kumar Subodh Kumar, a SSI unit has applied for Rs. 45 lac working
capital loan. Which of the following CRA model under SME Smart Score will be
applicable
a) CRA Old Model
c) Risk Matrix Model
b)
d)
Non Trading Regular Model

Non Trading Simlified Model
23 In case of Working Capital needs, a unit other than SSI can be granted ___% of
annual turnover subject to a maximum of not exceeding Rs. ____lacs under SME
Smart Score
a) 10, 15
c) 15, 25
b)
d)
15, 20
20, 25
24 In case of Term Loan, a unit other than SSI can be granted ___% of project cost
subject to a maximum of not exceeding Rs. ____lacs under SME Smart Score
a) 47, 15
c) 67, 25
b)
d)
57, 20
75, 25
25 Working Capital Limit under SME Smart Score Scheme is sanctioned for
a period of _____ years subject to annual review.
a) 1
c) 2
b)
d)
3
5
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME CREDIT CARD & SMART SCORE
1
d
10
d
19
c
2
b
11
c
20
b
3
d
12
d
21
a
4
b
13
c
22
d
5
d
14
d
23
c
6
c
15
d
24
c
7
b
16
b
25
c
8
d
17
a
9
c
18
c
150

ASSIGNMENT
SME Credit Plus, Artisan & Swarojgar Credit Card
1 SME Credit Plus can be granted to SSI borrowers for _______
a)
c)
Meeting bulk orders

Tax Payments
b)
d)
Repairs to Machinery
All of above
2 Maximum loan under SME Credit Plus can be granted to the tune of ____% of
aggregate working capital limit or Rs. ___lacs, whichever is lower
a)
c)
20, 25
25, 25
b)
d)
20, 30
25, 30
3 Which type of credit facilities will be granted under SME Credit Plus
a)
c)
Clean Cash Credit

Term Loan
b)
d)
Cash Credit
All of above
4. There should be a gap of ________days between the last date of repayment of

outstandings and the next withdrawal.
a)
c)
10
20
b)
d)
15
30
5. What will be the primary security in case of credit facilities under SME Credit Plus
a)
c)
Hyp. Of stocks
Both of (a) and/or (b)
b)
d)
Hyp. Of Book Debts

None of above
6. Each withdrawal for the additional limits provided under SME Credit Plus, should
be repaid within _____months
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
4
7. Under Artisan Credit Card Scheme, which type of borrowers will be preferred?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Artisans
SSI units
Artisans regd. with development Commissioner (handicrafts)
None of above
151

8. Which type of facility will be provided under Artisan Credit Card Scheme?
a) Cash Credit
c) Demand Loan
b)
d)
Term Loan
All of above
9. What is the maximum amount of finance available under Artisan Credit Card
Scheme?
a) Rs. 1.00 lac
c) Rs. 2.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 1.50 lacs

Rs. 2.50 lacs
10. _________% margin will be obtained for loan sanctioned over Rs. 25000/- and
up to Rs. 2 lacs under Artisan Credit Card Scheme?
a) 10
c) Nil
b)
d)
20
25
11. Which collateral security shall be taken by the bank while financing under Artisan
Credit Card Scheme?
a) EM of immovable
c) cover under CGTMSE
b)
d)
TPG
No security
12. The portion of limit used for purchase of tools etc. may be made repayable in
______years under Artisan Credit Card Scheme
a) 3
c) 7
b)
d)
5
9
13. What is target group of borrowers to be covered under Swarojgar Credit Card
Scheme?
a) Self employed persons
c) SHGs
b)
d)
Service sector
All of above
14. Normally credit facilities to the tune of Rs. 25,000 per borrower can be
sanctioned under Swarojgar Credit Card Scheme. This amount can be raised to
Rs. ________ in deserving cases
a) 30000
c) 50000
b)
d)
40000
60000
15. Which type of facility will be sanctioned under Swarojgar Credit Card Scheme?
a) Term Loan
c) Composite Term Loan
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Demand Loan
152
16. Which method will be applied while assessing the limit under Swarojgar Credit
Card Scheme?
a) Nayak Committee
c) Traditional Method
b)
d)
Operating Cycle Method

PBS Method
17. _________% margin will be obtained for loan sanctioned under Swarojgar Credit
Card Scheme?
a) 10
c) Nil
b)
d)
20
25
18. Term Loan component under Swarojgar Credit Card Scheme will be repaid in
______years
a) 3
c) 7
b)
d)
5
9
19. The borrowers under Artisan Credit Card & Swarojgar Credit Card Scheme will
be covered under which scheme?
a) Super Surksha
c) Group Insurance
b)
d)
Swadhan
Pension Plan
20. Which type of collateral security should be taken by the bank from the borrowers
under Swarojgar Credit Card Scheme?
a) EM
c) Specified Security
b)
d)
RM
No collateral
21. Whether SCC holder can be permitted to open a Saving bank account?
a)
c)
No.
If loan availed is Rs. 5000/- only
b)
d)
Yes
If Only TL is availed
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME Credit Plus, Artisan & Swarojgar Credit Card
1
d
12
a
2
a
13
d
3
a
14
a
4
b
15
c
5
d
16
b
6
b
17
c
7
c
18
b
8
a
19
c
9
c
20
d
10
b
21
b
11
d
153
CGTMSE
1. CGTMSE stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
Credit Guarantee Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
2. CGTMSE shall cover Credit Facilities (FB and / or NFB) sanctioned on or after
08.12.2008 extended by Member Lending Institutions to a single eligible
borrower in the MSE Sector for Credit Facility not exceeding ______ by
Scheduled Commercial Banks and select Financial Institutions by way of Term
Loan and / or Working Capital Facilities, without any Collateral Security and / or
Third party Guarantees
a)
c)
Rs. 25 lacs
Rs. 75 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 50 lacs
Rs. 100 lacs
3. Advances to ____ are not covered by the Credit Guarantee Cover from CGTMSE
as they are not defined as MSME as per the MSMED Act, though such loans
upto Rs. 20 lacs will form part of Priority Sector Advance
a)
c)
Retail Traders
Both a & b
b)
d)
Medium Enterprises
Transport Operators
4. As per RBI guidelines, banks are to extend Collateral free loans upto ____ to all
new units under MSE Sector (both Manufacturing & Service Enterprises as
defined in MSMED Act, 2006). However, in all eligible cases, we have to obtain
Credit Guarantee Cover from CGTMSE to protect the Banks interests
a)
c)
Rs. 2 lacs
Rs. 10 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 5 lacs
Rs. 20 lacs
5. CGTMSE will cover __________type of credit facilities.

a)
b)
c)
d)
Fund based
Non Fund based
Either of two
both a & b
154

6. Borrower under _______category will be covered under CGTMSE
a)
b)
c)
d)
Micro Enterprises
Small Enterprises
Medium Enterprise
a&b
7. The maximum extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE where credit facility is
upto Rs. 5.00 lacs is Rs._____lacs
a)
c)
Rs. 2.5 lacs

Rs. 6.25 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 4.25 lacs

Rs. 8.25 lacs
8. All proposals for sanction of guarantee approvals for credit facilities above Rs. 50
lacs and upto Rs. 100 lacs will have to be rated _____and should be
of_____grade.
a)
b)
c)
d)
externally, investment
internally, satisfactory
externally, AAA
internally, investment
9. The maximum extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE is Rs._____lacs

a)
c)
50
65
b)
d)
60
62.50
10. One time Guarantee Fee will be paid to CGTMSE in case of credit facility upto
Rs. 5 lacs in North East Region is _______% & in other regions is _______%
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.5, 3.00
1.5, 2.00
0.75, 1.00
1.00, 1.50
11. One time Guarantee Fee will be paid to CGTMSE in case of credit facility above
Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 50 lacs in North East Region is _______% & in other regions is
_______%
a)
b)
c)
d)
0.75, 1.50
1.5, 2.00
0.75, 1.00
1.00, 1.50
155

12. One time Guarantee Fee will be paid to CGTMSE in case of credit facility above
Rs. 50 lacs in North East Region is _______% & in other regions is _______%
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.5, 3.00
1.50, 1.50
0.75, 1.00
1.00, 1.50
13._____% as Annual Service Fee will be paid to CGTMSE in case of credit facility
upto Rs. 5 lacs.
a)
c)
2.5
0.75
b)
d)
1.50
0.50
14. _____% as Annual Service Fee will be paid to CGTMSE in case of credit facility
above Rs. 5 lacs.
a)
c)
2.5
0.75
b)
d)
1.50
0.50
15. Member Lending Institutions can lodge claim to CGTMSE, within a maximum
period of _______ year from date of NPA.
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
4
16. Member Lending Institutions can lodge claim to CGTMSE, after lock in period of
_______months either from the date of last disbursement or the date of issuance
of guarantee cover, whichever is later
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 months
12 months
18 months
24 months
17. The Tenure of Guarantee Cover where working capital facilities alone are
extended is ________years.
a)
c)
2
4
b)
d)
3
5
18. Where both term loan & working capital is covered under the guarantee, the
tenure of Guarantee Cover for working capital will be
a)
c)
3 years
4 years
b)
d)
co-terminus with the tenure of TL

5 years
156
19. When a borrower is covered under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust, collateral
security will be taken as______% of the loan amount.
a)
c)
50
Nil
b)
d)
75
33
20. Guarantee fee will be absorbed by bank for the credit facility limit upto _____
a)
c)
2 lacs
10 lacs
b)
d)
5 lacs
Fee to be recovered from all borrowers
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
CGTMSE
1
b
11
a
2
d
12
b
3
c
13
d
4
c
14
c
5
d
15
a
6
d
16
c
7
b
17
d
8
d
18
b
9
c
19
c
10
c
20
a
157
TRADERS EASY LOAN

1. The target group
is:______________
a.
b.
c.
d.
for
finance
under
Traders
Easy
Loan
Scheme
Wholesale/Retail traders and Small Business Enterprises

Professional and self-employed
Commission Agents
All of above
2. Which type of facility can be granted under Traders Easy Loan Scheme?
a) Cash Credit
c) Demand Loan
b)
d)
Term Loan
All of above
3. Under Traders Easy Loan, a borrower can be granted loan for a minimum
amount of Rs. ____lacs and maximum amount of Rs. _____lacs
a) 0.25, 500
c) 0.75, 500
b)
d)
0.50, 500
1.0, 500
4. Under Traders Easy Loan, a Rice Miller can be granted minimum loan for a Rs.
____lacs
a) 5
c) 20
b)
d)
10
25
5. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, units can be financed upto ____% of the
business needs or _________% of realizable value of property, within the over
limit of Rs 500 lacs to meet capital expenditure and when sanctioned as TL/DL.
a) 90, 65,
c) 75, 75
b)
d)
75, 65
75, 60
6. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, units can be financed upto ____% of the
Projected Turnover of the borrower or _________% of realizable value of
property, within the over limit of Rs 500 lacs, when sanctioned as Cash Credit.
a) 50, 65,
c) 25, 75
b)
d)
20, 60
20, 65
158

7. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, Rice Mill units can be financed upto ____%
of the Projected Turnover of the borrower or 65% of realizable value of property,
within the over limit of Rs 500 lacs and when sanctioned as Cash Credit.
a) 20-50
c) 20-40
b)
d)
25-30
15-25
8. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, Working Capital limit may be availed partly
as CC and partly as Demand Loan but the total limit will be arrived at on the
basis of ___________
a) actual requirement
c) Working Cycle Method
b) Traditional Method
d) Nayak Committee recommendations
9. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, TL is repayable in a period of______

Months in monthly, quarterly, half yearly basis depending upon the cash flows.
a) 50
c) 60
b)
d)
84
48
10. Under Traders Easy Loan Scheme, DL is repayable in a period of______

months in monthly, quarterly, half yearly basis depending upon the cash flows.
a) 50
c) 60
b)
d)
84
36
11. The borrowers who have already been sanctioned certain limits against
mortgage of property under Mortgage Loan can be extended Traders Easy Loan
against the residual value of the same property
a. Without any rider
b. Provided the account is conducted satisfactorily for over 3 years
c. Loan already availed and the proposed loan is within 65% of the realizable
value of property
d. Both (b) & (c)
12. In case of Traders Easy loan, the collateral security in the form of Equitable
Mortgage of Land & Building for a minimum of ____% of loan amount will be
taken and that should not be open plot within our outside the municipal area
a) 133
b)
143
c) 153
d)
163
13. Valuation of the property taken as collateral security for Traders Easy Loan
should be obtained once in ___years
a) 2
c) 4
b)
d)
3
5
159
14. Encumbrance Certificate pertaining to the property taken as collateral security for
Mortgage Loan to Traders should be taken once in ___months
a) 12
c) 36
b)
d)
24
48
15. At the time of sanction of Traders Easy Loan, stock statement will be obtained.
Additionally, it has to be obtained at ______intervals other than Demand Loan or
Term Loan
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly (28th Feb)
16. After disbursal of Traders Easy Loan, inspection will be carried out at
________intervals
a) Yearly,
c) Quarterly,
b)
d)
Half-yearly,
Monthly,
17. Credit summations in the account should be atleast ________% of the CC limit in
the account under Traders Easy Loan Scheme.
a) 100
c) 50
b)
d)
200
75
18. Working Capital credit facilities sanctioned under TEL scheme would be valid for
a period of ______ years
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
5
19. At the time of renewal / annual review of the account, if the limits are assessed
to be less than the existing limits, and the borrower is not in a position to repay
the excess amount in 90 days, the excess amount would be carved out as a
demand loan and may be allowed to be repaid within a maximum of 24 monthly
installments
a) 30, 12
c) 90, 24
b)
d)
60, 18
90, 36
20 The account will be subject to _________l review. The review will be based
mainly on conduct of account. The ______ would be the reviewing authority.
a) Half yearly, RMME/ F.O.
c) Yearly, RMME/ F.O
b)
d)
Half yearly, Branch Manager

Yearly, Branch Manager
160
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
TRADERS EASY LOAN
1
d
11
d
2
d
12
c
3
a
13
b
4
a
14
a
5
b
15
b
6
d
16
c
7
c
17
b
8
d
18
b
9
c
19
c
10
d
20
d
161
ASSIGNMENT
Doctor Plus
1
Target group for Doctor Plus Scheme is _______

a)
b)
c)
d)
Medical practitioners of any discipline,

Promoters of hospitals and nursing homes
Pathological clinics, Poly clinics and X Ray labs etc.
All of above
In the scoring model meant for Doctor Plus Scheme for a loan limit upto Rs. 25
lacs, a borrower should get minimum score of ________.
a) 40
c) 60
50
70
Who are eligible to avail credit facility under Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) Individuals
c) Corporates/Trusts
b)
d)
b)
d)
Partnership Firms
All of above
Credit facility under Doctor Plus Scheme can be granted for _____
a) Buying Equipment
b) Setting up of clinic/nursing home/poly-clinic/path. Lab/X-ray lab/drug
store/purchase of vehicle/computer etc.
c) Expansion/Renovation of clinic and dispensary etc.
d) Any of above
Which type of credit facility can be granted under Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) Cash Credit
c) Both (a) & (b)
MTL
Demand Loan
In metro/ urban areas corporate/ partnership borrower can be sanctioned

maximum loan of Rs. ___lacs for Allopathic clinics under Doctor Plus Scheme.
a) 250
c) 750
b)
d)
b)
d)
500
1000
In other areas corporate/ partnership borrower can be sanctioned maximum loan

of Rs. ___lacs for Allopathic clinics under Doctor Plus Scheme.
a) 250
c) 750
b)
d)
500
1000
162
Individual borrower can be sanctioned maximum loan of Rs. ___lacs for

Allopathic clinics under Doctor Plus Scheme.
a) 250
c) 750
b)
d)
b)
d)
5 years excluding moratorium

b)
d)

Moratorium under Doctor Plus Scheme can be granted for a period of

____months
a) 3
c) 12
14
b)
d)
The maximum repayment period under Doctor Plus Scheme for setting up clinic,
nursing home, pathology lab is ___________
a) 5 years including moratorium
c) 7 years including moratorium
13
20 & 10
20 & 5
The maximum repayment period under Doctor Plus Scheme for buying
equipments and expansion/renovation in existing premises is ___________
a) 5 years including moratorium
c) 7 years including moratorium
12
10, 10
5 ,10
Borrower can be sanctioned maximum loan of Rs. ___lacs for Non Allopathic
clinics under Doctor Plus Scheme of which a sub ceiling of working capital limit is
at ______% of total loan amount.
a) 10 & 10
c) 50 & 10
11
500
1000
Under Doctor Plus Scheme for Allopatic doctor , a sub ceiling of working capital
limit is at ______% of total loan amount for upto Rs. 1.00 crore and ____% for
above Rs. 1.00 crore
a) 15, 10
c) 10, 5
10
b)
d)
b)
d)
6
24
Dr. Shashi Puri, M.D. has approached our bank for credit facility to set up a clinic
to the tune of Rs. 15 lacs under Doctor Plus Scheme to set up a clinic. The loan
will be collaterally secured by__________
a) Moveable Assets
c) Third Party Guarantee
b)
d)
Immovable Property
Covered under CGTMSE
163

15
The units financed under Doctor Plus Scheme should be inspected at

____intervals.
a) Monthly
c) Half-Yearly
16
10
20
5
15
b)
d)
10
20
25
15
b)
d)
10
20
Minimum DSCR required under Doctor Plus is ___

a)
c)
20.
b)
d)
Margin required under Doctor Plus above Rs. 5 crores is ___%

a)
c)
19.
5
15
Margin required under Doctor Plus above Rs. 10 lacs & upto Rs. 5 crores is
___%
a)
c)
18.
Quarterly
Yearly
Margin required under Doctor Plus upto Rs. 10 lacs is ___%

a)
c)
17
b)
d)
1.50:1
1.70:1
b)
d)
1.60:1
1.75:1
For loan of Rs. 25,000/- & above minimum rating required under Doctor Plus is
a)
c)
SB5
SB7
b)
d)
SB6
SB8
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Doctor Plus
1
d
11
a
2
a
12
c
3
d
13
c
4
d
14
d
5
c
15
c
6
d
16
c
7
b
17
d
8
b
18
a
9
c
19
a
10
a
20
d
164

ASSIGNMENT
Transport Plus
1
Transport Plus scheme is for financing of fleet operators owning more

than _______ vehicles
a)
c)
8
25
New
Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
Old
None of above
Credit facility under Transport Plus Scheme can be sanctioned to those

transport operators owning more than ______vehicles (including the
proposed)
a)
c)
b)
d)
Under Transport Plus Scheme, which type of transport vehicles can be

financed?
a)
c)
6
10
5
15 well maintained
b)
d)
10 well maintained
No limit
A borrower can be sanctioned _________facility under Transport Plus

Scheme
a)
c)
Cash Credit
Demand Loan
b)
d)
Term Loan
Both (a) & (b)
5 The borrower desirous of availing the credit facility under Transport Plus
Scheme should have _______
a)
CEO/Promoter age >18 years, should be IT assessee with 3 lacs

income
b) 3 yrs experience in field with valid permit & satisfactory dealing with
bank
c) Reputed & IBA approved TO(truck) with well maintained >10 vehicle
rising trend in income-profit in 2yr with profit of at least Rs. 3 lacs in the
past 2 years.
d) All of the above
6
Eligible amount of finance under Transport Plus Scheme is inclusive of:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Billing price of the vehicle

Cost of body building
Road Tax & Insurance
All of the above
165
The Corporates can be sanctioned maximum CC & Term Loan Rs.

______lacs & Rs. _______Crores respectively under Transport Plus
Scheme
a)
c)
10.0, 10.0
No limit
3
7
b)
d)
5
8
2
3
b)
d)
4
5
1.00
1.33
b)
d)
1.25
1.50
While analyzing the balance sheet of a unit for loan under Transport Plus
Scheme, the TOL/TNW ratio should not exceed ____
a)
c)
13
b)
d)
Under Transport Plus Scheme, minimum Current Ratio should be ____

a)
c)
12
10, 7.5
15, 15.0
The repayment of Term Loan under Transport Plus Scheme will start
after____ months of the first disbursement and PDC to be obtained for
entire repayment period
a)
c)
11
10.0, 10.0
No limit
Term Loan sanctioned under Transport Plus Scheme will be repaid (in
EMIs) in maximum of ______years
a)
c)
10
b)
d)
Non-Corporate can be sanctioned maximum CC & Term Loan Rs.

______lacs & Rs. _______crores respectively under Transport Plus
Scheme
a)
c)
10, 7.5
15, 15.0
2.00
2.50
b)
d)
2.25
2.75
Minimum Average gross DSCR under Transport Plus Scheme should

be___
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
4
166

14
For advances under Transport Plus Scheme, promoters should contribute

minimum ____% of the project cost, which can be reduced to ____% if
100% tie up.
a)
c)
15
b)
c)
d)
b)
d)
75
25
100
50
b)
d)
75
waived
1
3
b)
d)
4
5
Periodicity of Inspection under Transport Plus Scheme is _____ in a year

a)
b)
20
100
50
Receivable level under Transport Plus Scheme should not be more than
____months
a)
c)
19
Value of orders in hand should be at least 30% of targeted annual

income.
Sales/Turnover: increasing trend in the last two years.
The firm should be earning profits in the last two years with rising
trend.
All of above
If 100% tie-up arrangements are in place under Transport Plus Scheme,

the value of collateral security can be reduced to ___% of the loan amount
a)
c)
18
10, 5
20, 10
Collateral security in the form of unencumbered vehicles/immovable

property under Transport Plus Scheme will be obtained for not less than
___% of the loan amount
a)
c)
17
b)
d)
Which of the following is correct in respect of the borrowers availing credit

facilities under Transport Plus Scheme
a)
16
5, Nil
15, 10
Twice
Thrice
b)
d)
Once
Quarterly
Loan to be immediately recalled and legal action to be initiated if

______months installments are in default.
a)
c)
three
six
b)
d)
four
no such instructions
167
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Transport Plus
1
C
11
C
2
a
12
d
3
b
13
b
4
d
14
d
5
e
15
d
6
d
16
d
7
b
17
d
8
a
18
b
9
b
19
b
10
c
20
a
168
ASSIGNMENT
Open Term Loan
1
SBI has launched Open Term Loan scheme for the

a) Service Unit
c) Trading Unit
b)
d)
250
450
Under Open Term Loan Scheme, maximum loan to the tune of Rs. _____lac
can be sanctioned for business development expenditure incurred for creation
of intangible assets
a) 50
c) 150
Manufacturing Unit
Both (a) & (b)
Under Open Term Loan Scheme, maximum loan to the tune of Rs. _____lac
can be sanctioned
a) 150
c) 350
b)
d)
b)
d)
100
200
Open Term Loan Scheme for service sector is not applicable to________
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hotels & Hospitals

Educational Institutions
Corporate/non-Corporate with ratings above SB7
Fleet Operators having less then 25 vehicles
Under Open Term Loan Scheme for Service Sector, loan cannot be granted
for
a) Expansion, Modernization, Acquisition of hardware/software
b) Substitution of high cost debts/high cost term debts of other banks/FIs
c) Acquisition of ISO & other similar certifications
d) Visits abroad for finalizing business deals, participating in promotion
exercises etc.
e) Manufacturing of Hand tools
If the limits are not utilized or only partially utilized within twelve months of
sanction, it will be _______
a) renewed
b) reviewed
c) lapsed
d) extended for further 12 months
169

7
Disbursement of Term Loan under Open Term Loan is on________

a)
b)
c)
d)
demand by borrower
Within the currency of sanction
Subject to certain basic financial information
All of the above
Interest applicable on Open Term Loan is ________

a)
b)
c)
d)
as applicable to SIB advances

Fixed rate of interest for fixed tenure
Floating rate of interest
As per credit rating of the borrower linked to Base Rate
Uniform margin at ________% is to be taken for Open term Loan

a)
b)
c)
d)
10
10
15
20
25
_____________will be taken as collateral security on Open Term Loan

a) Extension of charge over current assets, fixed assets or exploring
additional tangible security
b) Personal guarantees of proprietors/partners/promoters
c) Pledge of promoters equity in case of corporate
d) All of the above as applicable on case-to-case basis.
11
Authroised branches for Open Term Loan are

a) SME intensive branches having RMME/SE
c) Branches headed by Scale IV & above
12
b) All branches
d) Both (a) & (c)
Repayment period generally not to exceed _______years. Sanctioning

authority may selectively consider repayment period up to _______ years
where considered necessary.
a) 3 & 5
c) 4 & 6
13
a)
b)
c)
d)
b)
d)
4&5
5&7
The period of repayment, will commence from the date of

Each Disbursement
The first drawdown for each facility.
Both of above
None of above
170
14
Under SME Open Term Loan customer has the option of ______disbursements
for multiple purposes within 12 months from the date of sanction.
a) 5
c) 12
15
b)
d)
7
multiple
Documents for the open Term Loan are to be optained

a)
At the time of each disbursement
b) Upfront for the sanctioned loan
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Open Term Loan
1
d
9
a
2
b
10
d
3
b
11
d
4
d
12
a
5
e
13
b
6
c
14
d
7
d
15
b
8
d
171
ASSIGNMENT
Rent Plus
1
Owners of residential buildings and commercial properties situated

in________which are to be rented or already rented to MNC/Banks/Large &
Medium size Corporates are eligible under Rent Plus.
a) Metro
c) Rural
b)
d)
Corporate
All of above
Not to be rented
Already rented to MNC/Banks/Large & Medium size Corporates
Yet to be rented to MNC/Banks/Large & Medium size Corporates
Both (b) & (c)
Apart from the specified lessees in the Rent Plus Scheme, powers for
considering the proposal pertaining to other type of lessees are vested with
__
a) AGM (RACPC)
c) GM Network
AGM Region
GM Network
Rent Plus Scheme is targeted as per the eligibility criteria for those properties
which are
a)
b)
c)
d)
b)
d)
Who are eligible to avail credit facility under Rent Plus Scheme?
a) Individuals
c) Partnership Firm
Urban
a, b & c
Owners of residential buildings and commercial properties situated in rural

area are eligible under Rent Plus subject to prior administrative approval of
_________.
a) Branch Manager
c) DGM (O& C)
b)
d)
b)
d)
AGM (SMECC)
DGM
Administrative clearance for extending credit facilities under Rent Plus

Scheme is required from ______at Branches having incumbency upto
OMMGS-III
a) AGM Region
c) GM Network
b)
d)
DGM Module
No need
172

7
What is the minimum amount of finance available under Rent Plus

Scheme?
a) Rs. 50,000
c) Rs. 2,00,000
b)
d)
b)
d)
70
75
b)
d)
Service Tax, TDS

All of the above
Which type of credit facility will be sanctioned under Rent Plus

Scheme?
a) Cash Credit
c) Overdraft
13.
75, 75
95, 95
While computing quantum of finance, which item is deducted from the rent
receivable?
a) advance deposit
c) Estimated property tax, Statutory dues
12.
5.00
7.00
Discretion to allow finance upto___________of total rent receivable or

relizable value of the property is vested with the CGM of the Circle.
a) 85
c) 65
11
b)
d)
The maximum amount of finance under Rent Plus Scheme is restricted to

least of _____% of the total rent receivable for the residual lease period or
_____% of realizable value of the property mortgaged as per latest valuation
report
a) 85, 85
c) 60, 60
10
Rs. 1,00,000
Rs. 5,00,000
Maximum amount to the tune of Rs. ____crore can be financed under Rent
Plus Scheme.
a) 2.00
c) 10.00
b)
d)
b)
d)
Term Loan
CTL
The loan under Rent Plus Scheme will be repaid in equated instalments at the
same frequency at which rent is received in a maximum period of ____years
or the residual lease period, whichever is less
a) 3
c) 7
b)
d)
5
9
173
14.
The prepayment penalty under Rent Plus Scheme is______%

a) 0.5
c) Nil
15
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
Assignment of Rent Receivables

Hypothecation of Receivables
Recording of power of attorney with the lessee
Both (a) & (c)
The collateral security in case of Rent Plus Scheme will be first charge on
property rented out or any other acceptable property of a value not less than
____% of the loan amount
a) 100
c) 120
19
6
12
What will be the primary security in case of Rent Plus Scheme?

a)
b)
c)
d)
18
b)
d)
The periodicity of inspection by Field Officer for the loans sanctioned under
Rent Plus Scheme is at ______intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
17
2
1
A loan sanctioned under Rent Plus Scheme will be recalled if the account
remains irregular for _____consecutive months
a) 3
c) 9
16
b)
d)
b)
d)
110
130
Before accepting Equitable Mortgage of the property as collateral security,

cognizance should be given to ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Genuineness of Title Deed

Valuation Report from Banks approved valuer
Search Report-cum-Title Verification Report from Banks approved lawyer
All of above
174

20
Where our Bank is the tenant & loan amount does not exceed Rs.
_______lacs, Sanctioning Authority may waive the stipulation of equitable
mortgage subject to condition that the lease deed should not expire during the
currency of the loan.
a) 10
b) 30
21
b)
d)
In addition to the Collateral Security, __________of partners/directors to be

obtained in case of Partnership firm/Company
a) Surety
c) Personal Guarantee
22
b)
d)
Guarantee
no need of any other
security
In case of public limited companies, if the directors are not willing to extend
personal guarantee and the collateral in the form of equitable mortgage is
_____% of the loan amount, the sanctioning authority may waive personal
guarantee.
a) 100
c) 200
23
20
25
b)
d)
50
120
Waiver of equitable mortgage may be allowed by CCC-I, provided the lessee

is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Reputed Corporate e.g Bank/PSU maintaining consistency in

profitability for at least 3 years
Agreeable to execute the tripartite agreement
Integrity is beyond doubt & Personal guarantee of individuals/
partners/directors is available
All of the above
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Rent Plus
1
d
11
d
21
c
2
d
12
b
22
d
3
d
13
c
23
d
4
d
14
d
5
c
15
a
6
a
16
c
7
a
17
d
8
c
18
c
9
c
19
d
10
b
20
d
175
ASSIGNMENT
School Plus & Loan to Pvt. Builders
1
Under School Plus Scheme, which of followings are eligible to avail credit
facility
a) Govt. Aided Schools and Private Schools/colleges
b) Schools run by trusts of good standing
c) Technical institutes recognized by AICTE/NBA/MCI
d) All of the above
The purpose for which, loan can be granted under School Plus Scheme is ____
a) Purchase of land for building/play ground, Construction/repair/renovation
of school building
b) Purchase of computer/equipments/books etc.
c) Purchase of furniture/fixtures
d) All of above
For which of the following purposes, loan cannot be granted under School-Plus
Scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
For Purchase of Laboratory/sports equipment

For Purchase of equipment for mid day meal scheme
For Purchase of buses for student transportation
None of above
Which type of credit facility can be granted under School Plus Scheme?
a) Cash Credit
c) Both (a) & (b)
Term Loan
Overdraft
Under School Plus Scheme, maximum loan to the tune of Rs. _____lac can be
granted
a) 10
c) 25
b)
d)
b)
d)
20
No Cap
DSCR under School Plus Scheme should not be below ______

a) 1.25
c) 1.75
b)
d)
1.50
2.00
176
Loan under School Plus Scheme should normally be repaid in ___to ____EMIs
depending upon the quantum of the loan
a) 36, 60
c) 36, 96
15
25
b)
d)
30
75
b)
d)
18, 24
30, 36
Which type of credit facility can be granted to private builders for completion of
their project
a) Cash Credit
c) Term Loan
13
b)
d)
Private Builders can be granted finance provided their project should be

completed in _____to ____months
a) 12, 18
c) 24, 30
12
Floating rate of interest

None of above
Collateral security of land and building and other immovable assets of the
school or guarantor for ___% of the loan amount for loans of Rs. 2 lacs to Rs.
10 lacs and EM of other immovable assets for loans above Rs. 10 lacs will be
taken under School Plus Scheme
a) 50
c) 20
11
b)
d)
A borrower has to bring a minimum of ___% as margin to avail credit facility

under School Plus Scheme
a) 10
c) 20
10
36, 84
36, 120
The loan under School Plus Scheme will be granted at _____

a) Fixed Rate of interest Only
c) Either of (a) or (b)
b)
d)
b)
d)
Overdraft
CTL
M/s Shivalika Builders has approached our bank for finance.

maximum loan amount that can be granted to them
What is the
a) 50% of project cost or 5 times of his net worth or Rs. 5 crore, whichever is
less
b) 60% of project cost or 6 times of his net worth or Rs. 5 crore, whichever is
less
177

c) 70% of project cost or 7 times of his net worth or Rs. 5 crore, whichever is
less
d) 80% of project cost or 8 times of his net worth or Rs.5 crore, whichever is
less
14
Under Finance to Private Builder Scheme, the loan is to be repaid in maximum

of ____months
a) 12
c) 36
15
b)
d)
24
60
Minimum margin required for loan to private builder is ____% of the project cost
a) 10
c) 25
b)
d)
15
50
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
School Plus & Loan to Pvt. Builders
1
d
11
b
2
d
12
a
3
d
13
a
4
b
14
c
5
d
15
d
6
d
7
b
8
a
9
b
10
c
178
ASSIGNMENT
Construction Equipment Loan-JCB India
1. Construction Equipment Loan Scheme has been launched for purchase
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Machinery
Stock of Raw Material
purchase of construction Equipment manufactured by JCB
Receivable
Which type of equipment is covered under Construction Equipment Loan

Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
f)
of:
Loader
Excavators
Cranes
All of above
Who are eligible under Construction Equipment Loan Scheme?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Individual
Firms
Companies
All of above
4. Construction Equipment Loan will not be granted to borrowers having Credit

Rating below:
a)
c)
SB 6
SB 9
b)
d)
SB 8
no such stipulation
5. Credit Rating is not required for advance below Rs.____lacs.

a)
c)
50
10
b)
d)
25
no such stipulation
6. Which type of credit facility can be provided under Construction Equipment Loan
Scheme?
a) Demand loan
c) Term Loan
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Working Capital Demand Loan
179

7. What is the minimum quantum of advance that can be provided under
Construction Equipment Loan Scheme?
a) Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Rs. 15.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 50.00 lacs

Rs. 20.00 lacs
8. What is the maximum quantum of advance that can be provided under

a) Rs. 10.00 lacs
c) Rs. 150.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 50.00 lacs

Rs. 100.00 lacs
9. Disbursement of advance under Construction Equipment Loan Scheme will be

by___
a)
b)
c)
d)
Credit to SB account of the borrower

Credit to Current account of the borrower
ECS
direct to supplier/dealer
10. Moratorium period allowed under Construction Equipment Loan Scheme

is___months
a) 3
c) 12
b)
d)
6
9
11. Term Loan granted under Construction Equipment Loan Scheme is to be repaid
in ____
a) Quarterly instalments + Intt
c) EMI
b)
d)
lumpsum
Monthly instalment + intt.
12. Term Loan upto _________lacs granted under Construction Equipment Loan
Scheme is to mandatorily covered undet CGTMSE
a)
b)
c)
d)
20
25
30
50
13. Term Loan granted under Construction Equipment Loan Scheme is to be fully
repaid within ____years including moratorium period
a) 3
c) 4
b)
d)
9
5
180

14. Borrower is required to contribute Margin of _____%
Equipment Loan Scheme,
under Construction
a) 25% in case of borrowers who are new to this line

b) 15% in case of buyers having up to 9 machines
c) 5% in case of buyers already having more than 9 machines
d) either a or b or c whichever is applicable
15. Rate of interest applicable for credit facility granted under Construction
Equipment Loan Scheme is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.25% above Base Rate for borrower with Credit Rating of SB1 to SB5
4.75% above Base Rate for borrower with Credit Rating of SB6 to SB9
4.75% above Base Rate for borrower which are not subject to rating
either a or b or c whichever is applicable
16. ___% penalty will be charged for the amount and period in default under
Construction Equipment Loan Scheme is:
a) 3
c) 2
b)
d)
1
no penalty
17. Which type of Primary Security will be taken by the bank in case of Construction
Equipment Loan Scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hypothecation of Equipment financed from the Bank Loan

Registration of charges with ROC ( In case of vehicles)
No such requirement
a&b
18. Which type of Collateral Security will be taken by the bank in case of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hyp. of other unencumbered equipments

EM of immoveable property
a or b to the extent of atleast 25% of the loan amount
Not to be insisted upon
19. Inspection will be done at______interals for ensuring end use of fund of
Construction Equipment Loan
a) monthly
c) quarterly
b)
d)
half yearly
yearly
181

20. ______type of Insurance will be obtained in case advance granted under
Construction Equipment Loan
a) Fire
c) Comprehensive
b)
d)
Theft
not required
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT LOAN
1
c
11
c
2
d
12
b
3
d
13
c
4
c
14
d
5
b
15
d
6
c
16
c
7
c
17
d
8
d
18
c
9
d
19
b
10
a
20
c
182

SBI Shoppe, SBI Shoppe Plus & Arthia Plus
1 Under SBI Shoppe Scheme, present and prospective owners of __________can
be granted credit facility
a)
c)
Shops/Offices/Show-rooms
C.A/Consultants
b) Training/Service/Garage Centre
d) All of above
2 Who are eligible to avail credit facility under SBI Shoppe Scheme?
a) Individuals/Partnership
c) Franchisees
b)
d)
Trusts
All of above
3 Which type of credit facility will be granted under SBI Shoppe Scheme?
a) Demand Loan
c) Term Loan
b)
d)
Cash Credit
All of above
4 Loan under SBI Shoppe can be granted for __________

a.
b.
c.
d.
Purchase of new/old shops/establishment/offices/showroom etc.

Repair/Renovation/Modernisation
Furniture/Fixtures/Electrical fittings/Accessories for the shop/office etc.
All of above
5 What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be sanctioned under SBI
Shoppe?
a) Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Rs. 15.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 10.00 lacs

Rs. 20.00 lacs
6 What is the moratorium period provided in case of Term Loan facility under SBI
Shoppe?
a) 6 months
c) 12 months
b)
d)
9 months
18 months
7 Term Loan sanctioned under SBI Shoppe should be repaid in _______years

a) 3 to 5
c) 5 to 7
b)
d)
3 to 7
7 to 9
8 In case of loan sanctioned under SBI Shoppe, minimum DSCR should be ____
a) 1.00
c) 1.50
b)
d)
1.25
1.75
183

9 In case of the rented property, which document in addition to other documents
should be obtained, while granting loan under SBI Shoppe?
a) AB 3
c) No lien letter
b)
d)
No objection Certificate
Both (b) and (c)
10 SBI Shoppe Plus Scheme is the combination of _______________

a) SBI Shoppe & H/ loan
c) SBI Shoppe & P/Loan
b)
d)
SBI Shoppe & Car loan

SBI Shoppe & Edu. Loan
11 Target group for SBI Shoppe Plus Scheme is present and prospective owners of
a. Shops/offices/show rooms b)
c) Offices for CA/Consultants d)
Training Centres/Garages
All of above
12 Which type of credit facilities will be granted under SBI Shoppe Plus Scheme?
a) 2 Cash Credit
c) 1 C/C and 1 T/L
b)
d)
2 Term Loans
2 Demand Loans
13 Commission Agents (Arthias) __________can be financed under Arthias Plus

Scheme?
a) Dealing with Agr. Produce
b) Regd. with Market Committee
c) Possess a license from DFSD
d)
All of above
14 Borrowers will be financed against __________ under Arthia Plus
a) Stock
c) Both (a) and (b)
b)
d)
Receivables
None of above
15 Which type of credit facility can be granted under Arthia Plus Scheme?
a) Cash Credit (Hyp. of Book Debts)
c) Demand Loan
b)
d)
Term Loan
CTL
16 What is the maximum amount that can be financed under Arthia Plus Scheme?
a) Rs. 10.00 lacs
c) Rs. 20.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 15.00 lacs

Rs. 50.00 lacs
17 The margin required under Arthias Plus is_________%

a) 25
c) 40
b)
d)
20
10
184
18 Collateral Security for loan amount upto Rs. 25 lacs under Arthias Plus Scheme
will be equitable mortgage of Residential/Commercial property with worth
_____times of the loan amount
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
1.5
19 Collateral Security for loan amount above Rs. 25 lacs under Arthias Plus Scheme
will be equitable mortgage of Residential/Commercial property with worth
_____times of the loan amount
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
1.5
20 Assessment under Arthias Plus for loan amount above Rs. 25 lacs & upto Rs. 50
lacs will be as per_________
a) Traditional method
c) CRA Model
b)
d)
Scoring Sheet
Need based
21 The repayment of credit facility sanctioned under Arthias Plus Scheme, will be
within ______months
a) 3
c) 9
b)
d)
6
12
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SBI Shoppe, SBI Shoppe Plus & Arthia Plus
1
d
11
d
2
d
12
b
3
c
13
d
4
d
14
b
5
d
15
a
6
a
16
d
7
b
17
c
8
d
18
d
9
d
19
b
10
a
20
c
21
b
185

ASSIGNMENT
SME Car Loan
1. Car loan can be granted to _______under Car Loan Scheme to SME units
a)
b)
c)
d)
Unit/Promoters/Partners/Senior Executive
Family Members (Spouse & Children) of Promoters/Partners
Unit
SME CA holder of Bank, other SME Clients subject to advising the
sanction to the Bank in which they are having a loan account.
e) Any of (a) ,(b) (c) & (d) individually or jointly with unit
2 For availing car loan under Car Loan to SME Units, an individual/joint applicant
should have a minimum NAI of Rs. ______
a) 75,000
c) 1,25,000
b)
d)
1,00,000
1,50,000
3. If the car loan to SME unit is availed in the name of the Unit_______will
guarantee the repayment of loan
a)
b)
c)
d)
Company
Promoter(s)
Partner(s)
All of the above as applicable
4. Whenever Senior Executive joins as _________ his NAI shall be clubbed with
the ______of joint applicant )Promoter/Partner
a)
b)
c)
d)
applicant & EMI

borrower & NMI
co-applicant & NMI
cannot be granted to Senior Executive
5. Senior Executive under Car Loan to SME Units is defined as employee in ____
a)
b)
c)
d)
Top Management
Directors
Employee holding the position of responsibility
Any of the above
186

6. For purchasing a new car, loan can be sanctioned for a maximum of ____times
of NAI of the borrower under Car Loan to SME Units
a) 1.5
c) 3.5
b)
d)
2.5
4.5
7. Margin under Car Loan to SME Units is __________% of the on road price of
the vehicle
a)
b)
c)
d)
10
20
5
15
8. Under Car Loan to SME Units, a maximum loan of Rs. ____ lacs can be
sanctioned for purchase of new vehicle
a) 10
c) 20
b)
d)
15
No upper limit
9. For sanctioning a car loan under Car Loan to SME Units, EMI/NMI percentage
should not exceed ______% and authority vest with the rank of AGM to relax it
upto______%
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
& 50
& 50
& 65
& 60
Processing fee charged under Car Loan to SME units is _____% subject to
minimum Rs._________ & maximum Rs.____________
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
60
40
50
50
0.55, 1000/- & 50,000/0.50, 500/- & 10,000/0.55, 1000/- & 10,000/Nil
Under SME Car Loan inspection in regular account is to be undertaken on

______basis
a)
b)
c)
d)
monthly
quarterly
half yearly
waived
187

12.
For purchase of a new car under Car Loan to SME Units, loan sanctioned will
be repaid in _____years
a) 5
c) 8
13.
2
5
b)
d)
2
5
b)
d)
15
25
The vehicle purchased under Car Loan to SME Units is to be kept

comprehensively insured for the market value or at least _______% above
the loan amount
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
b)
d)
Under Car Loan to SME Units, a maximum loan of Rs. ____ lac can be
sanctioned for purchase of used vehicles
a) 10
c) 20
17.
2
5
Pre payment penalty will be charged @ ___% of the loan prepaid in case of
Car Loan to SME Units.
a) 1
c) 3
16.
b)
d)
If an account remains irregular beyond a period of 30 days, a penal interest

@ ___% p.m. over and above the applicable rate will be charged under Car
Loan to SME Units.
a) 1
c) 3
15.
7
10
As an evidence of income, copy of income tax return for the last ____financial
year(s) should be taken before sanctioning a loan under Car Loan to SME
Units.
a) 1
c) 3
14.
b)
d)
110
100
120
10
Loan on fixed rate of interest under Car Loan to SME Units, will be sanctioned
for amount exceeding Rs _____lacs.
a) 5
c) 15
b)
d)
10
Not to be sanctioned
188
19.
Reimbursement of unencumbered vehicle not > than ________ can be done

in case of Car Loan to SME Units.
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
5 years
2 years
7 years
1 year
Car Loan to those SME Units ___________ should be restricted.

a)
b)
c)
d)
which are weak or have turned NPA or likely to become NPA

The relations between branches & promoter(s) is soured
Wherever it is proposed to initiate legal action against the unit/promoters
All of the above
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
SME Car Loan
1
e
11
d
2
b
12
b
3
d
13
b
4
c
14
a
5
d
15
b
6
b
16
b
7
d
17
d
8
d
18
d
9
d
19
b
10
b
20
d
189
ASSIGNMENT
Rice Mill Plus & Dall Mill Plus
1
Existing Profit making rice shellers with CRA rating of _____and above can be
covered under Rice Mills Plus Scheme
a)
c)
Modernisation of building
All of above
C/C, T/L & Bill limit

SME Credit Plus
b)
d)
L/C & B/G

All of above
Rs. 1.00 crore

Rs. 10.00 crore
b)
d)
Rs. 5.00 crore

No upper limit
6
12
b)
d)
9
18
Term Loan sanctioned under Rice Mills Plus Scheme will be repaid in ____years
excluding the moratorium period
a)
c)
b)
d)
A moratorium of _____months can be granted in case a borrower is sanctioned

Term Loan under Rice Mills Plus Scheme?
a)
c)
Machinery
Working capital needs
How much advance can be granted under Rice Mills Plus Scheme?
a)
c)
SB 6
SB 9
Which type of credit facilities can be provided under Rice Mills Plus Scheme?
a)
c)
b)
d)
Credit facilities under Rice Mills Plus Scheme can be provided for _________
a)
c)
SB 4
SB 8
5-7
7-9
b)
d)
5-10
9-12
Under Rice-Mills Plus, which additional credit facilities can be provided to the
borrowers
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cash Credit Book Debts

Limit against by-products and gunny bags
Limit against other grains during lean period
All of above
190
Rice Mills Plus Scheme has been extended to new units established by our
existing borrowers where:
a. Management of the new units lies with our existing borrowers
b. At least 50% of the partners of new units are our existing borrowers &
known to the bank.
c. CRA rating of the unit is not below SB 7
d. All of above
9.
Under Rice Mills Plus for loans upto Rs. 5 lacs, collateral security will be
taken as Equitable mortgage of property/tangible security belonging to
borrower/guarantor valued not less that _________% of loan amount
a)
c)
10.
33%
75%
33%
75%
b)
d)
50%
60%
b)
d)
50%
60%
Units having CRA rating of _______ can be granted loan under Dal Mills Plus
Scheme
a) SB 4 and above
c) SB 8 and above
13
50%
Nil
Under Rice Mills Plus for loans over Rs. 5 lacs, and Unit having credit rating SB8 & below collateral security will be taken as Equitable mortgage of
property/tangible security belonging to borrower/guarantor valued not less that
_________% of loan amount
a)
c)
12
b)
d)
Under Rice Mills Plus for loans over Rs. 5 lacs, and Unit having credit rating SB7 & above, collateral security will be taken as Equitable mortgage of
property/tangible security belonging to borrower/guarantor valued not less that
_________% of loan amount
a)
c)
11.
33%
75%
b)
d)
SB 6 and above
SB 9 and above
Credit facility under Dal Mills Plus Scheme can be granted for the purpose of:
a) Machinery
c) Working Capital
b)
d)
Building
All of above
191
14
Which type of credit facility can be granted under Dal Mills Plus Scheme?
a) Term Loan & CC
c) SME Credit Plus
15
b)
d)
For Term Loan component under Dal Mills Plus Scheme, a moratorium of
maximum _____months can be granted
a) 6
c) 12
16
b)
d)
b)
d)
b)
d)
Regular
All of above
Under Dal Mills Plus Scheme, how much loan can be granted?
a) Rs. 1.00 crore
c) Rs. 3.00 crore
19
5 to 7
9 to 12
Which CRA model will be used for loan under Dal Mills Plus Scheme?
a) Simplified
c) Trade
18
9
18
Term Loan under Dal Mills Plus Scheme will be repaid in ______years excluding
moratorium period
a) 3 to 5
c) 7 to 9
17
L/C & BG
All of above
b)
d)
Rs. 2.00 crore

No upper limit
Collateral Security under Dal Mill Plus for loan upto Rs. 5 lacs is_____and
above Rs. 5 lacs_________of the loan amount
a) 10%, 50%
c) nil, 80%
b)
d)
20%, 80%
nil, 75%
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Rice Mill Plus & Dall Mill Plus
1
d
11
d
2
d
12
d
3
d
13
d
4
d
14
d
5
c
15
c
6
a
16
b
7
d
17
a
8
d
18
d
9
d
19
d
10
b
192
ASSIGNMENT
Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital), Corporate Loan
& Standby Line of Credit for Purchase of Vehicle
1
What is the target group for Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital)
Scheme?
a)
c)
b)
d)
SB 6
SB 8
15, 5
25, 5
b)
d)
20, 5
30, 5
Cash Credit
EPC
bills discounting against stock, receivables etc
All of the above
Which of the following statement is correct in respect of SLC (WC)

a)
b)
c)
d)
SB 5
SB 7
Which type of facility will be granted under SLC(WC) ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Exporting unit
All of above
A maximum of ____% of Fund Based and Non-Fund Based Limit or Rs.

____crore, whichever is lower, can be granted under SLC (WC)
a)
c)
b)
d)
To become eligible for SLC (WC), the unit should have a minimum CRA rating of
________
a)
c)
SSI units
C & I Units
SLC(WC) should be calculated separately for peak and non peak limits
Additional interest of 1% over the regular limit will be charged
Discretion to waive the additional cost rests with the controllers
All of above
Which amongst the following is not correct in respect of SLC (WC)

a)
b)
c)
d)
It will be granted generally for a period of 2 months at any instance

SLC(WC) cannot be extended to units who have utilized SME Credit Plus
facility
It will be granted to meet contingency needs arising out bunching or
orders, delay in shipment/realization of receivables, sudden increase in
raw material costs, mismatch in cash flows
None of above
193

7
Corporate Loan Scheme covers customers of the following sectors:

a)
c)
Agr
C&I & SSI
b)
d)
SBF
Both (b) & (c)
The purposes for which Corporate Loan can be granted, are _________
a)
c)
Repayment of High cost debt

Shoring of NWC
b) Acquisition of Trade mark etc.

d) All of above
Which type of credit facility will be provided under Corporate loan?

a)
c)
10
Clean Cash Credit

Cash Credit
Corporate
Trust/HUF
b)
d)
Non-Corporate
Both (a) & (b)
A minimum of Rs. ____lacs will be granted under Corporate Loan?

a)
c)
12
b)
d)
Which type of borrowers are covered under Corporate Loan?

a)
c)
11
Clean Term Loan

Term Loan
25
75
b)
d)
50
100
A non-corporate borrower can be granted a maximum of Rs. _____crore

under Corporate Loan Scheme
a)
c)
5
15
b)
d)
10
25
13
How much amount can be financed under Corporate Loan Scheme to a

corporate borrower?
a)
Rs. 10 crore
b)
Rs. 25 crore
c)
Rs. 100 crore
d)
No limit
14
Repayment period of the Term Loan granted under Corporate Loan

Scheme will not exceed _______years
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
9
15
For availing credit facility under Stand By Loan to Corporate for Purchase of
Vehicles Scheme, the CRA rating of the unit should be ________and above
a) SB-5
c) SB-7
b)
d)
SB-6
SB-8
194

16
Which type of credit facility will be provided under Stand By Loan to

Corporates for Purchase of Vehicles Scheme?
a) Demand Loan
c) Term Loan
17
b)
d)
The borrower will be granted ____% of the fund based limit not exceeding Rs.
____lacs under Stand By Loan to Corporates for Purchase of Vehicles
a) 10, 25
c) 10, 50
18
b)
d)
b)
d)
5
9
The loan under Stand By Loan to Corporates for Purchase of Vehicles will be
granted for _____vehicles
a) New
c) Both (a) & (b)
20
10, 30
10, 100
The loan sanctioned under Stand By Loan to Corporates for Purchase of

Vehicles will be repaid in ______years
a) 3
c) 7
19
Short Term Loan

CTL
b)
d)
Old
None of above
The margin under Stand By Loan to Corporates for Purchase of Vehicles

is____% of the cost of the vehicle including tax and insurance
a) 10
c) 20
b)
d)
15
25
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital), Corporate Loan
& Standby Line of Credit for Purchase of Vehicle
1
D
11
A
2
c
12
b
3
a
13
d
4
d
14
a
5
d
15
c
6
d
16
c
7
c
17
a
8
d
18
b
9
a
19
a
10
d
20
c
195

Paryatan Plus & Working Capital Finance for Trade & Services sector
1
Under Paryatan Plus, the credit facility can be sanctioned for ________
a) Construction/renovation/modernization/expansion to Hotels/Yatri Nivas
/Dharmshalas/restaurants/coffeehouses /ice-cream parlours /amusement
parks/ropeways/health clubs etc.
b) Purchase of luxury buses/coaches/cars/vans etc.
c) Purchase of house boats/luxury boats
d) All of above
Which of the following are not eligible to avail the credit facility under
Paryatan Plus Scheme?
a) Individuals/Partnership
c) Trust
T/L
All of above
b)
d)
Rs. 2 lacs
No such limit
b)
d)
5
40
____% Margin to be obtained for financing old vehicles under Paryatan Plus
a) 10
c) 20
b)
d)
____% Margin to be obtained for financing new vehicles under Paryatan Plus
a) 10
c) 20
Travel/Tour operators
All of above
Minimum amount to be financed under Paryatan Plus ?

a) Rs. 1 lac
c) Rs. 3 lacs
b)
d)
Which type of credit facility can be granted under Paryatan Plus Scheme?
a) C/C
c) L/C & B/G
Corporates
HUF
The target group for Paryatan Plus Scheme will be ________

a) Hospitality/Transportation
c) Adventure/Religious tourism
b)
d)
b)
d)
5
40
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Paryatan Plus Scheme

a)
b)
Maintenance of C/A to route all receipt is mandatory

Appropriate licenses should be obtained
196

c)
d)
9
In case of Term Loan sanctioned under Paryatan Plus Scheme, a start up

period not exceeding ____months, can be granted
a) 6
c) 18
10
13
b)
d)
5 to 7
9 to 12
b)
d)
1.75
2.25
We can provide credit facility for old vehicles less than ___years under
Paryatan Plus Scheme
a) 5
b)
6
c) 7
d)
8
Collateral security for a minimum of ___% of the loan amount in the form of
immovable property or liquid security i.e. TDRs, NSCs and KVPs etc., will be
taken for credit facilities under Paryatan Plus Scheme
a) 50
c) 100
14
12
24
While sanctioning term loan for the purchase of vehicle under Paryatan Plus
Scheme, minimum DSCR should be_____
a) 1.5
c) 2.0
12
b)
d)
Term loan sanctioned under Paryatan Plus Scheme, will be repayable within
______years including start up period not exceeding 18 months
a) 3 to 7
c) 7 to 9
11
Only skilled/trained persons eligible

There is an upper ceiling of Rs. 7.50 crore for advance
b)
d)
75
125
Which type of units showing profits during the last 3 year and having CRA
rating of SB 4 and above can be granted working capital finance liberally
under Trade & Service Sector?
a) Retail & Wholesale traders in agricultural and industrial
Commodities
b) Dealers in consumer durables/consumer goods/vehicles
c) Big land lords
d) Both (a) & (b) above
197
15
Working capital under Trade & Services Sector can be granted ____% of
Projected Annual Turnover (PAT) subject to a maximum of Rs. ____crore
a) 10, 2
c) 20, 10
16
b)
d)
While granting working capital finance under Trade & Services sector, it
should be ensured that projected annual turnover should not be more than
____% of the last year turnover
a) 10
c) 20
17
b)
d)
b)
d)
50
No security is required
Out of prescribed Collateral Security under working capital finance for Trade
& Services sector_____% Collateral security will be taken as mortgage of
immovable property
a) 50
c) 33
19
15
25
While granting working capital finance under Trade & Services sector_____%
Collateral security will be taken.
a) 100
c) 20
18
15, 5
25, 15
b)
d)
25
No such stipulation
M/s. Oriental Handloom Co., a trading unit, desirous of working capital limit
with CRA rating of SB 8-9, has offered collateral security to the extent of 75%
of the loan, how much concession in rate of interest over and above CRA
rating, can be granted to the unit?
a) 0.25%
c) 0.75%
b)
d)
0.50
1.0%
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Paryatan Plus & Working Capital Finance for Trade & Services sector
1
d
11
a
2
d
12
a
3
d
13
a
4
d
14
d
5
b
15
b
6
c
16
d
7
d
17
b
8
d
18
c
9
c
19
b
10
a
198
ASSIGNMENT
Flexi Loan for Trade & Service & General Purpose Term Loan for SSI
1
Borrowers with __________ are eligible to avail credit facility under Flexi Loan
for Trade and Services Scheme?
b) CRA rating of SB 10 and above
c) Cash profits in each of the preceding 3 years
d) Net Profit in the last year
d) All of above
2 Flexi Loan for Trade and Services can be granted for the purpose of ________
a) Stocks/book debts
c) Vehicles/Machinery
3
b)
d)
Land and building

All of above
Which type of credit facility will be granted under Flexi Loan for Trade and
Services Scheme?
a) Term Loan
c) Overdraft
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Demand Loan
4 What is the minimum amount that can be sanctioned under Flexi Loan for Trade
and Services Scheme?
a) Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Rs. 25.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs. 10.00 lacs

Rs. 20.00 lacs
5 Under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services Scheme, a borrower can be sanctioned
a maximum loan to the tune of Rs. _____lacs
a) 50.00
c) 25.00
b)
d)
10.00
100.00
6 For loan of above Rs 25.00 lacs under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services
Scheme, which CRA model will be used?
a) Simplified Non-Trade
c) Simplified Trade
b)
d)
Regular Trade
Regular Non-Trade
7 Minimum DSCR for loan under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services
Scheme should be:____
a) 1.25
c) 1.75
b)
d)
1.50
2.00
199

8
Term Loan under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services Scheme, will be repaid in __
a) 3-5 years
c) 7-9 years
b)
d)
5-7 years
9-12 years
9 The repayment period of term loan under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services
Scheme can be extended upto ____years in deserving cases
a) 3
c) 7
b)
d)
5
8
10 TOL/TNW ratio of the unit for finance under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services
Scheme should not be more than ____
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
4
11 Total Long Term Liability to equity ratio of the unit for finance under Flexi Loan
for Trade and Services Scheme should not be more than ____
a) 1: 1
c) 3: 1
b)
d)
2: 1
4: 1
12 Current Ratio of the unit for finance under Flexi Loan for Trade and Services
Scheme should not be less than ____
a) 1
c) 1.33
b)
d)
1.25
1.50
13 Which type of SSI units can be sanctioned loan under General Purpose Term
Loan for SSI Sector Scheme?
a)
c)
CRA rating SB 7 & above

No default history
b)
d)
Profits in all the preceding 3 yrs.

All of above
14. Which type of facility can be granted under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI
Sector Scheme?
a)
c)
Cash Credit
Demand Loan
b)
d)
Term Loan
Overdraft
15 Credit facility under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI Sector Scheme, can be
granted for ___________________
a)
c)
Shoring of NWC
Payment of High cost debt
b)
d)
R&D
All of above
200
16 Maximum loan under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI Sector is
Rs.___lacs
a)
b)
17
50
100
3
7
b)
d)
5
6
The repayment period of term loan granted under General Purpose Term Loan
for SSI Sector Scheme can be extended upto _______years in deserving cases
a)
c)
19
b)
d)
Term loan sanctioned under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI Sector
Scheme, will be repaid in ______years
a)
c)
18
10
25
3
4
b)
d)
5
7
While arriving at TNW for sanctioning loan under General Purpose Term Loan for
SSI Sector Scheme, loans from friends and relatives will be treated as _____
a)
c)
Capital
Current Liability
b)
d)
Quasi-Capital
Term Liability
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
Flexi Loan for Trade & Service & General Purpose Term Loan for SSI
1
d
11
b
2
d
12
a
3
a
13
d
4
a
14
b
5
d
15
d
6
c
16
b
7
b
17
a
8
a
18
b
9
d
19
b
10
d
20
201
ASSIGNMENT
NPA MANAGEMENT & RECOVERY PROCESS-I
1. NPA stands for__________
a)
b)
c)
d)
Non Payment of Account

Non Payment of Asset
Now Performing Asset
Non Performing Asset
2. SMA stands for___________

a)
b)
c)
d)
Specially Managed Accounts

System Managed Accounts
Some Mentioned Accounts
Special Mentioned Accounts
3. SMA is a category between___________& _____________

a)
b)
c)
d)
Standard, Doubtful
Doubtful, Loss
Standard, Substandard
Loss, Doubtful
4. IRAC stands for___________

a)
b)
c)
d)
Income recognition & Advances Classification

Interest recognition and classification
Income Recognition and Asset Classification
None of the above-
5. INCA stands for__________

a)
Interest not be collected account
b)
Interest not be counted against
c)
Interest not collected account
d)
None of the above
6. URIPY stands for_____________
a)
Under realized interest of previous year
b)
Unrealized interest for previous year
c)
Under realized income of previous year
d)
None of the above
202
7. A term loan will be treated NPA, if any Interest and/or instalment of principal
remain overdue for a period of more than _________days
a) 30
b)
60
c)
90
d)
180
8. A Cash Credit or Overdraft Account will be treated NPA, if account remains

out of order for a period of more than_________days.
a) 30
b)
60
c)
90
d)
180
9. Out of Order means:

i) If the outstanding balance remains continuously in excess of the sanctioned
limit/drawing power OR
ii) If the outstanding balance in the principal operating account is less than the
sanctioned limit/drawing limit, but there are no credits continuously for 90 days or
credits are not enough to cover the interest debited during the same period.
a)
Only (i)
b)
Only (ii)
c) either i or ii d)
none of these
10. ATL/ACC/KCC will be treated NPA, if any Interest and/or instalment of

principal remain overdue for a period of _________
a)
b)
c)
d)
two harvest seasons, but not exceeding a period of two half years.
2 crop seasons for short & one crop season for long duration from due
date
either a or b
neither a nor b
11.
An account will be identified as NPA from:

the date of out of order
b)
the date on which interest /principal have remained overdue for 90 days .
c)
the date since interest charged during any quarter is not serviced
fully within 90 days from the beginning of the quarter
d)
None of the above
12.
A Sub-Standard asset is one, which has been classified as NPA for a period not
exceeding ________months
a)
13.
24
b)
12
c)
18
d)
06
A Doubtful asset is one, which has been remained as NPA for a period
exceeding ________months
a)
24
b)
12
c)
18
d)
06
203
14.
The age of DA-1, DA-2 & DA-3 will be ___________

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
upto 1 year, more than 1 year to 3 years & over 3 years

upto 2 years, more than 1 year to 4 years & over 4 years
upto 3 years, more than 2 years to 3 years & over 5 years
None of the above
A Loss asset is one where:

a)
loss identified by the Bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI

inspection but the amount has not been written off , wholly or partly.
If the realizable value of security, assessed by the bank/approved
valuers/RBI inspection, is < 10%
either a or b
neither a nor b
b)
c)
d)
16.
If there is a sudden reduction in the value of security in the account (above 50%)
in a sub standard account
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
A general provision of a minimum of ______ to _____.is required to be made on

Standard Assets on global portfolio basis.
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
It will make no difference to the asset classification

The asset classification depends upon time period elapsed
The account can be straightway categorized as Doubtful
None of the above
02.5% - 3.0%
0.25% - 2.0%
01.0% - 2.0%
zero %
A general provision of _______on total out standings in Sub-standard accounts

(Secured portion) should be made
a) 2.5%
19.
b) 0.25%
c) 10%
d) zero %
A provision of ______,________ should be made on the secured & unsecured

portion of the Substandard assets .
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.5%, 12.5%
50%, 60%
10%, 20%
100%
204
20.
A provision of _______should be made on unsecured portion of the Doubtful

assets.
a) 2.5%
21.
100%
b)
50%
c)
75%
125%
d)
If one account of the borrower becomes NPA, what will be IRAC status of other
accounts?
a)
b)
c)
d)
24.
20, 100, 50
20, 30, 100
20, 30, 40
20, 40, 50
A provision of_____should be made on Loss assets.

a)
23.
d) 30 %
c) 100%
A provision of ____, _____&_____is made on secured portion of D1, D2 & D3

Assets respectively.
a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
b) 50%
Only the account which has become NPA will be classified NPA
NPA classification will be facility wise.
All accounts of the borrower will be classified as NPA
None of the above
If there is a sudden reduction in the value of security (upto 100%) in a sub

standard account
a)
b)
c)
c)
It will make no difference to the asset classification

The asset classification depends upon time period elapsed
The account can be straightway categorized as Doubtful.
The account can be straightway categorized as loss.
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
NPA MANAGEMENT & RECOVERY PROCESS-I
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
c
11
b
21
b
2
d
12
b
22
a
3
c
13
b
23
c
4
c
14
a
24
d
5
c
15
c
6
a
16
c
7
c
17
b
8
c
18
c
9
c
19
c
10
c
20
c
205
NPA MANAGEMENT & RECOVERY PROCESS-II

1.
Where can rate of interest be rectified in DL/TL loan processing?

a) Maintenance
2.
b) 7
d) 9
b) Long enquiry
c) Common processing
d) a & c
Which is the most popular recovery channel?

a) Lok Adalats
Courts
5.
c) 8
Where to find that an account has become an NPA?

a) Short enquiry
4.
c) Long Inquiry d) none of the above
How many new IRAC codes are available in the system?

a) 6
3.
b) Short inquiry
b) DRTs
c) SARFAESI Act
d) Civil
Which advances may not become NPAs under the 90 day norm
a) Staff advances
b) Advances where moratorium has been granted
c) Advances where the outstandings are covered by security value as in
NSCs/IVPs /FDRs
d) All of the above
6.
Lok Adalats have______

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
adequate powers
no powers
judicial powers
none of the above
What is the maximum amount in lacs for a suit to be filed in LOK

ADALATS ?
a) 10 lacs
8.
b) 15 lacs
c) 20 lacs
d) 25 lacs
Can doubtful Asset be upgraded to Sub-standard on Cash Recovery?

a) Yes
c) Partial to the extent of recovery.
b) No
d) Partial to the extent of intt. recovery .
206

9.
Which of the following is not a Power of Bank/FI under Securitization.

a) Realize dues without intervention of court.
b) Take over assets by authorized official
c) Sell Assets of borrower other than mortgaged ones.
d) Direct the debtors of borrower to pay direct to Bank.
10.
Under which of the following conditions Securitization is not applicable.

a) Where outstanding is Rs 1,00,000/- & above.
b) A/C is in live ladger.
c) Our share is more than 75% among secured creditors.
d) Law of limitation is applicable
11.
_______days notice is required under section 13(2) of Securitization Act.

a) 45
12.
b) 30
c) 90
d) 60
Recovery Agents should contact the borrower between------hrs -----hrs.

a) 0500 & 1200
b) 0700& 1900
c) 1000& 2000
d)1100 & 2100
13.
Allied agricultural activity loans such as poultry loans will be come NPA if
a) Default persists as per 2 crop seasons ,not exceeding 2 half years
b) In accordance with 90 day norms
c) None of the above
14.
On which IRAC status the account is actually treated as NPA

a) Old IRAC
15.
b) New IRAC
c) None of above
When the old IRAC status is replaced by the system with new IRAC
status.
a) Daily
b) Monthly
c) Once in a year on date defined by the bank
d) As & when advised by the branch
207
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
NPA MANAGEMENT & RECOVERY PROCESS-II
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
a
11
d
2
c
12
b
3
d
13
b
4
c
14
b
5
d
15
c
6
c
16
7
c
17
8
b
18
9
c
19
10
b
20
208

Legal Aspects of Banking-I
1.
Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under

a) Cr.CPC
(c)Banking Regulation Act
2.
A & b maintain a current account operated by E OR S . b has filed insolvency

petition and a cheque drawn by A is presented for payment. It would be in order
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
(b) IPC
(d) NI Act
to Pay the cheque

to return the cheque with the objection Bs confirmation required
to return the cheque with the reason joint account holder involved in an
solvency proceedings
none of the above
A Power of Attorney is terminated on the

(a)Death of the customer
(c) Insolvency of the customer
4.
Important portions of the Trust Deed relevant to the trust account must be entered
in the ..
(a) Branch Document Register
(c)Not to be entered
5.
(b) Lunacy of the customer

(d) All of the above
(b) Power of attorney register

(d) Trust Deed Register
When a trustee becomes insolvent the trust account which he is authorized to

operate
a) Must be closed
b) Must be closed & fresh a/c opened for future operations
c) Can be continued but operations watched carefully
d) That trustee should not be allowed to operate the account
6.
The statutory protection available to a collecting banker under Sec. 131 of NI Act is
available in case of-----------:
a) All cheques and drafts
c) Crossed cheques and drafts
7.
b) Only bearer instruments

d) none of these
Holder in due course is defined under section------of Negotiable Instrument Act.

a) 10
c) 9
b) 8
d) 18
209

8.
The account opening form of a partnership firm, admitting a minor to the benefits of
the partnership, vide Sec. 30(1) of Indian Partnership Act, with the consent of all
the partners, is signed by whom?
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
All partners, including the minor

All partners, authorised to operate on the account
All partners, including the dormant/sleeping partners, except the minor
Only Active Partners
A dishonoured Bill of Exchange, alongside evidence of dishonour, is required to be

noted with---a) Competent court
c) Notary Public/Oath commissioner
10
Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 permits institution of criminal
proceedings against persons who have issued cheques that have bounced?
a) Sec. 144
c) Sec. 138
11
b) 10
d) 20
While collecting cheques/bills etc. for a customer the bank acts as--------------------------a) An agent of the customer
c) A pledger
14
b) Pledge
d) Hypothecation
What is the maximum number of partners in a non-banking partnership firm?

a) 7
c) 12
13
b) Sec. 28
d) Sec. 50
A contract of Insurance is a contract of---------------------------:

a) Indemnity
c) Guarantee
12
b) Registrar of Societies/Firms
d)
None of the above
b) A trustee of the customer

d) A debtor
Protection under Section 131 of the N.I. Act is not available to collecting bankers
for the following: a)
b)
c)
e)
Cheques bearing account payee endorsements

Cheques bearing forged endorsements
Cheques with irregular endorsements
None of the above
210

15 A Holder in Due Course of a cheque does not get protection in case of-----------a) Irregularity in endorsement
b) Forging an endorsement
c) Default in the title of previous holder
16 The Negotiable Instruments Act allows 3 days of grace on-------------------------:
a) Cheques
c) Promissory Note
b) Usance Bills of Exchange

d) Demand Draft
17 Inchoate Negotiable Instrument means---------------------------------:

a) Post-dated instrument
c) Lost instrument
b) Pre-dated instrument
d) Incomplete Instrument
18 Negotiable Instrument does not deal with-------------------------:

a) Promissory Note
b) Bill of Exchange
c) Term Deposit Receipt
d) Cheques
19 In case of wrongful payment of a cheque the Bank is liable to------------a) Payee
c) Drawer
b) Holder
d) Holder-in-due-course
20 A banker collects a cheque on account of a customer who is not a true owner of the
instrument. The banker will be held liable for conversion unless:
a)
b)
c)
d)
21
22
The cheque was specially crossed to the collecting bank

The cheque was crossed Account Payee only
The cheque was crossed before it was deposited into the bank
The cheque was crossed before it was presented to the paying bank
In the case of dishonour of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment

under Section 138 of N.I. Act is---------:
a) Twice the amount of cheque
b) One year imprisonment
c) Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment
d) Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both
Rule in Claytons case has been incorporated in the------------------------:
a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
c) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

d) Indian Contract Act, 1872
211

23.
What is the maximum number of partners in a Banking partnership firm?

a) 7
c) 12
24.
A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a Cheque

signed by X is presented for payment. We should------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
b) 10
d) 20
Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order

Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y
Not pay the cheque; as such payment will not be payment in due course
None of these
A joint account is in the name of A and B with instructions " either or survivor". A
grants a power of attorney in favour of C. We should-------:
a) Not allow C to operate the account without oral confirmation of B.
b) Allow C to operate the account, as either of account holders is competent to
appoint an attorney
c) Not allow C to operate the account
d) Suggest B that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of
somebody
Key to Assignment: Legal Aspects of Banking-I

Q
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1.
d
11
a
21
d
2.
c
12
d
22
d
3.
d
13
a
23
b
4.
a
14
c
24
a
5.
C
15
A
25
C
6.
c
16
b
7.
c
17
d
8.
c
18
c
9.
c
19
c
10.
c
20
a
212

Legal Aspects of Banking-II
1.
Bankers general lien is defined under which of the following Act-------.

a) Sale of Goods Act
c) Negotiable Instrument Act
2.
The Bankers Lien on securities is treated as---------------a) Implied Pledge

c) A special right
3.
b) Transfer of Property Act

d) Indian Contract Act
b) Direct Pledge
A banker has following securities with him. Which of these is subject to bankers
general lien?
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Securities received for sale

Securities deposited upon a particular trust.
Securities left in bankers hands for an advance which has been declined
None of the above
What does the term particular lien denote--------------
a)
b)
c)
d)
Right to retain possession of goods in respect of which the dues have arisen
Right to keep the securities indefinitely
Right to sell the securities
Right to keep the securities for other dues
5. Because the banks right under general lien is an implied pledge, in case of default,
the bank, after giving a proper/reasonable notice to the borrower can-----------a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Convert general lien into a particular lien

Sell the security under certain circumstances without filing a suit
Can sell only after filing a suit
None of the above
A bank has a right called ----------to club two accounts (one of which has debit
balance and another has credit balance) in the same capacity, of customer:
a) Right of lien
c) Right of adjustment
b) Right of Set-off
d) Right of appropriation
7. Right of set off is exercisable, where the relationship is of_________

a) Bailor - Bailee
c) Debtor-Creditor, Creditor-Debtor
b) Lessor-Lessee
d) Principal-Agent
213
8. For which among the following, the banker can exercise its right of set off, in case of
need.
a) Debts which are to arise in future
b) Contingent debts of the customer
c) Funds deposited by the debtor for a specific purpose
d) For due and lawful debts
9. In respect of time barred debts, right of set off--------------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
is not available
can be exercised after obtaining permission from the court.
can be exercised after obtaining consent letter.
can be exercised if loan and deposit are in the same right/capacity.
10. X has a joint former or survivor account XY with his wife Y. X has an overdraft
account, where he is not paying dues. Can you exercise right of set off as a banker--------a) No, in joint accounts it is not possible
b) Yes, it is possible as the account is former or survivor
c) Yes, after obtaining consent of Y
d) Yes, after obtaining court order
11. Garnishee order is issued under which of the following-----------a)
b)
c)
d)
Civil Procedure code

Criminal Procedure code
Indian Contract Act.
Banking regulation Act.
12. A Garnishee order is issued by ------------a) The RBI to scheduled bank for stopping payment in an account.
b) The competent court for attaching funds due to a judgement debtor by a third
party for payment to the judgement creditor.
c) The Income Tax Recovery Officer attaching funds in the account maintained by
the bank.
d) The district Magistrate requiring the bank to remit to his office a certain sum of
money to the debit of particular account.
214

13. Attachment Order is issued by---------------a) The RBI to scheduled bank for stopping payment in an account.
b) The competent court for attaching funds due to a judgement debtor by a third
party for payment to the judgement creditor.
c) The Income Tax Recovery Officer attaching funds in the account maintained by
the bank.
d) The district Magistrate requiring the bank to remit to his office a certain sum of
money to the debit of particular account
14. In the process of issuing a Garnishee order court first issues-----------a)
b)
c)
d)
Order Nisi
Order primary
Order attachment
Order absolute
15. Who is a garnishee in case of a bank account, where a garnishee order is served?
a) Judgement debtor
b) Judgement creditor
c) Judgement debtors debtor
d) Cash credit customer
16. Your branch has received a garnishee order for the account of Mr. X. What is the
first action you are required to take?
a)
b)
c)
d)
After paying the amount to the court, the customer be informed.

After paying the amount to Judgement creditor, the customer be informed.
Stop operations and inform customer
None of the above
17. An attachment order is received from Income Tax Officer for attaching funds lying in
saving bank account of a person. What will be the consequences, in case, the bank
fails to execute this order u/s 226(3) of income tax Act:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Branch manager can be arrested.

Branch manager can be fined upto Rs. 5000 and sentenced upto one year.
The banker shall be treated as an assessee in default.
Amount can be recovered from the Bank, with penalty.
18. A bank has received on order under section 226(3) of the income tax act, 1961 in
the name of a customer who has a fixed deposit account, which is already matured.
Which of the following action the bank should take while making payment to the
income tax officer concerned?
215

a) The bank should insist for production of FDR duly charged by the party
b) The bank cannot insist for production of FDR
c) Production of FDR may be waived only if the income tax officer executes an
indemnity bond in favour of the bank.
d) None of these
19. Which of the following statement is correct in case your branch receives an
attachment order from the income tax authorities?
a) Your right of set off becomes inoperative
b)
You can exercise right of set off in respect of existing claims against the
customer
c) You can exercise the right of set off after obtaining an order from a competent
court
d) none of these
20. If the garnishee order is received on a firms account, what would be the position of
individual account of partners being maintained with same bank branch?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The order will be applicable

The order will not be applicable
It will be applicable through special order of court
None of the above
Key to Assignment :
Legal Aspects of Banking-II
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
d
11
a
2
a
12
b
3
d
13
c
4
a
14
a
5
b
15
c
6
b
16
c
7
c
17
c
8
d
18
b
9
d
19
b
10
b
20
a
216
SARFAESI ACT & CENTRAL REGISTRY

1.)
2.)
The SARFAESI Act is applicable for pledged securities also.

(True or false)
For the enforcement of a mortgage security, court intervention is
required even for actions under the SARFAESI Act. (True or False)
3.)
After receipt of notice from the secured creditor for repayment of dues by
the borrower, the borrower is legally prevented from transferring his
property in any way. (True or False)
4.)
On request of the secured creditor the District Magistrate or the Chief

judicial Magistrate can take possession of the security for handing over
it to the creditor. (True or False)
5.)
When the management of the company is taken over by the secured

creditor, the directors of such company are entitled to compensation for
loss of office. (True or False)
6)
A securitization or reconstruction company needs registeration from RBI

for commencement of business. (True or False)
7).
Right of acquisition of a financial asset by the securitization company

or reconstruction company is subject to the prior agreements or
contracts about the asset . . (True or False)
8).
Acquisition of a financial asset by the securitization company or

reconstruction company is with the liability also over such an asset.
(True or False)
9).
The security receipts issued by the securitization or reconstruction

company requires registration. . (True or False)
10).
SARFAESI Act is applicable to the Regional Rural Banks.

(True or False)
11).
Mortgage or asset backed debt instruments can be issued by the

securitization company or reconstruction company to the general
public. . (True or False)
12).
SARFAESI Act is applicable only when there is security.

(True or False)
217
13).
Has SARFAESI Act defined hypothecation and whether the Act is

applicable to hypothecation security? . (True or False)
14).
After coming into operation ,the provisions relating to central registry

the banks and financial institutions will have to register all security
interests created in the asset. . (True or False)
15)
A guarantor to the loan is within the meaning of the word borrowed

under SARFAESI Act (True or False)
16)
Banks and financial institutions can issue notice for enforcement over
security under SARFAESI Act only if these securities are not
__________ creditor and only when the account is classified as
___________
17.)
If the borrower does not pay within ___________ days after notice by
the secured creditor the creditor can __________ of the security.
18)
Which are the four documents involved for the securitization

transaction?
19)
For each such acquired or to be acquired asset by the securitization or

reconstruction company there should be --------------- scheme.
20).
When the securitization or reconstruction company issues security

receipts, the holder thereof is entitled to a -------------in the financial
asset.
21).
Any direction issued by the RBI under SARFAESI act has ---------effect and is ------------on the parties concernerd.
22).
Asset reconstruction means -------------- by any securitization

company or reconstruction company of any right or interest of the
creditor in any------
23).
The period stipulated in the Act for filing details of security interest is
-------days.
24).
Duty to report satisfaction of charge to the central registerar is on the

creditor or on the borrower ?
218

25).
Besides the SARFAESI Act ,some other laws requires some

registration of charge created in the property. Is such double
registration avoidable?
a) Yes, the creditor can choose under such law he needs
registration.
b) No, registration under the SARFAESI Act as well as any other
applicable law will have to be madeas the SARFAESI Act is not
subsititution of any other law.
c) Yes, if one charge noting is by a registered document.
d) No, as the Civil Court and DRT still have jurisdiction against the
properties both registration.
26.)
When any bank or financial institutions obtain a charge against

property, with which will the transaction have to be registered under
the SARFAESI Act, 2002?
a.) With the central Registry.
b.) With the ROC.
c.) With the registrar of Assurance within whose jurisdiction the property lies.
d.) With the Reserve Bank of India.
27.)
When can the provision of SARFAESI Act, 2002 be invoked for

proceeding against the charged property?
a.) When the bank feels that it is necessary for the recovery at any
time.
b.) When the RBI directs to do so.
c.) When there is default in repayment by the borrower.
d.) When there is default in repayment and the bank declares the
account as NPA.
28).
Whether existing or future receivable are property?

a.) Yes.
b.) No.
c.) Yes, but if and when charged to the leader.
d.) NO, if hypothecated to the leader.
29)
From the following which function is of a securitization company?

Acquisition of loan transaction from the lender.
Help the lender in recovery by sale of charged property.
Take legal steps against the defaulter borrower on behalf of the
lender.
d.)
Acquisition of financial assets from the originator.
a.)
b.)
c.)
219

ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
False
False
True
True
False
true
False
False
False
False
False
True
True
True
True
In possession,NPA
Sixty,take possession
offer document,debenture,agreement,security receipt
Separate
Undivided interest
Statutory,binding
Acquisition,financial assistance
30
Creditor
b
a
d
a
d
220
1.
Advances General
Two firm are said to be identical when
a)
b)
c)
d)
Partners of the firms are the same

When two firms have some common partners
When the two firms have any common partner
When the two firms have same name
2.
Minimum number of directors in a public limited company must be.
a)
3.
b) 10
c) 12
d) 3
e) None of these
Which among the following is not found in the MOA of a Company?

a)
c)
4.
Objectives of the company

Borrowing powers of the directors
b)Authorised Capital
d)Registered Office
A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of .years or

more the persons who would have normally known of his existence have not
heard of him/known of his existence.
a) 12 yrs
b)7 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d)3 yrs
5.With with does section 45Z of Banking Regulation Act ,1949 deals with?
a)Return of unclaimed deposits
c)Maintenance of Currency chests
b)Permission to open branches

d(Nomination Facility
6.As per the Indian Limitation Act, an equitable mortgage becomes time-barred after
____ years.
a) 3
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
7.The certificate to commence business is to be called for, for perusal and return for
opening of an account of:
a) Public Limited Company
c) Private Limited Company
b) Club & Association

d) Partnership firms
8.Articles of association of a company contains details regarding:

a)
b)
c)
d)

Authorized capital of the company
Matter related to the conduct of day-to-day business of the company
Registered office of the company
221
9.Accounts in the name of companies can be opened without certificate of

commencement of business in the case of ___:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Public Limited Companies

Public Limited Companies with an authorised share capital of Rs. 1.00 crore
Private Limited Companies
None of these
10.In the matter of a Joint Stock Company, the term negative lien means:
a) A lien which does not confer on the bank a right of sale of asset
b) Where a company, through its own resolution is restrained from creating further
charge on its assets
c) Where a charge created in favour of the bank is not registered with the Registrar of
Companies
d) The charge is in the nature of only a floating charge on its assets.
11.In the case of joint stock company, the registration of charge with the Registrar of
Companies is not necessary:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Against the pledge of movable property

Against hypothecation of movable property
Against assignment of book debts
Against mortgage of fixed assets
12.Hypothecation advances granted to partnership undertakings should be registered

with:
a)
c)
The Registrar of Companies

The Registrar of Firms
b) The Registrar of Assurance

d) Do not require any registration
13.If a married woman is a borrower and does not repay bank dues, it can be
recovered:
a) From her husband
c) From her husbands estate
b) From her separate estate

14.Guarantees are defined in:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 b) Banking Regulation Act 1949
c) Indian Contract Act 1872
d) RBI Act 1934
222

15.The mortgage has been defined under section _____of Transfer of Property act:
a) 57
c) 59
b) 58
d) 60
16.In the event of mortgage of immovable property, which of the following is true..
a) Ownership is transferred
c) A specific interest is created
b) Right is transferred
17.For creating an equitable mortgage, which of the following is required:

a) Original Title Deed
c) Attested copy of the title deed
b) Photocopy of the title deed

d) Only Furd (Girdawari)
18.In case of mortgage of immovable property as collateral security, a search report

from legal counsel is insisted upon for____ years:
a) 8
c) 12
b) 10
d) 30
19.When a debt is offered as security, which charge should be created:

a) Assignment
c) Pledge
b) Hypothecation
20.The charge assignment is governed by the provisions of:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 b) Transfer of property Act
d) RBI Act 1934
21.When loan is to be granted against the security of a LIC policy, which charge is to be
created:
a) Mortgage
c) Assignment
b) Hypothecation
d) Pledge
22.After the repayment of the loan secured by assignment of debt the charge is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Transferred in favour of borrower

Endorsed in favour of the borrower
Re-assigned in favour of the borrower
None of the above
223

23. If the assignor is a Ltd. Co., whether the registration of charge u/s 125 of
Companies Act is necessary:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Yes
Not necessary
Preferable, in the interest of the bank
none of the above
24.Hypothecation is defined in:

a) Indian Contract Act 1872
c) Negotiable Instrument Act
b) Transfer of Property Act

d) SERFASI
25.The pledge is defined under section __________of Indian Contract Act.:

a) 172
c) 372
b) 272
Advances - General
Q
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1.
a
11
a
21
c
2
d
12
d
22
c
3
c
13
b
23
a
4
b
14
c
24
d
5
d
15
b
25
a
6
d
16
c
7
a
17
a
8
c
18
c
9
c
19
a
10
b
20
b
224

Advances General matters-I
1.
The companies are required to seek an extension of time from the concerned
Registrar of Companies, if audited accounts are not approved by shareholders at
annual general meeting within months.
a.
3
b.
6
c.
9
d.
12
2.
The Bank Guarantees are covered undera.

Sale of Goods Act
b.
N.I. Act
c.
Indian Contract Act
d.
Companies Act
3.
MCA 21 relates to _____

a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
Master of Computer Appreciation

Ministry of Company Affairs
Member Chartered Accountant
Registration of Charge with ROC
Which new e-forms will be used for creation/modification/satisfaction of charge with

ROC
a) 8, 10, 13
c) 8, 10, 17
5.
b)
d)
31-05-2006
31-07-2006
Authorised officials of the branches should obtain Digital Signature Certificates

(DSC) from IDRBT before _______
a) 30-04-2006
c) 30-06-2006
7.
8, 10, 15
8, 10, 19
For filing the charge for registration, documents in physical form are not been
accepted after ______
a) 30-04-2006
c) 30-06-2006
6.
b)
d)
b)
d)
31-05-2006
31-07-2006
Small Business Credit Card has been rechristened as ______

a) SME Credit Card
c) Kisan Credit Card
b)
d)
SME Credit Plus

Kisan Gold Card
225
8.
Working capital limit for SSI units upto Rs. 5.00 crore should be assessed as per
________method
a) Operating Cycle
c) Nayak Committee
9.
b)
d)
Projected Annual Turnover

None of above
Which of the following is not a Current Assets

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Traditional
Projected Balance Sheet
Working capital limit for C& I (Mfg) units upto Rs. 5.00 crore should be assessed as
per _____method
a) Traditional Method
c) Projected Balance Sheet
10.
b)
d)
Advance given to supplier

Prepaid expenses
Dues from partners
Interest accrued on investment
Cost of Sales is _______

a)
Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses including

depreciation
b) Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses excluding
depreciation
c) Cost of Production plus indirect expenses
d) Cost of production plus opening stocks of semi-finished and finished
goods minus closing stocks of semi-finished and finished goods
12.
Profit Volume Ratio is _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
Gross Profit divided by Turnover

Profit % of selling price
Net Profit % of Cost of sales
Contribution % of Selling Price
When there is no production, the net loss will be equal to ____

a) Fixed Costs
c) Total Costs
b)
d)
Variable Costs
Break even sales
226

14.
Break Even Point for sales is equal to _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Cash Accrual is _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
Selling price per unit X Fixed Cost/Contribution

Sales Cost of Sales/Sales
Fixed Cost/Contribution
None of above
Cash received minus cash paid during the year

Profit Before Interest and tax plus depreciation
Profit after interest and tax plus depreciation
Savings with housewives
DSCR calculated to ensure the repayment of Term Loan indicates, units,

a) Liquidity
c) Solvency
17.
Applicant, Beneficiary and Guarantor

Debtor, Creditor and Surety
Promiser, Promisee and Bank
None of above
The objective of Funds Flow Analysis is _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
Ensure term loan repayment

Ensure end use of credit
To check margin for working capital
All of above
Funds Flow Analysis is done if a unit has availed working capital limit of _______
a) Rs. 5 lac and above
c) Rs. 20 lac and above
20.
Profitability
Turnover
Various Parties to a Bank Guarantee are _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Rs. 10 lac and above

Rs. 25 lac and above
Profit from normal business and retained in the business are termed as _____
a) Revenue Reserve
c) Statutory Reserve
b)
d)
Capital Reserve
None of above
227

21.
Banks charge on the assets of a company, has to be registered with the

Registrar of Companies under Indian Companies Act within ____days
a) 10
c) 30
22.
Ranking equally in priority

Ranking in proportion to the lenders share in total advances
Ranking as per the ranks of individual bank
Ranking as per CRISIL Rating
In a Funds Flow Analysis, FUNDS refer to _____

a) Cash
c) Net Working Capital
24.
20
45
Pari Passu charge refers to _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Working Capital Gap

All financial Resources
To verify the CAPITAL CLAUSE of a company as a banker, the document

needs to be checked is _______
a) Memorandum of Association b) Articles of Association
c) Certificate of Incorporation
d) Certificate of commencement
of Business
ADVANCES GENERAL MATTERS-I
1
6
11
16
21
b
c
d
c
c
2
7
12
17
22
c
a
d
a
a
3
8
13
18
23
d
c
a
b
d
4
9
14
19
24
c
b
a
d
a
5
10
15
20
c
c
c
a
228

Advances General matters-II
1. Debt in a balance sheet refers to _____
a) Outside Liabilities
c) Term Liabilities
b)
d)
Current Liabilities
None of above
b)
d)
Fixed Assets
None of above
2. Block Assets means _____

a) Goodwill
c) Non moving assets
3. Equity refers to ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Capital, Reserves & Surplus and Retained Profit

Equity shares
Capital and Term Liabilities
None of above
4. In SWOT ANALYSIS, S stands for Strength, W for Weakness, O for

Opportunities and T for _____
a) Technology
c) Threats
b)
d)
Technical ability
None of above
b)
d)
Importing goods
None of above
5. Packing Credit is granted for _____

a) Packing goods
c) Advance against Exports
6. In case of bank guarantee issued to ensure for prompt payment of instalments

for the machinery/equipment purchased, the type of guarantee issued is
a) Financial
c) Bid-Bond
b)
d)
Performance
Deferred Payment
7. Centres for creating equitable mortgage are _____

a)
b)
c)
d)
All district headquarters

Centres approved by Local Head Office
Notified as per Transfer of Property Act
Notified by RBI
229

8.
Ability to meet immediate liabilities of a unit is indicated by ______

a)
c)
9.
Quick Ratio
TOL/TNW
b)
d)
DER
DSCR
Which of the following denotes to liquidity ratios

a) DER and TOL/TNW
b) DER and Current Ratio
c) Current Ratio and Quick Ratio d) TOL/TNW and DSCR
10.
How Statutory liabilities will be classified in the Balance Sheet?

a)
c)
11.
b)
d)
Non Current Assets

Current Assets
How the liabilities i.e. tax and dividend payable etc which are known but
not provided for, are classified?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
Non Current Liabilities

Current Liabilities
Provide for these liabilities as Current Liabilities

Treat as Misc. Liabilities
Classify as Term Liabilities
Deduct from Profit
Sensitivity analysis refers to _____

a) Technique of determining the effect of changes in Cost of Raw Material,
Sales and Selling Price
b) Technique of determining effect of technology on products
c) Technique of determining effect of competition
d) None of above
13.
Contribution means ______

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
Excess of revenue over variable cost

Excess of revenue over fixed cost
Excess of revenue over total cost
Excess of revenue over operating cost
What is Working Capital Gap (WCG)?

a) Current Assets minus Current Liabilities
b) Fixed Assets minus Term Liabilities
c) Current Assets minus Current Liabilities excluding bank borrowings
d) None of above
230

15.
What is bridge loan?

a) Loan for construction of bridges
b) Interim loan made available pending long term arrangements by raising
equity and MTL etc.
c) Working Capital Loan to meet long term requirements
d) None of above
16.
The Bench Mark for Current Ratio is ____

a)
c)
17.
Mortgage
Lien
b)
d)
Hypothecation
Assignment
Sundry Creditors
Sundry Debtors
b)
d)
Receivable from Govt.

Raw Material Receivable
Cash Budget Method is used for assessing working capital requirement in

case of _________
a)
c)
20.
1.25
1.50
Receivables in a Balance Sheet refers to _____

a)
c)
19.
b)
d)
In case of Cash Credit limit against Book Debts, what will be the primary
security?
a)
c)
18.
1.00
1.33
SSI units
Seasonal Industry/Construction Co.
b)
d)
C&I Units
All of above
While assessing Working Capital Requirement, the margin money held on

account of LCs/BGs issued will be treated as _____
a)
c)
Fixed Asset
Intangible Asset
b)
d)
Current Asset
Non-Current Asset
KEY
231

Advances General matter-II
1
6
11
16
c
d
a
c
2
7
12
17
b
c
a
b
3
8
13
18
a
a
a
c
4
9
14
19
c
c
c
c
5
10
15
20
c
c
b
b
232

Advances General matter -III
1.
How many declarations are there in Fair Lending Practices Code (FLPC)
a) 4
c) 8
2.
Interest rate change is to be advised to customers

Bank shall deliver a copy of loan document to the customer
It is a voluntary code adopted by bank
None of above
Loans to SSI are collateral free upto Rs. _____lacs as per RBI Guidelines
a) 1
c) 5
4.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Agriculturist
All of above
Which type of credit facility will be provided to the borrowers against

CWC/SWC Receipts
a) Demand Loan
c) Term Loan
7.
Exchange
Discount
Financed against Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC)/State

Warehousing Corporation (SWC) Receipts can be granted to _____
a) Manufacturers
b)
c) Traders dealing in Commodities d)
6.
3
10
Pre-payment charges on Term Loan should be credited to _____account

a) Interest
c) Commission
5.
6
10
Which of the followings is incorrect in respect of FLPC

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Both (a) & (b)
Demand Loan against CWC/SWC Receipts will be restricted to ___% of the

value of the warehouse receipt valued at market value OR ___% of the
minimum support price (MSP) declared by STATE/CENTRAL Govt.,
whichever is lower.
a) 50, 60
c) 75, 80
b)
d)
60, 70
80, 90
233

8.
For finance against CWC/SWC Receipts, the Primary Security will be ____
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
For finance against CWC/SWC Receipts, the Collateral Security will be ____
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Personal Guarantee of partners or major shareholders

Hypothecation of Goods
Charge over warehouse receipt
All of above
Personal Guarantee of partners or major shareholders

Hypothecation of Goods
Charge over warehouse receipt
All of above
Loan granted against CWC/SWC Receipts will be repaid in a maximum

period of ____months
a) 3
c) 9
11.
Weekly
Monthly
b)
d)
75
200
A manufacturing and Trade & Service business unit can be defined as SME if
its turnover is upto Rs. _____crore
a) 10
c) 20
14.
b)
d)
Composite loan to SSI sector has been enhanced from Rs. 50 lacs to Rs.
_______lacs
a) 60
c) 100
13.
6
12
Margins for loan granted against CWC/SWC Receipts should be topped up

on ____basis
a) Daily
c) Fortnightly
12.
b)
d)
b)
d)
50
25
RBI has fixed prudential exposure norms @ _____% of total capital funds to
single borrower
a) 5
c) 15
b)
d)
10
20
234

15.
single borrower including additional exposure of 5% for infrastructure
financing
a) 5
c) 15
16.
b)
d)
group borrowers
a) 20
c) 40
17.
10
20
b)
d)
30
50
group borrowers including additional exposure of 10% for infrastructure
financing
a) 20
c) 40
b)
d)
30
50
KEY
Advances General matter -III
1
6
11
16
c
d
c
c
2
7
12
17
d
c
c
d
3
8
13
c
c
b
4
9
14
a
a
c
5
10
15
c
d
d
235
Advances General matter -IV

1.
Articles of association of a company contains details regarding:

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.

Accounts in the name of companies can not be opened without certificate of

commencement of business in the case of
a) Public Limited Companies
b) Public Limited Companies with an authorised share capital of
cr.
c) Private Limited Companies
d) None of these
3.
In the case of joint stock company, the registration of charge with the Registrar of
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

For creating an equitable mortgage, which of the following is required:

a)
c)
5.
Original Title Deed

Attested copy of the title deed

A DP note obtained without affixing revenue stamps .

a) can not be Rectified
c) no effect
6.
Rs. 1.00
b) can be admitted as evidence.

d) both a & b
In SWOT ANALYSIS, S stands for Strength, W for Weakness, O for

Opportunities and T for _____
a) Technology
c) Threats
b)
d)
Technical ability
None of above
236

7.
Non registration of a firm with the Registrar of Assurances attracts the following
disability
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Creditors can not sue the firm

The firm cannot sue the debtors
Partnership cannot be wound up
Firm cannot borrow from the bank
Which one classification of Preference Shares is incorrect

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Current Liabilities if falling due in next 12 months

Term Liabilities
Term Liabilities if falling due in next 12 years
None of the above
As per Loan policy TOL/TNW benchmark for Manufacturing Units is

a) 2
10.
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
As per Loan Policy TOL/TNW benchmark for Traders is

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
KEY
KEY : Advances General matter IV
1
6
c
c
2
7
a
b
3
8
a
c
4
9
a
b
5
10
d
c
237

LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING-I
1.
In the case of dishonour of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment

under Section 138 of N.I. Act is---------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Twice the amount of cheque

One year imprisonment
Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment
Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both
Rule in Claytons case has been incorporated in the------------------------:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
c) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
3.
What is the maximum number of partners in a Banking partnership firm?

a) 7
c) 12
4.
b) 10
d) 20
A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a

Cheque signed by X is presented for payment. We should------:
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order

Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y
Not pay the cheque; as such payment will not be payment in due course
None of these
A joint account is in the name of A and B with instructions " either or survivor". A
grants a power of attorney in favour of C. We should-------:
a) Not allow C to operate the account without oral confirmation of B.
b) Allow C to operate the account, as either of account holders is competent to
appoint an attorney
c) Not allow C to operate the account
d) Suggest B that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of
somebody
6.
As per recent direction of RBI, a bank can collect an account payee cheque for any
person other than the payee constituent, provided.
a)
b)
c)
d)
the payee has mandated for it

the drawer withdraw the account payee mandate
both a and b above
neither a nor b above
238

7.
The companies are required to seek an extension of time from the concerned
Registrar of Companies, if audited accounts are not approved by shareholders at
annual general meeting within months.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
8.
KYC norms are applicable in following cases

a.All new account
b.All new account and old accounts with High value transactions
c.All cash transactions
d.All accounts
9.
Customer has be defined in

a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
NI Act
BR Act
COPRA Act
KYC Guidelines
Sec. 45ZA of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with?

a. Returned of unclaimed deposits
b. Permission to open new branches
c. Maintenance of liquid assets
d. Nomination facility
11.
Unclaimed deposits are classified by the bank as .. liabilities

a. Time
b. Current
c. Deferred
d. None of these
12.
The Bank Guarantees are covered undera. Sale of Goods Act

b. N.I.Act
c. Indian Contract Act
d. Companies Act
239

13.
When do we honour payment of a cheque in cash after business hours?

a. If it is presented by any person
b. If it is presented by the payee
c. If it is presented by the drawer
d. If it is presented by the person known to bank officials
Answers
LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING I
1.
6
11
d
b
b
2
7
12
d
b
c
3
8
13
b
d
c
4
9
a
d
5
10
c
d
240

LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING -II
1.
If a person is declared as insolvent, he will remain so till:

a) He lives.
b) Court gives discharge certificate
c) He starts another business
2.
If a married woman is a borrower and does not repay bank dues, it can be
recovered:
a) From her husband
b) From her separate estate
c) From her husbands estate
3.
The person on whose behalf the guarantee is issued is called:

a) Applicant
b) Beneficiary
c) Guarantor
4.
Guarantees are defined in:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
b) Banking Regulation Act 1949

d) RBI Act 1934
5.
Bailment has been defined in which section_____ of Indian Contract act 1872:
a) 247
b) 147
c) 148
d) 347
6.
The mortgage has been defined under section _____of Transfer of Property act:
a) 57
b) 58
c) 59
d) 60
7.
When the immovable property is mortgaged then:

a) Ownership is transferred
c) A specific interest is created
8.
For creating an equitable mortgage____ is required:

a) Original of the title deed
c) Attested copy of the title deed
9.

A search report from legal counsel is insisted upon for____ years:

a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 30
241

10. When a debt is offered as security, which charge should be created:
a) Assignment
c) Pledge
b) Hypothecation
11. The charge assignment is governed by the provisions of:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
b) Transfer of property Act

d) RBI Act 1934
12. When loan is to be granted against the security of a LIC policy, which charge is to
be created:
a) Mortgage
b) Hypothecation
c) Assignment
d) Pledge
13. After the repayment of the loan secured by assignment of debt the charge is:
a) Transferred in favour of borrower b) Endorsed in favour of the borrower
c) Re-assigned in favour of the borrower d) None of the above
14. If the assignor is a Ltd. Co., whether the registration of charge u/s 125 of
Companies Act is necessary:
a) Yes
b) Not necessary
c) In the interest of the bank
15. Under Transfer of Property act..would mean transfer of actionable
claim:
a)
Assignment
b)
Mortgage
c)
Negotiation
d)
Pledge
16. In the case of dishonour of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment
under Section 138 of N.I. Act is:
a) Twice the amount of cheque
b) One year imprisonment
c) Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment
d) Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both
17. Rule in Claytons case has been incorporated in the:
a)Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
c)
Indian Partnership Act, 1932
d)
242

18. A cheque is issued on 05-02-09 with remarks "valid upto 05-03-09." The cheque
presented for payment on 10-03-09 should be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Returned with the reason" cheque contains extraneous matter"

Can be paid because it is within 6 months from the date of issue
Returned with reason "requires revalidation"
Returned with reason "insufficient funds"
19. A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a

Cheque signed by X is presented for payment. We should:
a) Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order
b) Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y
c) Not pay the cheque, as such a payment will not be payment in due course
d) None of these
20. A joint account is in the name of Hari and Krishna with instructions " either or
survivor". Hari grants a power of attorney in favour of Lakshman. We should:
a) Not allow Lakshman to operate the account without oral confirmation of Krishna
b) Allow Lakshman to operate the account, as either of account holders is
competent to appoint an attorney
c) Not allow Lakshman to operate the account
d) Suggest Krishna that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of
somebody
21.
As per the Indian Limitation Act, an equitable mortgage becomes time barred
after ____ years.
a)
c)
22.
b) 6
d) 12
The certificate to commence business is to be called for, for perusal and return
for opening of an account of:
a)
c)
23.
3
10
Public Limited Company

Private Limited Company
b) Club & Association

d) Partnership firms
Articles of association of a company contains details regarding:

a)
b)
c)
d)

243
24.
Accounts in the name of companies can not be opened without certificate of

commencement of business in the case of ___:
a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
In the case of joint stock company, the registration of charge with the Registrar of
a)
b)
c)
d)
26.
Original Title Deed

Attested copy of the title deed

In case of mortgage of immovable property as collateral security, a search report

from legal counsel is insisted upon for____ years:
a)
c)
30.
Ownership is transferred
A specific interest is created
For creating an equitable mortgage, which of the following is required:

a)
c)
29.
The Registrar of Companies b) The Registrar of Assurance

The Registrar of Firms
d) Do not require any registration
In the event of mortgage of immovable property, which of the following is true..

a)
c)
28.

Hypothecation advances granted to partnership undertakings should be

registered with:
a)
c)
27.
Public Limited Companies

Public Limited Companies with an authorised share capital of Rs. 1.00 crore
Private Limited Companies
None of these
8
12
b) 10
d) 30
IRAC norms were introduced from the year ending as on 31 st March

a) 1992
b)1993
c) 1991
244
KEY
LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING-II
1.
2.
b.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10. a
11. b
12. c
13. c
14. a
15. a
16. d
17. d
18. c
19. a
20. c
21. d
22. a
23. c
24. a
25. a
26. d
27.c
28. a
29. d
30. b
245
ASSIGNMENT 1
NRE ACCOUNTS
1 Who can open an NRE Account?
a) Indian nationals whose stay abroad is more than 182 days in the previous
financial year.
b) Indian resident who have gone abroad for studies, business, profession or
gainful employment indicating indefinite stay abroad.
c) PIOs and their Spouse
d) Officials of Central/State Govt./PSU serving abroad and persons deputed
abroad with international agencies like IMF & WHO etc.
e) All of the above
2 The balance along with interest in NRE account can be repatriated with the
permission of __________
a) RBI
c) Commerce Ministry
b)
d)
Ministry of Finance
No permission required
3 NRE account can be opened in the form of ________

a) C/A
c) TDR
b)
d)
S/B
All of above
4 Joint NRE account can be opened, if _____

a) All the account holders are persons of Indian Nationality who have gone
abroad for business, profession or gainful employment for indefinite stay
b) PIO with spouse even he/she is foreign national
c) Only first applicant to be NRI and others can be resident Indian.
d) All of the above
e) Either of (a) & (b)
5 Operation of NRE Account by third party can be permitted by ADs _______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Under a Power of Attorney

Letter of authority in the prescribed format
Either of (a) or (b)
None of the above
246
Which of the following credit transactions are permitted into NRE Account?
a) Transfer from any other NR (E) account of the same account holder
b) Transfer from FCNB of account holder
c) Transfer of funds between NRE Accounts of different persons held with
same AD or different ADs
d) All of the above
Which of the following debit transactions are permitted from NR (E) account?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Local withdrawal
Transfer to any other NR (E) account of the account holder
Transfer to FCNB account of the account holder
All of the above
Which of the following credit transactions are allowed in NR (E) Account?

a) Proceeds of remittance in freely convertible foreign currency received from
abroad in an approved manner
b) Proceeds of foreign currency/bank notes/travelers cheques etc. by the
account holder during his temporary visit to India
c) Interest/dividend earned on Govt. Securities purchased from the funds in
NR (E) Account
d) All of above
Which of the following debit transactions, ADs can authorize in NR (E)

account?
a) Permissible investments in shares/security/commercial paper of Indian
companies
b) Purchase of immovable property
c) Both (a) & (b)
10
Which of the following debit transactions, ADs can allow in NR(E) account
subject to report to RBI on Form A 2?
a) Remittance to the country of residence of account holder
b) Sale of foreign currency travelers cheques, to the account holder or
dependents on production of evidence of travel abroad
c) Sale of F.C.Notes upto the equivalent of USD 2000
d) All of above
247
11
NRE Savings Bank opened with zero balance will be operationalised if the
remittance is received in the account within a period of _______days
a) 30 days
c) 21 days
12
Investment other than in Agr. plantation and real estate

Direct investment on non-repatriation basis
Acquisition of house/flats for their residential uses subject to FEMA
All of above
ADs can grant FC loans to the NRIs minimum to the tune of Rs._______
a)
b)
c)
d)
14
60 days
None of the above
ADs can grant loan to NRE for the following purpose

a)
b)
c)
d)
13
b)
d)
USD25000/GBP15000/EURO 20000
USD15000/GBP10000/EURO 10000
USD30000/GBP20000/EURO 25000
No limit
ADs can grant FC loans to the NRIs against their deposits maximum to the
tune of Rs._______
a) Equivalent to Rs.50 lacs
c) Equivalent to Rs. 20 lacs
15
ADs can grant _______to NRE account holders

a) Overdraft
c) Either a or b
16
b)
d)
Demand Loan
None of these
If a non-resident account holder returns to India for permanent settlement, his

account will be designated as _______
a) Resident Account
c) Either a or b
17
b) Equivalent to Rs.100 lacs

d) No limit
b)
d)
RFC ( HCD)
RFC ( Domestic)
TDR/STDR under NRE Account can be opened for a period of :

a)
b)
c)
d)
Minimum1 year and maximum 10 years

Minimum1 year and maximum 5 years
Minimum6 months and maximum 10 years
None of the above
248
18.
Which of the following statement/s is/are true in the case of PIOs :

a) To Exclude Pakistan, Bangladesh for Bank Accounts
b) + Srilanka for investment in firms;
c)
+ Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, Iran, Nepal, Sri Lanka for
acquisition / transfer of immovable property
19.
What type of transaction is permitted by the Power of Attorney

Holder ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
Withdrawals for local payments and

Remittance to the account holder himself under a specific power.
Facilitate investments in India in case NRI is permitted to do the same
All of the above.
What type of transaction is not permitted by the Power of Attorney

Holder ?
a) Repatriate funds held in accounts outside India for any other
purpose
b) make payment of gifts on behalf of the account holder
c) transfer funds from the said account to another NRE account.
d) All of the above
21.
NRI/PIO may remit an amount up to USD one million, per financial year,
out of the balances held in his Non- Resident (Ordinary) Rupee (NRO) account /
sale proceeds of assets (inclusive of assets acquired by way of inheritance or
settlement), for all bonafide purposes, subject to
a)
b)
c)
d)
the satisfaction of the Authorized Dealer bank,

on production of an undertaking by the remitter,
certificate by a Chartered Accountant in the formats prescribed by CBDT
All of the above.
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT 1(IB)

1
6
11
16
d
d
b
c
2
7
12
17
d
d
d
b
3
8
13
18
21
d
d
a
d
d
4
9
14
19
c
c
b
d
5
10
15
20
c
d
c
d
249
ASSIGNMENT 2
( FCNB )
1
Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) account can be opened in

____designated currencies
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
6
Which are the new currencies permitted for opening FCNR (B) account?
a) USD, GBP
c) INR, GBP
b)
d)
AUD, EURO
Can Dollar, AUD
The following types of accounts can be opened under FCNR (B)
a) S/B
b)
C/A
c) TDR/STDR
d)
All of above
FCNR (B) account can be opened for a minimum period of _____year
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
4
Interest on FCNR (B) deposit for a period of _______is calculated on actual

number of days without any compounding effect
a) 1 year
c) 3 years
2
5
The maximum period for which FCNR (B) account can be opened is
_____years
a) 1
c) 5
b)
d)
b)
d)
2 years
5 years
Interest on FCNR (B) deposit for a period of _____is calculated for every
block of 180 days and thereafter for the remaining actual number of days with
compounding effect
a) More than 1 year
c) More than 3 years
b)
d)
More than 2 years

More than 5 years
250

8
What is the minimum amount of USD/GBP/EURO deposit, (designated

foreign currency) under FCNR (B)?
a) 500
c) 2000
GMU Kolkatta
Respective RBO
b)
d)
Weekly
Monthly
b)
d)
14
28
For premature withdrawal under FCNR (B) deposit, interest is payable

____% less than the rate applicable to the period for which the deposit
remained with the bank
a) 0.5
c) 1.5
14
b)
d)
Deposit under FCNR (B) which remained overdue for more than _____days,
cannot be renewed from the date of maturity
a) 7
c) 21
13
200000
500000
The reporting of FCNR (B) transactions to GMU Kolkatta is _____

a) Daily
c) Fortnightly
12
b)
d)
Transactions pertaining to FCNR (B) will be reported to _____

a) RBI
c) Respective LHO
11
1000
5000
Minimum amount of JPY _____currency can be accepted as deposit under

FCNR (B)
a) 100000
c) 300000
10
b)
d)
b)
d)
1.0
No penalty is to be levied
If deposit under FCNR (B) is withdrawn before the completion of one year
from the date of deposit, what interest is payable to the depositor?
a) 1% less than contract rate
c) No interest to be paid
b)
d)
2% less than contract rate

None of above
251

15
At the end of each calendar quarter, branches are reporting to GMU Kolkatta
through Quarterly Statement 1, pertaining to ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
16
Currency wise balances of FCNR (B) Deposits

Transfer of FCNR (B) Interest paid balance
Both (a) & (b)
None of above
At the end of each calendar quarter, branches are reporting toGMU Kolkatta
through Quarterly Statement 2, pertaining to ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
17
Currency wise balances of FCNR (B) Deposits

Transfer of FCNR (B) Interest paid balance
Both (a) & (b)
None of above
Which of the following statement is not correct in the case of FCNR(B)

accounts:
a) Interest is linked to LIBOR of USD
b) Interest rates regulated by RBI. No bank can pay more interest.
c) Interest is linked to LIBOR of respective currencies
d) Both b & c
18. Mr. Sharma comes to India on a temporary visit. He wants to open FCNB
deposit for USD 25000/-. He tenders USD currency notes for this purpose. He
also has FCTC for USD 10000 with which he wants to open an NRE account.
How will you handle the transaction ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
NRIs during their temporary visits to India can deposit FCNotes & FCTCs in their
accounts as also open new accounts with FCN & FCTC.
Bank to verify and ensure that FCN in excess of USD 5000 FCTC in excess of
USD 10000, FCN+FCTC in excess of USD 10000 are declared in CDF.
Bank to ensure that the customer continues to be NRI.
Preclosure of FCNB issued against FCN/FCTC will not be at TT buying rates
hence noting to be given on the FCNB deposit receipt.
All of the above are applicable.
19. Conversion of NRE TDR/STDR to FCNB or Vice versa before maturity

attracts penal interest provisions as usual :
a)
True
b)
False
20. On account of NRI returning to India, FCNR/ NRE Term deposit can continue
till maturity :
a) True
b) False
252
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT 2 (IB) ( FCNB )

1
6
11
16
d
a
a
b
2
7
12
17
d
a
b
a
3
8
13
18
c
b
b
e
4
9
14
19
a
a
c
a
5
10
15
20
c
b
a
a
253
ASSIGNMENT 3
RFC ACCOUNTS
1
NRI returning to India, can open ________account in foreign currency

a) NRE
c) RFC (HCD)
2000
5000
b)
d)
C/A
All of above
Returning Indian who has been NRI for minimum one year.
Joint (Both returning Indians to be eligible)
Only first applicant to be returning Indian
Both (a) & (b)
Advance value (In Rs.) is calculated at ______rate in case of sanctioning

rupee loan against balance held in RFC (HCD) account
a) Notional
c) TT Buying
b)
d)
RFC (HCD) account can be maintained in ______name of returning Indians

a)
b)
c)
c)
USD
EURO
RFC (HCD) account can be opened as _____account

a) S/B
c) TDR
b)
d)
The minimum deposit in USD under RFC (HCD) is ______

a) 1000
c) 3000
NRO
All of above
Resident Foreign Currency (Home Coming Deposit) account can be opened

in our bank in_______only
a) Rupees
c) GBP,USD,EURO
b)
d)
b)
d)
TT Selling
FCTC buying
RFC (HCD) scheme replaced the earlier ______scheme

a) NRE
c) FCNR (B)
b)
d)
NRO
RIFEE
254
Depositor on attaining the status of NRI again, would be eligible to transfer

the balances of RFC (HCD) account to _______account
a) NRE
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
FCNR (B)
None of above
Balances under RFC (HCD) are exempted from _____requirements

a) CRR
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
SLR
None of above
10
Tax on interest income from RFC (HCD) is exempted till NRI remains
_______
a) Resident but not ordinarily resident
b) NRI
c) PIO
d) None of above
11
A person resident in India may open an account in foreign currency under

________scheme
12
a) Resident Foreign Currency (Home Coming Deposit)

b) Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic)
c) Either of (a) or (b)
d) None of above
Accounts under RFC (Domestic) will be opened as ______
a) S/B
c) TDR
13
C/A
STDR
The account under RFC (Domestic) can be maintained in ______currencies

only
a)
b)
c)
d)
14
b)
d)
USD, GBP, EURO

USD, JPY, GBP
EURO, USD, JPY
GBP, EURO, JPY
The minimum balance required for opening the account under RFC
(Domestic) scheme in USD and EURO currencies is _______
a) 250
c) 750
b)
d)
500
1000
255

15
The minimum balance required for opening the account under RFC
(Domestic) scheme in GBP currency is _______
a) 250
c) 750
16
b)
d)
C&I
DBD
b)
d)
Fixed Notional
FCTC buying
A small legend ____________ is branded on the reverse of each cheque

of cheque book issued to the account holder of RFC (Domestic)
a) Name
c) Both (a) & (b)
20
200000
No limit
The transactions under RFC (Domestic) account will be at _____rate

a) TT Selling
c) TT Buying
19
b)
d)
The balances of all the accounts opened under RFC (Domestic) scheme will
be classified in ____segment
a) IB
c) P
18
500
1000
Under RFC (Domestic) Account, the maximum balance in the designated

currencies can be upto _______
a) 100000
c) 500000
17
b)
d)
b)
Purpose
d)
None of above
Consequent upon change of status from resident to non-resident, the

balances in RFC (Domestic) account can be transferred to ______account
a) NRO
c) FCNR (B)
b)
d)
NRE
Both (b) & (c)
256
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT 3 (IB)

( RFC ACCOUNTS)
1
6
11
16
c
a
b
d
2
7
12
17
b
d
b
c
3
8
13
18
a
c
a
b
4
9
14
19
c
c
b
b
5
10
15
20
d
a
a
d
257

INTERNATIONAL BANKING
ASSIGNMENT-4 MISC
1
For conducting forex business,

_______categories
a) A & B
c) Both (a) and (b)
c)
d)
FC Note selling rate

FCTC selling rate
b)
d)
Bill Selling
C.N.Selling
b)
d)
Bill Selling
C.N.Selling
b)
d)
Bill Buying
T.C.Buying
For negotiation of export bills, which rate will be applicable:

a) T.T.Buying
b)
Bill Buying
c) D.D.Buying
d)
T.C.Buying
For payment of DDs drawn on us, which rate will be applied:
a) T.T.Buying
c) DD Buying
C-1 & C-2

None of above
When our Nostro Account has already been credited, which rate will be
applicable:
a) T.T.Buying
c) D.D.Buying
in
For outward remittance, arising out of handling import bills by way of

retirement of documents under L/C, which rate will be applicable:
a) T.T.Selling
c) T.C.Selling
categorised
For advance remittance Imports, which rate will be applied:

a) T.T.Selling
c) T.C.Selling
are
Which of the following rates is the most favourable to the customer ;

a) TT selling rate
b) Bill selling rate
b)
d)
our branches
b)
d)
Bill Buying
T.C.Buying
For purchasing clean instruments or sending them for collection, which type
of instruments are considered as ineligible:
a) Mutilated
c) Post-dated
b)
d)
Stale
All of above
258
The Cooling period pertaining to collection of clean instruments is treated

between:
a) 10 to 14 days
c) 10 to 21 days
10
b)
d)
Under Cheque Truncated System (CTS), cheque in original are sent to:
a) FD Kolkatta
c) Respective ZO
11
b)
d)
Respective LHO
Not sent
In case, cheque is returned unpaid under CTS, ___________would be sent

to Singapore Branch.
a) Original Cheque
c) Image Return Document
12
10 to 15 days
None of above
b)
d)
Zerox copy of cheque

None of above
Nostro account means

a) Our Account with you
b) Foreign Currency account maintained by us with a foreign bank/branch
abroad
c) Both a & b are correct
13
Foreign Department (FD), Kolkatta has been renamed as

a)
b)
14
Global Link Services

Global Marketing Unit
c)
d)
None of these
No change
What is the difference between a Forex A category branch & Forex B

category Branch;
a) A Category branches can open and maintain Nostro Accounts while B
Category branches can not.
b) A category branches can do both Trade & Service related transactions
while B category branches can not
c) A category branches can only open and maintain Nostro accounts,
while B Category branches operate on the Nostro accounts)
d) A category branches can do all types of transactions while B category
branches can only handle service related transactions.
259
15 A foreign draft in case of Inward Remittance for value equal to/exceeding USD
________must bear 2 signatures.
a)
c)
1,000
10,000
b)
d)
5,000
50,000
16 If the advice is not received within one month from the payment of draft,
in case of Inward Remittance, the matter will be reported to:
a)
c)
17
Concerned bank
GMU Kolkatta
b)
d)
Correspondent Bank
Not to be reported
Which is not true as regard to the basis of quoting forex rates:
a) Banks deal in currencies They buy & Sell currencies like any commodity
b) Currencies are bought cheaper and sold costlier so that Banks can make profits
c) The inter bank rates are basis for quoting rates to the customers
d) All are correct
18
Which of the followings is not true :
a) Rates for small value transactions are fixed at the beginning of the day
called Card rates
b)Card rates are applicable for transaction with rupee value of < 10 lacs
c) For transactions of > 10 lacs the inter bank rate prevalent at that time
forms the basis- referred to as online rates
d) Both card rates and on-line rates are obtained through IFM
e) All are correct
260
KEY TO INTERNATIONAL BANKING

ASSIGNMENT- 4 MISC
1
6
11
16
c
b
c
c
2
7
12
17
a
a
c
d
3
8
13
18
a
d
b
d
4
9
14
b
b
a
5
10
15
a
d
a
261
ASSIGNMENT 5
REMITTANCE PRODUCTS
1
SBI-Express product is a---------a) Inward Remittance Product

c) Both a & b
b)
d)
Outward Remittance Product

Product for Exporters
2. Similar product on the lines of SBI-Express Remit (US) has been rolled out for
the remitters in following country/ countries :
a) USSR
c) Australia
3
b)
d)
UK
UK & USSR
What is the main objective of launching SBI-Express product?

a) INR funds flow from Gulf
b) Funds flow from any country
c) INR funds from Gulf and other countries
d) None of above
What is the size of minimum remittance (per transaction) under SBI-Express?

a) Rs 500
c) Rs 50000
b)
d)
Rs 1000000 for Middle East

No such restriction
What is the per calendar quarter limit of remittance for Blue Collared Workers/
Professionals
under SBI-Express?
a) Rs 5 Lacs/ 10 Lacs
c) Rs 5 Lacs/ 15 Lacs
Rs 5000
No such restriction
What is the size of maximum remittance (per transaction) under SBI-Express?

a) Rs 50000
c) Rs 500000
b)
d)
b)
d)
Rs 10 Lacs/ 15 Lacs
Rs 10 Lacs/ 25 Lacs
What is the per calendar half year limit of remittance for Blue Collared Workers/
Professionals under SBI-Express?
b)
d)
Rs 10 Lacs/ 15 Lacs
Rs 6 Lacs/ 25 Lacs
262

8
What is the per calendar half year limit of remittance for Blue Collared Workers/
Professionals under SBI-Express?
b)
d)
Rs 10 Lacs/ 15 Lacs
Rs 6 Lacs/ 25 Lacs
9 When was new Remittance product SBI Express Remit launched?

a) 01-02-2005
c) 01-01-2006
b)
d)
25-02-2005
01-12-2005
10 SBI Express Remit has been launched with the objective of------a)
b)
c)
d)
Targeting NRIs
Targeting NRIs in US
Targeting both NRIs and residents
None of the above
11 What are the purposes covered for remittance under SBI Express Remit?
a) Family maintenance
b) Transfer of funds to remitters NRI a/c
a) Remittances favouring foreign tourists visiting India
b) All the above
12 In which currency funds are remitted under SBI Express Remit (US)?
a) USD, GBP,EURO
d) USD
b) INR
d) USD,GBP,EURO,JPY
13 What is the quantum of remittance (Min. & Max ), per day, underSBI Express
Remit?
a) USD 100 & 10000
c) USD 500 & 10000
b)
d)
USD 50 & 5000

USD 100 & 1000
14 What is the max. aggregate remittance limit (per week) underSBI Express
Remit?
a) USD 10000
c) USD 20000
b)
d)
USD 15000
USD 30000
15 What is the max. aggregate remittance limit (per month) underSBI Express
Remit?
a) USD 10000
c) USD 25000
b)
d)
USD 15000
USD 30000
263
16 What is the maximum aggregate remittance limit (per quarter ) underSBI

Express Remit?
a) USD 50000
c) USD 80000
b)
d)
USD 75000
USD 40000
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT IB(REMITTANCE PRODUCTS- I)

1
6
11
16
a
c
d
c
2
7
12
b
d
d
3
8
13
c
c
b
4
9
14
a
b
b
5
10
15
b
b
d
264

ASSIGNMENT -6
REMITTANCE PRODUCTS-II
1 What is the maximum aggregate remittance limit ( per half year) under SBI
Express Remit?
a) USD 100000
c) USD 130000
b)
d)
USD 120000
USD 150000
2 What is the maximum aggregate remittance limit ( per year) under SBI Express
Remit?
a) USD 160000
c) USD 175000
b)
d)
USD 180000
USD 150000
3 How many times remittances are permitted (per week/month) under SBI Express
Remit?
a) 4/6
c) 2/8
b)
d)
3/6
1/4
4 How many times remittances are permitted (per quarter/half year) under SBI
Express Remit?
a) 4/6
c) 10/20
b)
d)
8/16
16/24
5 How many times remittances are permitted (per year) under SBI Express Remit?
a) 30
c) 50
6
b)
d)
40
60
How many accounts can be used for debit instructions under SBI Express
Remit?
a) 3
c) 2
b)
d)
1
4
7 What is the transaction fees under SBI Express Remit?

a)
b)
c)
d)
$ 2 for all remittances

No fee is chargeable
Rs.100 per transaction
$ 1 for remittance $ 50 to $ 99, nil for $ 100 & above
265
8 What are the issue and courier charges for demand drafts under SBI Express
Remit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
$ 2 for all remittances

Rs 50 for $50 to $ 1000, nil for higher value
$ 1 for remittance $ 50 to $ 99, nil for $ 100 & above
No charges
9 Which of the followings is correct in the case of Instant Transfer ?

a) It is a real time rupee remittance facility from SBI branches in 18 countries
to beneficiarys account maintained in any branch in India;
b) It is available to branches of Associate Banks through NEFT;
c) Available to non-account holders of our foreign branches at certain
centres
10.
The nodal branch for Western Union Tie Up is ?

a) Overseas Branch Mumbai
c) Overseas Branch, Calcutta
11.
b) NRI Branch, Kochi

d) D. N. Road, Mumbai
Which of the followings is true in case of a Western Union Tie Up ?

a) Remitter remitting money abroad from WU Counters is given MTCN
which is a ten digit secret number:
b) Beneficiary to go to any authorized branch with valid proof of identity;
c) WU is responsible for ensuring compliances under RBI guidelines and
AML measures at the send side of transaction:
d) a & b
e) All of the above
12
What is the maximum number of transactions a receiver can receive in a
calendar year through
WU?
a) 6
c) 12
13
b)
d)
10
No such restriction
What is the size of maximum remittance (per transaction) under WU?

a) Rs 50000/ USD 1000
c) Rs 500000/ USD 10000
b)
d)
Rs 120000/ USD 2500

No such restriction
266

14
What is the maximum cash amount paid out to the receiver under WU?
a) Rs 100000
c) Rs 120000
b)
d)
Rs 50000
No such restriction
15 e-Remit is :
a) A web based product offered at SBI Singapore for making remittances to
India
b) This facility can be used by all individuals who are residents of
Singapore
c) Customers of banks which are members of eNETS payment system can
use this facility worldwide
d) All are correct
e) Only a & b applicable
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT IB-6

(REMITTANCE PRODUCTS- II)
1 b
10
11
12
15
13
14
267
Assignment-7
Release of Foreign Exchange-I
1
Foreign currency travelers cheques are valid for _____from the date of issue
a) 1 year
c) 5 year
b)
d)
XOS return
None of above
b)
d)
A2
A4
In case of outward remittance through TTs/SFMSs/DDs, which form will be

signed by applicant, if remittance is exceeding USD 5000 for payment against
non-imports?
a) A 1
c) A 3
Payment Voucher
None of above
In case of outward remittance through TTs/SFMSs/DDs, which form will be

signed by applicant, if remittance is exceeding USD 500 for payment against
imports?
a) A 1
c) A 3
b)
d)
After encashing the purchase transaction of FCTC, it will be entered in:

____________
a) R-return
c) BEF statement
2 year
Infinite period
While encashing FCTC, passport no. etc. will be noted down on _________
a) Traveller cheque
c) Zerox copy of TC
b)
d)
b)
d)
A2
A4
Which is not true in case of release of foreign exchange for foreign travel:
a) Xerox copies of passport and visa to be obtained in case of non customer
b) In case of account holders the same to seen/verified and details noted on
standard application form
c) The customer should produce the air ticket for the purpose of verification
d) The customer should not be asked to produce the air ticket
268
Currency notes to Indians going abroad can be issued upto USD _____or its
equivalent per person, except persons going to Iraq, Libya, Nepal & Bhutan
a) 1000
c) 5000
12
b)
d)
Specialised Training
All of above
Indians going abroad can take outside India / or bring into India (other than
Nepal & Bhutan) Indian currency notes upto an amount not exceeding Rs.
_____ per person
a) 1,000
c) 5,000
11
3000
10000
Authorised Dealers (ADs) can release foreign exchange upto a maximum of

USD ________ for Business Visit
a) 10000
b)
15000
c) 20000
d)
25000
ADs can issue upto USD 25000 for_______
a) International Seminars
c) Study Tour
10
b)
d)
b)
d)
7,500
10,000
For medical treatment abroad, ADs can issue foreign exchange upto USD
______ :
a) 25000
b)
50000
c) 75000
d)
100000
For studies abroad ADs can issue foreign exchange upto USD _______ to
meet expenses towards tuition fee and books etc :
a) USD 100000/- per academic year from close relatives in India
b) Upto USD 100000/- per financial year from balances held in their NRO
accounts
c) Both a & b
d) Either of a & b
13
ADs are empowered under FEMA to release foreign exchange upto USD
_______ for taking up employment abroad
a) 10000
c) 100000
b)
d)
50000
200000
269

14
For private visits to any country (except Nepal and Bhutan), ADs can release
foreign exchange upto USD _______, without any age limit
a) 10000
c) 100000
15
b)
d)
50000
200000
A person going abroad on private visit/s can be released foreign exchange

not exceeding USD 10000 as under:
a) Per visit per member of the family without any age limit for each
visit, irrespective of number of visits in the year
b) Per annum per member of the family without any age limit,
irrespective of number of visits
c) Per annum per member (only adult) of the family irrespective of
number of visits
d) None of these
16
ADs can issue foreign exchange upto USD ______for meeting the
maintenance expenses of close relatives residing abroad.
a) 1000
c) 10000
b)
d)
5000
100000
17
How much foreign exchange can be gifted by a resident Indian individual to

close relatives/ friends abroad ?
a) USD 1000
b)
USD 5000
c) USD 10000
d)
USD 200000
18
FEMA has empowered ADs to issue foreign exchange for a maximum of USD
_______ for subscription to newspaper and magazine etc.
a) 5000
c) 25000
19
15000
100000
How much foreign exchange can be released by ADs for remittance of Prize
Money for sports?
a) USD 25000
c) USD 75000
20
b)
d)
b)
d)
USD 50000
USD 100000
Upto USD _______ per person can be released by ADs to a person going
abroad on emigration
a) 25000
c) 75000
b)
d)
50000
100000
270
21
Currency notes to Indians going to Iraq & Libya can be issued upto USD
_____or its equivalent per person
a) 1000
c) 5000
22
b)
d)
3000
10000
Currency notes/ coins to Indians going to Iran, Russian federation and other
Republics of Commonwealth of Independent States can be issued upto USD
_____or its equivalent per person
a) 5000
c) 10,000
b)
d)
3000
Full foreign exchange
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT IB 7
Release of Foreign Exchange-I
1
6
11
16
21
d
c
a
d
c
2
7
12
17
22
b
b
c
d
d
3
8
13
18
a
d
c
c
4
9
14
19
a
d
a
a
5
10
15
20
b
b
b
d
*****
271
ASSIGNMENT 8
RELEASE OF FEX-II
1 How many days in advance can a resident seek release of foreign exchange
before proceeding abroad :
a) To be purchased in a way that the same to be used within 180 days of issue
b) If not used within 180 days, the same should be surrendered to the AD
c) Only a is applicable
d) Both a & b are applicable
2 What is the maximum limit upto which a resident can retain foreign currency
notes ?
a)
c)
USD 1000
USD 2000
b)
d)
USD 5000
No limit
3 What is the maximum limit upto which a resident can retain foreign currency
coins?
a)
c)
USD 1000
USD 10000
b)
d)
USD 5000
No limit
4 Name the card of our bank that offers freedom to shop anywhere in the world?
a)
c)
SME Credit Card

Vishwa Yatra Card
b)
d)
Kisan Gold Card

Artisan Credit Card
5 For encashing AMEX FCTC, following instructions have been issued :

a) All FCTC handling branches to obtain a Merchant Code from Amex by
Code which will be retained as a permanent record at the branch.
b) Each time prior to encashment of the FCTC, the branch to log on to
AEBs online Authorization Home page and input the particulars of
FCTC
and the merchant code allotted to the branch.

e) If the FCTC under reference is genuine, the branch will get an approval
code online which should invariably be mentioned on FCTC .
f) The branch will then pay the FCTC, if it is otherwise in order.
g) All are applicable.
272
6 SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be used at

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Visa Electron merchant establishments worldwide

Visa Electron merchant establishments worldwide (ex. Nepal/ Bhutan)
Visa ATMs worldwide.
Both a & b
Both b & c
7 SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be used in which currency?

a)
c)
USD
Euro
b)
d)
GBP
All of above
8 What is the minimum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be initially
loaded?
a)
b)
c)
d)
USD 100
250GBP, 400EURO and USD 500
USD 1000
USD 10000
9 What is the maximum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be used besides
usual USD ceiling?
a)
b)
c)
d)
USD 100
USD 500
USD 1000
GBP & EURO equivalent of USD 10000
10 Which rate will be applied while selling Vishwa Yatra Card?

a)
c)
TT Selling
TT Buying
b)
d)
Bill Selling
TC Buying
11 Which rates will be applied for purchasing the unspent balance in Vishwa Yatra
Card?
a)
c)
Bill Buying
TT Buying
b)
d)
Bill Selling
TC Buying
12 Refund of Vishwa Yatra Card is permitted after _____working days after return of
customer in India
a)
c)
3
9
b)
d)
6
12
273
13 Under Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, resident individuals can remit upto
USD _________ per calendar year
a)
c)
5000
200000
b)
d)
15000
35000
14 For availing the facility of Liberalised Remittance Scheme, the resident individual
must have maintained the account with the bank for a minimum of _____years
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
5
15 The transaction under Liberalised Remittance Scheme will be reported by

branches on______
a)
c)
Monthly basis
Half yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly basis
Not to be reported
16 International Credit Card can be used to meet foreign travel expenses upto----per annum prescribed under FEMA;
a)
c)
5000
10000
b)
d)
15000
25000
17 What is the minimum reload amount for Vishwa Yatra Card ?

a)
c)
USD 100
USD 1000
b) 125GBP, 200EURO and USD 250

d) USD 10000
18 Transactions through Vishwa Yatra Card can be as under :

a)
Cash withdrawal at ATM minimum USD 100 and maximum USD1000 per
day
b) Transaction at Pos min. no limit and max. upto balance in the card
c)
Both a & b are correct
d)
No restriction on min. or max. amount
*****
274

RELEASE OF FEX-II
1
6
11
16
c
e
a
c
2
7
12
17
c
d
b
b
3
8
13
18
d
b
c
c
4
9
14
c
d
a
5
10
15
e
b
a
*****
275

ASSIGNMENT 9 (IB)
LETTER OF CREDIT
1 Letter of Credit are subject to various articles of _______
a) N.I.Act
b)
UCPDC 600
c) Companys Act
d)
None of above
2 In case of Letter of Credit, opening bank provides _________
a) Cash Credit
b)
Term Loan
c) Undertaking to pay
d)
Bank Guarantee
3 The beneficiary under a letter of credit is
a) the bank opening the credit
c) the confirming bank
b) the customer of the opening bank

d) the exporter
A letter of credit is addressed to

a) the beneficiary
b) the negotiating bank
c) the reimbursing bank
d) none
Which type of L C was removed from UCP 600 ?

a) Confirmed L C
b) Revolving LC
c) Green Clause LC
d) Revocable LC
UCP rules are framed by

a) ICC
c) WTO
b) UNO
d) G 7 Countries
7 Red Clause Letter of Credit refers to special clause authorizing for _______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Transfer
Renewal without amendment
Advance to beneficiary upto shipment
Advance to beneficiary before shipment
8 Green Clause Letter of Credit refers to special clause authorizing for ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Transfer
Renewal without amendment
Advance to beneficiary before shipment
Advance to beneficiary upto
shipment
276

9 Back to Back Letter of Credit refers to special clause that L/C is issued with
_________
a) Transferability
c) Renewal
b)
d)
On security of another L/C

Advance to beneficiary upto shipment
10 RBI approval for opening the Letter of Credit is to obtained if the tenor of Bills of
Exchange exceeds _____days from the date of Bill of Lading
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
360
11 Import Letter of Credit opened is advised and restricted for negotiation to _

a) Our Foreign Office
c) GMU Kolkatta
b)
d)
Banks with agency arrangements

None of above
12 The terms of an irrevocable Letter of Credit can be amended if ______agree

a) Beneficiary
c) Opening Bank
b)
d)
Applicant
All of above
13 If documents are not received within _____days after validity date, the
documentary credit will be deemed as expired
a) 15 days
c) Two months
b)
d)
One month
Six months
14 Under UCP 600 the phrase Reasonable time of UCP 500 was
with
a) 5 days
c) 5 banking days
substituted
b) 7 banking days
d) 10 days
15 Back-to-Back LC is issued to
a) Importer Customer
b) Exporter Customer
c) Exporter Customer who has received Export LC
d) None of these
16
In case of Confirmed LC, confirmation will be added by

a) LC Issuing Bank
b) LC Advising Bank
c) Reimbursement Bank
d) None of these
277
17
Incoterms cover
a) ownership and transfer rights
b) Contracts of carriage
c) rights and obligations of parties to contract of sales
d) none of these
18 The price quoted by the seller for the product

a) will vary depending upon the incoterm chosen
b) is irrespective of incoterm
c) will be the base price; the effect of incoterm to be added later
d) none of these
19 UCPDC had been first brought out by ICC in the year
a) 1919
b) 1975
b) 1933
c) 2007
20 In a letter of credit, the advising Bank is responsible for

a)
b)
c)
d)
Financial standing of the issuing bank

Financial standing of the applicant
Payment of the LC amount
Authenticity of the LC

LETTER OF CREDIT
1
6
11
16
b
a
b
b
2
7
12
17
c
d
d
c
3
8
13
18
d
d
b
a
4
9
14
19
a
b
c
b
5
10
15
20
d
c
c
d
278
ASSIGNMENT 10 (IB)
FINANCING IMPORTS & FC FUNDING
1 Suppliers Credit refers to credit for ______into India extended by overseas
suppliers with a maturity less than 3 years
a) Export
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
Import
None of above
2 Buyers credit refers to loans for payment of imports into India arranged by
importers bank or financial institution with a maturity less than _____
a) One year
c) Three years
b)
d)
Two years
Five years
3 Buyers credit and Suppliers credit for 3 years and above comes under the
category of _______
a) L/C
c) B/G
b)
d)
ECB
None of above
4 The settlement of funds in SBIs Suppliers Credit Product is done within

_____days of shipment
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
360
5 Buyers Credit can be arranged by our branches for the importers client by
issuing ___________favouring our Foreign Offices/Foreign Banks
a) Guarantee
c) Letter of Comfort (LOC)
b)
d)
Letter of Undertaking (LOU)

Any one of above
6 For import of non-capital goods, Guarantees, Letter of Undertaking (LOU) and

Letter of Comfort (LOC) can be issued for a period of_____
a) 1 year
c) 3 years
b)
d)
2 years
5 years
7 For import of capital goods, Guarantees, Letter of Undertaking (LOU) and

Letter of Comfort (LOC) can be issued for a period of _______
a) 1 year
c) 3 years
b)
d)
2 years
5 years
279
8 The amount of Buyers Credit should not exceed USD ______million per import
transaction
a) 10
b)
20
c) 30
d)
50
9 Maximum interest (all in cost ceilings) in Trade Credits ( Suppliers Credit &
Buyers Credit) is as under
a) LIBOR+ 350bps
c) LIBOR+ 200bps
b)
d)
LIBOR+ 100bps
LIBOR+ 250bps
10 All in cost ceilings in Trade Credits ( Suppliers Credit & Buyers Credit) is
applicable as prescribed by
a) FEDAI
c) RBI
b)
d)
Banks have freedom to fix

None of above
11 Which is not applicable in the case of FCNB (B) Loan Scheme

a) Can be extended for financing WC & TL
b) Banks have freedom to fix interest rate, tenor and purpose of loan
c) RBI/GOI permission required for sanction
d) Loans cannot be used for personal purpose and acquisition of consumer
durables
12 FCNR(B) Loans can be extended in following currencies
a) USD,AUD, GBP,YEN
c) USD,AUD, GBP,EURO
b)
d)
USD,EURO, GBP,YEN
USD,CAD, GBP,YEN
13 FCDL Loan is normally given for a period of

a) 6 months to 12 months
c) 3 months to 11 months
b)
d)
3 months to 12 months
None of above
14 FCTL Loan is normally given for a period of

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 to 5 years
3 to 5 years
1 to 3 years, and upto 5 years with the permission of HO
None of above
280
15 Which is not applicable in the case of Swing Facility

a) It envisages conversion from foreign currency to rupee at the option of
borrower
b) Normally conversion to take place at the time of interest re-setting
c) Conversion on any other date not permitted
d) Conversion on any other date permitted with prepayment penalty
16 Which is not applicable in the case of ECB-Automatic route
a) Prior approval from RBI not required
b) AD to process application , give approval and forward the application to
RBI
c) Loan to be released only after RBI allots the number
d) ECB can be utilized for repayment of existing Rupee loans
17 The maximum amount of ECB that can be raised by a corporate, except
Corporate in the Hotels, Hospitals and Software sectors, in a financial year is --a) USD200 million
c) USD500 million
b)
d)
USD300 million
USD100 million
18 The maximum amount of ECB that can be raised by a corporate in the Hotels,
Hospitals and Software sectors, in a financial year is -----a) USD200 million
c) USD500 million
b)
d)
USD300 million
USD100 million
19 ECB above USD 20 million and upto USD 500 million or equivalent is
sanctioned for a period with minimum average maturity of---------- years
a) 3 years
c) 10 years
b)
d)
5 years
7 years
20 ECB upto USD 20 million or equivalent is sanctioned for a period with minimum
average maturity of---------- years
a) 3 years
c) 10 years
b)
d)
5 years
7 years
21 ECB upto USD --------- million or equivalent can have call/put option provided
the minimum average maturity of 3 years is copiled before exercising the option
a) USD250 million
c) USD20 million
b)
d)
USD500 million
USD100 million
281

FINANCING IMPORTS & FC FUNDING
1
6
11
16
21
b
a
c
d
c
2
7
12
17
c
c
b
c
3
8
13
18
b
b
c
d
4
9
14
19
c
c
c
b
5
10
15
20
d
c
c
a
*****
282

ASSIGNMENT 11 (IB)
IMPORTS
1
The normal time limit for settlement of import payment is------ from the date of
shipment
a) 30 days
c) 21 days
1 year
Not required
b)
d)
ENC
STAT
b)
d)
USD 100,000
None of these
Evidence of import/ Bill of Entry is to be submitted by the importer within a

period of----from the date of remittance
a) 21 days
c) 30 days
b)
d)
Non submission of evidence of import by the importers is to submitted to RBI

at half yearly intervals ( June/ Dec.) in the case of imports exceeding USD---or its equivalent
a) USD 25000
c) USD 50000
Monthly
Half yearly
Non submission of evidence of import by the importers is to submitted to RBI

in------return
a) XOS
c) BEF
b)
d)
Documents evidencing import are to be preserved for ---- period from the date
of verification, except cases under investigation
a) 2 years
c) 3 years
6 months
None of above
Consolidated statement of Trade Credits is submitted to RBI at----- intervals

a) Fortnightly
c) Quarterly
b)
d)
b)
d)
3 months
6 months
Fully utilized Exchange Control Copy of Import Licence is to be retained bya) RBI
c) AD
b)
d)
Importer
DGFT
283

8
Ads to permit advance payment in the case of a PSU/Deptt./ Undertaking of

Central / State Govt for import of goods without insisting upon a bank
guarantee up to----- .
a) USD25,000
c) USD15,000
b)
d)
USD500,000
USD100,000
If importer is unable to obtain bank guarantee and AD is satisfied about the

track record and bonafide of the importer, the requirement of BG/Stand-by LC
may be waived if the advance remittance for import of goods is upto---a) USD25,000
c) USD 200,000
10
b)
d)
USD500,000
USD100,000
If a PSU/Deptt./ Undertaking of Central / State Govt. is not in a position to

obtain a guarantee from the international bank of repute, it is required to seek
specific waiver for the BG from _____if the advance remittance exceeds
USD100,000
a) RBI
c) M.O.F., Govt of India
b)
d)
DGFT
AD
11
Advance remittance permissible for import of services without BG is for--------a) USD25,000

b)
USD500,000
c) USD50,000
d) USD100,000
12
Remittances against import of books can be received within a period of-----provided interest payment , if any , is as per instruction in this regard
a) 12 months
c) No time limit
13
b)
d)
3 months
6 months
A no-objection certificate, Chartered Accountants certificate, Certificate of

payment of I.T. are required for remittance against
a)
b)
c)
d)
Import under penalty

Replacement import
Import of films on lease/ rental basis
Import of Aircraft/ Aircraft engine/ Helicopter on lease basis
284
14
Non submission of evidence of import by the importers in the case of imports

upto USD 100,000 is to be followed up with the importer as under:
a) Not required to be followed as per RBI guidelines
b) To be followed as per Banks internal guidelines
c) Both (a) & (b) are applicable
15
Which is not applicable in case of Diamond Dollar Account

a) Customer to have good track record of 3 years and average annual
turnover of Rs. 5 crores or above during 3 preceding licensing years
b) Customer to apply through AD to RBI for approval
c) Customer can have only max. 5 accounts
d) Only a & b applicable
e) All are applicable
16
When the imports are made in non- physical form, a certificate from------would
serve the purpose of import evidence
a) Chartered Accountant
c) Authorised dealer
17
b)
d)
RBI
Exporter
Where the value of import on DP basis falls between USD 25000 and USD
100,000 and is for non-customer, the following document as an evidence of
import may be obtained
a)
b)
c)
d)
Self declaration only

A Certificate from Chartered Accountant
A Certificate from Overseas exporter
None of the above
18
Import licenses are normally issued for the ------ value of the goods to
imported
a) FOB
b)
CIF
c) Insured
d)
None of the above
19
Discrepant documents under LC if not negotiated are to be sent for collection

under Uniform Rules for Collection (URC 522)
a) True
b) False
285

19
Documents accompanying a usance bill of exchange will always be delivered

against acceptance to the drawee
a) True
b) False
20
LC calls for clean on board B/L. The B/L submitted has notation on board
without mentioning clean. Can the B/L be accepted as non-discrepant?
a) Yes
b) No

IMPORTS
1
6
11
16
b
b
b
a
2
7
12
17
c
c
c
b
3
8
13
18
b
d
c
b
4
9
14
19
c
c
c
b
5
10
15
20
b
c
e
a
*****
286

ASSIGNMENT 12(IB)
FORWARD CONTRACTS
1. Forward Contract can be booked for ______transactions
a) Purchase
c) Both (a) & (b)
2.
b)
d)
Sale
None of above
While booking forward contract, it has to be ensured that due date does not fall
on ______
a) Saturday
c) Public Holiday
b)
d)
Sunday
All of above
3. Forward contract should not be booked for ______

a) Import bills
a) Advance remittance
against exports
b)
d)
Export bills
None of above
4. Forward Exchange Cover Facility can not be provided against balance lying in
_______
a) FCNRB
c) NRE C/A Account
b)
d)
NRE S/B Account

Both (b) & (c)
5. The limit of Forward Contracts in case of Importer/Exporter is fixed on the basis

of average of previous ______years or previous year turnover, whichever is
higher
a) 2
c) 4
b)
d)
3
5
6. In case an Importer/Exporter desire higher limit than the one fixed by AD, they
will have to take approval from _____
a) FICCI
b)
d)
Finance Ministry
RBI
7. If an exporter wants to avail Forward Contract facility, his overdue bills should not
exceed ___% of the turnover
a) 10
c) 20
b)
d)
15
25
287

8. A forward purchase contract can be booked if the applicant submits:
a) Firm contract signed by buyer and seller
b) Communication from buyer accepting sellers quotation and exporters
undertaking to produce the contract within one month from the date of
booking
c) Irrevocable Letter of Credit
d) Any of the above
9. Branch has to contact the customer _____days prior to the date of expiry of
forward contract
a) 3
c) 7
b)
d)
5
10
10. Statement of outstanding Forward Contract will be sent to FD Kolkatta at

_____intervals on Form _____
a) Monthly, 106
c) Half-Yearly, 126
b)
d)
Quarterly, 116
Yearly, 136
11. Before booking a forward sale contract, it should be ensured that the importer
submits ________
a) A firm order/Import Elcee/Import Collection bill
b) Invoice
c) Bills of Exchange
d) Any one of above
12. In case of import bill, the delivery period should not be more than _____days
from the date of shipmen
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
360
13. ADs while booking a forward sale contract should ensure that.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Import items are freely importable under current foreign trade policy
Suitable limit for forward contract is sanctioned to the importer
Both (a) & (b)
None of above
14. In case of any exchange gain arising out of the cancellation of forward contract
before due date, it will be passed on to the customers as under
a)
b)
The customer can opt for settlement of full gain on due date
The customer can opt for upfront settlement of exchange gain at
discounted rate (discount equal to PLR) by choosing optionTo Day
288

c)
d)
Both (a) & (b)

Only a is applicable
15. A forward contract can be cancelled ________

a)
c)
Prior to the expiry date

Either of (a) or (b)
b)
d)
On expiry date
None of above
16. Following instruction/s are true in the case of Unusable contracts :

a) Maximum time limit for cancellation of undelivered contracts 7th working day
if the contract involves pipeline transaction, otherwise 2nd working day
b) No profit passed on if cancelled after due date
c) All losses to customer in such cases
d) All are applicable.
17. In case of any exchange loss arising out of the cancellation of forward contract, it
will be recovered from the customers as under
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The exchange loss on cancellation before maturity date to be booked

upfront i.e. on cancellation date
The amount recovered would be the loss discounted at simple savings
bank rate for the intervening period
The customer has the option to have settlement on maturity date
Only a & b applicable
All are applicable
18. A forward sale contract will be cancelled on ________rate

a)
c)
TT Buying
Bill Buying
b)
d)
TT Selling
Bill Selling
19. A forward purchase contract will be cancelled on _____rate

a)
c)
TT Buying
Bill Buying
b)
d)
TT Selling
Bill Selling
20. Part Cancellation of forward contract ______

a)
b)
c)
d)
Can be done
Cannot be done
Can be done if a request from the customer is received
None of above
289

21. While canceling a forward contract, the matter should be reported to GMU
Kolkatta on______
a)
c)
Same day
3rd day
b)
d)
Next day
7th day
22. In case 15th day from the due date of a forward contract falls on Saturday or
Public Holiday, the contract will be cancelled on _________
a)
c)
Preceding working day

Either of (a) & (b)
b)
d)
Succeeding working day

None of above
23. In case of Cross Currency Forward Contracts (CCFC), how many exchange risks
are covered?
a)
c)
1
3
b)
d)
2
4
24. Which type of exchange risks are covered under Cross Currency Forward
Contracts (CCFC)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Misc. Foreign Currency (MFC) against USD

USD against rupee
Both (a) & (b)
None of above
25. Cross Currency Forward Contracts (CCFC) can be booked for a minimum
amount of USD ________
a)
c)
1,00,000
5,00,000
b)
d)
2,00,000
10,00,000
26. In case of Cross Currency Forward Contracts (CCFC), minimum delivery amount
should be equivalent to Rs. ______lac
a)
c)
5
15
b)
d)
10
25
290

FORWARD CONTRACTS
1
6
11
16
21
c
d
a
d
a
2
7
12
17
22
d
a
c
d
b
3
8
13
18
23
26
c
d
c
a
b
b
4
9
14
19
24
d
c
c
b
c
5
10
15
20
25
b
b
c
c
a
291

ASSIGNMENT 14 (IB)
RETURNS
1
The information pertaining to inflows and outflows of foreign exchange is

submitted by ADs to RBI through ______
a) XOS Statement
c) BEF Statement
All branches dealing in forex

A Category
B Category
Both (b) & (c)
R-Return is submitted _______

a) Once a week
c) Once a month
b)
d)
7th day and 21st day

None of above
b)
d)
GBP
All currencies
R-Returns are now to be submitted to RBI ______, and should reach RBI
within 7 calendar days of the relative fortnight
a) Branch-wise
c) Both (a) & (b)
Twice a week
Twice a month
A separate R-Return (Nostro) and a separate R-Return (Vostro) for

_____currency is to be submitted
a) USD
c) EURO
b)
d)
R-Return is submitted on _____of the month

a) Ist day and 15th day
c) 15th day and last day
R-Return
Bill of Entry
R-Returns are submitted by _______branches

a)
b)
c)
d)
b)
d)
b)
d)
Bank-wide
None of above
Branches are now required to submit R-Return data in electronic format

FETTERS 6.2 to GMU-K only within---- days and retain the hard copy, duly
signed, at the branch as permanent record
a) 7 days
c) 3 days
b)
d)
3 working days
7 working days
292
Non-Resident Deposits Comprehensive Single Return (NRD CSR) is sent

to RBI through floppy/e-mail at ________intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
10
a) NRE
b)
NRO
c) RFC
d)
FCNR (B)
BAL return containing the foreign currency balances of authorized dealers
and rupee balances of non-resident banks is sent to RBI at
_________intervals
b)
d)
ORA
R-Return
b)
d)
FD Kolkatta
None of above
Which statement containing the particulars of outstanding exports bills is

being sent by ADs at half-yearly intervals (June/December) to RBI?
a) BAL
c) XOS
14
Quarterly
Yearly
BEF statement showing details of imports for which documentary evidence

has not been received from importers, is being sent at half yearly intervals to
______
a) RBI
c) Both (a) & (b)
13
b)
d)
Name the statement which is sent to RBI at quarterly intervals containing the
details of permissions granted for opening of trading/non-trading
office/posting of representatives abroad
a) STAT 10
c) BAL
12
Quarterly
Yearly
STAT 10 return being submitted to RBI at monthly intervals pertains to the

details of _____accounts
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
11
b)
d)
b)
d)
ORA
BEF
Which return is sent to RBI at yearly intervals (in December), containing the
details of export bills written off?
a) BAL
c) XOS
b)
d)
EBW
BEF
293
15
A return containing details of pending ECGC claims is sent to LHO at

_______intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
16
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
Details of foreign contributions received by associations/organizations under

FCRA 1976 is sent to LHO at ______intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
17
The information on the number of applications received and total amount
remitted under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme is to be submitted to
RBI-----------intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
18 The information on the number of applications received and total amount

remitted under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme should reach RBI within -------days of the following month
a) 7 days
c) 3 days
b)
d)
5 days
10 days
19 The information on Un- hedged Foreign Currency Exposure of Corporates is

sent at ----- intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
20
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
Report on Booking of Forward Contracts is sent on ----- intervals

a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
21 Advance payment against Exports of Rs.5 crores & above is sent on----intervals
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
294
22
Branches have been advised to furnish the compliance levels in relation to

FCRA 1976 at ------ intervals to their respective LHO/SBU
a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly

RETURNS
1 b
6 b
11 b
16 c
2
7
12
17
d
b
a
a
3
8
13
18
21 c
d
a
c
b
4
9
14
19
22
c
c
b
b
b
5
10
15
20
d
b
b
a
295
ASSIGNMENT IB-15
EXPORTS-I
1
Under FEMA, a person cannot export until he possess:

a) RBI Licence
c) Importer/Exporter Code
A2
A3
b)
d)
15000
25000
b)
d)
6
10
The exporter has to submit the duplicate copy of GR along with necessary
documents to ADs within _____days from the date of shipment( Not required
upto US$ 25000)
a) 7
c) 21
b)
d)
GR passed by customs contains ____digits running serial no

a) 4
c) 8
6 months
1 year
The exporters are exempted to declare if their exports do not exceed USD
____or its equivalent
a) 10000
c) 20000
b)
d)
In which form, exporter has to declare the exports?

a) A 1
c) GR
Licence from FICCI

None of above
The exporter has to give an undertaking to realize the proceeds within

________from the date of shipment
a) 3 months
c) 9 months
b)
d)
b)
d)
14
28
After negotiation of the documents, AD is required to report the transaction to

RBI in the form ____
a) FD 124
c) A 2
b)
d)
ENC
A4
296

8
After realization of relative bill, AD will send the duplicate copy of GR duly
verified to
a) RBI
b)
Respective LHO
c) Respective ZO
d)
Kept for verification by auditors
If the bills exceeding USD 25000

stipulated period, these should be
through ______
a) R Return
b)
c) BEF statement
d)
remain outstanding for more than the

reported to RBI at half-yearly intervals
XOS statement
None of these
10
If the export bill is not realized within the stipulated period, it should be
crystallized at _______rate
a) Bill Buying
b)
Spot TT Selling
c) Bill Selling
d)
T.C. Selling
11
Gift of goods exceeding Rupees ---------- in value requires approval of RBI

a) 2 lacs
b) 7 lacs
c) 5 lacs
d) 10 lacs
12
XOS statement will be sent to RBI as on ____________________

a) 31st Dec & 30th June
c) 31st Dec
13
b)
d)
31st March & 30th Sep

30th June
ADs can permit GR waiver for export of goods free of cost for export as under
a) 2% of annual turnover in preceding three years, max. Rs.5lacs
b) 2% of annual turnover during three preceding licensing years, max
Rs.10 lacs for status holder exporters
c) Both a & b applicable
d) None of these
14 The period of realization and repatriation to India of the amount representing full
export value of goods or software exported has been enhanced to _____ till
30.06.10
a) 3 months
b)
12 months
c) 6 months
d)
None of these
14
If the exporter is unable to get his bill realized within 6 months from the date
of shipment, he must seek extension of time from:
a) RBI
c) FICCI
b)
d)
Finance Ministry
Authorised Dealer
297
15
RBI has authorized ADs to extend the time if exports have not been realized
within 6 months, provided:
a)
b)
c)
d)
16
Value not exceeding USD 1000,000/- (USD 1 million)

Extension is for 6 months at a time
ADs are satisfied about the reasons
All of above
The ceiling of USD 1 million in case of powers vested with ADs for extension
of time for overdue export bills will not apply, if the exporter has filed a suit
against importer abroad. In such case, extension may be granted for
____months at a time
a) 6
c) 12
17
b)
d)
9
None of above
Before considering the extension of time of overdue export bill beyond 1 year
from the date of shipment, ADs should ensure that total outstanding exports
of the exporter should not exceed ____% of the average of export realizations
during the preceding ____financial years
a) 5, 1
c) 10, 3
b)
d)
10, 2
10, 5
18
For getting extension of time for overdue export bill, the exporter has to apply
in _______form
a) A 1
b)
A2
c) ETX
d)
All of above
19
After granting the necessary extension for realization of overdue export bill, it
will be entered by ADs in ______________
a) R return
c) XOS statement
21
b)
d)
BEF statement
Not required
Ads can approve proposals for export of goods on consignment basis

for realization of export proceeds upto ---- from the date of shipment
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
360
298
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT IB-15

EXPORTS-I
1
6
11
16
21
c
c
c
d
d
2
7
12
17
b
b
a
a
3
8
13
18
c
d
c
c
4
9
14
19
d
b
b
c
5
10
15
20
d
b
a
c
299
ASSIGNMENT 16 (IB)
EXPORTS-II
1
ADs handling shipping documents have been permitted by RBI to allow

reduction in export value not exceeding ___% of invoice value
a) 5
c) 15
A1
A3
b)
d)
10
No limit
If an exporter wants reduction in invoice value for an amount exceeding 10%

of invoice value, he will have to submit the application to AD who in turn will
forward it to ____
a) FICCI
c) Finance Ministry
b)
d)
The exporters who are in the business for more than 3 years and their export
outstandings do not exceed 5 % of the average annual export realization
during preceding 3 calendar years, can be allowed reduction in invoice value
upto ___%
a) 5
c) 15
10
25
The exporter seeking reduction in invoice value, will submit an application on

form ______
a) RDX
c) A 2
b)
d)
b)
d)
RBI
Commerce Ministry
ADs are authorized to allow remittance of agency commission (on submission

of application by the exporter) if declared normally in ____
a) Export Bill
b)
GR
c) Bills of Exchange
d)
All of above
ADs can allow remittance of agency commission even if it is not declared on
GR provided it is mentioned in ______
a) Export Bill
b) Bills of Exchange
c) A valid agreement between
Exporter & beneficiary
d) All of above
300

7
Full amount of a export bill will be shown as ____transaction and remittance

of agency commission as ____transaction, in R-Return
a) Purchase, Sale
c) Purchase, Purchase
If an exporter is unable to realize his export bill within the stipulated time
despite his best efforts, ADs can allow for _____
Write off of bill
None of above
b)
d)
15
25
The amount of the bill proposed to be written off must have remained
outstanding for _____year of more
a) 1
c) 3
13
b)
d)
Before allowing self write-off of unrealized bills, including reduction in invoice

value, ADs will ensure that amount of such bills does not exceed ____% of
the total export proceeds realized during the previous calendar year
a) 10
c) 20
12
A2
None of above
Acquisition of immoveable property abroad for Overseas offices

Counter Trade Agreements
Export of goods on Lease, Hire etc.
Participation in Trade Fairs abroad
a) Filing a suit
c) Both (a) & (b)
11
b)
d)
Which of the following international trade transaction does not require prior
approval from the RBI ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10
Sale, Purchase
Sale, Sale
While remitting agency commission, in addition to application, _______will be

obtained from the exporter?
a) A 1
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
b)
d)
2
5
The details of written off bills will be sent to RBI at ______intervals

a) Monthly
c) Half-yearly
b)
d)
Quarterly
Yearly
301

14
At the end of December each year, a statement will be sent to RBI for written
off bills during the year on Form _______
a) XOS
c) EBW
15
b)
d)
R-Return
BEF
Whose responsibility is to ensure that the documents do not reveal any

material inter se discrepancies in regard to description of goods exported,
export value or country of destination
a) Authorised Dealer
c) Shipping company
16
b)
d)
The period of realization applicable for exports by units in SEZ is-----a) 6 months
c) 12 months
17
Reserve Bank
Importer
b)
d)
18 months
No time limit
Prior approval of RBI for change of buyer/consignee in the event of

default by the latter is not required provided:
a) Reduction in value, if any involved, does not exceed 25%
b) Realisation of export proceeds not delayed beyond 6 months from the
date of export
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of above
18
Claims settled in rupees by ECGC should not be construed as export

realization in foreign exchange
a) True
b) False
19 Branches not submitting a monthly certificate to GMU-K by 10th of

following month in case of PCFC Loans and EBR bills crystallized on due
date would not be granted Fund Angle Clearance for further loans
a) True
20
b)
False
In terms of the amendment to rule no. 2 A.2 by FEDAI, the following

instructions are applicable to crystallization of unpaid export bills
a) ADs are free to decide on the period for crystallization
b) Bills to be crystallized at spot TT selling rate
c) Exchange difference arising out of crystallization to be recovered from or
passed on to the customer
d) All of above
e) Only b & c
302

EXPORTS-II
1
6
11
16
d
c
a
d
2
7
12
17
a
a
a
c
3
8
13
18
d
b
d
a
4
9
14
19
b
d
c
a
5
10
15
20
b
b
a
d
303

ASSIGNMENT 17 (IB)
EXPORTS-III
1 An exporter will be classified as Export House if export turnover is ---- over past
three years plus current years export realisation
a) Rs. 20 crores
c) Rs. 25 crores
b)
d)
Rs. 50 crores
Rs. None of these
2 For getting a Star Export House status, the export turnover over 3 years should
be Rs. _____crore
a) 50
c) 200
b)
d)
100
300
3 If an export house has achieved export turnover over three years to the tune of
Rs. 500 crore, it will be classified as ______.
a) Star Trading House
c) Premier Trading House
b)
d)
Trading House
None of these
4 For getting a Star Trading Export House status, an export house has to make
export turnover for Rs. ____crore over 3 years
a) 500
c) 2500
b)
d)
1000
2000
5 An export house has made export turnover to the tune of Rs. 10000 crore over 3
years, it will be classified as _____Export House
a) Star Trading House
c) Trading House
b)
d)
Premier Trading House

None of these
6 The units in Special Economic Zone (SEZ) are permitted to credit ____% of its
foreign exchange receipts in their FC (SEZ) Account
a) 25
c) 75
b)
d)
50
100
7 A person resident in India may open with ADs an account in foreign currency to
be known as ______Account
a) NRE
c) FCNR
b)
d)
NRO
EEFC
304

8 Which type of credit facility can be granted against the security of balance held in
EEFC Account?
a) C/C & T/L
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
L/C & B/G

No facility
9 All exchange earners can retain upto ___% of their foreign exchange earnings in
their EEFC Account
a) 50
c) 100
b)
d)
75
Not permitted
10 EEFC A/c by export customer will be maintained as ______

a)
b)
c)
d)
Non-interest bearing Current Account

Interest bearing Term Deposit
Non-interest bearing Saving Bank Account
Interest bearing Saving Bank Account
11 EEFC Account can be opened in how many currencies?

a) 2
c) 6
b)
d)
4
8
12 In which currencies, EEFC Account can be opened?

a)
b)
c)
d)
USD, GBP, JPY, EURO

USD, JPY, AUD, EURO
JPY, GBP, AUD, EURO
EURO, USD, GBP, AUD
13 For opening an EEFC Account, minimum balance of USD______or its

equivalent, has been prescribed
a) 1,000
b)
5,000
c) 10,000
d)
25,000
14 The balance lying in EEFC Account are exempted from the purview of--a) CRR
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
SLR
None of above
15 EEFC Account holders are required to obtain prior approval of _____pertaining to

remittance for purchase of trade marks
a) RBI
b)
d)
Finance Ministry
Industry Ministry
305
16 Pre-shipment credit in Foreign Currency (PCFC) is linked to ____interest rates

a) SBAR
c) LIBOR
b)
d)
MIBOR
Bank Rate
b)
d)
B
Designated
17 PCFC is operative at _____branches

a) A
c) C 1
18 Designated branches have to obtain Funds Angle Clearance (FAC) from GMU
Kolkatta for all fresh disbursement of PCFC/EBR for amount exceeding ____
a) 5.00 lac
c) 15.00 lac
b) In all cases, irrespective of

amount
d) 20 .00 lac
19 PCFC is available by way of _______

a) Term Loan
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
Cash Credit
Overdraft
20 In case of PCFC, maximum period of credit allowed is ____days from the date of
disbursement :
a)
b)
c)
d)
180 days
Beyond 180 days and upto 360 days 2% extra
Both a & b applicable
None of the above
21. Fund Angle Clearance obtained from GMU-Kolkatta is to used as under:

a)15 days allowed for its disbursement,
b) If not availed within 15 days, the same will be automatically cancelled,
c) Next request for same facility can be made only after 45 days of original FAC date
d) However, fresh request can be made before 45 days if borrower pays a charge of i%
per annum from the date of original FAC.
e) All of the above applicable.
306

EXPORTS-III
1
6
11
16
21
a
d
b
c
e
2
7
12
17
b
d
a
d
3
8
13
18
b
d
a
b
4
9
14
19
c
c
c
b
5
10
15
20
b
a
a
c
307

ASSIGNMENT 18 (IB)
EXPORTS-IV
1 PCFC will be adjusted at the ruling TT Selling Rate for the currency concerned, if
no export takes place even within _____days, inclusive of transit period
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
360
2 PCFC will be adjusted through the proceeds of export bills under ____
a) EPC
c) Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
EBR
None of above
3 Discounting of EBR bill has to be reported to FD on line if the amount exceeds

USD ______ or its equivalent in other permissible currencies
a) 25,000
c) 1,00,000
b)
d)
50,000
Irrespective of amount
4 Interest recovered on EBR/PCFC loan will be recovered from ________

a) Relative EBR/PCFC account
c) Either a or b
b)
d)
Customers other account

None of above
5 Cover under Individual Packing Credit Guarantee of ECGC is from the

date of disbursement of loan to :
a)
b)
c)
d)
Date of shipment
Date of discontig of bill
Date of credit to nostro account
Date of repayment of rupee loan
6 PCFC/EBR transactions pertaining to Non-Designated Branches will be reported

in R-Return of ________
a) Non-Designated Branch
c) FD Kolkatta
b)
d)
Designated Branch
Respective LHO
308

7 Gross Interest Earnings received by Designated Branch on PCFC/EBR
transactions of Non-Designated Branch will be transferred by the designated
branch to ______
c) FD Kolkatta
b)
d)
Respective LHO
Retained by Designated Branch
8 Income received by Designated Branch on account of Forex Remuneration and

handling/processing charges pertaining to PCFC/EBR transaction of NDB will be
transferred to ________
c) FD Kolkatta
b)
d)
Respective LHO
Retained by Designated Branch
9 Statement of PCFC will be sent to FD Kolkatta at ______interval

a) Fortnightly
c) Quarterly
b)
d)
Monthly
Half-yearly
10 Statement of bills discounted under EBR will be sent at fortnightly interval to

a) RBI
c) FICCI
b)
d)
FD Kolkatta
Finance Ministry
11 The rate of interest on Pre-shipment finance in Foreign Currency upto 180 days
a) LIBOR + 1%
c) LIBOR + 3.50%
b)
d)
LIBOR + 2%
LIBOR - 1%
12 In case of running account facility advance can not be used for

EPC/PCFC of more than ----days
a) 180days
c) 360 days
b)
d)
liquidating
60 days
None of these
13 Which is not true in the case of Pre-shipment finance in Foreign Currency

a) Sharing of PCFC by supplier & EOH permitted
b) Partly in rupee and part PCFC for same export order permitted
c) Forward contacts can not be booked
d) All are applicable
309
14
Which is not true in the case of Post-shipment finance

a) Sanction of EPC to accompany sanction of post shipment facilities
b) Separate limits for LC/ non-LC bills
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
15 Which is not true in the case of SBI Exporters Gold Card Scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
16
Account standard for last three years

Unit has not incurred losses during past 3 years
Limit valid for 3 years
All are true
Which is not true in the case of SBI Exporters Gold Card Scheme
a) Stand by limit of 20% of assessed limit to meet sudden orders
b) Step up by 10% at end of 1st & 2nd year by BM allowed
c) Interest concession for pre-shipment & post-shipment
d) All are true
17
A stand by limit of 20%, sanctioned over and above the limit, can be
utilized by the exporter under SBI Exporter Gold Card Scheme, for a
maximum period of _____days in one instance
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
365
18 Under SBI Exporter Gold Card Scheme, eligible exporters can be sanctioned
pre-shipment credit limits for _____days with some concession in rate of interest
a) 60
b)
90
c) 180
d)
365
19 Under SBI Exporter Gold Card Scheme, eligible exporters can be sanctioned
post-shipment credit limits for _____days with some concession in rate of interest
a) 60
c) 180
b)
d)
90
365
20 A fresh application for credit facility under SBI Exporter Gold Card
will be disposed off within ____days
a) 10
b)
15
c) 20
d)
25
Scheme
310

21 An application for renewal of limit under SBI Exporter Gold Card Scheme will be
disposed off within _____days
a) 10
c) 20
b)
d)
15
25
23 Request for sanction of adhoc limits under SBI Exporter Gold Card Scheme will
be processed within _____days
a) 7
c) 21
b)
d)
14
28
24 Due to the difficulties faced by the exporters, the requirement of overdue bills not
exceeding 10% of the previous years export turnover has been dispensed with
for a period of__
a)
b)
c)
d)
From 01.04.09 to 31.03.2010

From 01.09.09 to 30.09.2010
From 01.04.09 to 31.03.2011
Has been permanently dispensed with

EXPORTS-IV
1
6
11
16
21
d
a
b
c
a
2
7
12
17
22
b
d
c
c
d
3
8
13
18
23
d
a
c
d
d
4
9
14
19
24
b
b
d
d
a
5
10
15
20
b
c
d
b
*****
311
ASSIGNMENT 19 (IB)
COLLECTIONS
1
Documentary collections are covered under the provisions contained in----a) UCPDC 600
c) URC522
b)
d)
ISBP
None of above
Documentary collection means collection of

a)
b)
c)
d)
Financial documents accompanied by commercial documents

Commercial documents not accompanied by financial documents
Either (a) or (b)
Only (a)
Clean collection means collection of

a) Financial documents accompanied by commercial documents
b) Commercial documents not accompanied by financial documents
c) Financial documents not accompanied by commercial documents
d) None of above
Under a collection, if full details regarding interest and charges to be collected

from the drawee are given, without specifying if such charges can be waived
or not, the presenting bank can waive interest and bank charges without
reference to the seller or his bank
a) True
b)
False
A collection contains a bill of exchange payable at a future date. However , it

does not contain the instruction whether the commercial documents are to be
released against acceptance( D/A) or payment( D/P). The collecting bank will
release the commercial documents
a) Against acceptance
b) Against payment
c) The collecting bank to refer to seller or his bank for seeking instructions
d) None of these
312
Under URC522 which of the following statement is not true in respect of

documentary collections
a) Banks assume no liability or responsibility for consequences arising out of
the interruption of their business by strikes and lockout
b) Partial payments will be accepted if specifically authorized. However,
unless otherwise instructed, the presenting bank will release the documents
after full payment has been received
c) The presenting bank is responsible for the genuineness of any signature
or for the authority of any signatory to sign the acceptance
Centralised cheque collection and export bill payment centre is

a) GMU-K
c) GLS
b)
d)
IBG, Corporate centre

Overseas Branch, Mumbai
Which of the following statement is not true in respect of cheque collections

a) All credits in customers account in respect of cash letter to be released
after cooling period of respective currency
b) Individual cheques above USD10,000 to be collected under FCS-Final
Credit Service
c) GLS collects USD cheques payable in USA, GBP cheques payable in UK
and EURO payable in Euro countries only
d) All are true
Under GNRCC, which of the following is not applicable

a) Under it, our Nostro account is credited immediately on receipt of
cheque at other end
b) The credit is reversed if the instrument is returned on or before
period
cooling
c) The credit is not reversed if the instrument is returned after cooling period
313
10
Financial Action Task Force ( FATF) on money laundering was established by

the G-7 summit in
a) 1990
c) 2001
11
b)
d)
Which of the following is/are the important USA enactments to combat money
laundering
a) FATF
c) USA PATRIOT Act
e) b & c
12
b)
False
b)
False
b)
d)
Acceptance
All of above
Inward Remittance Cell has been set up at :

a) Overseas Branch, Mumbai
c) Overseas Branch, Kolkatta
17
1989
None of above
Which of the following is a stage of Money Laundering

a) Introduction
c) Integration
16
b)
d)
When we make remittances or receive remittances, the payment instructions

are checked through a software OFAC Filter set up at GMU-Kolkatta
a) True
15
USA OFAC
All of above
Under USA Patriot Acts 120 Hour Rule , the deadline for submission of
information within 120 hour from the receipt of request is applicable to our
branches situated in USA
a) True
14
b)
d)
USA Patriot Act was originally enacted in

a) 1990
c) 2001
13
1989
None of above
b)
d)
GMU-Kolkatta
None of the above
IRC will process the remittances upto __for retail customers at

prevailing Card rate, except remittances received for opening of
accounts:
a) USD 5,000
c) USD 10,000
b)
d)
USD 50,000
None of above
314

18,
For transactions above USD 5,000 or its equivalent, as per FEDAI
guidelines, IRC will facilitate re-conversion at level rate if the customer request
within ____ days of the transaction:
a) 10 days
c) 15 days
b)
d)
7 days
Conversion not permitted
19.
IRC has the capability to send the remittances received for credit of
customers account with other Banks:
a) True
b) False

COLLECTIONS
1
6
11
16
c
c
e
b
2
7
12
17
c
c
c
c
3
8
13
18
c
d
a
b
4
9
14
19
a
d
a
a
5
10
15
b
b
c
*****
315

ASSIGNMENT 20 (IB)
FCNB PREMIUM ACCOUNT
1. Which of the following is true in the case of FCNB Premium Account
a) It is the earlier called Dollar Premium Account as it was available in USD only.
b) It is available in all the six designated currencies (viz. USD, GBP, EURO, AUD,
CAD and JPY).
c) It combines the benefits of a FCNR (B) deposit with Forward Cover to give
enhanced return to its depositors.
a) Deposit Tenor under FCNB is 1 year
b) Minimum deposit: USD 2000 / GBP 2000 / EUR 2000 / AUD 2000 / CAD
2000 / JPY 2,00,000
c) Both principal and interest are payable in Indian Rupees at a predefined
forward rate only and to be credited on maturity in NRE Savings bank
account only
d) All of the above
a) No auto renewal facility is available
b) Yields from this product are presently higher than FCNR (B) deposit
booked in corresponding foreign currency
c) Both a & b are true
a) No interest payable if the FCNR (B) deposit is closed before maturity.
b) In case of cancellation of Forward Contract by the customer, cancellation
charges and exchange gain/loss to be borne by the customer at prevailing rate.
c) Only authorized branches can open FCNR (B) Premium Account
FCNB PREMIUM ACCOUNT
1. d
2. d
3. c
4. d
316

SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - I
1
The relaxed security/Margin norms are to be applied------------- in

agricultural advances.
a)
c)
100
25
Borrower
Both a& b
AB4
AB7
Guarantee Agreement
c) Revival letter from the guarantor
b)
d)
50
No charges
b)
d)
Guarantor
None of the above
b)
d)
AB5
None of the above
b) Conversion of crop loan into Agri.

Term Loan
Detailed opinion reports are to be complied only on such borrowers whose

aggregate Agricultural advances exceed ------------.
a)
c)
8.
bank
No photograph to be obtained
AB7 document is obtained for -------------a)
7.
b)
d)
Deed of guarantee Document AB2 can be revived by the Guarantor by

executing ---.
a)
c)
borrower
borrower and bank on 50:50
Who executes document AB1?

a)
c)
Facility wise
None of the above
In case of advances to weaker sections, inspection charges should be

levied @------------% of prescribed rates.
a)
c)
b)
d)
In case of Agricultural advances, cost of photograph is borne by -------a)

c)
Borrower wise
Account wise
Rs. 25,000/Rs. 1,00,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 50,000/None of the above
While granting limits under KCC, the scale of finance, is prepared by--------.
a) District Level Technical Committee
c) Block level Consultative Committee
b) District Consultative Committee

d) None of above
317
9.
While granting limits under KCC, the scale of finance, is approved by -----a) District Technical Committee
c) Block level Consultative Committee
10.
While financing crop loan adopting scale of finance, following margins are
required---a)
c)
11.
May & November

On due dates
b) April & September

d) Half yearly
5%
25%
b)
d)
10%
NIL
5% to 10%
25% to 30%
b)
d)
NIL
15% to 25%
Purpose for which KCC can be granted.-------------a)

c)
16.
b) Tenant farmers
d) All of the above
What is the margin on Crop loans above Rs. 1,00,000/-where cost of

cultivation is worked out by the Bank.
a)
c)
15.
Owner Cultivators
Share Croppers
What is the margin on Crop loans up to Rs. 1,00,000/- where cost of

cultivation is worked out by the Bank.
a)
c)
14.
b) 25 %
d) No margin
Interest on Crop loan on current dues is to be applied

a)
c)
13.
40 %
15 %
Who is eligible for crop loan / KCC

a)
c)
12.
b) District Consultative Committee

d) None of above
Crop production
Contigent Needs
b)
d)
Ancillary activities
All of the above
In Contract Farming, under tie-up arrangement crop loan can be granted

without collateral security up to
a.
c.
Rs.25000
Rs.100000
b.
d.
Rs 50000
Rs 200000
318

17.
Loans up to Rs.------- for financing distribution of inputs for the allied

activities is treated as indirect agriculture advance under Priority sector
lending.
a)
c)
18.
25.00 lacs
50.00 lacs
30.00 lacs
50.00 lacs
b)
d)
40.00 lacs
None of above
In case of crop loans, norms for obtaining collateral security have been
relaxed for limits up to --------a)
c)
20.
40.00 lacs
None of above
Loans for financing to dealers in drip irrigation/sprinkler irrigation

system/agricultural machinery, irrespective of their location, is treated as
indirect agriculture advance under Priority sector lending up to Rs.-------.
a)
c)
19.
b)
d)
Rs. 10,000/Rs. 50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs.25,000/Rs.5,00,000/-
In case of Agricultural Term loans (where assets are created), norms for
obtaining collateral security have been relaxed for limits up to --------a)
c)
Rs. 10,000/Rs. 50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs. 25,000/Rs. 1,00,000/-
Answers
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - I
1
b
11
d
2
b
12
c
3
b
13
d
4
a
14
d
5
b
15
d
6
b
16
d
7
c
17
b
8
a
18
a
9
b
19
c
10
d
20
d
319
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE

AGR- II
1. In case of Agricultural Term loans (where assets are not created), norms for
obtaining collateral security have been relaxed for limits up to --------a) Rs. 10,000/b) Rs. 25,000/c) Rs. 50,000/d) Rs. 1,00,000/2. In case of crop loans/ agri. term loans norms for obtaining margins have
been relaxed for limits up to
a) Rs. 10,000/b) Rs. 25,000/c) Rs. 50,000/d) Rs. 1,00,000/3. As per the revised guidelines of RBI, the branches are required to prepare
a. Village wise credit plans
b. Branch credit plan.
c. Both Village wise credit plans and Branch credit plan
d. None of the above
4. Rabi crop is sown/planted in the months of---------------a) October/November
b) Feb/March
c) June/July
5.Kharif Crop is sown/planted in the months of---------------a) October/November
b) Feb/March
c) June/July
6.Kharif crop is harvested in the months of---------------a) October/November
b) Feb/March
c) June/July
320
7. AB1(SIMPLE) is applicable to farmers sanctioned with loan of Rs ___

a) Rs.50000
b) Rs.1 lac
c) Rs.2.00 lac
8.The account should have been a Standard Asset in the books of other
Bank/FI during the preceding -----years in case of take over of Agriculture
Advance.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
9. ATL accounts with minimum -------years repayment programme left, are
eligible for take over.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
10.For take over of ACC account from other Bank/Financial institution, minimum
amount should be-a) Rs. 1.00 lac
b) Rs.10.00 lac
c) Rs. 20.00 lac
d) No such stipulation
11.For take over of ATL account from other Bank/Financial institution for allied
activities, minimum amount should be-----------a) Rs. 1.00 lac
b) Rs.10.00 lac
c) Rs. 20.00 lac
12. For take over of ATL account from other Bank/Financial institution for other
than allied activities, minimum amount should be-----------a) Rs. 2.00 lac
b) Rs.10.00 lac
c) Rs. 20.00 lac
321
13. Bank pays interest on the current account balances maintained by our
sponsored RRBs @
a) 3.5%
b) No interest is being paid
c) 5%
d) 8%
14. The margin money requirement for agricultural term loan upto Rs. 1,00,000/- is
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) No margin
15. Where movable assets are not created and the loan amount is over Rs.1,00,000/-,
the borrower has to furnish security of
a) DP Note & Delivery letter, loan agreement
b) Only DP Note
c) Hypothecation of assets
d) Mortgage of land
16. The document AB6 is
a. Guarantee Agreement
b) Letter to the borrower demanding repayment of crop loan
c) Revival letter
d. Application for rephasement of term loan
17. The quantum of refinance extended by the NABARD for dryland development and
waste land development (where individuals are the beneficiaries) will be to the extent of
a) 50% of bank loan
b) 60% of bank loan
c) 75% of bank loan
d) 100% of bank loan
18. As per the revised guidelines of RBI , obtaining the No-due Certificate from
service area bank branch ........
a. is must for the lending branch .
b. is dispensed with for a Agl. loan amount upto Rs. 50,000/322
19. The present approach by Govt. towards rural lending is

a) Service Area Approach with relaxed norms
b) Village adoption
c) Multi Area Approach
d) Scattered lending
20. Revival letters AB4 & AB5 have to be affixed with Rs.______ Revenue
stamp
a) 0.25
b) 1.00
c) No Stamp
d) Varies from State to State
Answers
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - II
1
d
11
b
2
d
12
a
3
b
13
b
4
a
14
d
5
c
15
d
6
a
16
b
7
b
17
d
8
a
18
b
9
a
19
a
10
a
20
d
323

SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE III
1.
Limitation period for the hypothecation agreement AB1 in case of agricultural

term loans
a) 3 yrs. From the date of revival
b) 3 yrs. From the date of demand
c) 3 yrs. From the due date of repayment
d) 3 yrs. From the due date of repayment / first overdue instalment from the date
of demand whichever is earlier.
2.
For conversion of crop loans to term loans which of the following is required
a) Annawari certificate
b) VAO Certificate
c) Technical Rep ort
d) MDO certificate
3.
DCB register is to be maintained for

a) ATL only
b) ACC only
c) ATL and ACC
d) None
4.
After disbursement of the crop loan, inspection should be undertaken

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
In case of irregular crop loan, inspection should be undertaken

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
No inspection to be undertaken till harvest time
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
At the time of harvest
In case of regular ATL where moveable assets are created inspection should be
undertaken
a)
b)
c)
d)
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
No inspection for regular ATL account
324
7.
In case of irregular ATL where moveable assets are created inspection should
be undertaken
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
In case of regular ATL where immoveable assets are created inspection after
grounding of assets should be undertaken
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
Annually
The document can be revived by

a
b.
c.
d.
11.
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
Annually
In case of irregular ATL where immoveable assets are created inspection should
be undertaken
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Monthly
Quarterly
Half yearly
At the time of harvest
Obtaining a Revival letter

Part payment
Acknowledgement Of debt
All the above
SILVICULTURE refers to cultivation of

a)
b)
c)
d)
Forest Trees
Grasses
Fodder crop
Medicinal plant
12. Validity period of equitable mortgage is _______yrs

a)
b)
c)
d)
3
12
13
14
325
13. Mixed Farming means

a) Multiple cropping
b) Availing both crop loan & Gold loan
c) Undertaking cultivation and allied activities
d) None
14. To avail unrestricted refinance from NABARD, the maximum level of Gross NPA to
Loan & advances outstanding as at the end of the year preceeding previous year is
a)
b)
c)
d)
5%
10%
15%
20%
15. The limitation period of mortgage is 12 years which will be counted from
a. Execution of document
b. Date of creation of mortgage
c. Due date of repayment
d. Date of filing legal suit
16. The mandatory percentage of agricultural advances to Net Bank Credit is ______
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 40%
d) 18%
17. For the purpose of reporting in performance report, the advances to self help groups
(SHGs) should be categorised under
a) SBF sub-segment
b) SSI sub-segment
c) AGR segment
d) According to activity of SHG
18. The inspection visits are to be made by the field staff for
a) Pre-sanction survey
b) Post-sanction
c) Recovery of loans
d) All the above
326
19. Inspection of Agri NPA accounts should be done

a.monthly for ACC/KCC
b.monthly for ATL
c.quarterly for ACC/KCC and ATL
d. monthly for ACC/KCC and ATL
20. The inspection charges on loans under agrl. segment with limits
above Rs.25,000 & upto 2 lacs is
a) 200/ p.a.
b) 500/- p.a.
c) 10 00/- p.a.
Answers
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - III
1
d
11
a
2
a
12
b
3
c
13
c
4
d
14
c
5
a
15
c
6
c
16
d
7
a
17
c
8
d
18
d
9
a
19
d
10
d
20
b
327

SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - IV
1. Loan processing charges to be collected while processing a proposal with limits over
Rs. 25,000/- & upto Rs. 2,00,000/- lacs under Agrl. Segment is
a) Rs.500/b) Rs.500 per lacs
c) Rs.400 per lac
2. Loan processing charges to be collected while processing a proposal with limits
above Rs. 2 lacs and up to Rs 1.00 crore under Agrl. Segment is
a) 0.5% of the limits
b) Rs.250/- per lac
c) Rs.500/- per lac
d) Not. Applicable to agril. advances
3. Progressive farmers can be financed production credit maximum to the tune of
a. SOF recommended by DLTC/SLTC
b. 150% of SOF fixed by DLTC/SLTC.
c. 200% of SOF fixed by DLTC/SLTC.
4. The progressive farmer means who
a) uses advanced pre-harvest / post harvest technologies
b) having irrigation facilitiers
c) crop productivity is more than the average levels
d) Maintaining good track of record for alteast one year
e) All of the above
5. Scales of finance for crops fixed by DLTC is
a) Net of margin
b) including margin
c) total cost of cultivation
6. The basic marketing variables are
a. Product and Place
b. Price
c. Promotion
d. All of the above
328

7. In the case of revival of documents, the guarantor signs the revival letter but borrower
refuses to sign. The document is
a) Valid in the court of law.
b) Not valid in the court of law
c) Valid only in DRTs
d. Valid in District Courts
8 The Demand Collection and Balance (DCB) register is prepared at the branches
a) Monthly
b) Quarterly
c) Half -yearly
d) Yearly
9.D.C.B. register is maintained by the branches for -------.
a) P-segment advances only
b) C&I and SIB Segment advances only
c) ATL and ACC advances only
d) All segments of Advances
10. Which of the following is treated as fiscal year for the purpose of maintaining DCB
register.
a) 1st Jan to 31st Dec.
b) 1st April to 31st March.
c) 1st July to 30th June.
11.Which of the following should be included in the Demand, while preparing DCB
register.
a. Amounts due in ACC and ATL Accounts
b. Amounts transferred to Recalled Assets account in Agriculture
c. Both a & b
12.Total interest debited should not exceed the principal amount in case of short term
loans sanctioned to---------.
a) High Tech Agri Borrowers
b) Small/Marginal Farmer
c) DRI borrowers
329

13. As per Government directives, the share of weaker section in Banks advances
should be-------% of Priority sector advances.
a) 40%
c) 180%
b) 25%
d) None of above
14. If, targets under Agriculture financing are not achieved, shortfall is to be
contributed to
a.RBI
b.Central Govt.
c.Rural Infrastructure Development Fund of NABARD
d.None of th e above
15. In case of Agriculture Advance the general provision on standard asset is
a) 0.25%
b)0.40%
c) 1.00%
d) 10.0%
16. Up front fee for ATL is waived up to
a) Rs.50, 000
b) Rs.1, 00,000
c) Rs.2, 00,000
d) Rs.5, 00,000
17. The purpose of inspection is-------a) To ensure proper utilization of loans.
b) To establish and maintain a close and continuous
relationship between the Bank and borrower.
c) To ensure prompt repayment of dues.
d) All of the above
18.Maximum loan that can be sanctioned to farmers under Relief measures for farmers
indebted to Non-institutional lenders is-------------.
a)Rs. 25,000/b) Rs.50,000/c) Rs. 1,00,000/d) None of the above
330

19. The Service Area Approach was introduced w.e.f.......................
a. April,1968
b. April,1980
c. April,1989
d. April,1991
20. As per the revised guidelines of RBI , the Service Area concept is
a. strictly applicable for all advances
b. not applicable for P-segment advances
c. not applicable for lendings except under Govt. sponsored schemes.
Answers
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES IN AGRICULTURE - IV
1
a
11
c
2
c
12
b
3
c
13
b
4
e
14
c
5
a
15
a
6
d
16
c
7
b
17
d
8
d
18
b
9
c
19
c
10
c
20
c
331
RELIEF MEASURES IN AREAS AFFECTED BY NATURAL CALAMITIES AGR V

1.' Annewari ' declared by Revenue Authority is now
a. not required to extend relief measures in areas affected by natural calamities
b. required to extend relief measures in areas affected by natural calamities
c. must be required to extend relief measures in areas affected by natural
calamities
2.'Annewari' indicates.....................
a. Rainfall
b.Cropping pattern
c. Extent to which the crops are damaged due to natural calamity
3.'Annewari' is declared for ...............
a. Revenue Village wise
b. District as a whole
c. Block/Taluka as a whole
d. none of the above
4. What are the relief measures to be extended by Banks to the farmers whose crops
are damaged /affected by natural calamities?
a. Conversion of crop loan
b. Rephasement of Agri. Term Loans
c. Fresh Crop Loans after conversion of earlier crop loan outstandings
d. all the above
5. The amounts of crop loans not collected due to natural calamity should be converted
in to term loan for a period up to.........years for farmers other than SF/MF.
a.
c.
9
5
b.
d.
7
3
6. The amounts of crop loans not collected due to natural calamity should be
converted in to term loan for a period up to.........years for Small /Marginal
Farmers.
a.
c.
9
5
b.
d.
7
3
332
7. Where damage to crops arising out of natural calamity is very severe and has caused
acute distress to the farmers and the calamity is for two successive years the branches
may in consultation with the Task Force/ Steering Committee of SLBC , grant extension
of converted loans for longer periods ranging up to.............years
a. 8 to 9
b. 10 to11
c. 3 to 4
d. 5 to 7
8. In extreme cases of hardship arising out of very severe loss to the crops , or
occurrence of three successive crop failures and the debt burden being found to
be beyond the immediate repaying capacity of the borrowers, conversion for
longer period up to a maximum period of ............years may also be considered in
consultation with the Task Force/SLBC.
a. 11
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
9. In the case of Small/Marginal farmers, interest on the short term loan which has been
converted may be postponed and recovered in the next harvesting/marketing season
and there should be no compounding of interest outstanding on the short term loans in
such cases.
a. True
b. False
10. The rate of interest on the short term loans converted on account of natural calamity
should be...............
a. Higher than the crop loan
b. Lower than the crop loan
c. the same as was charged on the crop loan
11. What document is required to be obtained from the borrowers/guarantors
while granting facility of conversion of crop loan ?
a. AB-2
b. AB-6
c. AB-7
d. AB-5
333

12.What is maximum repayment period for loan sanctioned under Relief measures for
farmers indebted to Non-institutional lenders scheme.
a)
c)
24 months
48 months
b)
d)
36 months
60 months
13. In the event of natural calamities the Agl. Term loans instalments and interest
should be rescheduled for a period of ................years, keeping in view the repaying
capacity of the borrowers and extent of damage on account of the natural calamity .
a. 3 year and longer if the damage is severe
b. 1 years
c. 2 years
d 3 years maximum
14. In regard to natural calamity where only crop for that year is damaged and
productive assets are not damaged, the branches may postpone the payment of
instalments during the year of natural calamity, for a period of___
a.
c.
Three years
Two years
b.
d.
Five years
One year
15. The facility of reschedulement of Agri. Term Loans where only the crop for that year
is damaged due to natural calamity and productive assets are not damaged should not
be extended to those borrowers who are income tax payers.
a. True
b. False
16. The facility of reschedulement of Agri. Term Loans in case of drought should not be
extended to those borrowers who are having perennial sources of irrigation except
where water supply was not released from canals or irrigation facility was not available
from other perrenial sources.
a. True
b. False
17. In the event of a natural calamity like floods or cyclones where the productive assets
are partially or totally damaged and borrowers are in need of a new loan the repayment
of total Agl. Term loan including interest liability less the subsidies received from the
Govt. agencies and compensation available under insurance schemes may be fixed
having regard to the repaying capacity of the borrower and economic life of the new
assets financed subject to a maximum period of ...............years.
a.
c.
3
9
b.
d.
5
15
334

18. Where the crop loan which was converted in to term loan was earlier given against
personal security/ hypothecation of crop and the borrower is not able to offer charge/
mortgage of land as security for the converted loan, he should not be denied conversion
facility merely on the ground of his inability to furnish land as a security.
a. True
b. False
19. Branches should not insist on third party guarantees for providing conversion
facilities.
a. True
b. False
20. Margin requirements may be waived and the grants/subsidy given by the concerned
State Govt. may be considered as margin while financing fresh crop loans /term loans
after conversion/rephasement on account of natural calamity.
a. True
b. False
Answers
AGRICULTURE - V
1
a
11
c
2
c
12
c
3
a
13
a
4
d
14
d
5
d
15
a
6
c
16
a
7
d
17
d
8
d
18
a
9
a
19
a
10
c
20
a
335

ACC/KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)
AGR- VI
1. KCC limit comprises of financing for
a) Crop production and consumption credit.
b) Expenses related to ancillary activities.
c) Both a & b
2. Collateral security is required for ACC/KCC above
a) Rs.25000
b) Rs.50000
c) Rs.75000
d) Rs. 1,00,000/3. For ACC under tie-up arrangement/contract farming obtaining collateral is
waived upto
a) Rs.50000
b) Rs.75000
c) Rs.1.00 lac
d) Rs.2 lakhs
4. For KCC above Rs 1,00,000 if there are genuine difficulties in creation of mortgage/
Charge over land what instructions need to be followed?
a) any other appropriate security can be obtained.
b) Suitable third party guarantee can also be obtained
c) prior permission of controlling authority is required
d) all above
5. Margin stipulated for ATL or ACC/KCC of Rs. 1,00000/- is
a.10%
b.15%
c.25%
d.nil
6. KCC limit is valid
a) For ever
b) For 1 year
c) For 18 months
d) For 3 years
336
7.KCC holders up to the age of ---------------------years are covered under Personal

Accident Insurance Scheme.
a) 50
c) 70
b) 65
d) No age limit
8. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme for KCC holders covers risk up to Rs. ----- in
case of death due to accident or permanent total disability i.e. (loss of 2 eyes/2 limbs / 1
eye and1 limb)
a) Rs. 1, 00,000/-.
b) Rs. 50000/c) Rs. 25000/d) None of the above
9.Amount of annual premium to be paid to designated Insurance Co. under Personal
Accident Insurance Scheme is ---------------------------a) 1% of KCC limit per KCC holder
b) 2% of KCC limit per KCC holder
c) Rs.15/- per KCC holder
10.Under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, the amount of premium is borne by
a) KCC holder
b) Bank
c) Shared by Bank and borrower in the ratio of 2:1
11.Which insurance company is authorised to undertake servicing of business under
PAIS?
a) National Insurance Company Ltd.
b) The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd.
c) The New India Assurance Company Ltd.
d) Any of the four companies as per zone wise allocation
12.What is the process of premium payment under PAIS?
a) Branches sent direct to the company
b) Sent by ABU at LHO
c) Paid at bank level by the Central Office
d)Regional Offices of Commercial Banks will pay the premium to the nearest designated
office of the Insurance Company along with the list of KCC holders
337
13.Time limit for lodging claims under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme is---a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 3 months
14. The progressive farmers can be financed up to a maximum of ____ under KCC
a) Equal to SOF advised by DLTC.
b) Upto thrice above SOF.
c) Upto twice SOF by DLTC.
d) Assessed on case to case basis
15. While fixing limit of the borrower under KCC, the branch may take into Account
production credit requirements of the farmer for________
a) A Month
b) A Quarter
c) A Half- Year
d) A Year
16. The credit limit of borrower under KCC scheme is required to be reviewed---a) Every Year
b) After Two Years
c) After Three Years
d) Not reviewed
17.Which of the following requirements are treated as ancillary needs --------------a.Fuel/Power cost.
b.Repair & maintenance of Agricultural Machinery/Equipments
c.Minor investment of short term nature & Post harvest expenses.
d.All of the above .
18. The farmer- borrower can avail contingent credit needs under KCC up to ____
a) 10% of peak credit limit, max. Rs. 5000/b) 15% of peak credit limit, max. Rs. 10,000/c) 20% of peak credit limit granted for production purpose
d) 20% of total production credit limit
338

19. Margin stipulated for Rs. 2.00 lacs under ACC/KCC based on SOF is
a) Nil
b) 15 25%
c) 10 15 %
d) 20 25 %
20. Minimum and maximum loan to be sanctioned under KCC are
a)5000/- and no limit
b)5000/- and 1.00 crore
c)3000/- and no limit
d)none of above
(*Minimum KCC limit for Uttaranchal State is Rs1,000/-)
21.The objectives for launching KCC are ________________.
a) To provide Credit Cards like SBI Card to get payment from any part of the Country.
b) To provide Credit Cards to farmers to avail loan facility within the district.
c) To provide adequate and timely support from banking system to the farmers for their
short term production credit needs for cultivation of crops, purchase of inputs, in a
flexible and cost effective manner.
22. The following farmers are eligible to get KCC _______________
a.Existing borrowers of the branch/ bank having good track record for the last Two
years.
b Requiring production credit limit of Rs. 3000/- and above.
c.New borrowers including good borrowers of other banks, provided Branch Manager is
satisfied with their Credit-worthiness.
d.All of the above.
23. The peak credit limit under KCC is fixed on the basis of__________
a) Operational land holding, cropping pattern and scale of finance as Recommended by
District Level Technical Committee (DLTC).
b) Ancillary needs of the borrower
c) Contingent needs of the borrower
24. Following needs of the farmer are treated as contingent needs under KCC
a) Family maintenance expenses.
b) Educational and Medical Expenses.
c) Social & Religious ceremonies
d) Al l of the above.
339
25.Credit limit of the borrower under KCC is required to be renewed______

a) Every year
b) After 2 years
c) Once in 3 years
d) Not required
26. Repayment of Crop loan/KCC should be --------a) Quarterly
b) Half yearly
c) Linked with Harvesting and Marketing of the Crop.
27.New applicants under crop loan/KCC are not to be insisted upon for submitting
No dues certificates up to a loan limit of Rs.-------------.
a) Rs. 10000/b) Rs. 25000/c) Rs. 50000/d) None of the above
28. For Crop loans up to Rs. 25000/-, we recover inspection charges @-------a.Rs.2.50 per inspection with minimum of Rs.10/b.Rs.10/- per inspection with minimum of Rs.100/c.No charges
d.None of the above
29. Cheque book can be provided to
a. A literate KCC borrower
b. A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 25,000/- and above
c. A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 1 lakh and above
d. Any borrower availing KCC
30. ATM card can be provided to
a. All literate KCC account holders
b. A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 25,000/- and above
c. A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 1lakh and above
d. Any borrower availing KCC
340
Answers
ACC/KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC) AGR- VI
1
c
11
d
21
c
2
d
12
d
22
d
3
d
13
a
23
d
4
d
14
c
24
d
5
d
15
d
25
c
6
d
16
a
26
c
7
c
17
d
27
b
8
b
18
c
28
c
9
c
19
a
29
b
10
c
20
c
30
a
341

KISAN GOLD CARD
&
AGRI CLINIC & AGRI BUSINESS CENTRE
AGR- VII
1. Under KGC the quantum of loan is
a) Maximum Rs.10 lacs
b) Rs.5 lacs minus outstanding in the existing ATL account
c) 50 % of the value of the land to be mortgaged as collateral security or 5 times the
annual Farm income which ever is less, with a maximum Rs. 10 lacs minus term loan
out standing if any at the time of application
d) All of the above
2. Consumption loan under KGC can be granted up to
a) 20% of the eligible KGC limit
b) 30% of the eligible KGC limit
c) 40% of the eligible KGC limit
d) 50% of the eligible KGC limit
3. Following farmers are eligible to get Kisan Gold Card--------------a) All Farmers irrespective of their previous track record.
b) Only selected farmers with handsome land holding.
c) Farmers irrespective of their land holdings, with good track record of
repayment in their ACC & ATL accounts for the last two years as on the
date of application.
4. What is the minimum margin for consumption loan in KGC scheme?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 30%
5. The loan sanctioned under KGC scheme is required to be utilised by farmer
for___________
a) Purchase of agricultural implements, land development, Bullocks &
carts.
b) Repair of farm machinery.
c) Any other domestic needs like expenditure on account of children's
education, marriage, medical expenses etc.
d) All of the above
6. Under Kisan Gold Card Scheme, a minimum margin of _______% in the
case of invesrment purpose and _______% in case of consumption purposes to
be maintained.
a.5% & 10% respectively
b.15% & 20% respectively
c.20% & 25% respectively
d.10% & 30% respectively
342
7. How many accounts can be opened by the borrower financed under KGC----a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) any number of a/cs
8. The Kisan Gold Card is valid for a period of ________years.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
9. The loans sanctioned under Kisan Gold Card are treated as --------accounts.
a) ACC
b) ATL
c) Term Loan
10. What is the usual norm of repayment under KGC-------a) 3 to 4 years
b) 4 to 5 years
c) 6 to 7 years
d) 8 to 9 years
11. Kisan Gold Card scheme (KGC) is applicable to
a) Small and Marginal farmers only.
b) Progressive farmers only
c) Highly progressive farmers only
d) All farmers irrespective of the size of their land holdings.
12. What are the activities that have recently been excluded from the list of activities
financed under KGC?
a) Purchase of land
b) construction of farm house
c) purchase of tractor and accessories
d) All the above
13. KGC limit can be sanctioned to
a. Existing Borrowers maintaining standard loan accounts for last 2 years.
b. Farmers who have closed their accounts without any default & who are not our
current customers
c.Good borrowers of other banks provided they liquidate their outstanding with other
banks
d. All the above
343

14. KGC limit can be disbursed for
a) purchase of two wheelers
b) purchase of agricultural land
c) construction of House
d) all of above
15. What is the repayment period for loans granted for setting up of Horticulture
Orchards?
a.5 years
b.7 years
c. 9 years
d.10 years
16. Is there any mechanism for verification of enduse of funds given under KGC?
a.Not required where assets are created
b.Proof required in case of farm machinery
c. To ensure the end use of funds by verification of assets and collection of
invoices/cash receipts, within one month from the date of release of the funds
d. Not required in any case
17. Loan amount sanctioned under KGC can be disbursed in cash upto
a.50% of loan amount
b.Only consumption credit component
c. No cash disbursal is allowed
d. Full extent of credit limit
18. In case of Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres, norms for obtaining collateral
security have been relaxed for limits up to ---------.
a) Rs. 10000/b) Rs.25000/c) Rs. 50000/d) Rs. 500000/19. In case of Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres, norms for obtaining margins
have been relaxed for limits up to --------a) Rs. 10000/b) Rs.25000/c) Rs. 50000/d) Rs. 500000/20. Maximum Quantum of loan financed for an individual under Agriclinics
& ABC is
a) Rs.3 lacs
b) Rs.5 lacs
c) Rs.10 lacs
d) Rs.25 lacs
344

21. Maximum quantum of loan that can be financed under Agriclinics &
Agri business centre to be taken up as a group activity is
a) Rs.20 lacs
b) Rs.30 lacs
c) Rs.50 lacs
d) Rs1.00 crore
22. Advance for Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres is classified under
a.Direct Agriculture Advance
b.Indirect Agriculture Advance
c.50% as Direct Agriculture Advance
d.C&I advance
23. Advance for Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres can be repaid within
a. 3-5 years with a moratorium period of 2 years
b. 5-10 years with a moratorium period of 2 years
c. 7-12 years with a moratorium period of 2 years
d. 10 -15 years with a moratorium period of 2 years
24. What is the objective of setting up of Agri-clinics and Agri-business centres?
a. To augment support and extension services for agriculture.
b. To strengthen transfer of technology and extension of services
c. To provide self employment opportunities to technically trained persons.
d. all above
25. What is the margins for limits upto Rs 5 lac?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. Nil
d. 15%
26. What is the margins for limits more than Rs 5 lac?
a. 5-10%
c. 25%-30%
b.
d.
10-15%
15-25%
27. Whether loans under ACABC are covered under CGTMSE scheme
a. Yes, all activities irrespective of loan amount
b. Yes, all activities above Rs. 5 lacs
c. Yes, few activities are covered
d. No
28. What is the quantum of NABARD refinance available under the scheme?
a. 25%
b. 100%
c. 10%
d. Not available
345

29. What are instruction regarding educational qualification if the group consists of 5 or
more persons?
a. All should be Agriculture Graduate
b. one among a. should be a post graduate in agriculture
c. minimum 2 among group should be Agri Graduates
d. all except one of them would have to be agriculture graduate trained under the
scheme and the remaining could be non-agri graduate with experience in business
development and management.
30. What is the quantum of subsidy available?
a. No subsidy
b Credit linked capital subsidy @25% of the capital cost of the project funded through
bank loan would be eligible
c. 33.33% in respect of borrowers belonging to SC, ST, women and other
disadvantaged sections and those from North-Eastern and Hill States.
d. both b. & c.
Answers
KISAN GOLD CARD
&
AGRI CLINIC & AGRI BUSINESS CENTRE AGR- VII
1
c
11
d
21
c
2
a
12
d
22
b
3
c
13
d
23
b
4
d
14
a
24
d
5
d
15
c
25
c
6
d
16
c
26
d
7
c
17
d
27
c
8
a
18
d
28
b
9
b
19
d
29
d
10
c
20
c
30
d
346
ARTHIAS PLUS, CROP INSURANCE & PRODUCE MARKETING LOAN

AGR-VIII
1. What is the eligibility criteria under ARTHIAS PLUS scheme?
a) Commission agents enjoying good reputation and holding a valid license from the
market yard/ board and are in the line of business for the past 3 years.
b) Commission agents having receivables from farmers only.
c) Commission agents functioning in rural and semi urban markets/mandis.
d) all above
2. What is the type of advance ARTHIAS PLUS scheme?
a) CC Hypothecation stocks
b) CC Hypothecation of book debts not older than 6 months
c) Demand Loan
d) Term loan
3. What is the periodicity of interest application?
a) Monthly
b) Quarerly
c) Half yearly coincide with harvesting season
d) annualy
4. What is the procedure of obtaining statement of eligible book debts?
a) Monthly
b) yearly
c) Half yearly intervalsverified from borrowers books of a/c or audited financial
statement.
d) Not obtained
5. Margin stipulated for a loan under ARTHIAS PLUS is
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 40%
6. Maximum repayment period that can be given under ARTHIAS PLUS is
a) 12 months
b)
6 months
c) 15 months
d)
24 months
7. Collateral security requirement for financing under Arthias Plus scheme upto
Rs25.00lacs is
a. No security is required
b. Agricultural Land
c. Residential/ commercial property(non agri) worth 1.5 times of the advance.
d. Either b or c
347
8. A loan of above Rs.10 lacs to Arthias (against receivables)

is classified under ___________segment .
a) Agriculture
b) SIB
c) C&I
d) Any segment to suit branch convenience
9. Bank debts / receivables not older than __ months are eligible for finance
under "Arthias Plus"
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
10Maximum Loan amount under the scheme is Rs--------lacs
a)25
b)50
c)15
d)30
11. Loans under the scheme is treated as
a )indirect agriculture finance
b) direct agriculture finance
c)Small business finance
d)Commercial advance
12. Crops covered under the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme are
a) All Cereals and pulses
b) All Fruits and vegetables
c) Only notified crops in the country
13. The implementing agency for NAIS is
a) United India Insurance Co. Ltd.
b) Oriental Insurance Co.
c) Agricultural Insurance Company of India Ltd.
d) GIC
14. Loan under Produce Marketing Loan scheme is sanctioned ------------------.
a) To provide finance to farmers to purchase produces from the market.
b) To help farmers to avoid distress selling.
c) both a & b
348

15. Margin in case of loan sanctioned against goods stored in farmers godown is -----%
a) 50
b) 40
c) 30
d) 10
16. PML is treated as----a) Direct finance to agriculture
b) Indirect finance to agriculture
c) Clean loan
d) Group loan
17. The loan amount, can be financed under Produce Marketing Loan scheme is
a) 50% of the value of produce, Maximum Rs.5.00 lac
b) 60% of the value of produce, Maximum Rs.5.00 lac
c) Maximum Rs.5.00 lac, no linkage with value of produce
d) 60% to 80% of value of produce, Maximum Rs.10.00 lacs
18. What is maximum repayment period permissible for loan sanctioned under
Produce Marketing Loan scheme?
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 18 months
19. Under Produce Marketing Loan scheme, full insurance cover to be obtained,
if value of stock exceeds---------------------a) Rs.10, 000/b) Rs.15, 000/c) Rs.25, 000/d) No insurance required
20. Financing under Produce Marketing Loan can be made to
a) All non-overdue ACC/KCC Borrower of our branches
b) All crop loan Borrowers of other banks
c) Non-borrower farmers
d) All of the above
21.In case of loan sanctioned against warehouse receipt under Produce Marketing
Loan, the collateral security requirement upto Rs 10 lakhs is
a.100% of loan amount
b. 50% of loan amount
c. No collateral security is required
d. 200% of loan amount
349

22. PML is helpful in _______________
a) Increasing branch advances
b) improving recovery position
c) avoiding distress sale by farmer
d) all the above
23. Margin against warehouse receipt issued by Central/State Warehousing
Corpn is ____% & _____% for repayment period of 6 months and for >6months
but within 12 months respectively
a) 20 , 30
b) 25 , 35
c) 10 , 15
d) 30 , 40
24. . Maximum Produce Marketing Loan loan under Priority sector is
a) Rs. 5 lacs
b) Rs. 2 lacs
c) Rs. 10 lacs
d) Rs. 25 lacs
Answers
ARTHIAS PLUS, CROP INSURANCE & PRODUCE MARKETING LOAN AGR-VIII
1
d
11
a
21
c
2
b
12
c
22
d
3
a
13
c
23
a
4
c
14
b
24
c
5
d
15
b
6
b
16
a
7
c
17
d
8
c
18
b
9
b
19
b
10
b
20
d
350
LAND PURCHASE SCHEME, FINANCING RURAL GODOWN , COLD STORAGE,

SCHEME FOR FINANCING TO PRIVATE COLD STORAGES/WARE HOUSES
AGR - IX
1. Loan under Land Purchase scheme cannot be considered for which of the following
purposes
a) cost of land
b) registration charges and stamp duty.
c) purchase of farm equipment.
d) building of house.
2.Gestation period allowed under Land purchase scheme if land is to be developed is----------.years
a) 1-2
b) 2-3.
c) 3-4
d) 4-5.
3.Minimum margin required for financing under Land Purchase scheme is--------a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) No margin is required
4.Maximum loan amount, which can be financed under Land Purchase scheme
is----------a) Rs. 2.00 lac
b) Rs. 5.00 lac
c) Rs.10.00 lac
d) No limit
5. What is maximum repayment period permissible for loans sanctioned under
Land Purchase scheme
a) 5-7 years after expiry of gestation period
b) 7-8 years after expiry of gestation period
c) 9-10 years after expiry of gestation period
6. Loans for purchase of agricultural land can be sanctioned to
a) Small and Marginal farmers
b) Tenant cultivators, share croppers & landless agricultural labourers
c) Both a & b
351
7. Gramin Bhandaran Yojna is financing for construction of

a) Farm House
b) Residential House in rural area
c) Rural Godown
8. Normal Margin Requirement under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
9. Margin requirement for projects in NE States & hilly areas and SC/ST
beneficiaries under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%
10. Maximum subsidy provided under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana for individuals /
Companies & Corporates is
a) 15 % maximum Rs. 28.12 lacs
b) 15% maximum Rs. 25.56 lacs.
c) 20% maximum Rs. 22.50 lacs.
d) 20% maximum Rs. 25 lacs.
11. Maximum subsidy provided under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana for farmers,
Agri graduates, Cooperatives, CWC/State warehouse corporation is
a) 20% maximum of Rs. 25.56 lacs
b) 25% maximum of Rs. 46.87 lacs
c) 25% maximum of Rs. 40.50 lacs
d) 25% maximum of Rs. 50 lacs
12. Maximum subsidy provided under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana for projects in
NE states hilly areas above 1000 MSL and for SC/ST individuals and their
cooperatives is
a) 25% maximum of Rs. 40.26 lacs
b) 25% maximum of Rs. 50.56 lacs
c) 33.33% maximum of Rs. 40 lacs
d) 33.33% maximum of Rs. 62.50 lacs.
13. Subsidy provided to cooperatives for renovation of godowns under Gramin
Bhandaran Yojana is
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 33.33%
352
14. Subsidy under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is provided by

a) RBI.
b) NABARD.
c) Minister of rural development
d) Ministry of Agriculture
15.What amount of subsidy is released as advance subsidy on sanction of loan by the
bank ?
a) 25%
b) 22%
c) 50%
d) 33%
16.Subsidy under Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme for construction of Rural
Godowns is restricted to the maximum capacity of -------------a) 1000 tonne
b) 5000 tonne
c) 10,000 tonne
d) No ceiling
17. Maximum repayment period for loans under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 11 years
d. 15 years
18. Maximum repayment period for financing Cold Storages is
a.5years
b.9 years
c.11 years
d.15 years
19. The capital investment subsidy (back ended) is released for construction of
cold storage by
a) APEDA
b) Ministry of agriculture & co-operation
c) National Horticulture Board
d) NABARD
20. Loans to pvt. cold storages/ware houses designed to store agriculture produce
irrespective oflocation is treated as
a. Direct Agricultural Advance
b. Indirect Agricultural Advance
c. Advance under C&I segment
d. Advance under SSI segment
353
Answers
LAND PURCHASE SCHEME, FINANCING RURAL GODOWN , COLD STORAGE,
SCHEME FOR FINANCING TO PRIVATE COLD STORAGES/WARE HOUSES
AGR - IX
1
d
11
b
2
a
12
d
3
a
13
b
4
b
14
b
5
c
15
c
6
c
16
c
7
c
17
c
8
d
18
b
9
c
19
c
10
a
20
b
354

SELF HELF GROUP
AGR-X
1. The concept of SHG originated from
a) Sri Lanka
b) Pakistan
c) Bangladesh
d) Indonesia
2. The nodal agency for implementation of the concept of SHG in India is
a) RBI
b) NABARD
c) RRBs
d) Central Govt
3. Originator of the concept of SHG is
a) Prof. Mohammed Yunus
b) Prof. Yunus Khan
c) Prof. Mohammed
d) Prof. Salman Khan
4. SHG can be financed
a) 6 months after opening the saving Bank account
b) 3 months after formation of group
c) 6 months after formation of group
d) 12 months after formation of groups
5. In SHG finance, the Inter-se Agreement is executed by
a) Bank
b) NGO
c) President & Secretary of the SHG
d) All the members of the SHG
6. VVV stands for
a) Village Vikas Vahini
b) Volunteer Village Vahini
c) Vikas Volunteer Vahini
7. ------is instrumental in high % of recovery in respect of advances to SHGs.
a) NABARD
b) RBI
c) Peer Pressure
355

8. SHGs and Credit linkage means----------------a) When bank staff forms SHGs.
b) When SHG opens a SB account in the bank
c) When SHGs are linked to the Bank for financing
9. Who is responsible for repayment of SHG loans?
a) The NGO who formed the group
b) The leader of the group
c) All the members jointly and severally
10. Who decides the rules and regulations for SHG ?
a) The facilitator (who forms the group)
b) The banker
c) The leader of the group
d) All the members of the group with their collective wisdom.
11. What is maximum Quantum of finance for financing to SHG ?
a) Up to Rs. 50,000/b) Up to 4 times of the corpus of the group Max. Rs. 50000/c) Up to 4 times of the corpus of the group
12. Corpus means____________
a) Balance held in Saving Bank account of the SHG
b) Total of balances held in cash, Bank accounts & loans to members
etc.
c) Requirements of all the members of the group.
13. Incentive provided to NGO for credit linking to SHG is
a) Rs.500/b) Rs.750/c) Rs.250/d) No incentive is provided
14. Collateral Security is exempted for financing SHG for any industrial
activity upto
a) Rs.1.00 lacs
b)Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Rs.10.00 lacs
d) Rs.No collateral is obtained
356
15. SB account and loan account to SHG should be opened in the name of --------a) The leader of the group
b) Office bearers of the group
c) All the members of the group jointly
d) Self Help Group only
16. Six month period for considering bank linkage is reckoned from the date of
a) Formation of group
b) Opening of SB account
c) Commencement of internal lending
17. SHG Bank credit linkage can take the form of
a) SHGs financed directly by banks
b)SHGs financed directly with NGOs facilitation
c)Indirect finance to SHGs through NGOs/MFIs
d)All of the above
18. What documents are to be obtained for financing to SHG?
a) Application, Inter-se agreement, Articles of Agreement, sponsorship
letter,arrangement letter
b) AB-1, AB-3 or AB-2, Arrangement Letter
c) Tripartite agreement between the Bank, SHG and NGO
19. Financing of SHGs is preferred because__________________
a) 100% NABARD refinance is available
b) it is priority sector lending
c) Branches get remuneration in TPM
d) All the above
20. While sanctioning loan to SHG , purpose for which loan is required is decided by
a) Branch Manager
b) DRDA
c) BDO
d) Group
Answers
SELF HELF GROUP AGR-X
1
c
11
c
2
b
12
b
3
a
13
b
4
c
14
b
5
d
15
d
6
c
16
a
7
c
17
d
8
c
18
a
9
c
19
d
10
d
20
d
357
SELF HELF GROUP (I)

AGR-XI
1. Incentives to NGOs for credit linking a SHG is
a) 250/b) 500/c) 750/d) 1,000/2 An SHG should not consist of more than ----persons
a)20
b)10
c)12
d)15
3. Purpose of the loan to SHG can be ___________
a) income generation
b) social needs like housing,education etc
c) debt swapping
d) all the above
4. Ideally what is the minimum and maximum no. of members in an SHG?
a) 5-10
b) 10-20
c) 20 -25
*However, the minimum may be reduced to 5 in Hilly Area/Tribal
Area/Disabled/Minor Irrigation activity.
5. Six months period for considering Bank Linkage is reckoned from the date of
a) Formation of group
b) Opening of SB a/c
c) Commencement of internal lending
6. To be eligible for direct bank credit linkage which of these conditions is not
compulsory
a) Group should have been in existence for a period of 6 months
b) Proper maintenance of accounts should be there
c) The group should have undertaken savings and credit operations through its own
resources.
d) Village panchayat leaders should be included as office bearers of SHG
358
7. Which of the following is not a criterion for NGO to be eligible for payment of incentive
a) Should be registered under Societies act/trust act
b) Minimum period of existence should be 3 years.
c) It should not be blacklisted
d) It should have extended finance to SHG
8. Out of the incentive given to NGO ----% is given on formation of SHG and opening of
Saving Bank a/c
a) 40
b) 30
c) 50
d) 20
9. Under SHG Gold Card minimum loan that can be given is Rs------a) 2.00lacs
b) 0.50lacs
c) 1.50lacs
d) 2.50lacs
10. While sanctioning loan to SHG purpose for which loan is required is
decided by
a) Branch Manager
b) DRDA
c) BDO
d) Group
11. The important benefits to the members of Group is
a) Social empowerment.
b) Financial empowerment
c) a & b
12. Processing charges for SHG loans are
a) nil
b) Rs500 per loan
c) Rs250 per loan
d) Rs1000 per loan
13. NABARD provides refinance upto ----%of loan amount given to SHG .
a) 50
b) 100
c) 75
d)60
359
14. Minimum loan amount under SHG credit card is ----------.

a) Rs. 20000/b) Rs. 15000/c) Rs. 50000/d) None of these
15. SHG credit card is valid for ------ years
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d)5
16. To be eligible for SHG credit card which of the following conditions need not be
fulfilled.
(a) Should have reached the third level of linkage and have a minimum credit limit of
Rs50000/(b) Should be regular in repayment of earlier loans
(c) Minimum 2 members should be literate.
(d) Should have adopted at least 2villages
17. Margin in case of SHG credit card is
(a) 20%
(b) nil
(c )10%
(d) 5%
18. SHPI
stands for
a) Self help Group Promoting Institutions

b) Self help Group participating individuals
c) Safehealth Promoting Institutions
d) Safe health participating Institutions
19.Grameen Shakti is an _____________for SHG members.
a) insurance product from SBI life ( now discontinued )
b) banks loan scheme
c) insurance product of New India Assurance co.
d) Non of the above
360
20. Outsourcing of recovery in advances through SHG is for

a. Govt. sponsored schemes NPAs
b. Govt. sponsored schemes-Both Standard and NPAs
c. Bank Regular scheme-Only NPAs
d. Both b&c
21. Selection of SHGs for outsourcing of recovery in advances is vested with
a. Branch
b. Region
c. Module
d. LHO
22. Which of the following is not correct in respect of Outsourcing of recovery in
advances through SHG
a. SHGs will be paid a commission of 5% for Standard Assets
b. SHGs will be paid a commission of 10% for NPAs
c. It will be paid by debit to Charges Account- monthly
d. It will be paid by debit to Interest Account- monthly
Answers
SELF HELF GROUP (I) AGR-XI
1
c
11
c
21
a
2
a
12
a
22
d
3
d
13
b
4
b
14
c
5
a
15
a
6
d
16
d
7
d
17
b
8
c
18
a
9
a
19
a
10
d
20
d
361
GRAM NIWAS AND SAHAYOG NIWAS

AGR- XII
1. Gram Niwas is a scheme for financing for construction / repair/renovation of a
a) Farm Pump Shed.
b) Residential House / work shed.
c) Quarters for Farm Labourers.
d) Hotels in rural / semi-urban areas.
2. Eligible category of Borrowers under Gram Niwas are
a) individuals having satisfactory accounts with us
b) Members of SHG having saving / loan account with us
c) both the above
d) neither of a and b
3. Maximum loan for construction/purchase of new house
member under Gram Niwas is
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 5 lac
c) Rs. 2 lac
d) Rs. 2.5 lacs
that can be given to a
4. Maximum loan under Gram Niwas for repair / renovation / extension of a

house and or work space is
a) Rs. 0.75 lacs
b) Rs. 1 lac
c) Rs. 2 lac
d) Rs. 1.50 lacs
5. Maximum loan under Gram Niwas for purchase of land is
a) Rs. 0.30 lacs
b) Rs. 1 lac
c) Rs. 2 lac
d) Rs. 1.50 lacs
6. Margin requirement under Gram Niwas upto a loan of Rs. 50,000 is------- of project
cost
a) Nil
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%
362

7. Margin requirement under Gram Niwas for a loan above Rs. 50,000 and upto 5 lacs
is------- of project cost
a) Nil
b) 5%
c) 15%
d) 20%
8. Margin requirement under Gram Niwas for a loan above Rs. 5 lacs is------- of
project cost
a) Nil
b) 5%
c) 15%
d) 20%
9. Gram niwas scheme is applicable in
a) semi urban and urban areas
b) Semi-urban areas and rural areas
c) all areas
d).only rural areas
10. How is loan amount calculated in respect of applicants having average annual
income upto Rs 40000 ?
a) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 25%
b) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 45%
c) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 55%
d) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 60%
income above Rs 40000 and upto Rs 2 lac ?
income above Rs 2 lac upto Rs 5 lacs ?
income above Rs 5 lac ?
363

14. Sahayog Niwas is housing loan scheme given to
a) Individual members of SHGs.
b) SHGs for onward lending to its members.
c) NGOs for lending to SHGs.
d) All the above.
15. Loans under Sahayog Niwas can be sanctioned for
a) Purchase of plot of land & constructing house.
b) Construction of house and / or a workspace / shed.
c) Repairs / Renovation / Extension of existing house or a workspace.
d) All the above
16. Loans under Sahayog Niwas can be sanctioned to SHGs functioning in
a) Rural areas
b) Semi-urban areas
c) Urban areas
d) Both a & b above
17. Maximum period of repayment under Sahyog Niwas is -----a) 20.
b)15.
c) 5.
d)10.
18. Sahayog Niwas is a housing scheme operational in
a) Rural areas
b) Semi-urban
c) Both Rural and Semi-urban
d) None of these
19. SHGs which are in existence for more than __ years with good track record
are eligible under Sahyog Niwas.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 10
d) None of these
20. Maximum amount that can be sanctioned under Sahyog Niwas.per member of SHG
is----.
a) Rs. 1.00 lacs
b) Rs. 50,000/c) Rs. 10,000/d) No ceiling
364

21. Primary security for loan under Sahyof niwas is.
a) Land
b) Group guarantee of SHG members
c) any third pary guarantee
d) None of these
22. Under Sahyog Niwas scheme , the loan amount is maximum ----times of
corpus fund
a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 20
23. Maximum repayment period for loan sanctioned under Gram Niwas is ____
years .
a) 15
b) 10
c) 5
d) None of these
Answers
GRAM NIWAS AND SAHAYOG NIWAS AGR- XII
1
b
11
b
21
b
2
c
12
c
22
a
3
b
13
d
23
a
4
c
14
b
5
b
15
d
6
c
16
d
7
c
17
b
8
d
18
c
9
b
19
b
10
a
20
b
365

SGSY
AGR- XIII
1. SGSY launched by GOI from
a) 01.04.1999
b) 01.04.2000
c) 01.01.1999
2. SGSY replaces the earlier poverty alleviation programmes viz. IRDP, DWCRA,
GKY, MWS, SITRA and TRYSEM by.
a) organizing the rural poor into Self Help Groups
b) financing to existing SHGs
c) financing individuals
d) All of above
3. SGSY is funded by---------------a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Central and State Govt. in the ratio of 75:25
4. SGSY seeks to promote self employment opportunities to rural poor through
promotion of micro-enterprises
a) In cluster
b) Scattered, based on the intensity of poverty
c) Choice of the BM
5. Poor families identified for assistance under SGSY are called:
a) Beneficial
b) Swarojgaris
c) Borrower
6. Objective of SGSY is to bring poor families above poverty line by providing
them with income generating assets through
a) Bank credit
b) Govt. subsidy
c) a & b
7. Target group under SGSY consists of
a) All BPL families
b) All members of BPL families
c) All above poverty line families
366
8. Which among the following is not correct in case of financing to SGSY

a) Cluster approach under SGSY helps in providing Backward and
Forward linkages in a cost effective manner.
b) Multiple doses of credit can be provided in deserving cases based on
the credit history of swarojgaris.
c) Primary responsibility of identifying the key activities in the cluster rests
with the Branch Manager
d) Primary responsibility of identifying the key activities in the cluster rests
with the Block Level SGSY Committee
9. The authority empowered to add or delete any activity in the list of activities
under SGSY
a) BDO
b) Block level SGSY committee
c) District level SGSY committee
10. First grading test enables the group eligible for
a) Revolving fund (from Govt.) and matching loan from banks.
b) Subsidy and loan for economic activity.
c) Both
11. Eligibility of groups for First Grading Test (FGT)
a) All newly formed groups
b) Groups completed minimum period of 6 months
c) Groups completed minimum period of 4 months
12. Pre-existing groups who have completed 6 months from the date of formation
can be put to FGT
a) after 6 months from the date of identification
b) straight away without waiting for further period of 6 months
c) 3 months from the date of identification
13. The amount of revolving fund is
a) Rs. 5,000/b) equal to group corpus fund subjected to a minimum of Rs. 5,000/- and
maximum Rs.10,000/c) equal to group corpus fund
367

14. Revolving Fund assistance can be made available to group through
a) Cash credit a/c
b) Term loan
c) Demand loan
15., For Revolving Fund Assistance under SGSY, maximum eligible loan for
SHG is
a) Rs. 15,000/b) 4 times of corpus fund
c) Rs. 10,000/d) None of the above
16. Purpose of undertaking second grading test is :
a) To assess the groups ability to avail R.F.
b) To assess, whether the group has completed Micro Credit stage
successfully and worth financing Micro enterprise development stage.
c) To assess the groups corpus.
17. All groups after sanction but before disbursement of loan should undergo:
a) Basic Orientation Programme
b) Advance Skill Development Programme
c) Minimum Skill requirement Programme
18. Under SGSY subtarget for women is
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
19. Under SGSY for individuals other than SC/ST, subsidy ceilings is
a) 40% Maximum Rs. 10,000
b) 50% Maximum Rs. 10,000
c) 30% Maximum Rs. 7,500
20. Subsidy eligibility for individual swarojgaris who belong to SC / STs
a) 50% Maximum Rs. 7,500
b) 60% maximum Rs. 10,000
c) 50% maximum Rs. 10,000
368
Answers
SGSY AGR- XIII
1
a
11
b
2
d
12
b
3
c
13
b
4
a
14
a
5
b
15
b
6
c
16
b
7
a
17
a
8
c
18
c
9
c
19
c
10
a
20
c
369
SGSY (i)
AGR- XIV
1. Loan application under SGSY ordinarily should be disposed off with in a
period of ----days and not later than ----a) One week, 1 month
b) 10 days, 2months
c) 15 days, 1 month
2.Maximum subsidy for swarojgaris under irrigation projects.
a) Rs1.00lac
b) Rs1.5lac
c) No ceiling
d) Rs2.5lac
3. The unit cost as fixed by ------------------- should be taken into consideration as
indicative cost while fixing the unit cost for the farm sector when identifying key activities
for assistance of poor families.
a) regional Committee of NABARD
b) regional Committee of RBI
c) Distt Committee of DRDO
d)Distt Committee of SGSY
4. Disbursements under SIB sector may be disbursed in cash upto
a) Rs. 20,000
b) Rs. 10,000
c) Rs. 30,000
5. In case of loans for individuals upto Rs. 50,000/- and to group upto Rs5.00lacsecurity
to be obtained wherever movable assets are created are --------.
a) Only hypothecation of assets created Out of Banks finance
b) Mortgage of landed property.
c) a & b
6. Security norms for loans to individuals exceeding Rs. 50,000/- and to groups
ecxceeding Rs5.00lacs are
a) Hypothecation of assets created out of Bank finance.
b) Collateral in the form of marketable security, title deed .
c) a & b
370
7. Interest charged by the bank on subsidy amount is

a) nil
b)1.00%
c)1.5%
d)2.5%
8.Subsidy under SGSY is provided
a) 50%in advance.
b) 25% in advance
c) totally back ended
d) 15% in advance
9. For administration of subsidy DRDA will open ------account with principal participating
bank branches.
a) saving
b) fixed deposit
c) current
10. Risk fund can be created out of ---% of SGSY funds at district level
a) 2
b) 1
c) 5
d) 3
11. What is the minimum lock in period for subsidy.
a) 10 years
b) 5 years
c) 3 years
12. Minimum repayment period for loan under SGSY are
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 10 years
13. Repayment instalments should not be more than ----% of the incremental
net income expected from the project
a) 40
b) 60
c) 50
d) 30
371
14. For a loan under SGSY scheme with repayment period of 7 years, lock in
period for subsidy adjustment is --------years.
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
15. For a loan under SGSY scheme with repayment period of 5 years, lock in
period for subsidy adjustment is --------years.
a)5 years
b) 4 years
c) 3years
d) 6years
16. Maximum age of Swarozgari for availing group insurance should be------- at the time
of sanction of loan.
a) 55
b)45
c) 60
d) 65
17. Group Life Insurance Scheme for SGSY beneficiaries is in operation:
a) till the repayment of loan
b) For a period of 5 years from the date of commencement of coverage.
c) a or b which ever is earlier.
d) a or b which ever is later.
18. Banks may provide consumption loans to individual Swarojgaris not exceeding
a) Rs. 5,000/b) Rs. 10,000/c) Rs. 2,000/d) None of the above
Answers
SGSY (i) AGR- XIV
1
c
11
c
2
c
12
b
3
c
13
c
4
b
14
b
5
a
15
c
6
c
16
c
7
a
17
c
8
c
18
c
9
a
10
b
372
AGRI GOLD LOAN

AGR- XV
Q1. Why our Bank intends to grant loans under Agl. Gold Loans scheme?
a) is one of the ways of extending financial assistance to farmers for meeting their
agricultural expenses
b) most secure loan as per Banks experience
c) NPA is almost nil / negligible
d) all above
Q2. What is the objective of granting Agr. Gold Loans?
a) To extend hassle free finance to farmers / agriculturists
b) increase their liquidity to meet crop production expenses,
c) increase their liquidity to meet investment expenses related to agriculture and / or
allied agricultural activities.
d) all above
Q3. Which among the following is not correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold
loans
a) against Gold ornaments
b) Gold bars/coins (Bullion)
c) All farmers are eligible for Agri-Gold loan
d) Repayment of Gold loan sanctioned should coincide with harvesting
and marketing season
Q4. Agri Gold loan is sanctioned as
a) Demand Loan
b) Term loan
c) Cash Credit
d) Any of the above
Q5. Which among the following is correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold loans
a)Agri Gold loans can be sanctioned to illiterate borrowers.
b)Gold loans can be sanctioned for investment purpose
c)Ornaments pledged should be in joint custody.
d) All of above
Q6. Value of gold is declared by____
a) CFO every fortnight
b) CCFO every month
c) CCO in every quarter
d) Circle Managament
373
Q.7 Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under Agri Gold Loan is
a. Rs 3.00 lacs
b. Rs 10. 00 lacs
c. Should not be more higher than the advance value of the Gold/ Silver
ornaments pledged
d. 5 times of Annual Farm Income
Q.8 Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for crop
production is
a.6 Months
b. generally not to exceed 12 Months
c.18 Months
d.30 Months
Q.9 Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for other than
production credit is
a.6 Months
b.12 Months
c.18 Months
d.36 Months
Q.10 Method prescribed by Bank for testing the purity of gold while sanctioning
gold loan is
a. Touch Stone method
b. Nitric Acid Test
c. Specific Gravity Method
d. Any one of the above Methods
Q.11 Loans under Agricultural gold loans are reckoned as-----a. Direct finance to agriculture
b. Indirect finance to agriculture
c. As per the activity
d. Unsecured loans
Q12 Value of gold is declared for ____ carat purity
a) 18
b) 22
c) 24
d) 18/22/24
Q13. Who is responsible for ensuring genuineness and purity of gold ornaments ?
a) Branch manager
b) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer
c) Accountant
d) Any one
374

Q14 Who has to certify the gross and net weight of gold ornaments ?
a) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer
b) Branch Manager
c) Accountant
d) Any one
Q15What is the minimum margin required under Agriculture Gold loan ?
a) 25%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) No margins needed
Q16 Who is the custodian of Gold Ornaments pledged ?
a) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer
b) Branch Manager
c) Accountant
d) Branch Manager/Accountant and Cash officer/ Award Cash officer
Q17 On repayment of the loan, what steps needs to be taken?
a) Ornaments held as security to be returned
b) DP Note duly discharged should be returned to the borrower(s)
c) Acknowledgement for receipt of ornaments obtained in the Gold Loan Ledger
d) All the above
Q18 Whether part delivery of Ornaments is permitted?
a) No
b) Yes, on written request of the borrowers against part payment
c) Advance value of the ornaments still in banks possession fully cover the outstanding
in the account
d) Both b and c
Q19 What are the instructions regarding delivery to the third party?
a) Yes, can be done freely
b) Yes, only in exceptional circumstances and on undoubted authority of the borrower
c) Yes, only in exceptional circumstances and on undoubted authority of the
borrower alonwith letter of authority/undertaking by the borrower absolving the
bank from responsibility in the event of any dispute.
d) No, it is not permitted
Q 20 Whether advances under Agriculture Gold Loan be called up?
a) No
b) Yes, when the value of the gold is less than the outstandings
c) Yes, when the account becomes NPA
d) Both b and c
375

Q 21 Who is the sanctioning authority of Agr. Gold Loan?
a) Cash Officer
b) Award Cash Officer
c) Branch Manager/ Accountant
d) Any one of above
Answers
AGRI GOLD LOAN AGR- XV
1
D
11
A
20
D
2
d
12
d
21
c
3
b
13
b
4
d
14
a
5
d
15
a
6
d
16
D
7
c
8
b
17
d
9
d
18
d
10
d
19
C
376

GENERAL CREDIT CARD (GCC), SHG CREDIT CARD AND SHG GOLD CARD,
KRISHAK UTHAAN YOJNA
AGR- XVI
1. General Credit Card can be issued by
a) Rural Branch
b) Rural and Semi Urban Branch
c). Rural, Semi Urban and Urban Branch
d). Rural, Semi Urban ,Urban and Metro Branch
2. Which among the following is correct in respect of General Credit Card
a) To provide hassle-free credit to our customers
b) Credit to our customers is based on the assessment of cash flow
c) There is no collateral security, purpose or end-use of the credit
d) All of the above
3. General Credit Card can be issued to
a) Existing customers with branch/ having satisfactorily conducted deposit
accounts.
b) Customers with loan accounts which are classified as standard assets
in our books .
c) Both a & b
d) All existing customers .
4. Which among the following is not correct in respect of General Credit Card
a)The Scheme will be in the nature of revolving credit
b)No plastic / electronic card will be issued under the scheme, but in place
of a card, a special passbook will be issued to the borrower
c)Quantum of the limit will be based on the assessment of income and
cash flow of the entire household
d)loan limit is Rs.50,000/- .
a). In case of persons cultivating land total credit facility under GCC for an
individual shall not exceed 20% of the eligible production loan limit .
b). In case of other persons 20% of annual income of the applicant from
known sources.
c). Maximum loan amount is Rs.25,000/-.
d). Penal interest at 1% p.a. be charged to borrowers who default in
repaying the loan
377

6. General Credit Card is renewed after
a). Three years with half yearly review
b) Three years with annual review
c ) Five years with half yearly review
d) Five years with annual review
a) In case the entire amount is not repaid, a minimum of 20 % of the
amount due along with upto date interest debited should at least be
repaid
b) Enhanced rate of interest @ 2% p.a. be charged to borrower who default
in repaying the loan.
c) Fifty percent of credit outstanding under GCC up to Rs.25,000/- per
account will be treated as indirect agricultural financing.
d) It is a secured advance .
8.To be eligible for SHG credit card and SHG gold card, the SHG should
a) develop proper group dynamics and repayment in earlier accounts
should be regular.
b) reached third level of credit linkage and enjoying a credit limit of
Rs.50,000/c) at least 2 of the group members should be literate to operate the
account
d) All of the above
9.Minimum credit limit under SHG Credit Card is
a) Rs.50,000/b) Rs.1,00,000/c) Rs.2,00,000/d) Rs.5,00,000/10.Minimum credit limit under SHG Gold Card is
a. Rs.1,00,000/b. Rs.2,00,000/c. Rs.5,00,000/d. Rs.10,00,000/11.Which of the following is incorrect?
a. SHG Credit Card will be in the nature of revolving Cash Credit
b. SHG Gold Card will be in the nature of Term Loan
c. The cards are valid for 3 years
d. Consumption credit is not available under the schemes.
378

12. Krishak Uthaan Yojna is aimed at providing short term production and consumption
credit to -----------a. Oral tenants/ lessees and small farmers
b. Tenant farmers
c. Sharecroppers with recorded tenancy rights
d. all the above
13. Under Krishak Uthaan Yojna what is the criteria for residential proof?
a) should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place
for at least past 2 years
b) should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place
for at least past 12 months
c) should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place
for the past 18 months
d) No such proof is needed
14. What is the upper limit for loan under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?
a).Rs 15000/b) Rs 25000/c) Rs 20000/d ) No such upper limit
15. What type of loan facility is given under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?
a) Demand loan
b) Overdraft
c) Term Loan
d) Revolving Cash Credit
16. How do we calculate limit under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?
a) Land area cultivated and scale of finance applicable .
b) Land area cultivated and scale of finance applicable inclusive of consumption
needs which is capped at 20% of production limit .
c) a plus another 20% of the production limit would be added for purpose of
immediate needs of borrowers after harvest of the crop
d) Flat Rs. 25000/- irrespective of land area
17. What are the margins under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) Nil
18 What is the security taken under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?
a) Hypothecation of crops
b) Third party guarantee
c) Mortgage of property
d) Clean loan
379

19 Whether prudential norms are applicable to accounts under this scheme?
a) Yes, same as applicable to crop loans
b) No, not applicable
20 How to verify the identity of the borrower?
a) Documents related to house of the applicant
b) Voters list/ Identity Card
c) Any other document prescribed by the LHO
d) Any one of the above
Answers
GENERAL CREDIT CARD (GCC), SHG CREDIT CARD AND SHG GOLD CARD,
KRISHAK UTHAAN YOJNA AGR- XVI
1
b
11
d
2
d
12
d
3
c
13
a
4
d
14
b
5
d
15
d
6
b
16
c
7
d
17
d
8
d
18
d
9
a
19
a
10
b
20
d
380
BUSINESS CORRESPONDENTS AND BUSINESS FACILITATORS

AGR- XVII
1. What is Financial Inclusion?
a) Mobilising deposits from rural areas
b) Providing loan facilities to rural people
c) Extending hassle free savings and loan facilities and other banking services at an
affordable cost, to the underprivileged and unbanked population
d) All above
2. What is the approximate number of Business Correspondents/ Business Facilitators
that our bank is going to create?
a) 10,000-12,000
b) 15,000- 20,000
c) 5,000- 7,500
d) 1,000- 2,500
3. At the corporate centre level, the bank has tied up with which of the following to work
as our business correspondent?
a) India Post
b) Drishtee Foundation
c) ZERO Microfinance And Savings Support Foundation
(Zeromass)
d) all above
4. At the corporate centre level, the bank has tied up with which of the following to work
as our business facilitator?
a) India Post
b) Tata
c) ITC
d) all above
5. Where can Alliances for BC/BF can be struck?
a) At the Corporate Centre level
b) At circle level
c) At module/Regional level
d) Both a b& c
6. Corporates like ITC or Reliance, with their internet enabled rural outlets like echoupals/procurement centres, qualify for working as our ------a) BFs
b) BCs.
c) Both a. & b.
d) Neither a. nor b.
381
7. What percentage of assets of the Rural and Semi urban branches is expected to be
brought in by BFs and BCs?
a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%
8. Which type of entities could be ideal alliance partners?
a) India Post due to their out reach and sheer numbers
b) NGOs based on their coverage
c) Section 25 (i.e. Not for profit) companies, such as Zeromass.
d) all above
9. What would be the products which would be prescribed for alliances?
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Both assets and liabilities
d) There is no fixed list of products.
10. For availing the services of BC/BF
a) Their police verification is necessary
b) Only references are necessary
11. In case of Zero Mass Alliance, what is the type of arrangement and where all
extended?
a) This is a Business Correspondent arrangement and currently on at 61 Customer
Service Points (CSP) spread over Mizoram, Uttarakhand, Andhra Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh
b) This is a Business Facilitator arrangement and currently on at 100 Customer Service
Points (CSP) spread over Nothern states
c) This is a Business Correspondent arrangement and currently on at all India level
12. What are the main objectives of the alliances?
a) Increasing the outreach.
b) Greater financial inclusion.
c) Ride on the technology which we have pioneered and multiply our customer base
many times.
d) all above
382
13. Can these alliance partners source large value deposits/loans?

a) Yes, with the permission of RBI
b) Bulk deposits and very large loans will not be sourced by these entities
c) No such restriction
d) Instructions are not clear
14. In which segments can the alliance partners source business?
a) Agri.
b) Per
c) SME
d) Retail business in all the segments
15. Who will train the operators at the BC/BF customer service points (CSP)outlets?
a) BCs to develop their own training arrangements
b) Since work is simple no training needed
c) Before the launch of the arrangement under pilot, the corporate entre arranges these
with the support from the Asst. Gen. Manager for the Region, the Local Head Office,
SBLCs, SBIRD.
d) SBIRD
16. What kind of training is imparted to these operators?
a) About products only
b) About handling of machines
c) About KYC norms
d) The training will cover all the CSP personnel in different products, KYC guidelines,
the supporting documents required, POS machine operations and key areas to check
for while sourcing business from a customer.
17. What is the procedure for handling deposit account opening forms and loan
proposals by BC/BFs CSPs
a) Kept by BC/BF
b) Sent to Channel Manager/CMA
c) The CSPs will send all forms directly to the Link Branch.
18. Will the Channel Mgr / CMA need to visit the CPC to follow up proposals
submitted by the CSPs?
a) Not as a matter of course.
b) However, looking to the role being akin to that of a Regional Manager as far as
the BC/BF outlets are concerned, the Chl. Mgr/CMA is needed to ensure that
loan applications are disposed of without delay and the BC/BFs are kept
happy and in good humour.
c) Just like a Regional Manager, a Channel Mgr has to work to drive business and also
control.
d) All of the above
383
19. Can the Channel Mgr/CMA visit a customer jointly with the outlets of these alliance
partners?
a) No
b) Yes
c) In this process we need, through the mechanism of Chl. Mgr, to put in more than the
required/commensurate efforts by way of sensitization, handholding support, making
available other enablers like stationery, publicity initially.
d) b. & c.
20. Who else should visit the outlets of the alliance partners whether they are BCs or
BFs?
a) Staff of Link branch
b) BM of Link branch
c) The AGM & the CM (Rural) of the Region
d) all above
21. What is the difference between a BC and BF?
a) Difference in areas of operation.
b) A Bf does not deal with loans of Link branch
c) A BF will only source applications for deposits / loans /
cross selling. A BC in addition to the activities of the BF
will also carry out small value transactions.
22. How will the branch / CPC know that an application has been
sourced by a BC/BF?
a) The BC/BF will brand a rubber stamp with their name on the application
sourced
b) The rubber stamp will also include the code no of the BF/BC
c) the Branch will enter the BC/BF code in the Core Banking Menu.
d) All of the above
23.
Who will verify the correctness of the commission paid to BF/BC?

a) The desk officer .
b) The accountant /Manager (Branch Operations)
c) The Branch manager
d) The Channel Manager / Channel Management Advisor
will verify the correctness of the commission and
recommend to the Branch Manager / AGM for payment.
384

Answers
BUSINESS CORRESPONDENTS AND BUSINESS FACILITATORS
AGR- XVII
1
c
11
a
21
c
2
a
12
d
22
d
3
d
13
c
23
d
4
c
14
d
5
d
15
c
6
a
16
d
7
b
17
c
8
d
18
d
9
d
19
d
10
a
20
d
385

( SBI TINY)
Q 1) What is the eligible loan amount in SBI Tiny SB cum- OD Account ?
a) Equal to 4 times monthly average balance ( 15th day of month)
months or equal to 4 months net income assessed by link
whichever is higher
b) Equal to 6 times monthly average balance ( 15th day of month)
whichever is higher
c) Equal to 3 times monthly average balance ( 15th day of month)
whichever is higher
d) None of these
for preceding 6
branch official,
for preceding 6
branch official,
for preceding 6
branch official,
Q 2) What is the min. and max. loan amount under SBI Tiny SB cum- OD Account ?
a) Rs. 5,000/- and Rs. 25,000/b) Rs. 1000/- and Rs. 25,000/c) Rs. 2000/- and Rs. 25,000/d) None of these
Q 3) What is period of repayment under SBI Tiny SB cum- OD Account ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Max. in 12 equated monthly instalments

None of these
Q 4) What is the rate of intt. applicable to SBI Tiny SB cum- OD Account ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Interst rate is equal to 2% above SBAR p.a. with monthly rests

Interst rate is equal to 1% above SBAR p.a. with monthly rests
Interst rate is equal to SBAR p.a. with monthly rests.
None of these
Q 5) What is not true about SBI Tiny SB cum- OD Account ?

a) Loan will be sanctioned to customers who have not availed KCC limit from any
branch
b) A running overdraft account
c) Auto-reduction of Drawing Power every month
d) Loan to be sanctioned to individual customers holding SBI Tiny card for last three
months
KEY
1
2
3
4
5
A
B
B
A
d
386

Cash Department
1. Entries in Vault Register are to be made by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Currency Transfer debit means------------.

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
Amount debited to RBI on account of remittance

Amount debited to LHO on account of remittance
Amount deposited into the chest is more than the amount withdrawn
Amount withdrawn from the chest is more than the amount deposited
SWO preparing the note packets remains responsible for both the quality and
quantity of the notes in the packets prepared by him for denominations of Rs.1/- to
Rs. ------------------:
a)
c)
4.
Cash Officer
Joint Custodian of Cash other than Cash Officer
Deputy Head Cashier
Any Cashier
10
100
b)
d)
50
500
After the note packets of Rs.500/- & Rs.1000/- are recounted and signed by the
Cash Officer, the SWO who prepared the note packets would be responsible for --------of notes in the packet,
a) Quality only
c) Both, Quality & Quantity
b)
d)
Quantity only
None of the above
5. Security thread is found in all genuine notes of:

a) All denominations
c) Rs. 5/-and above
6.
b) Rs. 2/- and above

d) Rs.10/-and above
The Cash officers hand balance is verified by the Accountant/Joint Custodian

completely at which of the following intervals-----a)
c)
Daily
Every Friday
b)
d)
Not Verified
Weekly
7. Currency Transfer should be advised to:a) Currency Officer

c) Link Branch
b) Treasury Officer
387
8. Transactions in the Currency Chest should always be in multiples of:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Rs. 500/- with a minimum of Rs. 1000/Rs 5000/- with a minimum of Rs. 10000/Rs.50,000/- with a minimum of Rs. 1,00,000/None of the above
9. While paying an instrument the paying cashier/SWO cancels the signature of:
a) Drawer of the instrument
c) Payee/person receiving payment
b)
d)
Passing Officer
None of the above
10. In whose custody, Transit Voucher books are retained overnight?

a) Branch Manager
c) Respective Passing Officials
b)
d)
Joint Custodian of cash

Accountant
11. How many Guards, other than the person accompanying the cash, will escort the
remittance of Rs. 85. 00 lacs.
a)
b)
c)
d)
One armed Guard

Two armed Guards
It will be accompanied by Police Escort
No escort is required
12. The vault register must always remain in the:

a)
c)
Branch Manager Custody

Branch Strong Room
b)
d)
Cash Officers Custody

None of the above
13. RBI has prohibited stapling of currency notes by a directive issued under:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Section 35A of Banking Regulation Act

Section 35A of RBI Act
Section 35A of NI Act
Section 35A of Indian Currency Act
14. Bills for reimbursement of expenditure incurred on chest remittances are to be

lodged with
a) RBI through FSLO
c) GAD Mumbai
b) RBI directly
d) No reimbursement is claimed
388

15. Small Coin Depot comprises of coins of: -----a) 50 paise and less
c) Rs1/- and less
b) up to Rs 2/d) up to Rs 5/-
16. In the event of wrong/delayed reporting of currency chest figures, Bank has to pay
penalty @ -----a) Saving Bank Interest rate
c) Applicable rate for time deposits
b)
d)
Bank Rate plus 2%

Bank Rate
17. Inter-loaning of cash among Cashiers/Cash officer is recorded in __________.

a) Vault Register
c) Cash Receipt/Delivery Book
b)
d)
Currency Chest Book

On Plain paper.
18. The numerals are printed in Optically Variable Ink on the currency notes in the
denomination of:
a) Rs. 1,000/-only
c) Rs. 100/- to Rs.1000/-
b) Rs. 50/- and Rs.100/d) Rs. 500/- & Rs.1000/-
19. Who decides on the quantity of coins to be minted?

a) RBI
c) Ministry of Finance
b) Govt. of India
d) Ministry of Commerce
20. A remittance from one Currency Chest to a Currency Chest of another bank is
affected----------a) By debit to Link branch
c) No entry need be passed
b) By debit to Reserve Bank of India

d) None of these.
21. When excess cash is found at the end of the day, it is to be----------a) Paid to the concerned cashier
c) credited to charges account
b) credited to Sundry Deposit account

d) None of these.
22. Which branches are to be covered under revised procedure?

a) All Hand balance CBS branches
c) All CBS branches
b) All Currency chest branches

d) All branches
389

23. What are the major benefits that will accrue to the branches after introduction of
redesigned in house cash handling process?
a) There will be no delay in starting customer transactions at the beginning of the
day
b) The process will reduce the time spent by the Cash Officer/Cashier-in- Charge in
handing over and receiving cash at the beginning/close of day.
c) The process will reduce the time spent by the SWO/ Assistant (Cash) in handing
over and receiving cash at the beginning/close of day.
d) all the above
24. What is the overnight retention limit permitted to the SWO/Asstt. Cash ?
a) Rs. 25,000
c) Rs 1 lac
b) Rs.50,000
d) Rs 75,000
25. What kind of cash box is provided to the SWO/Asstt. Cash for overnight cash
retention?
a) Box
c) VIP bag is provided
b) Aluminum box size14 inch x 11 inch x 4 inches

d) any kind of arrangement can be made
26. Who is the custodian of cash box overnight and what are their responsibilities?
a) joint custody of CO/CIC and ager
b) CO/CIC
c) Accountant/Service Man
d) Cash Box shall remain overnight in joint custody of CO/CIC and
Accountant/Service Manager, the cash in the drawer shall continue to remain in the
single custody of SWO/ Assistant(Cash) as the key of Cash Box shall remain with
the SWO/ Assistant(Cash).
27. What is the cash verification (SWO/Asstt. Cash) system available under the new
procedure?
a) Not required
b) verified once in a month
c) system generate a random list of Cash Boxes required to be verified daily either
at the beginning/end of the day
d) system shall generate a random list of Cash Boxes required to be verified daily
either at the beginning/end of the day in such a way so as to ensure verification of
cash of all SWOs/Cashiers at least once every week
390
Key to Assignment (Cash Department)

Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
b
11
b
21
b
2
c
12
c
22
a
3
c
13
a
23
d
4
a
14
a
24
c
5
c
15
a
25
b
6
d
16
b
26
d
7
c
17
c
27
d
8
c
18
d
9
a
19
b
10
c
20
c
391
PPF SCHEME
1
How many accounts an individual can, open in name of his/her minor

children, in addition to his/her own PPF account?
a) 1
c) 3
b) 2
d) One each in the name of minor child
Minimum amount required to be deposited in a PPF account during a year is

Rs. _____
a) 50
c) 500
b)
d)
What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in a PPF account during
a year?
a) Rs. 60000
c) Rs. 80000
b)
d)
b)
d)
12
15
2
5
An irregular PPF account due to non deposit of minimum Rs. 500/- in a year,
can be regularized by paying a penalty fee of Rs. ____per year for each year
of default with cumulative effect
a) 10
c) 30
Rs. 70000
Rs. 100000
How many withdrawals in a PPF account can be made in a year?

a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
How many number of deposits in a PPF account can be made in a year?

a) 10
c) 14
100
1000
b)
d)
20
50
Interest on PPF account is paid on the minimum balance standing to the

credit of the account holder from ____of the month to last day of the month
a)
c)
1st
7th
b)
d)
5th
10th
392

8
The balance in PPF account of Mr. S.K. Sharma with State Bank of India,
Panchkula is Rs. 1,00,000 as on 01-04-2009. Mr. Sharma deposited a
cheque for Rs. 30,000 on 05-04-2009 drawn on ICICI Bank, Panchkula which
was paid in clearing on 07-04-2009. Mr. Sharma will get interest for the
month of April 2009 on Rs. _____
a) 1,30,000
c) 1,15,000
10
20
b)
d)
2
No Limit
b)
d)
Ex-Minor (Now Major)

Trust
A PPF account of an alive person cannot be closed before expiry of

_____years after the year in which initial deposit was made
a) 5
c) 15
14
b)
d)
If a minor attains the majority before the expiry of the term for which PPF
account was opened, who will operate the account?
a) Natural Guardian
c) Court appointee
13
Two
No limit
For how many times, a PPF account can be extended after the completion of
maturity for a further block of 5 years?
a) 1
c) 3
12
b)
d)
For how many years, a PPF account can further be extended at a time?
a) 5
c) 15
11
1,00,000
None of above
A depositor of PPF account can nominate ____persons

a) One
c) Three
10
b)
d)
b)
d)
10
None of above
A request for pre-mature closure of a PPF account after completion of 5 year

from the year in which the initial deposit was made, will be forwarded to
a) AGM
c) Deputy Commissioner
b)
d)
DGM
Ministry of Finance, GOI
393

15
In case of death of an account holder of PPF, where there is no nomination,

payment up to which amount can be made to the legal heirs without obtaining
succession certification
a) Rs. 50000
c) Rs. 200000
16
5
7
b)
d)
2nd
preceding
If the PPF account is continued after maturity for a further block of 5 years,
how many withdrawals in a year are allowed?
a) 1
c) 3
19
b)
d)
The amount of withdrawal of PPF will be limited to 50% of the balance at the
credit at the end of the 4th year immediately preceding the year in which the
amount is withdrawn or at the end of the ____year, whichever is lower
a) Ist
c) 3rd
18
Rs. 100000
No limit
First withdrawal in a PPF account can be made after the expiry of ____years
from the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made
a) 4
c) 6
17
b)
d)
b)
d)
2
5
In case of extended PPF accounts, withdrawal shall not exceed ___% of the
balance lying in the account at the time of maturity (prior to extended period)
a) 50
c) 70
b)
d)
60
80
20
First loan in a PPF account can be granted in the _____financial year from
the financial year in which the account was opened
b)
2nd
a) 1st
c) 3rd
d)
5th
21
What is the limit fixed for subscribing in a PPF account where default along
with penalty is required to be deposited ?
a) Should not exceed 70000/b) 70000/- plus penalty
c) 70000/- plus default and penalty d) 70000/- plus default
22
Which of the following can open account under PPF scheme?

a) NRI
b) HUF
c) Individuals
d) a &c above
394
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
PPF SCHEME
1
6
11
16
21
d
d
d
b
a
2
7
12
17
22
c
b
b
d
c
3
8
13
18
b
a
a
a
4
9
14
19
b
d
d
b
5
10
15
20
a
a
b
c
395
PPF SCHEME -II

1
What is the present rate of interest payable on PPF deposits?

a) 7% p.a.
b)
8% p.a.
c) 9% p.a.
d)
10% p.a.
When interest is applied to PPF accounts?

a) 31st December
c) 30th June
No loan on PPF account can be granted after the expiry of ____years from
the end of the year in which the initial subscription was made
a) Three
c) Five
b)
d)
50
75
b)
d)
Twice
No limit
Loan granted against PPF deposit, will be repaid within a maximum of

____monthly installments
a) 12
c) 36
Four
Six
How many times, loan can be granted against PPF deposit in a year?
a) Once
c) Thrice
b)
d)
The amount of loan against PPF deposit will be restricted to ____% of the
amount credit at the end of 2nd year immediately preceding the year in which
the loan is being granted
a) 25
c) 60
d)
b)
31st March
th
30 September
b)
d)
24
48
After the principal amount of PPF loan is fully repaid, the subscriber shall pay
interest @ 1% p.a. in _____monthly installments
a) 1
c) 3
b)
d)
2
5
396
If principal is not repaid within 36 monthly installments, interest shall be

charged @ _____p.a.
a) 2
c) 6
4
8
PPF account can be opened in ____names

a) Individual
c) Both (a) & (b)
10
b)
d)
b)
Joint with spouse

d)
None of above
Mr. Anil Pant has deposited Rs. 80,000/- in his PPF account on 30-03-2009.
How this case will be dealt with?
a) Rs. 10,000 will be returned back to Mr. Pant immediately and no interest
on Rs. 10,000 will be paid
b) Rs. 10,000 will be returned back to Mr. Pant immediately but interest on
Rs. 10,000 will be paid
c) Interest on full amount of Rs. 80,000/ will be paid
d) None of above
11
Ms. Pooja Arora is maintaining a PPF account. Now she is married and her
surname has been changed to Mutreja. How we shall deal with this situation?
a) Account will be continued as it is, no need for any change
b) Her surname will be changed in the records after taking documentary
evidence of her marriage and she will operate her account accordingly
c) Joint account will be opened with her husband
d) None of above
12
13
Which amongst the followings cannot open new PPF accounts as per the
extant instructions?
a) HUF
b)
NRI
c) Individuals
d)
Both a & b
Govt. of India has instructed all the authorized branches dealing with PPF
business to pay commission to agents of PPF at source w.e.f. _____
a) 01-04-2004
c) 01-06-2004
b)
d)
01-05-2004
01-07-2004
397
14
PPF commission to agents will be paid @ ___% of amount deposited

a) 1
c) 3
15
b)
d)
Branches paying PPF commission to agents have to deduct _____from the

amount of commission
a) TDS
c) Sales Tax
16
b)
d)
Service Tax
Both (a) & (b)
PPF Commission will not be paid on the amount pertaining to ______

a) Loan including interest on loan
c) Both (a) & (b)
17
2
5
b)
Revival Fee
d)
None of above
PPF commission to agents will be paid through ______

a) Cash
c) Credit to his/her account
b)
d)
Account payee banker cheque

either (b) or (c)
KEY TO ASSIGNMENT
PPF SCHEME -II
1
6
11
16
b
c
b
c
2
7
12
17
b
b
d
d
3
8
13
c
c
c
4
9
14
a
a
a
5
10
15
a
a
d
398

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -I
1
A govt. bill passed by Treasury Officer is valid for _____days including the
date of passing
a) 7
c) 15
TO Pass Book
Courier
b)
d)
VDMS
SGLO II
____is a statement sent by Treasury Office to the branch after due verification
b)
d)
VDMS
SGLO II
Income Tax Refund Orders (ITRO)/ Cheques are valid for _____month from
the date of issue
a) One
c) Three
b)
d)
At the end of month, summary of govt. transactions is sent to Treasury Office

on ________format for verification
a) DMS
c) SGLO I
7
08-04-09
31-03-09
a) FSLO (LHO)
b)
ZO
c) GAD, Mumbai
d)
RBI
Daily summary along with related vouchers and scrolls are sent to Treasury
Office by _______
a) DMS
c) SGLO I
6
b)
d)
Daily reporting of State Govt. Transactions by fastest mode is made by the

branches through SGLO I to ________
a) Messenger book
c) Regd. Post
5
10
30
A govt. bill passed by Treasury Officer on 29-03-2009 is valid up to _______

a) 07-04-09
c) 10-04-09
b)
d)
b)
d)
Two
Six
Paying branch should obtain ___________by the payee on Income Tax

Refund Order (ITRO)
a) Discharge on revenue stamp
c) No need for any discharge
d)
b)
Simple discharge
None of above
399
10
Paying Branch should obtain ______from the payee on Income Tax Refund
Cheque
a) Discharge on revenue stamp
b)
Simple discharge
c) No need for any discharge
d)
None of above
Advices of Income Tax Refund Orders (ITROs)/Cheques exceeding Rs.
______are sent by Income Tax Office to the paying branches
a) 99
c) 9999
b)
d)
999
99999
11
The present rate of commission on handling govt. business by the branches

is Rs. _____ per Receipt
a) 20
b)
25
c) 50
d)
45
12

is Rs. _____ per pension payment
a) 45
b)
60
c) 50
d)
100
13

is Rs. _____ per payment (other than pension)
a) 60
b)
25
c) none of above
d)
45
14
Focal Point branch transfers ____% of commission to receiving branches who

have handled govt. business
a) 25
c) 75
b)
d)
50
100
15
Under Reserve Bank of India Remittance Facility Scheme (RBIRFS), the

branches will be faxing the schedule (RBR-11) and paid instruments to GAD
Belapur, if the amount of draft paid is Rs. ____lac or more on a single day
a) 25
b)
50
c) 75
d)
100
16
On Line Tax Accounting System (OLTAS) has come into effect from _______
a) June 2004
c) August 2004
b)
d)
July 2004
September 2004
400

17
How many number of forms for depositing the tax have been introduced
under OLTAS?
a) 1
c) 3
18
200,300,400
280,281,282
b)
d)
Two
Four
Which amongst the following type of challan forms for depositing the tax by
the depositor under OLTAS, will not be accepted by the bank?
a) B/W Xerox copy
c) Old challan forms
21
b)
d)
How many copies of relative challan, a depositor has to submit for depositing
the tax under OLTAS?
a) One
c) Three
20
2
4
Which forms amongst the followings, have been introduced for depositing the
tax under OLTAS?
a) 100, 200,300
c) 180,181,182
19
b)
d)
b)
d)
Downloaded from internet

None of above
Which type of acknowledgement will be given by the bank to a person who is

depositing tax under OLTAS with an instrument drawn on another bank
locally
a)
b)
c)
d)
Receipt will be issued as in the other case

Receipt will be issued with Subject to instrument being paid stamp
Paper Token to be issued
No receipt should be given
22. The type of instruments covered under RBIRFS are .

a)Drafts drawn by RBI payable at SBI
b) Drafts drawn by RBI payable at RBI
c) Drafts drawn by TO/STO/ATO payable at SBI
d)a & c above
23. A draft drawn payable on the branch is paid by debit to
a) Sys. Suspense A/c
c) Govt. General Account
e) RBI drafts paid account
b)DDP (Cheques ) A/c

d)GAD
401

24. In case of drafts paid by the branch under RBIRFS the branch need to prepare
..
a) GAD 11 (9595)
c) Sch. 7 only
d) a & B above
b) RBR- 11
d) all of the above
25. To avoid opportunity loss of interest branches have to ensure dispatch of the
below mentioned papers on the very next day of the transaction irrespective of
the amount involved by the fastest mode to GAD.
a)
b)
c)
d)
GAD-11 & RBR 11 along with Original paid draft

GAD-11 only
RBR-11 & draft should be sent to RBI
Draft has to be retained at the branch
26. If the amount of RBI encashment exceeds Rs.25 lacs under noted papers are to
be faxed to GAD.
a) RBR-11 GAD-11 & RBR 11 along with Original paid draft
b) GAD-11 only
c) RBR-11 & original draft paid
e) Only Draft has to be retained at the branch
27. In case original draft paid is lost in transit than a certificate in lieu of lost paid
voucher is prepared on format..
a) RBR 12
b) RBR- 18
c) RBR 20
d) Photocopy of the draft
duly attested may be sent
1
6
11
16
21
26
b
b
d
a
c
c
2
7
12
17
22
27
KEY
GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -I
d
3
a
4
b
c
8
b
9
c
b
13
c
14
c
c
18
d
19
a
d
23
d
24
d
c
5
10
15
20
25
a
c
a
c
a
402

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -II
1
CIN under OLTAS stands for ______

a)
b)
c)
d)
Commercial & Institutional Negotiator

Certified Insurer Negotiator
Challan Identification Negotiator
Challan Identification Number
CIN contains a 7-digit BSR code which pertains to ______

a) Bank Code
c) Zonal Office Code
b)
d)
Mr. Suresh Datt has deposited Rs. 10,000/- as income-tax on 25-04-2009 at

SBI Panchkula. In which format, the date will be mentioned on the CIN?
a) 25th April 2009
c) 250409
Submit original copy of challans

Submit zerox copy of challan
Mention the CIN no. only
None of above
Mr. K. P. Rai visited SBI Panchkula on 01-01-2009. He does not have PAN
No but intends to deposit the income-tax. How this situation will be dealt
with?
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) 25-04-2009
d) 042509
While filing income tax return under OLTAS, a customer has to ______
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mr. Rai will be asked to first obtain PAN

In the respective column, write Applied for and accept challan
Refer the matter to Controllers
Refer the matter to Income Tax Deptt
Under OLTAS, the collecting branch will be sending the data through
electronic mode to:
a) LHO
c) Nodal Branch
Circle Code
Branch Code
b)
ZO
d)
Zonal Accounts Office
Nodal branch under OLTAS, will be transmitting the data received from the
collecting branches to _______
a) LHO
b)
RBI
c)
ZO
d)
GAD, Mumbai
403
Under OLTAS, GAD Mumbai will settle the funds with _______
a) RBI Mumbai
c) RBI CAS, Nagpur
b)
d)
RBI New Delhi

RBI Chennai
The maximum period for crediting the tax collections under OLTAS to Govt.
Account at CAS, Nagpur is T + ____days (Excluding Holidays)
a) 3
10
11
b)
c)
d)
10
If govt. account is not credited within the stipulated period under OLTAS,
interest @ Bank Rate + ______% will be charged
a) 1
b)
2
c) 3
d)
4
A new challan form introduced by CBEC-EASIEST FOR DEPOSIT OF
Central Excise &
Service Tax under EASIEST is .
a) GEST 7
c) EASIEST-7
12
b) GAR-7
d) GESTC-7
For conducting govt. business, the relationship of RBI with SBI is that of
_____and ______
a) Licensor, Licensee
c) Bailor, Bailee
b)
d)
Principal, Agent
None of above
13 For credit of pension to the account of a pensioner, the account may be

maintained in:
a) Individual name
c) Joint name with spouse only
b)
Joint names with any person

d)
Either (a) or (c) only.
14 Life Certificate from pensioner is obtained every year in the month of ______
a) May
c) November
15
b)
d)
June
December
Focal Point branches will be sending _______at monthly intervals to receiving

branches, containing a summary of govt. transactions handled by receiving
branches
a) GAD 2
c) GAD 5
b)
d)
GAD 3
GAD 12
404
16
GAD 13 refers to ______

a) Daily transactions
c) Error Adjustment
17
b)
d)
Monthly transactions
None of above
b)
d)
6
12
RBI drafts are valid for ______months

a) 3
c) 9
18.
Special e-Tax campaign has been launched by the bank w.e.f.

a) 1/102007
b) 1/11/07
c) 1/09/07
d)none of the above
19
.EASIEST stands for..

a)
b)
c)
d)
EASY ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SERVICE TAX

EASY ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SALES TAX
ELECTRONIC ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SERVICE TAX
ELECTRONIC ACCOUNTING SYSTEM FOR INCOME, EXCISE & SALES TAX
KEY
GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -II
1
6
11
16
d
c
b
c
2
7
12
17
d
d
b
b
3
8
13
18
c
c
d
a
4
9
14
19
c
a
c
c
5
10
15
a
b
b
405

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -III
1 In respect of pension payment to defense personnel who can issue a
duplicate pension Payment Certificate in the event of original certificate being
lost, stolen or destroyed?
a) Central Govt.
b) Ministry of Defense
c) Pension Disbursing Authority c) Can not be issued
2 What are the charges / renewal fee if the loss /damage to above certificate is
due to sheer negligence/careless ness of the pensioner?
a) Rs.100/c) Rs. 50
b) Re 1
d) No charges
3 In the CPPC ( Centralized Pension Processing Centers) concept the

commission between Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is
distributed ------a) 75%-25%
b) 100% by CPPC
c) 100% by Dealing/Home branch d) 25%-75%
4 Facility of Drop Box is not available to which of the following?
a) Local Cheques
c) Direct Tax Challans
b) Out station cheques

d) Inter Bank cheques
5 The release of first pension to NRI pensioner/family pensioner, personal

identification at the time of drawls of first payment is----- a)
b)
c)
d)
Not necessary
Mandatory
Certificate from concerned Embassy
Identification can be done by existing A/c holder
6 Every branch will be paid Rs------- for each pension account opened by debit
to LHO Charges A/c
a) 500
c) 250
b) 100
d) No such provision
7 Branches can lodge a claim each time a block of -------- new accounts is
opened irrespective of the length of the period in which these accounts are
opened.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 25
d) 20
406
8 How the amount so received is to be utilized?

a) Given in cash to the staff b) Get together for all the Branch staff
c) credited to commission a/c d) benefit is passed over to pensioners
9 If a branch opens ------pension accounts in a calendar month it will get a
bonus of Rs-------for that month.
a) 10/ 500
c) 50/ 2500
b) 5/500
d) No such provision
10 If a single employee/ officer mobilize ------pension accounts in one calendar

month, he/ she will be given an individual prize of Rs.--------(in the form of gift)
a) 10/ 1000
c) 25/ 2500
b) 5/ 500
d) 15/2000
11 Whether credit of pension to a joint account is permitted?

a) No
b) Yes
c) Yes, A/c with spouse only d) Joint a/c with any one
12 Various products of Small Savings Schemes are available to------a) Individuals
c) Trusts/PFs etc.
b) HUFs
d) All
13 Permissible period for remittances of Govt. revenues is-------working days in

case of local transactions.
a) T+ 3
c) 7
b) T+5
d) 3
14 Permissible period for remittances of Govt. revenues is-------working days in

case of out station transactions.
a) T+ 3
c) 7
b) T+5
d) 3
15 Interest charged for delayed period remittances is known as

a) Interest
c) Misc. income
b) Commission
d) Delayed period interest
407

16
It has been decided by Central Pension Accounting Office, Government of India

, Ministry of Finance to issue ..to the Central Govt. pensioners at the
commencement of pension and thereafter, whenever there is a change in the
quantum of pension.
a) Pass book
b) Monthly statements slip
c) Pension Slips
d) Certificate
KEY
GOVERNMENT BUSINESS -III
1
6
11
16
c
b
c
c
2
7
12
b
c
a
3
8
13
a
b
a
4
9
14
c
c
b
5
10
15
b
c
d
408

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS
RBI REMITTANCE FACILITY SCHEME-2007
1.
RBI REMITTANCE FACILITY SCHEME-2007 has been launched w.e.f.

a) 1/04/07
b) 01/01/07
2.
b) 01/07/07
d)01/10/07
The type of instruments covered under RBIRFS are .

a)Drafts drawn by RBI payable at SBI
b) Drafts drawn by RBI payable at RBI
c) Drafts drawn by TO/STO/ATO payable at SBI
d)a & c above
3.
A draft drawn by RBI & payable on the branch is paid by debit to

a) Sys. Suspense A/c
c) Govt. General Account
e) RBI drafts paid account
4.
As per RBIRFS- 2007 ( Revised) our bank will not submit the reimbursement
claim for instruments issued by RBI Offices and encashed by our branches .
Instead, RBI will credit on a.the consolidated amount of drafts issued
by them, to our account opened at various DADs of RBI.
a) Monthly basis
c) Weekly basis
5.
b) Fortnightly basis
d) Day-to-day basis
In case of instruments issued by Agencies other than RBI paid and paid by the
SBI branches the branches need to prepare..
a) GAD 11 (9595)
c) Sch. 7 only
d) a & B above
e) all of the above
6.
b) DDP (Cheques ) A/c

d) GAD
f) As per revised procedure ,
no
reimbursement claim will be submitted
by our bank.
b) RBR- 11
The details of the drafts issued by RBI will be sent to the respective nodal
branch by e-Mail containing DD number , date place and code number of our
branch on which draft has been issued, amount & name of the beneficiary
by.
a) RBI
c) GBU
b) GAD
d)LHO
409
7.
The.. will communicate the details of the drafts issued by RBI to the
drawee branches on receipt of the relative funds from RBI .
a) Main Branch which will function as a NODAL branch
b) RBI
c) GAD
d)None of the above
8.
On receipt of relative funds these will be credited at the NODAL branch to an

account styled as
a)RBI Drafts Paid Account
c) RBI Draft Funds Received Account
9.
b) RBI Drafts Account

d) RBI Finds Settlement Account
The drawee branch will pay the draft issued by RBI ..

a) by DDP on the Nodal branch
c) by debit to GAD
b) through BCGA to Nodal branch

d)none of the above
10.
The work relating to sending of advices to respective branches will be done by
a) RBI offices
b) SBI branches
c) No advice will be sent
d) Infromation will be available on SBI
Times
11.
SBI main branches where the Fund Settlement Account is maintained

,they will submit daily report of receipt and payments regarding RBI drafts to ...
a)FSLO
c)LHO
12.
Besides daily report of receipt and payments regarding RBI drafts , SBI
main branches will submit a statement to GAD Navi Mumbai for
statistical purpose.
a) Monthly
c) Fortnightly
13.
b)GAD
d)GBU
b) Quarterly
d) Yearly
For cancellation of drafts issued by RBI offices.

a) Amount will be refunded by nodal Branches, as funds have already been
received
b) The issuing RBI office would refund the amount to applicant on presentation
of discharged instrument
c)RBI drafts can not be cancelled
d)None of the above
410
14.
In case of drafts issued by our branches the branches will credit GAD through
.. and forward RBR-7 to .
a) RBI Drafts a/c , GAD
c) Govt .Gen. Account, Nodal Branch
15.
b) BCGA , GAD
d) Nodal Branch , GAD
If the amount of RBI encashment exceeds Rs.25 lacs under noted papers are
to be faxed to GAD.
a)RBR-11 GAD-11 & RBR 11 along with Original paid draft
b) GAD-11 only
c) RBR-11 & original draft paid
d)Only Draft has to be retained at the branch
16.
In case original draft paid is lost in transit than a certificate in lieu of lost paid
voucher is prepared on format..
a) RBR 12
c) RBR 20
b) RBR- 18
d) Photocopy of the draft
duly attested may be sent
KEY
RBI REMITTANCE FACILITY SCHEME-2007
1
6
11
16
b
a
a
c
2
7
12
d
a
a
3
8
13
f
d
b
4
9
14
d
b
b
5
10
15
d
b
c
411
GENERAL AWARENESS - (COMPUTERS-1)

1
The computer based package introduced for Electronic NOSTRO Reconciliation

is
a)
c)
b)
d)
ELRECON
VIRAT
Our Banks private communication system is called

a)
c)
NOSTROM
VIHAR
SBICOM
SBISYS
b)
d)
SBINET
None of the above
E-TAX facility being provided to the taxpayers to make income tax payments
through internet using net banking facility can be used for paying
a) Corporation Tax, Income Tax and Wealth tax
b) Making payment of tax deducted at source
c) For making payment of other taxes like interest tax, gift tax etc.
d) All of the above
SBI launched Internet Banking on

a)
15th January, 2002
c)
1st Aug 2000
b)
d)
15th November, 2002

15th January 2001
Central Data Centre for Core Banking Operations situated at

a)
Kolkata
b)
Belapur
c)
Nagpur
d)
Pune
What is the software used for Telebanking in SBI

a)
CROFT
b)
CRAFT
c)
KRAFT
d)
KROFT
Which type of credit facility is covered under CGFTS?

a)
c)
Fund based
Both (a) & (b)
b)
d)
Non-fund based
None of above
b)
d)
INFOSYS
TCS
SFMS software is developed by

a)
c)
WIPRO
SATYAM INFOWAY
412

9
Which agency certifies security of our Internet banking site ?

a)
c)
10
d)
b)
ICRA
None of the above
SBIs Internet banking site is maintained by

a)
b)
11
CRISIL
Verisign
SIFY
TCS
b)
d)
Infosys
Wipro
Internet Banking facilitates

a) Customer can see 2 different accounts in 2 different branches in a
single server
b) Request for issue of Bank draft
c) Booking of railway tickets / pay utility bills
d) All of the above
12
VOIP stands for

a)
c)
13
14
Voice over Internet protocol

Voice over Internet phone
b)
d)
Voice on Internet protocol

Voice on Internet phone
Wireless Application
Protocol
Wind and Power
WAP stands for

a)
Water available point
b)
c)
Wireless Access Point
d)
What is Convergence
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bringing together information, Communication and Entertainment

Arrangement of loans from different banks for a borrower
Conversion of foreign currency into domestic currency
None of the above
15 GLIF entries can arise due to

a)
c)
15
Connectivity problems
Both a or b
b) System problems
General facilities provided by an ATM are

a)
c)
Cash withdrawal
Transfer of fund from one
Account to another account
b)
d)
Cash deposit
All of the above
413
16
Which was the first, most popular e-based bookshop in the world
a)
c)
17
yahoo.com
ebook.com
Speedily delivery of drafts

Fast cash at ATM
b)SBI Funds Available at Shortest Time

d)
None of the above
What is EIS
a)
c)
19
amazon.com
None of the baove
What is SBI-FAST
a)
c)
18
b)
d)
Extra information from software system b)

Executive Information System
d)
External information
None of the above
What is INFINET
a)
Information on Internet
b)
c)
Internal information network
d)
Indian Financial network,

set up by RBI
None of the above
KEY TO GENERAL AWARENESS COMPUTERS-1

Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
b
11
d
2
b
12
a
3
d
13
b
4
c
14
a
5
b
15
c
6
b
16
d
7
b
17
b
8
d
18
b
9
c
19
c
10
a
20
b
414
GENERAL AWARENESS - (COMPUTERS - 2)

1
Name the two organizations with whom SBI has tie up for co-brand SBI Smart
cards
a) Indian Oil Corporation & Indian Air Force
c) No such tie up.
b) Indian Airlines and Air

India
d) None of these
SPEED software developed by SBI refers to

a) ATM
b) Software for Submission of Proposals for ECCB Decisions
c) Software for Telebanking
UPS stand for

a)
Uninterrupted Power supply
b)
c)
Uninterrupted Power system
d)
Icon stands for

a)
c)
c)
b)
d)
Internal console
none of the above
TCS
b) MIS Deptt ,Corporate Centre,

Mumbai
IT Deptt ,Corporate centre, Mumbai
IT FORUM is published by
a)
c)
Inter connected
Image of console
DOSCIS software is developed by

a)
Uniform power
system
none of these
Staff College , Hyderabad

SBIICM ,Hyderabad
b)
d)
SBA, Gurgaon
None of the above
b)
d)
First pageof the website

None of the above
What is Home Page

a)
c)
First page of the book

Last page of the website
415

8
What is POP
a)
c)
Popular Punjabi song

Postal office protocol
b)
d)
Post office protocol

None of the above
What is RAS
a) Name of the soft drink from RASNA
b) Remote Access sever , to make non networked branches as part of
communication revolution within SBI
c) Real access software
10
11
Expand MICR
a)
Marginal ink Character Recognition
c)
Magnetic ink Character record
What does ROM stand for

a)
c)
12
Read only memory

None of the above
Industrial Development and Research in Banking Technology

Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology
Institute for Rural Development in Banking Technology
None of the above
9th July 2000

1st January 2000
b)
d)
9th June 2000

No such Act
Name the application that helps us to make presentations?

a)
c)
15
b)
d)
Information Technology Act 2000 was passed on

a)
c)
14
Read on memory
Read out memory
What does IDRBT stand for

a)
b)
c)
d)
13
b) Magnetic ink
Character Recognition
Word
Power point
b)
d)
Excel
Access
b)
d)
Main Memory
All of the above
CPU consist of
a)
c)
ALU
Control Unit
416
16
What is the expansion of LAN

a)
c)
17
18
Locally Arranged Network

Location Adjusted Network
b)
Local Area Network

d)
None of the above
National Technology Day is celebrated on

a)
11th May
b)
th
c)
11 June
d)
Ist July
11th July
Under the Fast Cash option , cash can be withdrawn in fixed amounts of ------from the State Bank ATMs
a) Rs. 1000/- , Rs. 2000/b) Rs. 5000/- , Rs. 10,000/-.
c) Rs.1000/-,, Rs. 2000/-, Rs3000/- or Rs. 5000/d) None of the above
19
Which city is known as Silicon valley of India

a)
c)
20
Hyderabad
Bangalore
b)
d)
Chandigarh
None of the above
What is the expansion of WAN

a)
c)
Whole Area Network

Wide Access Network
b)
d)
Wide Area Network

None of the above
KEY TO GENERAL AWARENESS COMPUTERS 2

Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
A
11
B
2
B
12
B
3
A
13
B
4
C
14
C
5
C
15
D
6
C
16
B
7
B
17
A
8
b
18
C
9
B
19
C
10
B
20
B
417
GENERAL AWARENESS - (COMPUTERS -3)

1
When your ATM-cum-Debit card is lost or misplaced what immediate steps would
you take ?
a) Contact Toll free help line, inform loss of card and make request to
HOT/Block the card and stop the operations of the card.
b) Inform immediately the card issuing branch telephonically about the
loss of card followed by written request to make the card Hotlisted
/blocked
c) Both a & b.
d ) None of the above
What do mean by the term 'Smart Gold' ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Find the odd man from the following :a)

c)
b)
d)
MAN
LAN
Very Important Resources Under Surveillance

Vulnerable Information Resources Under Surveillance
Vital Information Resources Under Siege
None of the above
What are the charges for new Domestic ATM card issue?
a)
c)
WAN
TAN
Expand the term VIRUS

a)
b)
c)
d)
It is the 24 carat gold we sell at our branches

It is an ATM cum Smart Card co-branded by SBI and IOC
It is a book written by our President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
None of the above
Rs. 200
Rs. 50
b)
d)
Rs. 500
Free of cost
What is the name of the traveller loyalty card jointly launched by the Indian
Railways and SBI Card ?
a)
c)
SBI Shubyatra
IR Shubhyatra
b)
d)
Shubhyatra
None of the above
418
State Bank of India is forging ahead to obtain certification for its ATM and Core
Banking Solution under the British standard for information security
management, providing a comprehensive set of controls for best practices in
information security. What is that certification called ?
a)
c)
b)
d)
BS7799
None of the above
A new payment system which takes care of transactions between SBI and
Associate banks is :
a)
c)
SB7788
SB7799
RTGS
GRPT
Using onlinesbi.com,
transaction/business :
b)
d)
a
retail
NEFT
None of the above
customer
cannot
do
the
following
Payment for mobile bills

View account information
Open a new account
Transfer his account to other branch
10
What are the annual charges to be levied from an existing ATM card holder ?
a)
c)
11
Rs. 50
None of the above
State Bank of India

Punjab National Bank
b)
Bank of Baroda
d)
None of the above
What are the charges levied by the bank for issuance of duplicate ATM card?
a)
c)
13
b)
d)
Which bank has launched first-ever floating ATM on a boat ?

a)
c)
12
Rs. 100
Rs. 150
No charges are levied

Rs.200
b)
d)
Rs.100
Rs.500
RTGS was started by RBI on :

a)
c)
26th July 2000

26th March 2004
b)
d)
26th June 2002

26th April 2005
419
14
RTGS is a :
a)
c)
15
Payment System
Both a & b
b)
d)
Receipt System
None of these
RTGS enables transfer of funds :

a)Between two banks .
b)From the remitters account in a particular bank to the beneficiarys
account.
c)Both a & b
d)None of the above
16
Under normal circumstances, if we transfer funds from one account to another

bank's account through RTGS, how long will it usually take to credit that account
?
a)
c)
17
Usual draft charges

No charges at all
Usual draft charges plus courier charges
only courier charges
Rs. 25,000/Rs.50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs.40,000/Rs.5,00,000/-
Under retail Internet Banking, what is the maximum limit for third party transfer ?
a)
c)
20
15 Minutes
1 Hour
Under retail Internet Banking, what is the maximum limit for draft ?
a)
c)
19
b)
d)
If a customer applies for issuance of draft through his Internet Banking account,
what charges we will charge from him?
a)
b)
c)
d)
18
1 Day
30 Minutes
Rs. 25,000/Rs.50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs.40,000/Rs 5.00 lacs
How e-Pay (online bill payment) facility of SBI benefits the customer ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
It enables the customer to schedule his payments for various bills.

It enables him to automatically pay on specific amount/day every month.
It enables him to pay/view his transaction.
All the above
420
21
What is the amount charged from the customer for re-generation of PIN for his
ATM-cum-Debit card ?
a)
c)
22
b)
Outward remittance only

d)
None of these
Rs. 25,000/Rs.50,000/-
b)
d)
Rs.40,000/Rs 10.00 lacs
RBI
Both RBI & SBI
b)
d)
SBI
RBI, SBI & ICICI Bank
Under Internet Banking, the maximum limit for inter branch funds transfer is ?
a)
c)
26
Inward remittance only

Both Inward & Outward remittances
Who has launched NEFT ?

a)
c)
25
Rs.100/No fee charged.
Under Internet Banking,what is the maximum limit for inra branch funds transfer ?
a)
c)
24
b)
d)
State Bank of India has entered into an agreement with Western Union's Kouni
Travels. The duo will falicitate the customer in :
a)
c)
23
Rs. 50/Rs.200/-
Rs. 25,000/Rs 5.00 lacs
b)
d)
Rs.40,000/Rs 10.00 lacs
Under NEFT, the funds settlement will take place

a)
b)
c)
d)
Twice a day
Every half an hour
Only once a day i.e. at 12 Noon
Any time the batch processing takes place at the funds collection
centre
27
State Bank of India has launched its Multi City Cheque. These cheques books
can be issued at :
a)
only CAG branch
b)
Any CBS Branch
c)
Only MCG Branch
d)
None of the above
28
What are the instrument types assigned to 'Multi City Cheques' by RBI ?
a)
c)
29
31
b)
d)
30
a,b & c
421

29
What is the demat service product of SBI ?

a)
c)
30
RTGS
eZ Trade
b)
d)
NEFT
EFT
Why has the minimum transaction limit for RTGS transactions been raised ?
a)
To reduce traffic on RTGS
b)
c)
Both a & b
d)
To increase usage
of NEFT
None of the above
KEY TO GENERAL AWARENESS COMPUTERS 3
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
C
11
A
21
A
2
B
12
C
22
A
3
C
13
C
23
d
4
C
14
A
24
A
5
D
15
B
25
B
6
B
16
C
26
D
7
B
17
C
27
B
8
C
18
D
28
D
9
D
19
D
29
C
10
B
20
D
30
c
422
CORE BANKING SOLUTION - 1

1.
Centralised Data Base/Main Server for Core Banking Branches has been
installed at: a) Central Data Centre at Belapur, Mumbai
b) SBIICM, Hyderabad
c)FD, Kolkata
d) All LHO Headquarters
2.
The CBS software is different from Bankmaster for the undernoted reasons:
a) The Bankmaster had a stand-alone server and database while in CBS these
are interconnected between all the branches.
b) While CBS is a window-based package, Bankmaster was not.
c)While in Bankmaster, the customer becomes a customer of a specific branch,
in CBS he becomes customer of the Bank as a whole
3.
CBS Software acquired by the bank is: a) B@ncs24

c) Finance-one
4.
B@ncs-link
Trade-Finance
b)
d)
FNS, Australia
HP Systems, USA
Name of the software acquired by the bank for maintaining CGL (Corporate
General Ledger) accounts in core banking environment is: B@ncs-24
c) Finance-one
7.
b)
d)
The bank has acquired the CBS software from: a) TCS Ltd., India
c) China Systems, Dubai
6.
B@ncsLink
d) Trade-Finance
Name of the Front-end software used at CBS branch server is: a) B@ncs-24
c) Finance-one
5.
b)
b) B@ncs-ink
d) Trade-Finance
The bank has acquired 'Finance-one' from: a) Comlink, USA

b)
d)
FNS, Australia
HP Systems, USA
423

8.
Name of the software acquired by the bank for Trade-Finance is: a) B@ncs-24
b) B@ncs-link
c) Finance-one
d) Exim-Bills
9.
The bank has acquired Exim Bills from: a) B@ncs-24

b)
d)
10.
'Disaster Recovery Centre' for the CBS has been located at: a) Chennai
c) Hyderabad
11.
b)
d)
PCS Ltd.
HP Systems, USA
b)
d)
PBB-Hyderabad
PBB-Chennai
b)
d)
01/09/2003
14/12/2003
Inter-connectivity of the CBS branches is maintained with CDC-Belapur through:

a) Internet
c) STEPS
16.
FNS, Australia
HP Systems, USA
Core Banking was first implemented on: a) 29/06/2003

c) 16/09/2003
15.
b)
d)
The first branch of State Bank of India where Core Banking was started is:
a) PBB-Chandigarh
c) Hirannandani, Mumbai
14.
New Delhi
Bangalore
Core Banking Solution-Hardware installed at CDC has been acquired from:

a) TCS Ltd.
c) Wipro
13.
b)
d)
Name of the company that has been entrusted with the work relating to
customization, integration and pilot implementation of CBS is: a) TCS Ltd., India.
12.
B@ncs-link
HP Systems, USA
b)
d)
SBIConnect
All the above
In case of failure of connectivity, the CBS branch: a) Cannot perform any function
b) Can perform limited functions available on OFFLINE Mode
c)Can perform functions only from a separate node provided at the branch for the
purpose
424
17.
Multi City cheques have been introduced for Mid Corporate Customers in many
Mid Corporate Group Branches on CBS. The maximum value of single MCC
would be
a) 10 Lacs
c) 15 Lacs
18.
Single Window Operator

Automated Teller Machine i.e. ATM
b)
Accountant/Joint Custodian
d) All of the above
You can log into Core Banking Software (a 'Window' based programme)
through :a) My Computer
c) Internet Explorer
21.
b)
d)
In Core Banking Solution, a 'Vault Teller' means: a) Cash Officer

c) Branch Manager
20.
5 Lacs
20 Lacs
In Core Banking Solution, a 'Teller' means: a) Branch Teller

c) All the users
19.
b)
d)
b)
d)
My Documents
Microsoft Word
Finance-one' software is available at CBS branches :a) On all the nodes

b) On one or two nodes- preferably with Branch Manager/Accountant etc.
c)On the node of officer entrusted with UCO's powers
22.
http://10.0.2.154 is the address of :a) Site of SBITIMES

b) Site of E-Circulars
c)Site of CBS Help Desk
d) Site of E-learning- a package for self learning CBS
23.
http://10.0.2.153 is the address of :a) Site of SBIMAIL

d) Site of E-learning- a package for self learning CBS
425

24.
http://10.0.23.23/caisd/pdmweb.exe is the address of :a) Site of SBITIMES

d) Site of E-learning-a package for self learning CBS
25.
Sites of E-Circulars, E-learning and CBS Help Desk are available :a) Through Internet
c) Both of (A) & (B)
26.
b)
d)
Through SBICONNECT
None of the above
Sites of E-Circulars, E-learning and CBS Help Desk are available on :a) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & Managers of Division
b) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & Accountant
c) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & UCO
d) All the nodes in any branch/office of the Bank on SBICONNECT
27.
ID of an employee of State Bank of India in Core Banking Solution will be

a) His/her Provident Fund Index Number
b) Any seven digits/letters chosen by the employee
c) Date of birth of the employee
d) A unique number will be allotted by CDC, Belapur
28.
Minimum alpha-numeric required for user's password in CBS is :a) Five digits
b) Six digits
c) Seven digits
Eight digits
29.
In a CBS branch, an authorized user can log in from :a) Any terminal subject to the total no of terminals linked with CDC Belapur.
b) Terminal specified by the Branch Manager
c)Terminal specified by the System Administrator
d) Terminal specified by the CDC, Belapur
30.
In CBS branches, after permanent transfer of a user, his/her ID will be

transferred to his/her new branch by :a) The branch from where he/she is transferred
b) The branch to which he/she is transferred
c) CDC, Belapur, Navi Mumbai
d) Any of the above
426
KEY ASSIGNMENT
CORE BANKING SOLUTION 1
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
A
11
A
21
B
2
D
12
D
22
A
3
A
13
C
23
B
4
B
14
B
24
C
5
B
15
B
25
B
6
C
16
B
26
D
7
A
17
A
27
A
8
D
18
C
28
B
9
C
19
B
29
A
10
A
20
C
30
A
427

31.
In CBS system, to move from one field to another, the user has to use
undernoted keys/mouse:
a) <ENTER> Key
c) Mouse
32.
b)
d)
In CBS, management of cash has been made a part of the software/system. As

such, undernoted official(s) will become the custodian of the cash held at the
branch overnight :a) Branch Manager
c) Cash Officer
33.
<TAB> Key
(b) &/or (c)
b)
d)
Accountant/Joint Custodian
All of the the above jointly
In CBS, Cash Drawer has been referred to as :a)Cashier's cabin

b) Strong Room
c)Cashier's hand balance box
d) A tool for recording cash receipts/payments/balance details of any individual
user
34.
In CBS, management of security forms has also been made a part of the
software/system through menu- VPIS. The term VPIS stands for :a) Valuable Paper Industry Sector
b) Valuable Paper Inventory System
c) Valuable Paper Instrument System
d) Valuable Paper Instrument Sector
35.
In CBS, the undernoted official is treated as custodian of security forms :a) Branch Manager
c) Cash Officer
36.
Accountant
All of them jointly
Like Bankmaster, CBS screens also have MANDATORY and OPTIONAL fields.
Which of the following colours has been given to the MANDATORY fields :Yellow
c) White
37.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Red
Blue
In CBS, 'Loan Tracking' concept has been introduced for Demand Loans/Term
Loans. In which of the undernoted ways, 'Loans Tracking' helps the user :-
428

a) It guides him regarding all the activities related to grant of/disbursement of
Demand Loans/Term Loans
b) It guides him only regarding the follow-up of Demand Loans/Term Loans
c) It guides him only regarding interest rates and margin rates specified for
various types of Demand Loans/Term Loans
38.
In CBS, Customer Information File (CIF)/Customer Number is necessarily

created for the undernoted type(s) of customer(s) :a) Introducer
c) Joint Account Holder
39.
In CBS, every Customer Number/CIF is of ______digits :Nine

c) Eleven
40.
b) Nominee
d) a & c
b)
b)
d)
Ten
Twelve
b)
d)
Collection Management Product

Classified Management Product
All the internal (non-customer) accounts have been referred in the CBS as
a) CGL
c) Branch Clearing Accounts
44.
100
111
CMP stands for :a) Cash Management Product

c) Clearing Management Product
43.
b)
d)
In CBS, every Account Number generated by the centrally located server at CDC
is unique. Every Account Number is of __digits.
a) Nine
c) Eleven
42.
Twelve
Recording of KYC (Know Your Customer) ID- as directed by the RBI is

compulsory while creating a new Customer in CBS. To verify that the ID
produced by the customer is adequate to operate bank account, the ID should
have minimum ____ KYC scores :a) 99
c) 110
41.
Ten
d)
b)
d)
BGL
Inter Branch Accounts
In case of any difference between BGL and CGL balances that may creep in, an
software called GLIF has been provided to facilitate its location. Full form of the
term GLIF is :-
429

a) General Ledger Information File
b) General Ledger Interface File
c)General Ledger Internal Accounts File
45
In CBS, there is a concept called 'NPA Tracking' which means :a) The system will help the user to know the existing as well as probable NPA
status of all the outstanding loan accounts
b) The system will automatically change the asset category of all the loan
accounts on the specified date
c) The system will put through INC entries on its own
All of the above
46.
In CBS, overdraft in Savings Bank Accounts will be allowed by :a) Debiting the amount to a Current Account named 'Overdrafts Allowed In
Savings Bank Accounts'
b) Debiting the amount to the concerned Savings Bank Account itself
c) Can be allowed only by CDC, Belapur
Cannot be allowed at all
47.
There are 16 capability levels of CBS users. Out of which levels available with
the branch staff are:
a) 5
c) 11
48.
b)
d)
The Term used in CBS, corresponding to Job Stream in BankMaster, through

which a number of transactions can be put through in CBS is
a) CBS Feed
c) Auto Feed
49.
b)
d)
Trickle Feed
None of the above
To view the images ( photos or signatures ) in a CBS system, one can press
a) F10
c) F3
50.
9
7
b)
d)
F11
F8
Many Reports are available in a CBS branch. The Day books in a CBS branch
have been given the name of
a) V V R
c) DAY BOOKS
b)
d)
CBSDB
None of the above
430

51.
Default password of Service Desk of CBS is

a) Your P.F. Index
c) service desk
52.
b)
Your branch code

d) servicedesk
If a Customer number of a branch starts with 80, it indicates that

this customer number relates to a customer migrated from BankMaster
b) this customer number has been created in B@NCS24
c) this customer number relates to a customer of some other branch
could be any one of the above
53.
Number of IRAC status codes for Loan Accounts in B@NCS24 are

a) 5
c) 11
54.
9
8
During OFFLINE mode in a CBS branch, following can be done

a) Transaction of a non-home branch
c) Opening of an Overdraft Account
55.
b)
d)
b)
d)
Government Transactions
None of the above
Under CBS umbrella, RTGS services have been enabled in

a) Only those branches who have been identified
b) All the CBS branches.
c) Only the branches in Kerala Circle on Pilot basis
d) None of the CBS branches
56.
For making a correction in a CBS transaction, one has to know its journal number
which helps in its reversal and subsequent correction. Such reversal is possible
a) Within 2 days of effecting the transaction
b) Within 1 hour of effecting the transaction
c) On the same day but before sending EOD signal from the branch
Depends upon CDC Belapur
57.
Soft Copy of a file containing Salary or Pension, when sent to CDC through one
of the options of CBS gets posted thereat through a process called Trickle Feed.
Transactions normally gets posted in the account
a) After 2 days of sending the softcopy
b) Within 1 hour of sending the softcopy
c) At period intervals depends upon CDC
431
58.
User type of Accountant in a CBS branch is

a) 40
c) 60
59.
b)
d)
When a CBS branch has to go on OFFLINE following activities can not be

done
a) Issue of drafts
c) Cash Withdrawals
60.
50
10
b)
d)
Cash Receipts
Printing of Cash Reports
In CBS branch calendar WW is defined as a working day . Holidays are defined

as
a) HL
c) HO
b)
d)
HH
HY
KEY ASSIGNMENT
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
31
D
41
C
51
D
32
B
42
A
52
A
33
D
43
B
53
D
34
B
44
B
54
D
35
B
45
D
55
B
36
D
46
B
56
C
37
A
47
B
57
C
38
D
48
B
58
B
39
C
49
A
59
A
40
C
50
A
60
B
432

61.
In CBS, during OFFLINE mode Accounts of the following can be opened

a) P Segment
c) AGR Segment
62.
b)
d)
SIB Segment
None of the above
To logout from the CBS system, which works under WINDOW environment, you
have to
a) Press [X] button on the top right hand on the screen
b) Shut of the system
c) Chose log off button
d) Any one of the above
e) Sign off
63.
A CBS word equivalent to Referral of BankMaster is

a) Que
c) Chose logout button
b)
d)
CBS Referral
Any one of the above
64.
Every Teller in a CBS branch has an electronic Cash Drawer and can make the
customer cash transactions EXCEPT the
a) Cash Officer
b) Field Officer
c) Accountant
d) Branch Manager
65.
Which of the following is not true in CBS environment

a) Tellers can swap cash in their Cash Drawer
b) Tellers can swap VPIS (Drafts/Cheque Books etc. ) among themselves
c) Tellers can exchange cash with a customer
d) All of the above
66.
Internal Accounts of all the CBS branch like Charges, Branch Cash Balance
Account etc which are called BGL Accounts. Numbering convention of such
accounts is such that
a) First five digits are the branch code Second five are common
b) First five digits are common Second five are branch code
c) Each branch has a unique BGL Account number
67.
Last digit of a 11 digit Account number in a CBS branch is called

a) Check digit
c) Last digit
b)
d)
Unique digit
None of the above
433
68.
Reports relating to GLIF matching of B@NCS24 and Finance1 indicating the

difference if any are available at a CBS branch
a) Within 1 hour of sending EOD signal
b) Before sending EOD signal
c) On the next day
None of the above
69.
Which one of the following is False.

a) Number of a migrated customer account starts with 80
b) Number of a customer opened in B@NCS24 starts with 85
c) Number of a migrated Account starts with 1
None of the above
70.
Status List of Bankmaster has an equivalent in B@NCS24 and is called

a) Shadow File
c) PD File
71.
b)
d)
F11
None of the above
b)
d)
F4
F8
Institute Code of SBI in B@NCS24 (in use by the SB Group) is

a) 1
c) 3
75.
2
4
When a customer having BankMaster Account number wants to know his

corresponding CBS number, which function key is pressed
a) F3
c) F7
74.
b)
c)
Which function key is pressed to repeat the Customer/Account number typed last
on a CBS screen.
a) F9
c) F12
73.
Night File
FB Data
How many CBS sessions can be opened simultaneously by a Teller ?

a) 1
c) 3
72.
b)
d)
b)
d)
2
4
CC and OD accounts have been clubbed in CBS whereas with Deposit Account
whereas TL and DL accounts clubbed separately. The rationale is
434

a) In Deposit/CC/OD, cheques books can be issued
b) In Deposit/CC/OD, accounts can have credit balances
c)In DL/TL, accounts can not have credit balances
76.
In CBS system the term collateral means

a) Primary Security Only
c) Covers both of them
77.
Secondary Security Only

None of the above
Collateral number generated by CBS system is of

a) 11 digits
c)12 digits
78.
b)
d)
b)
d)
10 digits
9 digits
In CBS, credit voucher of a S.C sent shall be included

a) in the vouchers of the day on which it was dispatched
b) in the vouchers of the day on which it was entered in the system
c) in the vouchers of the day on which it is realised / returned
79.
In any CBS screens there are 2 types of fields, white and blue. While filling the
values in these fields
a) Blue fields are mandatory others can be ignored
b) White fields are mandatory white ones can be ignored
c) Blue fields are mandatory others can not be ignored
d) White fields are mandatory others can not be ignored
80.
In any CBS system Interest frequency has to be defined while opening a TDR
account along with the account number in which the interest has to be credited
by the system. Which of the interest frequency can NOT be given.
a) Anniversary Quarterly
b) Anniversary Monthly
c) Quarterly
d) Anniversary Yearly
81.
In any CBS branch which of the following transactions relating to P-Segment can
not be made from a non-home branch.
a) A cheque of Rs 15000.00 without paying any charges
b) A cheque of Rs 20000.00 without paying any charges
A cheque of Rs 25000.00 after paying charges
A withdrawal of Rs. 18000.00 without paying of charges
435

82.
In a CBS branch which of the following is wrong (in context to non-home branch
transactions relating to a P-Segment Customer).
a) Transactions of an illiterate customer can not be done
b) Transactions relating to a dormant account can not be made
c) Transactions relating to inoperative account can not be made
d) Transactions relating to a joint account where drawer is the payee can not be
made.
83.
In a CBS branch if there is a connectivity failure

a) No payment can be made
b) payment can be made on basis of Deposit accounts balance list
c) Payment can also be made after verifying the balance from another Core
banking branch telephonically
d) Both b & c
84.
In a CBS branch the account BGL account beginning with 98582 represents
a) Atm entries where account debited but cash not paid
b) Atm entries where cash paid but account not debited
c)None of the above
85.
On every incoming message through RTGS, to know how many messages have
come, one has to
a) Keep a Register to note how many message have been received
b)
To go to enquiry option and click on All Statuses to see the status of

Successful messages
c) To enquire the account related to STEPS (RTGS) messages in the CBS
system through BGL option
d) All of the above
86.
In a CBS branch conducting OLTAS transaction, which of the following report is

generated daily for submission to the Focal Point Branch.
a) GAD 2
b) GAD3
c)GAD4
d) GAD 5
436
87.
In a CBS environment payment of IOIs is safer as compared to drafts because

a) The inventory allocated to a particular branch is fed in the system by Central
stationary department
b) The payment involves the input of BIAK (Built in authentication key) which
cannot be bypassed.
c) Both a) and b)
88.
In a CBS branch the following is False

a) If a Customer gives a cheques drawn on another core branch at the same
centre, the same shall be immediately be presented in a special clearing
b) At the same centre no commission is payable by a customer depositing an
amount of 25000 from a CBS branch to another
c) Rates of TPM depend upon the population code of the branch, which needs to
checked by the branch to ensure accuracy of TPM rates.
d) Weekly figures of the Branch / Bank are available every day instead of only on
Fridays in Bank Master.
89.
In a CBS branch the corrections to be made on account of errors pointed in CIS

have to be corrected. In this context, which of the following statement is correct.
Corrections are to be done in
a) In DOSCIS
b) In B@ncs24
c) No corrections to be made in B@ncs24 as these are automatically written
back by DOSCIS software
a) and b) both
90.
Number of Day Book kind of reports sent by CDC Belapur to every branch on
daily basis after EOD thereat are
a) VVR
b) VVR & BGL
c) VVR, BGL & Core Power
d) VVR, BGL, Core Power & System Generated transactions
437

KEY ASSIGNMENT
61.
66.
71.
76.
81
86
d
b
b
c
d
d
62.
67.
72.
77
82
87
e
a
c
b
d
c
63
68.
73.
78
83
88
a
c
d
c
d
a
64.
69.
74.
79
84
89
c
d
c
c
a
d
65.
70.
75.
80
85
90
b
a
d
c
b
d
438
INFORMATION & TECHNOLOGY 1

1) SB Connect, the dedicated lease line connectivity, is maintained by ----a) TCS, India
b) FNS, Australia
c) Datacraft, Singapore
d) HP System, USA
2. Which is the first branch of SBI on Core Banking Solution?
a) PBB Bandra, Mumbai
b) PBB Belapur, Mumbai
c) PBB Hiranandani, Mumbai
d) PBB Madame Cama Road, Mumbai
3. The State Bank of Indias internet banking site is...
a) www.onlinesbi.com
b) www.statebankofindia.com
c) www.sbi.co.in
d) www.inb.sbi.com
4. Corporate Internet Banking was rolled out by the Bank on
a) 1st March 2002
b) 1st July 2003
c) 1st July 2002
d) 1st April 2003
5. The BGL account beginning with 98582 refers to
a) ATM trancactions where cash is paid but account not debited
b) ATM trancactions where cash is not paid but account is debited
6. Under the Fast Cash option, cash can be withdrawn in fixed amounts of -----from our ATMs
a) Rs. 1000/- , Rs. 2000/b) Rs. 5000/- , Rs. 10,000/-.
c) Rs.1000/- , Rs. 2000/- , Rs. 3000/- or Rs. 5000/
d) Rs. 2000/- , Rs. 5000/- , Rs 7000/7. The name of the software used for Tele banking is
a) Datacraft
b) Intrasoft
c) Softcraft
d) CRAFT
439
8. The software being used in SBI for conduct of government transactions and
electronic reporting has been developed by
a) IDRBT
b) SBI
c) Infosys
d) TCS
9. The National Financial Switch (NFS) promoted by IDBRT relates to
a) Networked Foreign Exchange transactions among banks
b) Internet Banking Connectivity
c) ATM connectivity among banks
d) Single National Financial Software for all banks
10. The turnkey solution provider for implementing National Financial Switch
(NFS) is
a) NCR Corporation
b) Euronet Worldwide
c) FNS Australia
d) HP Systems
11. The Security of SBIs internet Banking site is certified by
a) VERISIGN
b) SECURESIGN
c) INBSIGN
d) TRUESIGN
12. SBI ATM Cards are processed and issued by
a) ATM Switch Centre, Belapur
b) Mastercard
c) Venture Infotech Global Pvt. Ltd. Mumbai
d) GECBPMSL, Gurgaon
13.
For issuance of duplicate ATM Card in case of lost/damaged card a charge

of Rs_____ is levied.
a) Rs 100/b) Rs 200/c) Rs 50/d) Activated Card
14. Hotlisting of Card refers to

a) Mutilated Card
b) Deactivation of lost ATM Card at ASC
c) Revalidation of Card after expiry.
440
15. SBI ATM-cum-Debit Card can be used for purchasing goods and services at
Merchant Establishments displaying
a) Mastercard logo
b) VISA logo
c) Maestro logo
16. Can a Card be issued against a minors account?
a) No
b) Yes, a card may be issued to a minor if he/she is above 14 years of age.
An add-on card may also be issued to the guardian.
c) Card may be issued only to the Guardian.
17. The connectivity infrastructure of our ATM Network is maintained by
a) ATM Switch Centre
b) NCR Corporation
c) HCL Comnet (VSAT) & Datacraft (SB Connect)
d) Satyam
18. The charges realized for using ATMs of other Banks under Bilateral
Agreement in case of saving bank account are:
a)upto 10 withdrawals free and above 10 withdrawal transactions, Rs.20/- per
withdrawal and NIL for balance enquiry
b) upto 5 withdrawals free and above 5 withdrawal transactions, Rs.20/- per withdrawal
c) upto 3 withdrawals free and above 3 withdrawal transactions, Rs.20/- per withdrawal
and NIL for alance enquiry
19. ATM Switch Centre is managed by the Bank with the technical support of
a) C&I Project, Corporate Centre
b) NCR Corporation
c) Financial Software & Systems, Chennai
d) Datacraft
20. For the purpose of accounting, cash loaded in our ATM belongs to
a) Concerned Branch
b) ASC, Belapur
c) ATM Project, Corporate Centre
441
KEY
1
c
6
c
11
a
16
b
2
c
7
d
12
c
17
c
3
a
8
b
13
b
18
b
4
a
9
c
14
b
19
c
5
C
10
b
15
c
20
a
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1. Offline transactions in SBI ATMs are made possible through maintenance of
a) Opticash
b) Groupwise
c) Positive Balance Files (PBF)
d) NCR Managed Services
2. What is Opticash ?
a) Cash loading in ATM by outside agency
b) Management of Cash in ATM by NCR to avoid cash outages
c) Remote Monitoring of ATMs by Switch Centre
3. BANKNET has been established by
a) All Banks
b) SBI
c) RBI
d) Co-operative Banks
4. In SBI, ATM stands for
a) Automated Time Money
b) Automated Teller Machine
c) Automated Teller Machine or Anytime Money
d) Anytime Money
5. What does SBIR stands for?
a) State Bank Inward Remittance
b) State Bank Instant Remittance
c) State Bank In-house Remittance
d) State Bank of India Remittance
6. Network Service Provider for Core Banking is
a) Airtel
b) Reliance
c) BSNL
d) Broadband Service
7. Core Banking Solutions (CBS) for foreign offices software is called
a) Finance
b) Financial
c) Finnacle
d) Bank Master
443
8. The CBS for foreign offices is supplied by

a) Satyam
b) Infosys
c) FNS
d) Data Craft
9. As per BPR, Document Archival Centres have been created which will
function as.
a) Centralized Document Execution Centre
b) Centralized Document Printing Centre
c) Centralized Record Maintenance cell
d) Centralized Document Centre for closed accounts
10. State Bank of India has launched its Multi City Cheque. These cheques
books can be issued at :
a) Any CAG branch of the Bank
c) Only Bankmaster Branch
b) Any CBS Branch

d) Only MCG Branch
11. After the establishment of Liability Processing centre the account would be
opened in ----to----minutes.
a) 10-12
c) 6-8
b) 8-10
d) 7-8
12. Who can create securities?

a) All staff with a capability of 2 and above can create security.
b) All staff with a capability of 3 and above can create security
c) All staff with a capability of 5 and above can create security
d) None of these
13. Who can authorise the securities thus created?
a) Any Official of the branch with a capability of 5 and above can authorise
the securities created. Creator and authoriser should be different persons.
b) Any Official of the branch with a capability of 7 and above can authorise
c) Any Official of the branch with a capability of 9 and above can authorise
d) None of these
444
14) What is the maximum amount that can be entered in the Hold Value column?
a) The hold value can be up to the value of TDR plus accrued interest.
b) The hold value can be up to the value of TDR alone
c) The hold value can be up to the value of loan amount
d) None of these.
15. What is a Collateral Number?
a)When a security is created, the regt no. on the regt.deed of property to be
mortgaged is entered as collteral number.
b) When a security is created, the system generates a unique 10-digit
number automatically and this number can be used to enquire into the
details of securities, the loan account number for which the security is
created and other relevant details of the customer.
c) When the security is created, the particulars of the collateral security are
noted in a register, that running serial number is called collateral number.
d) None of these
16) What is meant by SDV?
a) SDV sub-module refers to Safe Deposit Value, It handles maintenance
of lockers,
b)SDV sub-module refers to Safe Deposit Value, it handles Collecting
periodical rent etc.
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None of these
17)What is meant by SC?
a) SC sub-module deals with two major functions viz. Safe Custody of articles / scrips,
Security Register / Ledger and maintenance of gold ornaments.
b) Issue of Safe Custody Receipt to the customers, Printing of COS 49, Ex-custody
Register functions
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
18) While creating TDR as security, whether the system will automatically mark
the interest rate in the Loan account?
a)For Demand / Term Loan accounts, the system will automatically fix the interest rate
at the account level.
b) For Demand / Term Loan accounts, the system will not fix the interest rate at the
account level. It will have to be done manually.
c) For Demand / Term Loan accounts, the system will fix the interest rate after the EOD.
445

d)None of these.
19) What will happen to the Hold / Drawing Power when the TDR is rolled over?
a) When the TDR is rolled over, the hold in the account gets removed, the
drawing power remains as such.
b)When the TDR is rolled over, the hold in the account does not get removed,
only the drawing power becomes zero.
c) When the TDR is rolled over, both the hold & drawing power gets
removed
d) None of these
20) The branch should ensure that there is only one person with user type ---- and ----.
a) 50 & 60
b) 40 & 50
c) 40 & 60
d) 10 & 60
KEY
1
c
6
c
11
b
16
c
2
b
7
c
12
a
17
c
3
c
8
b
13
a
18
a
4
b
9
c
14
a
19
b
5
b
10
a
15
b
20
a
446
MOBILE BANKING
1.
For Mobile Banking registration, SMS <MBSREG> <Mobile Make >

< mobile Model has to be sent to
a) 567636
b) 567656
c) 567676
2.
Name of the Mobile Banking Software is :

a) State Bank freedom
b) SBI freedoM
c) SB freedom
3.
The catch line which goes with Mobile Banking is :

a) With you, All the way
b) Your Mobile, Your Bank
c) Bank with convenience
4.
Mobile banking services as at present are meant for

a)SME customers only
b) SME and personal segment customers
c) Personal segment customers only
d)C & I customers only
5.
Daily transaction limit for fund transfer in normal transaction is :

a) 50,000
b) 10,000
c) 25,000
6.
Daily transaction limit for Bill/Merchant transaction is :

a) 50,000
b) 10,000
c) 25,000
7.
What is the overall monthly limit of transaction through Mobile Banking.?

a) 250,000
b) 30,000
c) 35,000
8.
What is the next step after changing the MPIN for registration of mobile banking
a) Entering the CIF
b) Answering a secret question
c) register at ATM or branch
447
9.
What is the number of maximum accounts which can be enabled for Mobile
Banking ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
10.
During(Prior to ) registration process what is mandatory to change ?

a) MPIN
b) USER ID
c) Both of above
d) None of above
11.
MPIN in Mobile Banking stand for

a) Mobile Banking Personal Index Number
b) Mobile Banking Personal Identification Number
c) Member Banking Personal Identification Number
12.
What is the length of MPIN ?

a) 4 characters
b) 5 characters
c) 6 characters
d) 8 characters
13.
What type of transaction can not be carried out in Mobile Banking as on

date ?
a) Transafer of funds to other Bank Account
b) Cheque Book Request
c) Railway ticket Booking
d) None of these
14.
Whether Internet Banking registration is mandatory for accessing Mobile

Banking
a)Yes
b) No
15.
How many users can use Mobile Banking on a particular Mobile phone
a) 2
b) 5
c) 1
d)3
448
16.
How can Mobile Banking Services be terminated ?

a) Cannot terminate once registered
b) Selecting the option Deregistration in the settings menu
c) Deregister through an ATM
d) Both B & C
17.
How many transactions of a account can be viewed in mini statement

option
a) 2
b) 5
c) 8
d) 10
18.
First step for bill payment through Mobile Banking is :

a) Add Biller
b) Get Help
c) Get Format
d) None
19.
Is registration is mandatory for Mobile Top up ?

a) Yes
b) No
20.
When is the request for Mobile Top up invalid ?

a) Non existing mobile number
b) Post paid mobile number
c) Insufficient funds in your account
d) Incorrect amount as per the plan of the prepaid connection
e) All of the above
21. In case of Dmat account services available in mobile banking it is not possible to
do one of the following
a) View last 5 transactions
b) Request for DIS
c) View portfolio
d) sell shares
22.
WAP stands for

a) Wireless application protocol
b) Wireless added process
c)Wireless arranged protocol
449
23. WAP based mobile banking service is meant for

a) only java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity for GSM
users or data connectivity for CDMA users
b) only non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity for GSM
users or data connectivity for CDMA users
c) Both java and non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity for
GSM users or data connectivity for CDMA users
d) Neither java nor non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity
for GSM users or data connectivity for CDMA users
24 In SMS banking the daily /monthly limits are
a) 5000/50000
b) 1000/5000
c) 10000/50000
25 .For topping a mobile connection through SMS banking what is not necessary
a) MMID of the beneficiary
b) Mobile no. of the beneficiary
c) Service providers name
d) Amount of top up
26 For funds transfer through IMPS banking what is not necessary
a) MMID of the beneficiary
b) Mobile no. of the beneficiary
c) account no. of the beneficiary
d) Amount to be transferred
27. For Mobile Banking registration, under SMS banking SMS (SMS<MBSREG>)
has to be sent to
a) 567636
b) 567656
c) 567676
d) 9223440000
28.
What type of transaction can not be carried out in SMS Mobile Banking
facility ?
a) Transafer of funds to other Bank Account
b) balance enquiry
c) Mobile top up
d) DMAT enquiry
450

29
30 .
Transactions through IMPS (Interbank mobile payment service) do not

involve
a) Core banking
b) National payment corporation of India
c) RTGS network
If already registered in other modules of mobile banking ,if one has to avail SMS
Mobile Banking facility :
a) It is necessary to deregister in other modules before registering for
SMS Banking
b) It is not necessary to deregister in other modules before registering for
SMS Banking
c)USSD and SMS Mobile Banking facility can be taken together.
31.
In SMS Mobile Banking

a) The messages are encrypted
b) The messages are not encrypted ,hence the customer is requested to
delete the SMS sent as they may contain MPINs.
c ) Thev messages are communicated in an interactive session as in the case of
USSD
ANSWERS
MOBILE BANKING
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q
Ans.
Q
Ans.
1
c
6
a
11
b
16
d
21
d
26
c
31
b
2
a
7
a
12
c
17
b
22
a
27
d
3
b
8
c
13
d
18
b
23
c
28
d
4
b
9
d
14
b
19
b
24
b
29
c
5
a
10
a
15
c
20
e
25
A
30
a
451

INB General
1. What does MIT refer to in case of INB ?
a) Manual of information and technology b) Main internet technology
c) Manual intervention transactions
d) Manual information transaction
2. One of the following requests through INB does not require manual
intervention.
a) Account opening
b) DD issue c) Cheque book issue d)a/c enquiry
3. Profile password is set by the --a) customer
b) branch
c) CBD Belapur
d) internet provider
4. Profile password is meant for --a) Logging into internet

d) increasing speed
b) enhanced security
c) giving status symbol
5. INB customers can further enhance their security while doing internet
transaction through ---a) SMS based password b) having 2 login passwords c) by going to
internet kiosk d) by a secret question
6. Mode of delivery of user ID and password for internet banking can be
a) through dispatch from the INB dept only
b )through PPK directly to the customer only
c) either through dispatch from INB dept or through PPK
d) neither through dispatch from INB dept nor through PPK
7. What does PPK refer to?
a) pre packed kit
b) pre paid kit
c) personal pack kit
d) pre printed kit
8. Each packet of PPK has ----no of kits

a) 100
b)50
c)150
d)200
452

9.Each PPK has 10 digit number where the first 5 digits stand for the packet
Serial number and the next 2 digits represent
Kit serial no
b) circle code
c) branch code
d) account type code
10.Internet service provider for internet banking for SBI is

a) M/s Zee technology b) M/s Microsoft
c) M/s Satyam d) M/s Infosys
11. Internet banking site of SBI has been certified by

a) Verisign
b) Goodsign
c)Satyam
d)ISO
12.One of the following is not true about the security features built into
SBIs Internet Banking site
a) It has 128 bit SSL encryption
b) provides for multiple users and user level security banking
c) HPIN based password
d) It has metal detectors
13. Transfer of funds in sbionline can be done using
a) RTGS only
b)GRPT and RTGS
c) NEFT ,RTGS and GRPT d)ECS,GRPT and NEFT
14.Internet Banking site of SBI is
a) www.onlinesbi.com
c) www.sbi.co.in
b) www.statebankofindia.com
d) www.sbi.org.in
15.PPK has to be claimed by the INB officer in

a) SBITIMES
c) B@ncs 24
b) onlinesbi
d) Branch admin interface
16.One of the following functions in respect of internet banking are not

Carried out at branch admin interface
a)Reset of login and profile password
b)Redispatch of id password
c)reactivation of user id
d)removal of posting restrictions
453

17.Each transaction done through onlinesbi generates a -----digit number
a)6
b)7
c)10
d)16
18.When a Username gets deactivated it can be reactivated in
a)Branch admin interface
b) online sbi
c)B@ncs24
d) Sbitimes
19.The password of a user gets locked for a day on internet if entered
wrong ------ times consecutively
a) 2
b) 4
c)5
d) 3
20.As per the banks single domain name policy branches/administrative units/
Application owners wanting to host their own banking site will register
Their transactional site as subdomain of www.onlinesbi.com and their
Informational site as subdomain of
b)www.sbi.org.in
a) www.onlinesbi,co
d)www.sbiicm.in
c)www.sbi.co.in
21. The recently introduced simplified branch INB role holding for small branches
pertains to branches
a) With 3 officers
b) With less than 3 officers
c) does not depend upon the number of officers
22. Which of the following will not constitute a part of the arrangement in the recently
introduced simplified branch INB role holding for small branches .
a) INB Maker
b) INB Authoriser
c) INB officer
KEY
INB General
1
c
9
b
17
c
2
d
10
c
18
a
3
a
11
a
19
d
4
b
12
d
20
c
5
a
13
c
21
b
6
c
14
a
7
d
15
d
8
a
16
d
454
CINB
1. Of the following types of forms used in CINB registration one of them is not
matched properly.Which one is it ?
a) C1 is used for registration of CINB customer
b) C2 is used for registration of regulator
c) C3 is used for registration of administrator
d) C4 is used for registration of maker
2. Which of the following statement is true.
i) Form B1 is used for advising the customer his registration ID
ii) Form B2 is used for registration of Branch INB authorizer
a) Only i) is true b) only ii) is true c ) Both i) and ii) are true
d) neither i) nor ii) is true
3.One of the following types of products is not available to CINB customers
a) Khata
b) Vistaar c) Vyapaar d) Vistaar plus
4. In case of which of the following types of CINB products amount per transaction
cannot exceed Rs 50.00 lacs
a) Vyapaar b) Vistaar c) Khata Plus
d) Khata
5. Which type of CINB facility provides for enquiry rights only on all accounts
across branches
d) Khata
6.In which of the following types of CINB facility it is possible to do full range of
online transactions for corporates maintaining a/cs at multiple branches
d) Khata
7.The type of CINB product that offers only enquiry rights at one branch only is
a) Vyapaar
b) Vistaar
c) Khata Plus
d) Khata
8.The access channel that is set for a khata user in CBS is

a) 09
b) 04
c) 01
d)02
455
9. A regulators role in CINB does not cover one of the following.

a) Over all control of internet banking system
b) Implementation of security features for whole corporate
c) Participates in internet transactions
d) He can define which user can do what
10.One of the following is not a type of user that can be created under CINB
a) developer
b) authoriser
c) enquirer
d) auditor
11.One of the following is not a feature of the facilitiles available under CINB
a) e-payments/e-receipts to and from registered users
b) Bulk upload facility
c) No check on access control and access rights
d) Multiple level controls
12. A super enquirer is one
a) who has unlimited power of transaction
b) who has unlimited right of enquiry for all accounts of the corporate across
branches
c) who has unlimited power to control other users
d) who has unlimited right to set limits on transactions
13.One of the following functions can not be performed by the administrator
a) He can manage users
b) He can modify access rights
c) He can perform transactions
d) He can reset profile/transaction password of users
14.One of the following is not true about the role of uploader
a)He participates in bulk upload of data as or salary payments etc
b) He generates test file from the file structure set by regulator
c) He approves the test file
d) The setting up of uploaders role is mandatory
15.One of the following is not true about the rules or operating instructions
Set by the corporate
a)They define the power of the executives of the corporate to authorize the
online transaction requests on an a/c.
456

b)each of the INB Rule authorizer individually authorizes the rule
formulated
at the corporate end.
c) INB rule authorizers approve the rules only if these are in keeping with the
Mandate or board resolution submitted by the corporate
d) It is not possible to change the rules once approved even when the
corporate submits a fresh resolution.
16.One of the following is not included in the role profile of INB officer
a) obtains various forms from corporate customer for registration of CINB
b)Creates regulator (for Vistar customer)
c) authorizes various rules set by the corporate
d)creates administrator for (Khata plus,Vistar and Vyapar customers )
17.The CINB user/ users created at the branch level are
a)Regulator only
b)administrator only
c)neither regulator nor administrator
d) both regulator and administrator
18.The administrator of the corporate prints the following form for getting the
PPKs of other corporate users issued from the branch
a)form C1
b)form C7
c)form C6
d)form C8
19.The maximum amount of draft that can be issued per transaction in case of
Vistaar is
a)Rs1.00cr
b)Rs5.00cr
c)Rs2.00cr
d)Rs10.00cr
20.The preprinted kits to the users in case on CINB customer are given through
a) B@ncs24
b)Branch Admin Interface
c)Onlinesbi
d)Sbitimes
21. The facility through the Internet banking user makes payment after selecting the
desired corp /Institution available under a link in the Internet banking website is
a) e -collect
b) i -collect
c) i collection
22.While Creating a Regulator /Administrator in Vistaar /Vyapaar the registration
of the mobile numbers of the functionaries is
a) Mandatory
b)Non Mandatory
c) cannot be done
457
23. The E-Tax limit per transaction in the case of Vistaar is

a) Rs 500 crore
b)Rs 50.00 lacs
c) Rs 5.00 crores
24. The mall on Mobile facilitywhich permits the booking of Railway tickets and
purchases on mobile is called
a) Grand Mall
b)Ambiece mall
c) ngpay
KEY
CINB
1
d
2
c
3
d
4
a
5
c
6
b
7
d
8
a
9
c
17
d
10
a
18
b
11
c
19
a
12
b
20
b
13
c
21
b
14
d
22
a
15
d
23
a
16
c
24
c
458
D mat
1. ez-trade@sbi is a 3in 1 a/c because it provides an integrated platform of
a) TDR a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c
b) S/B / current a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c
c) loan a/c , online trading a/c , and demat a/c
d) PPF a/c, online trading a/c , and demat a/c
2.ez-trade@sbi is provided by SBI in association with
a) Relianceinfocom, ICICI securities
b) SBI Securities and NSDL
c) Online SBI and Master securities ltd
d) SBI Caps securities limited
3.A depository is an organization which holds
a) loan documents in electronic form
d) gold certificates in electronic form
b) cash
c) securities in an electronic form
4. A DP i.e depository participant is an entity which

a) acts as a agent of the bank and registered under companies act
b) which acts as a agent of the Depository and is registered as such with
SEBI
c) which acts as a agent of the RBI and is registered under FEMA
d) which acts as agent for financing and registered as such with SEBI
5. At present the 2 depositories are
a) Integereated depository services limited and Reliance depository services
limited
b) Future depository services limited and Reliance depository services limited
c) Combined depository services limited and Active depository services limited
d) National securities depository limited and Central depository services limited
6.Maximum no of demat accounts that an investor can open with a DP is
a)unlimited
b) 1
c)2
d)5
7.Along with proof of address it is mandatory to give -----for opening a demat a/c
a) mobile number
b) Pan card with photograph
c) asset statement
d) Passport
459

8. Minimum balance of securities to be kept in demat a/c is
a) 5
b) 3
c) Nil
d)1
9. The a/c opened by DP is given a number BO ID which stands for

a) Beneficary owner identification number
b) bilateral ownership indentity number
c) Balance outstanding indentity number
d)Benefits outstanding identification number
10. One of the following is not true about Dmat a/c
a) In case of a joint a/c it cannot be operated on either or survivor basis as a bank
a/c
b) It cannot be operated on Power of attorney basis
c) Names cannot be added or deleted in a demat a/c
d) Securities can be transferred to another account with another DP
maintained in the same pattern
11. For delivery of shares an investor is given a DIS booklet where DIS stands for
a) Demand instruction slip
c) Delivery instruction slip
b) dedicated investment slip

d) dated investment slip
12. One of the following is not true in respect of DIS

a) If demat a/c is in joint name DIS can be signed by any of the account
holders
b) DIS of another person should not be used as it will not be accepted
c) It should specify the BO/client ID of the target a/c
d) In case of exhaustion of DIS slips they can also be issued across counter
to the investor for immediate use.
13. For doing DP related work bank has set up a special cell which is ---a) LCPC
c) DPCPC
b) CPC
d) DAC
14. ez instructions are meant to provide

a) standing instructions to branches for transfer of funds
b) instructions for issue of draft through onlineSBI
c) online instructions for transfer of a/c
d) for issue of delivery instructions and pledge instructions through onlineSBI
460
15. To convert shares in physical form to electronic form ,investor has to fill -----type of form
a) CDF
b) DRF
c)DTF
d)CRF
16. DRF stands for

a) Dealing request form
c) Data request form
b) Duplicate request form

d) Demat request form
17. When the names on the physical certificate and in demat a/c are the same but the
sequence is different, then while applying for dematerialization the investor has to
submit---- form
a) Transposition cum demat form
c) transition cum demat form
b) transfer cum demat form

d) trading cum demat form
18.
An investor can do any of the following in respect of his demat a/c except
19.
a) Freeze his a/c

b) change signature in his a/c
c) convert shares in electronic form into physical form
d) deposit all his securities whether in single or different names in a/c in single
name only
ASBA facility through SBI online refers to
a) A simple online application for IPOs
b) An application where only a lien for the given amount is created in the
account.Hence the customer continues to earn interest and his account
will be debited only on allotment of the shares.
KEY
D mat
1
b
9
a
17
a
2
d
10
b
18
d
3
c
11
c
19
b
4
b
12
a
5
d
13
c
6
a
14
d
7
b
15
b
8
c
16
d
461

RTGS
1.RTGS stands
NEFT
GRPYT
for
a) Real trade gross settlement

c) Real transaction gross settlement
b) Real time gross settlement

d) Real track gross settlement
2.One of the following is not true about RTGS

a) It is electronic transfer between a/cs in different banks
b) It is made secure with digital signature and public key infrastructure for encryption
c) It is maintained and monitored by SBI
d) Interbank fund transfer is online and realtime
3.Which of the following is true
i) R-41 transaction type is meant for customer to customer transaction
ii) R-42 transaction type is meant for interbank transactions
only i) is true
d)neither i) nor ii) is true
b) only ii) is true
c) both i) and ii) are true
4.Which of the following is true

i) Minimum amount that can be remitted through RTGS in case of R41 transaction is
Rs2.00lacs
ii) Minimum amount that can be remitted through RTGS in case of R42 transaction is
Re2.00
only i) is true
b) only ii) is true
d) both i) and ii) are true
c) neither i) nor ii) is true
5. IFSC in respect of RTGS/NEFT stands for

a) Indian financial system code b) international financial system code
c) Indian financial sevices code d) international financial services code
6. UTR number refers to
a) Universal transaction reference
c) Universal transfer reach
b) Unique transfer reference

d) Unique transaction reference
7.Every RTGS message is assigned a UTR no comprising of ------characters

a) 17
c) 16
b) 11
d) 15
462

8. DAU, maintained at Payment systems group Global IT centre CBD Belapur,
refers to
a) Dedicated accounting unit
c) Distance account unit
b) Dealer account unit

d) dependable accounting unit
9. NEFT stands for

a) National Engineered financial transaction
c) National electronic fund transfer
b) New electronic financial transaction

d) New electrical fund transfer
10. One of the following is not true about the features of NEFT
a) Remittance can be in rounded figures only
b) It operates on deferred net settlement basis where settlement is done in
batches
c) There is no stipulation of minimum or maximum amount to be sent through
NEFT
d) It can be used for only Indian rupee remittances among participating banks
in the country.
11.IFSC code has ------no of characters
a) 10
b)11
c) 16
d)15
12.Maximum amount that can be sent through RTGS and NEFT is

a)Rs5.00lacs
b) Rs10.00lacs
c)no limit
d)Rs15.00lacs
KEY
RTGS
1
b
9
c
2
c
10
a
3
c
11
b
NEFT
GRPYT
4
d
12
c
5
a
6
d
7
c
8
a
463

INFORMATION SECURITY
ASSIGNMENT - 1
1.
Who is responsible for security of Desktop/Laptop/Server

a) System Administrator
b) User
c) of Department
d) Security Officer Head
2.
If an user requires any change in hardware or software settings whom he/she

should contact
a) IT Head
b) Head of Department
c) System Administrato
d) Supplier of HW/SW
3.
If an user wants to connect modem to his/her machine to access external

network, whom shall he she approach for approval
a) Head of Department
b) System Administrator
c) IT-Networking department
d) Information Security Department
4.
To prevent unauthorized access while desktop is unattended, which measure is

most suitable
a) Shutdown the desktop
b) Lock the keyboard/mouse
c) Enable the screensaver with password
d) Power off the monitor
5.
What an user should do when auto virus scan is affecting system performance
a) Contact the System Administrator
b) Stop/Disable the virus scan
c) Call the HW/SW vendor
d) Remove the antivirus from the system
6.
How can a user protect sensitive data on laptop in the event of loss of laptop
a) By creating hidden files/folders
b) By enabling Boot level power-on password
c) By enabling screensaver
d) By using encryption
464
7.
In the event of loss of laptop whom should be contacted immediately

a) Police station
b) Controller & Information Security Department
c) Insurance Company
d) Banks Security Officer
8.
An user should share password of his desktop with whom

a) Controller
b) System administrator
c) Colleagues
d) None
9.
A good password is
a) Name/short form of name/initials
b) Names of family/friends/colleagues/institution
c) Combination of alphabets and numbers
d) Combination of alphabets, numbers and special characters
10.
Which is a good practice

a) Changing passwords frequently
b) Keeping a written password somewhere
c) Entering password when colleague is watching
d) Keeping simple words as passwords
11.
If Internet is misused from an users desktop, who is responsible

a) The person who has misused
b) The user whom the desktop belonged to
c) The department where the desktop is located
d) IT-Networking department
12.
Which one is not suggested while enabling a browser

a) Set browser security setting to medium
b) Configure browser to remember web application passwords
c) Enabling ID displays in web applications
d) Maintaining history of URLs
465

13.
If an users storage space is full in his/her mailbox, which one is not

recommended
a) Delete old mails
b) Download old mails in the machine
c) Open a new mail account
d) Request for increase in mailbox storage
14.
A site address which starts with -------- is more secure

a)https://
b) https://
c)htpps://
d)https://
15.
Which of the undermentioned is a good practice to prevent revelation of

sensitive information
a) Reading confidential documents in public places
b) Working on laptops in public places
c) Not answering to queries over phone to unverified persons
d) Providing information to vendors/suppliers
16.
Who is supposed to be responsible for application security in all activities related

to design, development, deployment and support of an application
a) Development team
c) Steering Committee
17.
b) Information Security Department

d) Application owner
Application should ensure that all transactions with financial implication should
have
a) One person as the requestor and approver
b) Separate requestor and approver
c) Approval of Systems and Procedure Dept.
d) Approval of Information Security Department
18.
Application should have the provision for allocating access rights based on the
principle of
a) First come first serve
c) Default
19.
b) Maker-checker
d) Least privilege
An application need not display which information, on completion of a successful

logon
a) User-Id
b) Date and time of the previous successful logon
c) Details of any unsuccessful login attempts
d) Name of the application
466
20.
Who is responsible for selection of encryption technology for Data security

a) Head of department
b) Head of IT department
c) Information Security Department (ISD)
d) Application owner in consultation with ISD
21.
Internet access should be provided only for users

a) To send / receive mails
b) With business needs
c) To browse various sites
d) To download files/data
22.
The account and password for Internet access will be communicated to end user
by
a) Head of department
b) IT-Networking department
c) Information Security Department
d) System Administrator
23.
Internet connection is enabled on desktop, which is not connected to the LAN in

Branch. How should the data be transferred between the desktop and LAN
a) By connecting the desktop to the LAN
b) By using a modem for dial-up connection to the LAN
c) By using removable media like Floppy/CD
24.
Who is authorized to block ports through firewall

a) IT-Networking dept. as advised by ISD
b) ISD
c) Service Provider
d) System Administrator
25.
Which device should be installed to monitor the traffic from external networks
a) Switch
b) Router
c) Firewall
d) Intrusion Detection System
467
ANSWERS
INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT - 1
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
b
11
b
21
b
2
c
12
b
22
b
3
c
13
c
23
c
4
c
14
a
24
a
5
a
15
c
25
d
6
d
16
d
7
b
17
b
8
d
18
d
9
d
19
d
10
a
20
d
468
ASSIGNMENT-2
1.
What are the three most important things you can do to secure desktop PCs?
a) Turn on Automatic Updates
b) Turn on Windows Firewall
c) Install antivirus software
d) Remove the hard drive
f) a, c, and d
g) a, b, and c
h) b, c, and d
i) a, b, and d
2.
Which of the following is an example of a strong password?

a) Password
b) J*p2le04>F
c) Your real name, user name, or company name
3.
True or false: If you have a firewall on your network you don't need to turn on
Windows Firewall.
a) True
b) False
4.
How can you prevent intruders from accessing your wireless network?
a) Encrypt network traffic with WPA or WEP
b) Restrict access to trusted MAC addresses
c) Both
5.
True of false: If you set your antivirus software to auto-update then you don't
need Windows Automatic Updates.
a) True
b) False
6.
True or false: Small businesses are not targets for hackers.

a) True
b) False
469

7.
What is "phishing?"
a) "Spoofed" e-mails and fraudulent websites designed to fool recipients into
divulging personal financial data such as credit card numbers, account
usernames and passwords
b) A type of computer virus
c) An example of a strong password
8.
What product can be used to update all PCs on your network?

a) Software Update Services
b) Internet Information Server
c) Bluetooth Networking
d) Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
9.
What method(s) can be used to protect sensitive data from prying eyes?
a) Passwords
b) File permissions
c) Encryption
d) All of the above
10.
How often should you perform an incremental backup?

a) Daily
c) Weekly
11.
b) Every other day

d) Monthly
The way I operate my computer affects other people.

a) False: Nothing I do on my computer matters to anyone
b) True: My computer may disrupt services, spread viruses, or be used to
perform a computer crime.
12.
What are the possible consequences of someone breaking into my computer?

a) I may have files deleted from my computer
b) I may have personal communications exposed
c) I may have my network connection cut off
d) My monitor may shatter
e) My computer may be used to commit a crime
f) My computer may be used to adversely affect the operation of my neighbors'
computers
g) All of the above, h) a, b, c, e, and f
i) a, b, d, and f
470
13.
You just got a brand new computer and it has anti-virus software installed. Is it
safe to use on the Internet?
a) Sure. They wouldn't sell me something unsafe.
b) No. I need to make sure both my anti-virus software and operating software
are up to date.
14.
Why might someone break into my computer even though I have nothing of value
on it?
a) Because someone doesn't like me
b) To use it to perform a crime
c) Random vandalism
d) For fun
e) To use it to distribute pornography, music, videos, and software.
f) All of the above
15.
Are you free to do whatever you want with your network-connected computer?
a) Yes, Its my personal computer and I can do what I please.
b) No. I have to be a responsible member of the networked community and am
bound by the George Mason
Responsible Use of Computing Policy.
c) No. I have to be a responsible member of the networked community, which
includes being aware of the Wireless Network Policy.
d) Both b and c.
16.
Which of the following are strong passwords:

a) Administrator
c) c0mputer
e) $ecurity
g) My dog's name
17.
b) Bob
d) %4Btv
f) $jelF2bb
If you ever receive an unsolicited telephone call from someone claiming to need
your password, what would you do?
a) Refuse and report immediately
b) Write the password on a piece of paper, put it in an envelope and send it by
mail
c) Tell him/her the password and change it the following day
d) Send him/her the password via email
471

18.
Which is the best way to protect the sensitive data in your computer when you go
out for lunch?
a) Turn the monitor off
b) Activate the screen saver
c) Lock your computer with password
d) Close all programs
19.
Of the following choices, which indicates when it is safe to open a file attached to
an e-mail?
a) When you know the sender, the attachment is expected, and it is not unusual
in any way.
b) When the e-mail is only sent to you
c) When the attachment is not an .exe or .com
d) When you know the sender
20.
Which of the following behaviors are considered inappropriate use?

a) Sending email messages to harass or intimidate people
b) Sharing passwords
c) Sharing or using unlicensed, copyrighted software or multimedia outside their
fair use provisions
d) Trying to infect people with viruses or scanning computers you don't own
e) Eavesdropping on others' activities by examining their computers or by using
technology to access third-party communications
f) Operating a computer with out of date operating software
g) All of the above
21.
When connecting your computer to wireless network you should:

a) Feel secure enough to send sensitive and confidential data, such as your
social security number, credit card information, password(s), or private
conversations.
b) Lose sleep wondering whether using wireless access will allow strangers to
login to your computer and the data stored on your hard drive.
c) Enjoy the freedom of connecting to the Internet without hassling with cables
and/or concern that the service provider will be billing your account for this
special service
d) Encrypt the information that you are transmitting over the network to protect
your data from being exposed to hackers.
e) Both c and d.
472
ANSWERS
INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT - 2
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
f
8
a
15
d
2
b
9
c
16
f
3
b
10
a
17
a
4
c
11
b
18
c
5
b
12
h
19
a
6
b
13
b
20
g
7
a
14
f
21
e
473

ASSIGNMENT-3
SAY TRUE OR FALSE

1. Antivirus programs that do a scheduled scan once a day provide adequate protection
from viruses.
2. If you don't open an infected email attachment and don't browse unknown websites,
you'll never get a virus.
3. A software firewall provides adequate protection for a cable or DSL line.
4. New systems are generally up to date and reasonably safe to connect immediately to
the Internet.
5. It's ok to leave your wireless network unencrypted as long as you have firewalls on all
your computers.
6. There are many viruses that can't be cleaned by even the best antivirus programs.
7. You can always avoid fake websites by typing the address in (avoiding email links),
and identify a secure connection by the "lock" symbol in your browser status bar.
8. Most cookies do not contain any personal information and are not nearly the privacy
risk that many people believe.
9. Deleting files and then emptying the recycle bin makes it impossible for someone to
recover the information in those files.
10.Teens suffer much higher rates of identity theft than adults.
11.Adware and Spyware not only compromise your privacy, they can also severely
reduce the performance of your computer and cause numerous other problems.
12.Chat rooms and the Internet have become the primary way that sexual predators find
victims today.
474

KEYS TO INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT-3
1. FALSE. You also need real time scanning: a critical feature that can prevent a major
infection (and one missing from many free antivirus programs).
2. FALSE.. A Vulnerable system can become infected even if you don't open
attachments or browse the web.
3. FALSE. Cable/DSL users should not rely on software firewalls. But the reasons are
not technological!
4. FALSE. New systems are almost always vulnerable and typically need major updates
before they should be connected to the Internet.
5. FALSE. Your router is at threat and anybody can do anything to it..
6. FALSE. Viruses can be virtually impossible to clean, and the damage irreperable
short of reformatting and reinstalling your system software.
7. FALSE. Typing an address in manually (avoiding links in email messages) and using
the lock symbol to identify a secure connection works - but only on a clean system.
These cannot be trusted on a system infected by a virus or spyware.
8. FALSE. Cookies rarely contain personal information and are much less scary than
people think.
9. FALSE. Deleting files and emptying the recycle bin does not really delete files.
10.FALSE FTC surveys suggest about 5% of adults suffer some form of identity theft
each year. I've found about 30% of teens have suffered identity theft.
11.FALSE. Adware and spyware may severly reduce the performance of your
computer.
12.FALSE Assaults due to meetings in chatrooms are relatively uncommon and
represent a small percentage of attacks against young people.
475
1.
BPR ASSIGNMENT
The alternate delivery channels as proposed under BPR are .
a) ATMs, Call Centres, Internet Banking, Phone Banking & Home Banking
b) ATMs, Internet Banking, Phone Banking & Home Banking
c) ATMs, Internet Banking, Phone Banking
e) ATMs, Credit cards, Internet Banking, Phone Banking & Home Banking
2.
In order to face the competition and come up to the customers expections BPR
has been introduced. In fact BPR stands for :
a) Basic Procedural Re-adjustment
b) Business Process Re-engineering
c) Best Possible Re-structuring
d) Behaviour Processes redefined
3.
The radical changes being introduced under BPR are expected to result in
significant improvements on multiple fronts. The Core Process Redesign under
BPR would lead to :
a) Process of Redesigning banks logo
b) Simplified processes for customer and staff
c) Redesign the process of promotion
d) a & b above
4.
BPR has been introduced because of

a) Environment has changed
b) Customer Expectations
c) Competitive Pressure
d) Processes have remained the same over the years
e) All of the above
5.
Keeping in view the environmental changes, customer expectations, new

technologies and obsolete processes the key objectives of the BPR are
a) Enhanced customer service levels by shortest waiting times, shorter process
times and officering wider range of channels to choose from
b) Tangible improvement in bottom line through increase in revenues and
through new sales units.
c) Reduction in cost by improved processes
d) Reduce transaction processing errors and customer complaints
e) All of the above
6.
Introduction of alternate channels will lead to

i) reduction in transaction costs
ii)Availability to customers 24X7
476
a) i) only
7.
b) ii) only
c) both i) and ii)
d) neither i) nor ii)
A large number of radical changes are being incorporated under BPR which will
lead to tangible improvements. One of the key improvements under BPR will be :
a) Greater customer convenience & less pressure on the branches
b) Providing relief to the staff due to shortage of staff
c) It will be accompanied by Police Escort
d) No escort is required
8.
Out of the seven key initiatives being launched under BPR one of the key
initiatives is Database marketing, which means:
a) Compilation of data about marketing strategies
b) Effective targeting of potentially rewarding customers
c) Collation of data about other banks
9.
10.
Full form of SSB in Core SSB model of branch is

a) Self servicing branch
b) Standard and service branch
c) Sales and service branch
d) Sale and Super branch
One of the following is not true about the functions performed by core
SSB
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
It accepts cheques for deposit

It grants loans against fixed deposits
It conducts pre-sanction in case of business loans
It keeps articles in safe custody.
A large number of non customer facing actilvities are being simplified and moved
out the branches. One of the Non customer facing activities being moved out of
the branches to the extent of 95% is :
a) Savings Account opening
b) Cheque clearing
c) Loan processing
d) Draft Issuance
12.
One of the key changes launched under BPR are central processing cells. The
objectives for creation of Central Processing Cells is
a) Skill pooling
c) Automation
b) Standardization of process
d) All of the above
477
13.
Two other variants of a Core SSB branch under redesigned branches are
a) Core SSB with Mass module and core SSB with special module
b) Core SSB with Mass module and core SSB with affluent module
c) Core SSB with C&I module and core SSB with special module
d) Core SSB with Affluent module and core SSB with SME module
14.
One of the following is not a key principle in branch redesigning under BPR
a)Clear communication of role
b)increased focus on sales
c)Increasing working hours
d) Non customer facing activities migrated out of core
15.
Functions related to a/c opening carried out at Liability CPC does not include
a) Scanning of signatures
b) acceptance of cash
c) completion of remaining a/c opening formalities
d) printing and dispatch of welcome letters to customers
16.
As per BPR, Document Archival Centres have been created which will function
as
a) Centralised Document Execution Centre
b) Centralised Document Printing Centre
c) Centralised Record Maintance cell
d) Centralised Document Centre for closed accounts
17.
The Key features of BPR are

a)Branch redesign
c)LCPC
18.
b)Alternate channels
d)All of the above
Under BPR, relationship managers have been provided for

a) Personal banking only
b) Medium enterprises only
c) both Personal banking and medium enterprises
d) neither Personal banking nor medium enterprises
19.
Under BPR Centralised processing cells are being established at various

centers. Accordingly, it has been decided that National Cash Monitoring Cells will
be established at .
478

a) Mumbai
b) All the metros
c) New Delhi
d) Nagpur
20.
In SMECC work flow it is not possible to
21.
a) send back an application for correction

b) do analysis of balance sheet
c) reject a loan application
d) tick documents from Checklist submitted
In the cases of branches linked to Centralised Clearing processing cells
The instruments drawn on the branches are
a) Paid at the branches
b) paid at CCPCs
c) can be either a or b
22. The 3 slits in the Drop box for deposit of instruments are color coded for
easy identification.The different colours are
a) Red for instruments to be paid at the branches
b) Blue for Local clearing cheques
c) Yellow for outstation instruments
d) all of the above
23. The Grahak Mitra has been introduced with the following objective
a) He will provide first level assistance to customers visiting the Branch.
b)He will provide basic product information and brochures to customers
coming for a general enquiry.
c) He will help the customers not well-versed with alternate channels to use
them.
d) He will guide the customers with complex transaction needs to proper
officer/counter
e) All of the above
24 The purpose of setting up of CAC(Currency administration cell) is :
a) To improve efficiency levels with respect to reporting and interactions with
RBI.
b) Arranging for transportation of cash with outsourced vendors or within SBI.
c) To relieve the branch managers, cash officers and cashiers at the branch
from time consuming remittance related activities.
d) All of the above
479
ANSWERS
BPR ASSIGNMENT
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
a
8
b
15
b
22
d
2
b
9
c
16
c
23
e
3
b
10
c
17
d
24
d
4
e
11
b
18
c
5
e
12
d
19
a
6
c
13
d
20
b
7
a
14
c
21
B
480
MUTUAL FUNDS ASSIGNMENT- 1

1. SBI Fund Management Pvt. Ltd. is a joint venture of SBI & world leading Fund
Management Company SGAM (Societe Generale Asset Management) in the
ratio of ____ % and ____%.
a) 50 , 50
b) 40 , 60
c) 30 , 70
d) 63 , 37
2. All Mutual Funds must be registered with ______ who regulates Mutual Funds
business in India.
a) RBI
c) AMFI
b) MF Regulatory Authority
d) SEBI
3. ________sets ethical, commercial and professional standards for Mutual Funds.

a) RBI
zc) AMFI
b) SBI
d) SEBI
4. Which of the following is not one of the categories of Mutual Fund ?

a) Liquid Fund
c) Multi Level Fund
e) Sectoral Fund
b) Debt Fund
d) Equity Fund
f) Balanced Fund
5. In an close ended Fund, Investor cannot ______units through Mutual Fund as

these are listed in stock exchange.
a) book
c) further invest
b) buy/redeem
d) choose
6. In an open ended Fund, Investor can sale/purchase to/from the Mutual Fund at
all times at a price based on ___________ .
a) Market price
c) Offer price
b) declared price
d) Net Asset Value(NAV)
7. In the context of Mutual funds, a /an _______document is a prospectus in which

complete details of new schemes are declared.
a) issue
c) public issue
b) offer
d) Initial issue
481

8. Net Asset Value of a mutual fund represents:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Assets/ Total No. of units of the Fund

Market value of securities / Total No. of units of the Fund
Market value of Assets Liabilities
(Market value of Assets Liabilities)/ Total No. of units of the Fund
9. The SBI Magnum Contra Fund has given a return of ..% since its inception
.
a) 16.65
c) 25.35
10. The asset
.
b) 36.87
d) 26.87
allocation in SBI Magnum Contra Fund is .% in large caps
a) 40-50
c) 30-40
b) 50-60
d) 65-70
11. In SBI LIFE Maha Anand medical examination is compulsory for a person of
years age .
a) 30
b) not requried
c) 40
d) 60
12. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category Liquid & Short term
a) Magnum Insta cash fund,
c) Magnum Institutional Income Fund
b) Magnum NRI
d) Magnum Mid Cap Fund
13. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category of Debt Fund?
a) Magnum Income Fund
c) Magnum Monthly Income
b) Magnum Gilt Fund

d) Magnum Balanced Fund
14. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category of Equity ?
a) Magnum Index Fund
c) Magnum Tax Gain Scheme
b) Magnum Multiplier Plus

d) Magnum Income Plus
15. Redemption/ Sale of mutual fund units would attract a Long term capital Gains
Tax of % if they are held for a period of more than one year.
a) 10,
c) no tax
b) 20
d) 15
482
16. Magnum Gilt Fund makes its investments in .. securities

a) Large caps
c) mid caps
b) blue chip companies

d)Govt securities issued by central/ state govts.
17. The Bench Mark for comparing the performance of Magnum Gilt Funds is
a) BSE SENSEX
b) NIFTY
c) MID CAP INDEX
d) I- Sec , Li-BEX INDEX
Key to Mutual Funds Assignment - 1

Q
Ans
Q
Ans
1
d
10
d
2
d
11
b
3
c
12
d
4
c
13
d
5
b
14
d
6
d
15
c
7
b
16
d
8
d
17
d
9
d
483

1.
Which of the following is not the object of AMFI?

a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Which of the following is not a criteria for a sponsor of a Mutual Fund?

a.
b.
c.
3.
Trust
Company
b.
d.
Investment company
None of the above
The AMC
The mutual fund/ trust
b.
d.
Directors of the AMC

The trustees
40
30
b.
d.
15
60
Diversified debt funds are most affected by:

a.
c.
8.
Annual / half-yearly report

Newspapers
If a security is thinly traded, it implies that the security has not traded on any stock
exchange for the last _____ days.
a.
c.
7.
b.
d.
Which of the following can an existing mutual fund investor sue?

a.
c.
6.
Offer document
NAV
In India, a mutual fund is constituted as:

a.
c.
5.
Networth to be more than capital investment

Sponsor should contribute 40% of net assets
Sponsor should ensure that 20% of funds assets to be invested in sponsors
company
The health of a Mutual Fund can be known from:

a.
c.
4.
To promote interest of mutual funds

To create ethical practices amongst mutual funds
To regulate norms governing mutual funds
To increase awareness of mutual fund
Reinvestment risk
Interest rate risk
b.
d.
Liquidity risk
Default risk
The maximum load that can be charged by the Asset Management Company for
paying initial issue expenses is:
a.
7%
b.
6%
c.
5%
d.
8%
484
9.
SEBI regulations for mutual funds came into force in:

a.
c.
10.
1993
1996
b.
d.
1987
1998
Which class of investors is not allowed to invest in Indian mutual fund?

a.
c.
Foreign national
NRI
b.
d.
FII
Indian resident
11. Mutual Fund Investors can address their complaint except to:
a.
c.
12.
Consumer court
AMFI
b.
d.
SEBI
Sponsor
Which of the following statements is false:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Gilt funds have the least credit risk among various types of funds
Gilt funds NAV will not fluctuate irrespective of interest rate movements
Gilt funds would not face the risk of default unless the Govt. defaults on its
payments
Gilt funds are ideal for investors who look for highest safety of principal
amount
13. Mutual fund can borrow:

a.
b.
c.
d.
In order to meet redemption units/dividends or interest payouts

For a maximum duration of 6 months
Upto a maximum of 20% of the net assets
All of the above
14. Initial issue expenses for an open end fund can be amortised over a period of :
a.
10 years based of WNA
b.
4 years
c.
5 years
d.
6 years
15. Which was the first diversified equity fund in India?
a.
c.
Mastergain 92
Mastershare
b.
d.
MEP 91
None of the above
16. Which was the first Indian offshore fund?

a.
c.
India growth fund.

India infrastructure fund
b.
d.
India fund
none of the above
485

17. Private sector funds were granted permission to enter the mutual fund industry in
a.
c.
1992
1988
b.
d.
1993
1995
18. In the context of a mutual fund, a high portfolio turnover means:

a.
b.
c.
d.
the fund is very active in the market

transaction costs are high
a high risk is involved as per the investment objectives
all of the above
19. The Mutual Fund Offer document as per trust deed is issued by:
a. AMC
b.
Sponsors
c. AMC in the name of the trustees d. Trustees
20. The maximum limit of inter-scheme investments by a fund is:
a.
5% of the NAV of the transferring scheme
b.
15% of the NAV of the receiving scheme
c.
5% of the NAV of all schemes of the fund
d.
15% of the NAV of all schemes of the fund
21. The first non-UTI mutual fund was:
a.
SBI MF
c.
Canbank MF
b.
d.
LIC MF
Indian Bank MF
22. Under SEBI regulation, a sponsor of mutual fund

a)
b)
c)
d)
Must contribute at least 40 % of the net worth of the assets management

company,
Must posses a sound track record of over 5 years,
Must contribute at least 51 % of the net worth of the asset management
company,
Both (a) & (b)
23. For evaluating funds, the preferred benchmark would be the:

a)
c)
BSE Sensex
BSE 200
b)
d)
S&P CNX Nifty

S&P CNX Sectoral Indices
24. Mutual funds can be broadly typecast on the basis of nature of investment into:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Equity, bond, & money market funds,

Equity, bond, & load funds,
Equity, load, & tax-exempt funds,
Equity, open-ended, & closed-ended funds.
486
Key to Mutual Funds Assignment - 2

Q
Ans
Q
Ans
1
c
13
d
2
c
14
c
3
B
15
C
4
a
16
b
5
d
17
b
6
c
18
d
7
c
19
a
8
b
20
c
9
c
21
a
10
a
22
d
11
a
23
d
12
b
24
a
487

1.
A mutual funds NAV is not affected by:

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Price of the unit quoted in the exchange

Valuation of funds investments
Sale of new units
Redemption of unit
The mutual fund trust is governed by

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
Which of the following is of no relevance in evaluating a mutual fund's performance

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Less researched & speculative shares,

Shares of blue chip companies that are recognized as market leaders,
Shares of companies that produce defense-related equipments,
Technology stocks.
Repurchase price of a mutual fund unit

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
The performance of the stock market as a whole

The performance of other mutual funds
The returns given by other comparable financial products
The change in wholesale price index
Aggressive growth funds invest in

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
India Trust Act only,

Indian Trust Act & sometimes also by companies Act 1956,
Companies Act only,
Companies Act & sometimes Indian Trust Act.
Should be higher then 93 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund

Should be higher than 95 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund
Can be 96 % of NAV
Can be 90 % of NAV
In the growth option offered by mutual funds, the number of units held by an
investor increases because of :
a)
b)
c)
d)
Growth in net asset value i.e. capital appreciation

Reinvestment of dividend which is like compounding
Interest received on the fund's assets
None of the above
488
7.
Index fund is expected to carry which of these risks?

a)
c)
8.
b)
d)
Sector specific risk,

Overall market risk.
A security is a non-traded security if it is not traded in the stock exchange for

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Default risk,
Share specific risk,
45 days prior to the date of valuation

06 months prior to the date of valuation
Assured return schemes:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Are equity funds,

Do not carry any risk,
Are funds where minimum returns are guaranteed by the sponsor,
Are schemes where maximum returns are assured
10. Which of the following is right?

A mutual fund may not:
a) Invest in other mutual fund
b) Invest in mutual fund schemes floated by the same asset management
company
c) Invest more than 5 % of NAV of the scheme in unrated debt instruments
d) Invest in unlisted shares more than 10 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund
11. Which of the following is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sector fund is less risky than index fund

Index fund is more risky than underlying index
Balanced fund is more risky than gilt fund
Money market fund is more risky than balanced fund
12. Turnover rates would be most relevant to analyze the performance of :

a) Equity funds
c) Debt funds
b)
d)
Growth funds
Value funds
489

13. Because of the entry/exit loads charged by the MFs, the return on investment
earned by the unit-holders:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Increases
Decreases
Is unaffected
Sometimes increases, sometimes decreases
14. An asset management company & its directors must ensure that the investment of
fund is in accordance with
a)
b)
c)
d)
Trust deed
SEBI Regulations
SEBI Regulations & the trust deed
The need to furnish maximum returns of the unit-holders
15. The rate of interest paid by a company on debentures issued by it depends on:
a) The stock market situation
c) The company's credit rating
b)
d)
SEBI guidelines
The amount of money being
raised
16. A high turnover rate for a fund indicates:

a) High transaction costs
c) High returns to the investor
b)
d)
Greater efficiency
A rising market
17. A sector fund is a:

a) Low risk fund
c) High risk fund
b)
d)
Moderate risk fund

Low-to-moderate risk fund
18. Which of the following transaction costs are not quantified in the offer document
a) Brokerage commissions
c) Custodians fees
b)
d)
Dealer spreads
Registrars fees
19. Unit Trust Of India is a special mutual fund because

a) It was set up before SEBI was established
b) It was set up under an act of a parliament & therefore enjoys special
status
c) It is a public sector financial institution
d) It is owned by RBI, which is not under SEBI jurisdiction.
20. As per SEBI, mutual funds can borrow for short term to the extent of
a) Total net assets
c) 25% of net assets
b)
d)
50% of net assets

20% of net assets
490
21. A bond with a coupon rate of 9 % when interest rates for similar maturities are 11
% will sell
a)
b)
c)
d)
Above par
Below par
At par
At a price which is not related to interest rates for similar maturities
22. Dated securities are

a)
b)
c)
d)
Bond issued by corporate with a specific date for redemption,

Treasury bills with a specific date for redemption,
Government paper with maturities longer than one year,
Securities, which have no, risk whatsoever.
Key to Mutual Funds Assignment- 3
Q
Ans
Q
Ans
1
a
12
a
2
b
13
b
3
d
14
c
4
a
15
c
5
c
16
a
6
b
17
c
7
d
18
b
8
b
19
b
9
c
20
d
10
d
21
b
11
c
22
c
491
SBI LIFE AND GENERAL INSURANCE

1) SBI General Insurance is a joint venture with which of the following?
a) IAG Australia
c) Sosciete General Asset Management
b) Cardiff S A
d) None
2) SBI Life is a joint venture with which of the following?

a) IAG Australia
c) Sosciete General Asset Management
3)
b) Cardiff S A
d) None
What is %... of the share of SBI in the joint venture with Cardif S A..?
a) 74
c) 50
4)
b) 76
d)51
A person professionally trained in the mathematical and technical aspects of

Life Insurance, Pensions and related fields is called as a ..
a) Actuary
c) CIF
b) Fund Manager
d) Associate
5) The Key Man Insurance Policy is owned by and payable to .

a) The employee
c) Both jointly
6)
b) The employer
d) Nominee
What is meant by mortality in an insurance policy?

a) The probability of disability of a life or a group of lives
b) The probability of death of a life or a group of lives
c) The probability of death and disability of a life or a group of lives
d) The probability of death or disability of a life or a group of lives
7)
What is meant by morbidity in an insurance policy?

a) The probability of disability of a life or a group of lives
b) The probability of death of a life or a group of lives
c) The probability of death and disability of a life or a group of lives
d) The probability of death or disability of a life or a group of lives
492

8) In which of the following policies, no surplus earnings are distributed by the
co. to the policy holder &the premium is as closely as possible to the cost of
insurance?
a) Non participating policies
c) Single premium policy
b) Salary saving insurance

d) Term insurance
9) Which of the following policies provide life protection only for a certain
period of time without any returns if the insured survives the term?
a) Non participating policies
c) Single premium policy
b) Participating life insurance

d) Term insurance
10) Which of the following policies may be kept in force for a persons whole life
and which pays a benefit upon his death whenever that be?
a) Endowment
c) Whole life
b) Annuity
d) Money Back
11) Which is the new ULIP policy of SBI life, with a minimum annual
Premium of Rs. 1.50 Lacs & minimum single premium of Rs. 2.00
Lacs?
a) Smart Elite
c) Unit plus Super
b) Smart Performer
d) Smart Scholar
12) Which is the new ULIP policy of SBI life, with the twin benefits, higher than
the highest of the daily NAV Guarantee and the prospect of the market upside?
.
a) Smart Elite
c) Unit plus Super
b) Smart Performer
d) Smart Scholar
13) What are the minimum & maximum ages at entry in Unit plus Super?
a) 18 &65 years
c) 19 &65years
b)
d)
7 &65 years
20 &65 years
14) What is the maximum age at maturity in Unit Plus Super ?

a)65 years
c)55 years
b) 75 years
d) 60 years
15) What is the maximum age at maturity in Smart Elite?

a) 65 years
c) 75 years
b) 60 years
d) 55 years
493
16)
What is the maximum age at maturity in Smart Performer?

a) 65 years
c) 55 years
b) 60 years
d) 75 years
17)
Which group policy of SBI Life is meant for covering Housing

loans, Tractor loans& Personal loans?
a) Dhana Raksha Plus b) Dhana Rasi
c) Swarna Ganga
d) Group Swadhan
loans, Vehicle
18)
Which is the SBI Lifes traditional non-participating pure term plan, with a
minimum sum assured of Rs. 25.00 Lac?
a) Smart shield
b) Saral shield
c) Saral life
d) Smart Elite
19)
Which is the SBI Lifes traditional non-participating pure term plan, with minimum
& maximum sum assured of Rs. 7.50 Lac& 24.00 Lac?
a) Smart shield
b) Saral shield
c) Saral life
d) Smart Elite
20)
In which plan, part of the sum assured is paid to the policy holder at regular
intervals?
a) Joint life Annuity
b) Annuity
c) Whole life
d) Money back
Answers
SBI LIFE AND GENERAL INSURANCE
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
A
11
A
2
C
12
C
3
A
13
C
4
A
14
D
5
C
15
A
6
B
16
D
7
A
17
A
8
A
18
A
9
D
19
C
10
B
20
D
494

AWARENESS OF BANKING FINANCE & ECONOMY
ASSIGNMENT - 1
1.
In which denomination of Currency notes RBI has proposed to issue polymer

notes?
a)
c)
2.
Rs.10/Rs.1/-
b)
d)
Rs.5/Rs.2/-
-------------has been awarded the Best Bank of 2010 by the Business India
a)
c)
Bank of Baroda
SBI
b)
d)
ICICI BANK
HDFC BANK
3.
The Present National Security Adviser to the govt of India is

a) Shri K.R Narayanan
b) Shri K.P S Gill
c) Shri Shiv Shankar Menon
4.
As per the recommendation of the 13th Finance Commission, the States will be
entitled to a share of ______% in Central Tax Revenue.
a.
c.
32
30.5
b.
d.
31.5
29.5
5.
The tenure of the 13th Finance Commission is

a.
2010-2015
b. 2011-2015
c.
2009-2014
d.
2008-2013
6.
The 13th Finance Commission is headed by

a.
Shri K.R Narayanan
b. Shri Manmohan singh
c.
Shri Pranab Mukherjee
d. Shri Vijay Kelkar
7.
BRIC economies refer to

a.
Brazil ,Russia ,India ,China
c.
Burma ,Russia ,India ,Chile
8.
b.
d.
Burma ,Russia ,India ,China

Brazil ,Russia ,Indonesia ,China
Government of India has allowed Foreign Direct investment in Insurance Sector

upto :
a.
39%
b.
49%
c.
59%
d.
69%
495

9.
Why is Circuit breaker used in share market?

a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
What is the proportion of the total oil consumption imported by India?

a.
c.
11.
b.
d.
London
Geneva
New York
Geneva
b.
d.
London
Berlin
New York
Geneva
b.
d.
London
Washington,D.C.
Kualalumpur
Seol
b.
Tokyo
d.
Manila
Who is the present Chairman of SEBI ?

a.
c.
16.
New York
Washington
The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is situated at:

a.
c.
15.
70%
54%
Headquarters of International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

is located at:
a.
c.
14.
b.
d.
Headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located at:

a.
c.
13.
80%
63%
The headquarters of International Monetary Fund is located at :

a.
c.
12.
To retain foreign investors in market.

To check the illegal method used by companies to promote sale of their
shares.
To check heavy fluctuation in share market.
To check the excessive sale of any one share.
Sh. G.N.Bajpai
Sh. M. Damodaran
b.
d.
Sh. Rajendra Panwar

Sh. U.K Sinha
The headquarters of the European Central Bank (estd. 1998) is located at:
______.
a.
c.
Berlin
London
b.
d.
Lisbon
Frankfurt
496
17.
Where is the National Board of Trade located?

a.
c.
18.
Ahemdabad
None of the above.
Wall Street Journal

Reuters Group plc.
b.
d.
Press Trust of India

Associated Press of America
Office of the Intellectual property Appellate Board is being established in India at:
a.
c.
20.
b.
d.
Name the worlds largest provider of financial information:

a.
c.
19.
Indore
Mumbai
New Delhi
Chennai
b.
d.
Mumbai
Kolkata
b.
d.
Sh. M O Mallya
M.B.N. Rao
Who is the present Chairman of IBA?

a.
c.
Sh.Pratip Chaudhri
Sh. M. Damodaran
21.
The The present Chairman of IBA belongs to

a. SBI
b. OBC
c. ICICI Bank
d. HDFC Bank
22.
Who among the following, is the Chairman of Cabinet Committee on Economic

Affairs?
a.
c.
23.
b.
d.
Sh.Manmohan Singh
Sh. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
Who is the President of World Bank?

a.
c.
24.
Sh. Arjun Sen Gupta

Sh. P. Chidambaram
James D. Wolfensohn
Robert B. Zoellick
b.
d.
Paul Wolfowitz
Lee Sian Loo
The Managing Director of IMF who had to recently vacate office following
allegations of impropriety was
a. James D. Wolfensohn
b. Paul Wolfowitz
d. Domonique strauss Kahn
c. Robert B. Zoellick
497
KEY TO AWARENESS OF BANKING FINANCE & ECONOMY

ASSIGNMENT - 1
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
a
13
d
2
a
14
d
3
c
15
d
4
a
16
d
5
a
17
a
6
d
18
c
7
a
19
c
8
b
20
b
9
c
21
b
10
b
22
b
11
c
23
C
12
c
24
d
498
ASSIGNMENT - 2
1.
As per Budget proposals for the year 2011-12, the Income tax exemption limit has
been raised from Rs 160000.00 to
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
As per Budget proposals for the year 2011-12, the Income tax exemption limit for
senior citizens has been raised to
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
Rs 180000.00
Rs 250000.00
Rs 170000.00
Rs 190000.00
As per Budget proposals for the year 2011-12, the Income tax exemption limit for
Senior citizens above 80 years is
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Rs 180000.00
Rs 200000.00
Rs 170000.00
Rs 190000.00
Rs 180000.00
Rs 500000.00
Rs 170000.00
Rs 190000.00
As per Budget proposals for the year 2011-12, the defence allocation of Rs
164415 cr involves a hike of
a) 11.00%
b) 14.0%
c) 14.5%
d) 15.0%
5.
The size of the black money in the Indian economy is estimated at
per cent of GDP by the Central Statistical Organisation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
40% of GDP
34% of GDP
29% of GDP
45% of GDP
499

6.
Objective of the Eleventh Five Year Plan is :

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
Faster & More inclusive growth

Growth with Financial inclusion
Inclusive growth
Wider employment opportunities
GDP growth rate for the Eleventh Five Year Plan has been fixed:
a)
b)
c)
d)
8%
9%
10%
11%
8.
The Eleventh Five Year Plan pertains to the period

a) 2007-12
b) 2010-15
c) 2004-09
9.
I.B.S.A. stands for:

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
India, Brazil South Africa Trilateral Co-operation Forum

India, Brazil, South Africa Agreement
India, Britain, South Africa Agreement
None of the above
In Eleventh Five Year Plan, the objective of agriculture Growth is:

a) 4%
c) 6%
11.
12.
b) 5%
d) 7%
Which International Orgainisation has committed to help India in

implementing Mission Clean Ganga to clean the river Ganges to the
tune of USD 1 bn?
a) IMF
b) Asian Development Bank
c) World Bank
Who is the wealthiest person on earth as per the Forbes List of
Billionaires 2010?
a) Bill Gates of US
b) Carlo Slim Helu of Mexico
c) Warren Buffet of US
d) Mukesh Ambani of India
500
13.
SBI is planning for a tie up .. to enter into General

Insurance business.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Insurance Australia Group

AIG
Societe General
GE Capital Insurance
14.
Which of the following is not true regarding personal taxation measures in the
Union Budget for 2011-12?
a) Exemption limit enhanced from Rs.1.60 lacs to Rs.1.80 lacs
b) Citizens over 80 years of age to have exemption limit of Rs.5 lacs
c) Senior citizens qualifying age reduced to 60 from 65
d) Women tax exemption limit enhanced to Rs.2.00 lacs
15.
The size of the black money in the Indian economy is estimated at

per cent of GDP by the Central Statistical Organisation?
e)
40% of GDP
b) 34% of GDP
c) 29% of GDP
d) 45% of GDP
16.
The rate of Interest on Savings bank account is regulated by:

a) By respective bank
b) Indian Banks Association
c) Reserve Bank of India
17.
Foreign banks are at present required to make good the shortfall in achievement
of the stipulated targets/sub-target by depositing an amount equivalent to the
shortfall with SIDBI for a period of :
a) 1 year
b)
2 years
c) 3 years
d)
4 years.
18.
The aggregate exposure of a bank/consolidated bank to the capital market in all

forms (both fund based and non-fund based) cannot exceed _____________%
of its net worth as on March 31 of the previous year :
a)
b)
c)
d)
20%
30%
40%
50%
501
19.
Who is the present Telecom Minister?

a) A Raja
b) Sachin Pilot
c) Kapil Sibal
d) Manmohan Singh
20.
Ceiling of composite Foreign Direct Investment in the Telecom Sector has been
fixed at _______ %.
a.
51%
b. 61%
c.
74%
d. 100%

ASSIGNMENT - 2
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
d
11
c
2
b
12
b
3
b
13
b
4
a
14
d
5
b
15
a
6
a
16
c
7
c
17
c
8
a
18
c
9
a
19
c
10
a
20
c
502
ASSIGNMENT - 3
1.
Priority sector home loans limit has been proposed to be increased from
Rs. Lacs
a) From Rs.20 lacs to Rs.30 lacs
b) From Rs.20 lacs to Rs.25 lacs
c) From Rs.20 lacs to Rs.28 lacs
d) From Rs.25 lacs to Rs.30 lacs
2.
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act was passed in the year:

a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
3.
Disinvestment target for 2011-12 has been fixed at

a) Rs.500 billion
b) Rs.200 billion
c) Rs.400 billion
d) Rs.600 billion
4.
RBI has recently approved merger of Bank of Rajasthan with.

a) Axis Bank
b) HDFC Bank
c) ICICI Bank
d) Punjab National Bank
5.
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) will come in to effect

from
a) March 2015
b) March 2016
c) April 2012
d) April 2013
Committee on Financial Inclusion was headed by

a) A K Puri Committee
b) Ashok Narain Committee
c) Uday Parekh Committee
d) Dr C Rangarajan
503
7.
The committee to probe in to the irregularities of Common Wealth Games 2010

was headed by
a) V K Shunglu
b) Pragat Singh
c) Shantanu Chopra
d) Ashok Narain
8.
Which Indian company is placed at No.2 position in the list of worlds 10 biggest
sustainable value creators prepared by Boston Consulting Group?
a) TATA Group
b) ONGC
c) SBI
d) Reliance Industries
9..
Aadhaar is
a) Unique Identification number (UID)
b) A Central Government scheme to Provide Basic Amenities in Rural Area
c) A Government of India scheme to Provide Basic Amenities in Rural and Semiurban Area
d) A Government of India scheme to Provide Basic Amenities for urban poor
10.
Maha Ratna status has been given to which of the following PSUs?
a) SBI
b) NABARD
c) SAIL
d) MMTC
11.
As per the Economic Survey 2010-11 the forex reserves of our country
increased from USD 279.4 bn in Apr 2010 to USD . in Dec 2010.
a) USD 297.3 bn
b) USD 300.10 bn
c) USD 292.25 bn
d) USD 295.00 bn
504

12.
What do you understand by the term repo rate?

a) Rate at which RBI borrows from Banks
b) Rate at which RBI lends to Banks
c) Rate at which RBI invests in capital market
d) Rate at which repository interest is maintained
13.
The 16th Global Climate Summit held in Dec 2010 in ..

a) London UK
b) Washington USA
c) Cancun, Mexico
d) Toronto Canada
14.
The United Nations has decided to observe 2011 as ..

a) International Year of Astronomy
b) International Year of Chemistry
c) International Year of Medicine
d) International Year of Peace
15.
With assets of USD 3.23 trillion .. has become the worlds

biggest Bank.
a) Sumitomo Bank
b) BNP Paribas
c) American Express Bank
d) Douche Bank
16.
Which social networking site has become the most visited web site in the US for
the first time surpassing Google?
a) Twitter
b) Facebook
c) Ace Network
d) Yahoo
17.
Definition of Banking & other financial services is now expanded to include:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Money transfer services.

Services as bankers to an issue.
Courier services sponsored by bank networks.
a&b
505

18.
The time limit for completion of assessment / reassessment of tax by Income Tax
Department is _____________ .
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
Reduced to three months.

Increased by three months.
Now removed altogether.
Three months for assessments & four months for reassessment.
RBI has recently set up a panel headed by .. to look into

the customer service of Banks .
a) C Rangarajan
b) M Damodaran
c) Bimal Jalan
d) A C Sharma
20.
Shri.Anand Pai, who passed away recently, fondly known as Uncle Pai is the
founder of
a) Amar Chitra Katha & Tinkle
b) Why? What? & How?
c) Fairy Tales & Chithra Katha
d) Champak

ASSIGNMENT - 3
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
b
11
a
2
c
12
b
3
c
13
c
4
c
14
b
5
d
15
b
6
d
16
b
7
a
17
d
8
d
18
a
9
a
19
b
10
c
20
a
506
ASSIGNMENT - 4
1
Retail investor can now invest through the initial public offer up to Rs.
a) 100000
c) 200000
2.
b)150000
d) 250000
SEVERSTAL is the mining giant of which country

a) Germany
c) USA
b) China
d) Rusia
3. SBI is planning to open another ------------ branches abroad

a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 30
4. The present SLR %
a) 21%
c) 24%
b)
d)
22%
25%
5. Which state is the first state to pass a law for the regulation of MFI s?
a) UP
b) AP
c) MP
d) HP
6. Idea Cellular , the Cell phone company has been appointed as
Business Correspondent by which Bank?
a) HDFC
b) ICICI Bank
c) Union Bank
d) Axis Bank
7. Stimulus package is announced when there is?
a) Inflation
c) Boom
b) Stagflation
d) Recession
8. Government of India ,acting tough on various telcom operator has imposed

Fine to a tune of Rs ----------- crores for non-compliance of subscriber verifaction
Process.
a) Rs 600
c) Rs 500
b) Rs 800
d) Rs 700
507
9. The 20Th edition of international World Web Conference held on

28Th March 2011 at.
a)
c)
Hyderabad
Pune
b) Bengaluru
d) Delhi
10 Finance Minister of the year for Asea award has been conferred on
a)
c)
Thomas Isaac
Manish
b) Brett Azuma
d) Pranab Mukerjee
11 Foreign nation can now remit ----% of their salary earned in India
to their country
a)
100%
b) 75%
c)
50%
d) 25%
12. The GDP of the country registered a growth of .%

a)
c)
7%
8%
during 2009-2010?
b) 7.5%
d) 8.25%
13The per capita Income of country is ..Rs.

a) 54527
c) 58987
b) 55687
d) 61258
14.The size of the economy is projected at ------ crores

a) 7256571
c) 7255870
b) 7555870
d) 7758780
15. The out put of pulses & grains for 2010-2011 stood at ----- million tones
a) 175
c) 235.8
b) 200
d) 244.7
16.Jalan committee report is about

a) banks
b) Stock Exchanges
c) Financial Institutions
d) Education
508

17. The union Cabinet has approved a Bill which seeks to increase the
Authorised capital of SBI to Rs ------------- crores
a) Rs 5000
c) Rs 6000
b) Rs 8000
d) Rs 10000
18.The current account deficit o f the country as at September ,2010 in

Billion is
a) 30.23
c) 34.9
b)
d)
32.5
36.5
19. Y.H.Malegoan committee was appointed to study the issues & concerns of
a) Micro Finance
c) Agriculture
b) SME
d) Trade
20 AT what rate MAT is charged?

a) 10%
c) 18.5%
b) 15%
d) 20.5%
21 Over all coropate tax proposed in India is %

a) 20%
b) 22%
c) 25%
d) 30%
22 The Direct Tax Code is expected to become law effective form
a) 2011
c) 2013
b) 2012
d) 2014
23 Which of the following have been awarded the Navratna Status recently
a) RINL
c) SAIL
b) ONGC
d) NTPC
24 Banks in India have switched to Base Rate System from

a) Cash Reserve Ratio
c) Bank Rate
b) Statutory
d) Benchmark Prime Lending Rate
25 Who is the president of G-20?

a) Obama
c) David Cameroon
b) Man Mohan Singh

d) Nicolas Sarkozy
509

ASSIGNMENT - 4
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
Q.
Ans
1
C
11
A
21
D
2
D
12
C
22
B
3
D
13
A
23
A
4
C
14
A
24
D
5
B
15
D
25
D
6
D
16
B
7
D
17
A
8
D
18
C
9
A
19
A
10
D
20
C
510

ASSIGNMENT NO 5.
1.
Receipent of ENTREPRENEUR EXTRAORDINAIRE life time achievement award in

2009 is.
a) Sri O.P.Bhat
c) Sri Azim Prem Ji
b) Sri Mukesh Ambani

d) Sri Ratan Tata
2. The cenetral bank of China is called

a) Bank of china
c) HSBC
b) Peoples bank of china

d) Shanghai Bank
3. India travel card has been introduced by

a) Axis Bank
c) ICICI
b)
d)
Syandicate bank
Indian Bank
4. What is the rate of interest subvention proposed in 2011-2012

Budget to futher incentivise prompt repayment by farmers?
a) 1%
c) 3%
5.
6.
b) 10
d) 7
Mini Navratna have a autonomy up to Rs.

a)
c)
500
700
b) 600
d) 800
What is the maximum interest paid on infrastructure bonds?

a) 8.5%
c) 9.255
8.
2%
4%
Infrastructure Bonds have a lock in period of -----years

a) 5
c) 15
7.
b)
d)
b) 8.75%
d) 9.755
Which Indian banks are treated as Foreign entities?

a) Axis Bank & HDFC
c) City Bank & HSBC
b) ICICI & HDFC

d) PNB & ICICI
511
9.
What is the dis-investment target of the government during 2010-11 in Crore

a)
c)
10.
a)
c)
11
20000
50000
b) 40000
d) 60000
Which is the second largest commercial Bank in private sector in India

ICICI
AXIS bank
b) HDFC
d) Bank of Rajasthan
Which bank has merged with ICICI last year .
a)
Bank of Maharastra
b) Bank of Rajasthan
c)
Bank of Maholi
d) Bank of Madhurai
12.
a)
c)
NABARD was formed in the year

1980
1982
b) 1981
d) 1983
13.
How many listed company are there in the country .
a) 2500
b) 3000
c) 3500
d) 4500
14.
Berclays Bank belongs to
a) UK
c) USA
15.
b) Germany
d) France
J.P.Morgan Chase Bank is from
a) Germany
c) USA
b) UK
d) France
16. The name of ABN Amro Bank N.V has been changed to
a) The Royal banks of Scotlad
N.V.
c) The ABN ltd
b) The Royal Bank of Ireland N.v

d) The ABN & Scotland
17. The Currencyof S.korea

a)
c)
Yuan
WON
b) Dinar
d) Dollar
512
18. Which is the largest Micro Finance Company in the country

a) Share
c) Spandana
19.
b) Spurthi
d) Swayam Krushi
The minimum application amount for retail investors in IP is Rs.
a) 10000
b) 15000
c) 20000
d) 25000
20 To be listed in the stock exchange, the minimum public holding of at least ----%
a) 10%
c) 20%
21
a)
c)
22
b) 15%
d) 25%
Wal Mart is a Multi brand retail of in India

UK
France
b) USA
d) Germany
Banks are mandated not to accept collateral security in the case of loans
Up to --------------- extended to units in the MSE sector
a) Rs 10 lakh
b) Rs 15 lakh
c) Rs 5 lakh
d) Rs 7 lakh
23
Who is the present Chairmen of SEBI

a) U.K.Sinha
c) Bijoy Ghosh
24
SIP in gold has been introduced by -------- Mutual Fund

a) SBI
c) ICICI
25
b) P.A.Nayer
d) Nalin Mehta
b) LIC
d) Reliance
PPF Schemes offer a rate of interesr of ------% p.a

a) 8
c) 9
b) 8.5
d) 9.5
513

ASSIGNMENT - 5
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
Q.
Ans
1
D
11
B
21
B
2
B
12
C
22
A
3
A
13
D
23
A
4
C
14
A
24
D
5
A
15
C
25
A
6
A
16
A
7
D
17
C
8
B
18
A
9
B
19
A
10
B
20
D
514

Assignment no 6
1.
Who is the governor of Bank of England?

a) Marc Listosella
c) Mervyn King
2.
b) Dieter Zetsche
d) Raymond Davis
SBI Bonds got a rating of AAA by CRISIL & CARE which indicate highest
a) Liquidity
c) Return
3.
The budget allocation for MGNREG during the current fiscal 2010-11 in crores
a) 30100
c) 50100
4.
b) Safety
d) Solvency
b)
d)
40100
55100
Goods & Services tax will be effective from 1st April--------a) 2010
c) 2012
5. CMD of Union Bank of India

a) M.V.Nair
c) E.E.Badshaw
b) 2011
d) 2013
b) Sasi Mukund
d) Albert Tauro
6. ANZ Bank pertain to which countries?

a) England & USA
c) Australia & Netherlands
b) Australia & Newzeland

d) Australia & Nizeria
7. U.K.Sinha who has been appointed as chairman of SEBI was formerly Chairman &
Managing director of
a) Kotak securities ltd
c) UTI
b) Mahindra Sathyam
d) HDFC
8. G.D.P of India for 2009-10 has grown at .%

a) 7.2%
c) 7.75%
b) 7.5%
d) 8%
9. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced their
a)
c)
CO2
Advances
b) Green house gases

d) SDRs
515
10. Present limit on FDI in Insurance Sector is------%

a)
c)
15
22
b) 18
d) 26
11 Large NBFCs which are taking deposits from the public have to maintain higher CAR of----%
a)
10
c)
12
b) 11
d) 13
12. At present finance companies are required to maintain a CAR of----%

a)
c)
10
12
b) 11
d) 13
13. Banking for all is the tag line of ---- Bank

a) SBI
c) IDBI
b) ICICI
d) Indian Bank
14. Who is the chairman of the parliamentary standing committee on finance?

a) Paranb Mukerjee
c) L.K.Advani
b) Yashwant Sinha
d) Shusma sinha
15. The famous Hyundai and Samsung names are ----- firms
a) Japan
c) China
b) South Korea
d) Singapore
16. The bond issue(Feb 2011) of the SBI was for Rs.------crore from the retail investors
a)1000
c)2500
b)2000
d)3000
17. The financial inclusion target has to be met by banks by

a) 2011
c)2013
b)2012
d)2014
18. The S & P 500, the bench mark measure of----- shares
a) India
c) USA
b) Europe
d) U.K
516
19.Tier-1 Capital is the core measure of a banks----- strength

a) Financial
c) Solvency
b) Liquidity
d) Profitability
20. Minimum capital adequacy ratio (CAR) of the banks should be ---- % with a
Tier-1 CAR of at least 6%.
a) 8
c) 10
b) 9
d) 11
21. Bank on Bike service was launched on a pilot basis in --- district of A.P
a) Medak
c) Nalgonda
b) Rangareddy
d) Mahabubnagar
22. SONAGHAR is a
a) Credit card outlet
c) car loan outlet
23.
b) Housing loan outlet

d) gold banking outlet
Who among the following industrialists pledged a whopping Rs.1540 crores to

education foundation
a) Grandhi Mallikharjuna Rao
b) Anil Ambani
c) Azim Premji
d) Ratan Tata
24. METAGRID is the software of

a) Credit card
c) Insurance
25.
State Bank freedom is ----------a) Home loan product

c) Mobile Banking Service
26.
b) Mobile Banking
d) Gold Banking
b) Personal loan
d) Debit Card
In its latest Credit Policy announcement in June 2011, the RBI has raised the policy
rates for the 10th time in 15 months .The repo rate has been hiked by .. Basis points
and at present is ..%
a) 25, 7.25
c) 25, 7.75
b) 25, 7.50
d) 25, 7.00
517

27.
The Reverse repo rate has been hiked by . Basis points and the present
rate is . %
a) 25, 6.00
c) 25, 6.50
b) 25, 6.25
d) 25, 6.75
28. The rate for Marginal Standing facility at present is . %.

a) 8.50
c) 8.75
b) 8.25
d) 8.00

ASSIGNMENT - 6
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
Q.
Ans
1
C
11
D
21
A
2
B
12
C
22
D
3
B
13
C
23
A
4
C
14
B
24
D
5
A
15
B
25
C
6
B
16
B
26
b
7
C
17
B
27
c
8
D
18
C
28
a
9
B
19
A
10
D
20
B
518

ASSIGNMENT-7
1.
Call Money funds are lent with a maturity of:

a.
c.
2.
One day to three days

Two days to fourteen days
b.
d.
One day to fifteen days

One day to seven days
5%
10%
b.
d.
7.5%
no ceiling
In Call Money market, borrowings by a scheduled commercial bank should not

exceed: ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
One day to two days

One day to seven days
Maximum interest rate which can be allowed in call money market is:
a.
c.
4.
b.
d.
Under Notice Money Market funds are transacted for a period of :___
a.
c.
3.
One day to three days

One day to a fortnight
100% of owned funds

2% of aggregate deposits as at end of previous financial year
higher of a or b
a or b whichever is less.
In Call Money market, lending of scheduled commercial banks should not

exceed _______ % of their owned funds on a fortnightly average basis.
a.
c.
20
30
b.
d.
25
40
6.
NBFCs have to be registeed with ----------a)Nabard

b)Sebi
c)Ministry of finance
d)RBI
7.
For certificate of registration minimum net owned funds for new NBFCs should be
Rs-----a.
1cr
b. 2cr
c.
3cr
d. 5.00lacs
8.
Recently, SBI has opened two call centres at Gurgaon and Chennai to deal with
a.NPAs and Special Mention accounts
b. Customer grievances
c. ATM / Mobile / internet banking related queries
d.Queries related to P segment loans
519
9.
ATMS linked to the National Financial Switch (NFS) network are managed by
_____.
a. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
b. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
c. IDRBT
d.NCR
10.
A special campaign for financial inclusion to bring banking to the masses
launched by the Government of India is ______.
a. Swavlamban
b. Aadhar
c.Swabhiman
d.Atam Samaan
11 A High powered committee constituted by the RBI on the required changes in
existing policy framework and prevalent practices of customer service in banks was
headed by ________.
a. O.P. Bhatt
b. M. Damodaran
c. Bimal Jalan
d.P.B.Shetty
12.
Provision relating to Bank Rate is contained in:

a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
Cash Reserve Ratio is maintained under the provisions of: ____________.

a.
c.
14.
Sec 42 of RBI Act

Sec 49 of RBI Act
Sec 42 of Banking Regulation Act
None of the above
Section 49 of RBI Act

Section 42(1) of RBI Act
b.
d.
Section 24 of Banking Reg. Act

Section 24(2) of Banking Reg.Act
SLR is maintained by scheduled commercial banks under Section _________ .

a.
c.
42(1) of RBI Act.

49 of RBI Act.
b.
d.
42 of Banking Reg. Act

24(2A) of Banking Reg. Act
520
15.
Twelfth five year plan starts from _____.

a.2011-12
b. 2013-14
c. 2012-13
d. 2014-15
16.
CRR balance is maintained by banks with RBI daily on the basis of:______.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Average balance on a fortnightly basis

Daily minimum Balance
Monthly average balance
Average weekly balance
17.
To streamline various Green Banking initiatives, our Bank has set up _____ at
Credit Policy & Procedures Department, Corporate Centre, Mumbai.
a. Eco-friendly Charter
b. Green banking cell
c. Environment Hub of SBI
d.Financial inclusion cell
18.
Recently a self-service banking centre has been opened by our Bank to increase
customer convenience and provide 24/7 access to banking in _____
a. Hyderabad
b. Pune
c. Banagalore
d.Mumbai
19.
Which amongst the following taxes is not imposed by Central Government :

a) Corporate Tax
b) Tax on Income other than Agril.
c) Custom duty
d) Land duties
20. . Who is our Technology Service Provider for processing of Merchant Acquiring
Business Transactions?
a. PRIZM Payment Services Private Limited (PPSPL)
.b. c-Edge Technologies
c. SBI Cards Payments Ltd
d.New age technology
521

ASSIGNMENT - 7
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
c
11
b
2
c
12
b
3
d
13
c
4
c
14
d
5
b
15
c
6
d
16
a
7
c
17
c
8
a
18
a
9
b
19
d
10
c
20
a
522
ASSIGNMENT - 8
1.
To prevent frauds in loan cases on the same immovable property, the
Government has proposed in budget 2011-12, to set up _______ under the SARFAESI
Act, 2002.
a. Fraud Monitoring Cell
b. Housing Ombudsman Scheme
c.Central electronic registry
d.trust monitoring cell
2.
SBI won _________ Award under the IBA Banking Technology Awards 2010.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
Best Risk Management

Best Customer initiative
Best Mobile Banking
Best internet banking
There are certain financial contracts outlining an exchange of payments linked to
the performance of a specified underlying credit sensitive asset or liability. These
are known as:
a.
c.
4.
b.
d.
Securitization
Factoring
Which of the following is not a term, which is used in the context of Asset Liability
Management?
a.
c.
5.
Derivatives
Leasing
Maturity Buckets
Residual Maturity
b.
d.
Capital Fund
Interest rate risk
Government of India has decided to roll out Direct Tax Code wef _____.
a. April 2012
b. January 2012
c.April 2011
d. July 2011
6.
Borrowing by banks from other banks / FI s in the call money market beyond 14
days is classified as:
a.
c.
Call Money
Inter-Bank Deposit
b.
d.
Medium Term Borrowing

None of these
523

7.
Which among the following represents the basic nature as an instrument for a
commercial paper issued by a company?
a.
c.
8.
b.
d.
a cash credit agreement

a Usance promissory note
What is the minimum denomination amount for a commercial paper?

a.
C.
9.
a demand loan agreement

a bill of exchange
5 lac
25 lac
b.
d.
10 lac
none of the above
To cover home loan borrowers, a new product launched by SBI Life in place of
Dhanaraksha Plus is ______
a. SBI Home Suraksha
b.SBI life-Rin raksha
c. SBI Life Home Suraksha
d. SBI life Puran suraksha
10.
Who among the following cannot issue a commercial paper?

a.
c.
11.
b.
d.
All India Financial Institutions

Commercial Banks
The Tangible Net Worth of a company (as per the latest audited balance sheet),
for being eligible to issue Commercial Paper, should not be less than:
a.
c.
12.
Companies
Primary dealers
Rs. 1 crore
Rs. 4 crore
b.
d.
Rs. 3 crore
Rs. 5 crore
A Centre for Advanced Quantitative Finance for imparting training on

quantitative finance for handling risks has been established in our Bank at
______.
a. State Bank Foundation Institute, Indore
b. State Bank Academy, Gurgaon
c. SBIICM
d. State Bank Staff college ,Hyderabad
13.
Commercial Paper can be issued for a minimum period of:_____________.

a.
b.
7 days
one month
b.
d.
15 days
3 months
524

14.
Commercial Paper can be issued for a maximum period of:

a.
b.
15.
17.
6 months
3 years
3 months
15 days
b.
d.
one month
7 days
A certificate of deposit can be issued by a Scheduled Commercial Bank for a

maximum period of: _________.
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 3 years
d. 12 months
A Certificate of Deposit is issued by a bank at: ______________.
a.
c.
18.
b.
d.
A Certificate of Deposit can be issued by a Scheduled Commercial Bank for a

minimum period of : ___________.
a.
c.
16.
12 months
3 months
maturity value of the certificate b.

discount to the face value
d.
face value
premium to face value
As per Budget 2011-12, Housing Loans up to Rs. _______ will be categorised

under priority sector.
a.20 Lacs
b. 25lacs
c.30 Lacs
d.50lacs
19.
The minimum amount of a certificate of deposit can be :_________.

a.
c.
20.
Rs.5 lac
Rs.100 lac
b.
d.
Rs.10 lac
Rs. 1 lac
In case of maturity day of a CD being a holiday, its payment is required to be

made on:
a.
c.
Succeeding day
Preceding Business day
b.
d.
Preceding Day
Succeeding Business day
525

ASSIGNMENT - 8
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
c
11
c
2
b
12
d
3
a
13
a
4
b
14
a
5
a
15
d
6
c
16
d
7
d
17
c
8
a
18
b
9
b
19
d
10
d
20
c
526
ASSIGNMENT-9
1.
2.
The definition of Net Bank Credit (NBC) is:a.

b.
NBC = Total advances Refinance obtained from SIDBI/NABARD.

NBC = Total advances Provisions made for NPAs
c.
NBC = Total advances Claimed lodged with DI & CGC
d.
NBC = Total advances Advances given against FCNR/FCNB/NRI deposits
Which of the following cannot be called a debt instrument as referred in financial

transaction?
a. certificate of deposit
c. stock
3.
When the receivables of various loans and obligations are put together and
distributed or liquidated to various investors having liquid funds, the process is
called:
a.
c.
4.
b.
d.
factoring
liquidation
Indian Financial Network

Inland Financial Network
b.
d.
Internet Financial Network

International Financial Network
In the context of Capital Adequacy Ratio, BASELI, the subordinated debt is a

component of: ______________ .
a.
c.
6..
leasing
securitization
VSAT based communication system which is used for financial transactions

between banks, INFINET stands for:
a.
c.
5.
b. bond
d. commercial paper
Tier I capital fund

Tier III capital fund
b.
d.
Tier II capital fund

b and c
Under the capital adequacy ratio requirements, the Tier II capital shall not exceed
______% of Tier-I capital.
a.
c.
25%
75%
b.
d.
50%
100%
527

7.
Who is to issue a registration certificate to set up Asset Reconstruction

Company?
a.
c.
8.
Registrar of Companies
RBI
b.
d.
SEBI
IRDA
Government of India issues treasury bills for a maturity period of ____________.

a.
c.
14 days and 91 days

14 days and 182 days
b.
d.

9.
Which of the following committees has given its recommendations for financial
inclusion
a)Kelkar committee
b)Rangarajan Committee
c)Rakesh mohan committee
d)Sinha committee
10.
Negotiated Dealing System relates to:

a.
c.
11.
Trading at stock markets

b.
Settlement of security dealings d.
Trading in Govt. Securities

a and b
Treasury Bills are:___________ .

a. Negotiable Instruments being Usance Promissory Notes
b.
Non-negotiable Instrument
c.
Quasi Negotiable Instruments
d.
Not Transferable Instruments.
12.
When an existing non-profit organization is converted into a for-profit company,

the process is called:
a.
c.
re-mutualisation
de-materialization
b.
d.
de-mutualisation
re-materialization
13.
Rolling settlement is the system relating to:

a.
Payment of Govt. Securities
b.
Trading at Stock Exchanges
c.
Settlement of dues by Borrowers In banks
d.
none of the above
14.
The term Green Field Projects in the context of project financing means
a.
Projects installed in Green Field
b.
Project relating to agro-based activities
c.
Project financed by way of agricultural resources
d.
New projects, which have to be started from scratch including the provision
for infrastructure
528
15.
The term Brown Projects means:

a.
Projects in Towns & Cities
b.
Projects relating to activities other than agriculture
c.
Projects aiming at modernization, diversification, expansion
d.
Projects involving high capital input
16.
RBIs model for rating of Indian banks is known as:

a.
c.
17.
Investment Fluctuation Reserve b.

Investment Reserve
d.
Investment Depreciation Reserve

Investment Provision Reserve
Assets of Balance Sheet

Paid up Capital
Tier II of Capital Fund
Reserve under Tier I of Capital Fund
The trade organization established for facilitating international trade in South

Asian countries, is known as:__________.
a.
c.
20
CAMEL
RFIA
Investment Fluctuation Reserve is part of:______________.

a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
b.
d.
As per RBI directives, the banks are required to create a reserve in respect of
their investments in securities under SLR or otherwise, which is known as:
a.
c.
18.
CAMELS
CACS
SAARC Trade Agreement

DAKSHESH
b.
d.
SAFTA
Singapore Agreement
What does the term Over geared Company mean?

a.
b.
Company doing extremely well

Company running satisfactorily
b. Company deeply in debt

d.
Company doing over trading

ASSIGNMENT 9
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans
1
d
11
a
2
c
12
b
3
c
13
b
4
a
14
d
5
b
15
c
6
d
16
a
7
c
17
a
8
d
18
c
9
b
19
b
10
b
20
b
529
AWARENESS OF BANKING FINANCE & ECONOMY

ASSIGNMENT - 10
1. State Bank Leadership Institute has been set up in
a) Bhopal b) Indore
c) Jaipur
2.
Under Financial all villages with a population of 2000 have to be covered by

banking services by the end of financial year
a) 2013 b)2012 c)2015
3. .Financial sector legislative reforms commission is headed by

a) D.Subarao
b)Syamal Banerjee c)B.N. Srikrishna
4. The new chairman of IBA is
a) D. B.Bhalla
b)D.D. Mallaya
c)V.K. Kohli
5. .------- and SBI have formed a joint venture with an investment of Rs100cr to
reach out to unbanked areas.
a)Airtel
b)BSNL
c)Reliance
6. First Bank in the country working as Registrar of UIDAI---a)RBI
b)PNB
c)SBI
7. Ceiling amount for referring cases for compromise settlement of dues of banks using
LokAdalat has been increased from Rs10.00lacs to ------a)Rs 15.00lacs b)Rs 20.00lacs c)Rs30.00lacs
8. SBIs first Ultra HNI branch opened in---------a)Mumbai
b)Calcutta
c) Hyderabad
9. . IFRS stands for -------------a)Indian Financial reporting standards
b)International Financial reporting standards
c)Indian Fiscal reporting standards
d)International Fiscal reporting standards
530
10.The new name for IFRS in India is

a)IndAS
b)INFS c)INdRS d)InaS
11.SBIs recently opened ATM in Nathu la pass is in ------circle
a)Bengal
b)Chandigarh
c)North East
12.SBI has recently tied up with Reliance Communication for
a) Internet services b) mobile banking
c)telephone for employees
13.SEBI has recently made ASBA compulsory for which class of customers
a) all individuals
b)all non retail investors
c) all corporates
14.Which of this is not a core sector
a)cement
b)finished steel c)pharmaceutical
15. SBI does not have 100% stake in which of its subsidiaries
a)State Bank of Mysore b)State Bank of Hyderabad c) State Bank of Patiala
ASSIGNMENT - 10
1
2
3
4
5
c
b
c
b
a
6
7
8
9
10
c
b
c
b
a
11
12
13
14
15
a
b
c
c
a
531

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STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

PREPARED BY SBLC PANCHKULA

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

(For Internal Circulation only)

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

Name of the Chapters

Basel-II, Capital Adequacy & Risk management

P-Segment Liability Products

P-Segment Assets Products

SME Liability Products

Micro Advances, PMEGP, SGSY,

Legal Aspects of Banking

Cash Deptt. Procedures & Govt. Business

CBS , Technology Products

Information Security System

Awareness of Banking Finance & Economy

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

Policy Guidelines 2011-12

As per Policy Guidelines Net Profit of S B I has been targeted to increase by

Target for growth of advances (excluding food) for whole bank, as

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

the return on assets has to increase by

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12,

ratio for the whole Bank

Under Green Channel counter bank seeks to achieve ------transactions by 2012

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12,

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12,

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 Gross NPA

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

Income from cross selling Buisness is targeted to increase by ..% in 2011-12

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 in the growth in agriculture advances is set

Key to Policy Guidelines 2011-12

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-12 , --------- no of Finanacial plans including

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, %age of transactions through alternate

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, our capital adequacy should be above---------%

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012, all accounts under --------are to be RINB

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

As per Policy Guidelines 2011-2012 the target for increase in Govt .

Key to Policy Guidelines 2011 - 12

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

ANNUAL RESULTS 2010-2011

1. The % of share held by government of India in SBI s equity is ----(a)59.63

3. The total advances of the bank as on 310311have crossed.cr.

6. Interest income on loans has grown by% over FY 2010 .

8. Market share in deposits for the year ending 31.03.2011 is ..%

9. How many domestic branches of SBI are there as on 31.03.11

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

Rs.68000 Rs.70000 crore

The number of State Bank Group ATMS as on 31st March.2011 are:

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

Gross and Net NPA,s as at the end of

Basel 11 is .% for the year ending

31.03.2011 are .,..%

21. Banks Capital Adequacy Ratio as per

Our Banks Cost of Deposits has decreased to % as on 31.03.2011

KEY TO ANNUAL RESULTS 2010-2011

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTER, PANCHKULA

SAFE DEPOSIT LOCKERS/SAFE CUSTODY

B can surrender the locker

A can operate the locker with legal heirs of B