© Career Avenues 1

Classic MoCAT - 106

INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE TEST

1. The total time for the test is 150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes).
2. This test is divided into three sections totally comprising 117 questions. The sections may be broken
into two or more parts. Questions in the test carry different marks (0.5, 1, 2 or 4) as indicated at the
beginning of each part.

Section Number of Marks

Questions
Verbal Ability and 46 0.5 / 1 / 2
Reading
Comprehension
Quantitative Aptitude 40 1/2
Data Interpretation 31 1/ 2 / 4
TOTAL 117 150

3. You may work on any part of the test at any time during the test.
4. For each question, four suggested answers are given of which only one is correct. There are four
circles against each question number in the answer sheet. Each circle is designated as 1, 2, 3, 4
corresponding to your answer choices. Mark your response to each question by darkening the circle
completely.
5. The last part of this test booklet comprises a sample bubble sheet. It is suggested that you answer all
questions by shading the relevant oval in the bubble sheet.
6. Confine all rough work to whatever blank space is available in this test booklet. No additional paper
may be used.
7. Using a HB pencil only. Use of calculators, scales and other measuring instruments is not permitted.
8. You will be required to demonstrate adequate competence on each of the four sections.
9. Wrong answers carry negative marks. The negative marking scheme is 1/3 of the marks allotted to
the question. Hence desist from guessing wildly.
10. After marking your responses on the bubble sheet, visit the thread from where you have downloaded
this test on www.pagalguy.com to be a part of the test discussion. Test discussions will happen at the
following timings.
Sunday – 22nd October (11.00 a.m. – 12.00 noon and 3.00 p.m. to 4.00 p.m.)
Monday– 23rd October (11.00 a.m. – 12.00 noon and 10.00 p.m. to 11.00 p.m.)
11. Answer Key will be released on Monday 11.00 p.m. and explanatory answers on Tuesday 4.00 p.m.
You do not have to upload your responses on cavindia.com or pagalguy.com. We encourage you to
share your scores on the forum.

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© Career Avenues 2

Section 1 Part 1
The questions from 1 to 10 carry 0.5 marks each.

DIRECTIONS: Fill up the blanks, numbered [1], [2] ...up to [5], in the passage below with the
most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

In a clear departure from its earlier stand on dichlorodiphenyl-trichloro ethane (DDT) not being a
high priority component of the anti-malaria programme, the United States Agency for
International Development (USAID) recently [1] indoor spraying of DDT in countries where
efforts to control malaria had failed. The World Health Organization, a staunch supporter of DDT
for indoor spraying, is soon expected to come out with its revised guidelines. After being [2] as a
miracle chemical in controlling malaria for nearly three decades, DDT became one of the most
[3] insecticides since the early 1970s; the U.S. banned it in 1972 on environmental grounds and
many European countries soon followed suit.

The USAID’s policy reversal will mean that in the battle against malaria, which annually kills
one million people around the world — nearly 90 per cent of whom are from Africa — DDT will
once again play an important role. USAID, one of the largest funding agencies for malaria
control, had not [4] the use of DDT, but it did not provide funds for using it either. With many
African countries dependent on external funding for fighting the disease, denial of funds meant
denial of one of the cheapest and effective options available. This, despite the 2001 Stockholm
Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants [5] countries to use it in their public health
programmes.

1. 1] accepted 2] endorsed 3] consented to 4] vetoed

2. 1] confirmed 2] upheld 3] hailed 4] appraised

3. 1] discredited 2] despised 3] notorious 4] popular

4. 1] prevented 2] prohibited 3] sanctioned 4] debarred

5. 1] promoting 2] permitting 3] forbidding 4] authorizing

DIRECTIONS: For each of the words below, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from
the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context.

6. Businesspeople would eschew self-interest and profit-taking and consider instead the good
of society.
1] abstain 2] shun 3] evade 4] cease

7. Isn’t it outrageous that we condone, and even abet these evil acts when done by our
friends and condemn them when done by those with whom we disagree?
1] exonerate 2] overlook 3] instigate 4] sanction

8. Through a fortuitous turn of events, she gets to live out the rest of her days in balmy
Colwood.
1] serendipitous 2] unintentional 3] happy 4] capricious
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9. But, on leafing through the book, she realized it was a wittily written spoof on the
original, Men are from Mars, Women are from Venus.
1] narrative 2] burlesque 3] chronicle 4] anecdote

10. Pure, selfless and spiritual, that’s how many people define Sufism, the most esoteric
aspect of Islam.
1] arcane 2] incomprehensible 3] divine 4] revered
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Section 1 Part 2
The questions from 11 to 37 carry 1 mark each.

DIRECTIONS: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

PASSAGE I
Gutshot is London’s first dedicated poker club and now the biggest of its kind in Europe. In a
little over two years it has acquired some 15,000 members, expanding from a few tables in a
dingy basement to take over the spacious bar complex next door. The success of Gutshot is
symptomatic of a wider trend - and it’s not just poker that is on the rise: gambling is everywhere
and spreading fast. Britain is on the verge of opening its first ‘super-casino’, in addition to over
130 existing casinos. Fruit machines, blackjack, roulette - even bingo is becoming more popular.

So why do people gamble? What makes it so enjoyable? Why do some people become addicted
while others simply enjoy a flutter on the horses every now and then? And could drug therapy be
the answer to problem gambling?

John Ioannou is the card room manager at Gutshot. With a firsthand experience of gambling,
Ioannou understands the emotion that accompanies success at the poker table. “The elation of
winning, obviously, is great. It’s a buzz you can’t tell anybody about unless they’ve actually done
it themselves. You’re on cloud cuckoo land for a little while.”

But losing also involves its fair share of emotion. Ioannou remembers feeling sick after losing up
to £1,000 ($1,898) in one session. Gambling involves abandoning self-control and he says that
even if a gambler limits the amount of money he will gamble, once at the poker club, his mindset
often changes. “You go to the card-room, you do your 200 quid ($380), pull up another 200 quid
($380), then another 200 quid ($380). Now your mind’s not straight, it’s not as clear as when you
left home”, he says.

So what exactly is going on in a gambler’s mind? Professor Peter Collins, director of the Centre
for the Study of Gambling at Salford University, does research related to ethics and gambling,
problem gambling and internet gambling. “Why people gamble is a good and puzzling question,”
he says. “On the face of it, it looks very strange that people should stand in front of machines and
pour money into them, knowing that they’re going to lose.”

But gamblers don’t seem to be thinking of the financial loss when they’re in front of a slot
machine - what draws people to gambling seems to be the thrill of playing and the hope of a big
win. Collins says that if you asked a gambler how much he hoped to win and then offered him
that money provided he didn’t gamble, the gambler would refuse. Similarly, if you told him he
could gamble but there would be no money involved, it would take the fun out of it and he
wouldn’t be interested.

Different forms of gambling each have their own appeal and someone who plays casino games
gets a different kind of thrill from someone who buys lottery tickets. Collins says that the buzz
experienced from playing a casino game is similar to the thrill of riding a rollercoaster. In
contrast, buying a lottery ticket fuels a person’s financial fantasy life. “I sometimes describe it as
soft financial pornography,” he says. “It spices up the fantasy of being suddenly and fantastically
rich.”
© Career Avenues 5

Tax calculations suggest that 78% of the British population gambled at some point during 2005.
Yet the rates of problem gambling in this country are relatively low, standing at less than 1% of
the population. With such a discrepancy, the issue of pathological gambling has begun to move
from the realm of sociology to neuroscience in an attempt to explain why some people find
gambling so much more addictive than others.

Research in this field is being led by American researchers and at the Problem Gambling Clinic at
the Yale University School of Medicine, scientists are studying the neurobiology of pathological
gambling. Some of the work done by Dr Marc Potenza, an associate professor at the clinic,
involves looking at the differences in brain activation between pathological gamblers and people
who don’t gamble. One study has already found that the ventromedial prefrontal cortex, an area
of the brain involved in decision-making and impulse control, is less active in pathological
gamblers. “Less activation of this brain region is often found in individuals with impulsive
aggression, and it’s also been implicated in mood disorders,” says Potenza.

Linking the condition to a specific region of the brain has raised the possibility of targeted drug
therapies. The clinic has been involved in treatment trials, including the largest study published to
date looking at the use of a drug called Nalmefene to treat pathological gambling.

Nalmefene is thought to act on brain circuits containing the chemical dopamine, which form a
key component of the brain’s natural reward system. Reducing activity in these brain cells should
reduce the natural highs felt when gambling. “The drug was found to be superior to a placebo in
terms of reducing gambling-related thoughts and behaviors,” says Potenza.

Some, however, are less keen to label pathological gambling as a medical disorder. Dr. Scott
Vrecko, a sociologist at the London School of Economics (LSE), stresses the importance of other
factors: “If there are no casinos or opportunities to gamble in a city, that city is not going to have
very many gambling problems. If the proportion of individuals involved in gambling rises, the
number of people with gambling problems is going to rise too.”

Vrecko is against the ‘medicalisation’ of different aspects of life and doesn’t think that complex
social problems like gambling have a strictly biological basis. “I think that we should be wary of
moving too far towards primarily medical explanations,” he explains.
The appeal of gambling is probably a complex interaction between biological, social and
psychological factors. In the wake of the current gambling boom, particularly on the internet,
only time will tell whether problem gambling becomes more prevalent, and whether drug
treatments will prove a successful solution.

But one thing is for sure - the emotional highs and lows will always be a key part of the attraction
of gambling. “I remember the first tournament I won,” recalls John. “I thought I was the best
poker player in the world. When we’re winning we think we’re great, but when we’re losing we
just can’t understand why.”

11. The author uses the example of ‘Gutshot’ to drive home the point that
1] More and more gamblers are connecting to each other and forming clubs
2] Poker has become the most popular gambling game
3] Gambling is becoming a big craze
4] The number of gambling addicts is increasing
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12. Which of the following is NOT one of the shades of a gambler’s emotions?
1] The rapture of winning 2] The despair of losing
3] The lack of inhibition 4] The clarity of thought

13. According to the passage which of the following factors contributes to the appeal of
gambling?
1] The kick that one gets out of it 2] The prestige at risk
3] The money at stake 4] Both 1] and 3]

14. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

1] Pathological gambling is rampant in Britain
2] Lottery tickets give a gambler the thrill of riding a roller coaster
3] The Internet has contributed to the surge of gambling in the UK
4] Placebo is the drug that is most effective against gambling

15. Problem Gambling is increasingly being seen as a neurological problem rather than a
sociological one because
1] Research has already proved that problem gambling results from reduced activity of a
region in the brain
2] Problem gambling can be treated by drug therapy
3] The proportion of the population suffering from problem gambling is minimal
4] The number of problem gamblers in a country is directly proportion to the number of
casinos

16. Which of the following is not among the views that have been mentioned in the passage
about pathological gambling
1] It results from a combination of a number of factors
2] It has no biological basis
3] It is a medical problem and can be cured
4] It has genetic reasons behind it

PASSAGE 2
The ghost of Le Clemenceau has re-emerged as the Blue Lady. The controversy generated by the
arrival in India of the decommissioned French aircraft carrier Le Clemenceau earlier this year for
dismantling at the ship-breaking yard in Alang, Gujarat, did not disappear once the French
Government decided to recall the ship. For, once again, another ship, the SS Blue Lady (earlier
called SS Norway), has beached at Alang even as the Supreme Court hears a petition challenging
its arrival in the country.

The urgent question that needs to be addressed is: why do we have to go through the courts each
time a ship arrives for dismantling? Is it not possible to bring forth a cohesive policy on ship-
breaking that takes into account the very relevant environmental objections that have been raised
as well as the economic advantage that India has in this field? Why is the Supreme Court’s ruling
of 2003 in this matter not taken as the bedrock for such a policy?

Le Clemenceau, it will be recalled, sailed out of France under a cloud when environmental groups
like Greenpeace pointed out that it had on board substantial quantities of asbestos, a recognized
hazardous substance. According to the Basel Convention on the Trans-boundary Movement of
Hazardous Wastes, no signatory to the Convention can export hazardous wastes. Therefore the
ship had to be divested of all hazardous material like asbestos before being sent for dismantling.
© Career Avenues 7

Despite protests by environmental groups in Europe, Le Clemenceau set sail for India. It was
ultimately stalled outside Indian waters when its arrival in India was challenged in the Supreme
Court. The Supreme Court’s Monitoring Committee on Hazardous Wastes was asked to look into
the matter. Although the committee first recommended that the ship be turned back, in its final
report it was divided. This prompted the court to appoint another committee to assess Alang’s
capability of dealing with hazardous wastes on the ships sent for dismantling. In the meantime,
the Clemenceau matter was resolved with the French Government recalling the ship.

The incident should have alerted us to the urgent need to have a proper policy on ship-breaking
that puts in place environmental safeguards for workers and keeps the industry alive at the same
time. Unfortunately, barely has the dust settled on the Clemenceau issue, we are faced with a
similar controversy again.

The SS Blue Lady is a passenger ship, built in 1963 and owned by a Malaysian company, Star
Cruises Pvt. Ltd. The question whether the SS Blue Lady should be allowed to be dismantled at
Alang is now before the Technical Committee on Ship-breaking appointed by the Supreme Court
on March 24, 2006. The court had given the 13-member committee eight weeks to assess whether
the infrastructure at Alang was adequate. The committee asked for an extension of its term and is
expected to present its final report to the Supreme Court by the end of August.

The Technical Committee appointed a five-member Inspection Team to physically inspect the SS
Blue Lady, as it lay anchored off the Pipavav port in Gujarat. Its job was not easy, as the team
members admitted in the 20-page report submitted to the Technical Committee. “All the members
of the team were inexperienced as far as the marine voyages are concerned ... High sea inspection
of the ship is a Herculean task in [the] absence of basic amenities,” they wrote.

Despite this, an inspection was carried out on July 11 of this huge ocean liner that is 315 metres
long, 11 storeys high, has 16 decks, 1,400 rooms, swimming pools, restaurants, shops, theatres,
library, a jogging track, etc. In other words, a thorough inspection and inventory of such a vessel
would take weeks, not just one day. The team worked out the quantity of asbestos on board as
being around 1,240 tonnes by taking measurements of some of the rooms and extrapolating from
them. Asbestos was noticed in insulating material, steam pipes, heat exchangers, tanks and
condensers as well as in wall panels and doors. The team also noted the presence of
polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) in paint, flooring, cable insulation, etc. The precise amount of
PCB could not be calculated. The team found 108 lead acid batteries on board. It could not check
the fire doors as the ship’s fire detection system was on, nor the ballast.

Despite the presence of such a substantial quantity of hazardous waste, the Inspection Team
concluded, “No other hazardous material of any kind or quantity was found that cannot be safely
removed, handled and disposed of at Alang.” Based on this recommendation, the Technical
Committee is likely to clear the beaching and dismantling of SS Blue Lady at Alang to the
Supreme Court.

Professor M.G.K. Menon, the distinguished scientist who headed the Supreme Court’s High
Powered Committee on Management of Hazardous Wastes in 2003, wrote to the Chief Justice of
India on August 14, 2006 “in a personal capacity as someone who is interested as a citizen of the
country.” He has reminded the Chief Justice that the Supreme Court had accepted all the
recommendations made by his committee through its order of October 14, 2003. With regard to
ship-breaking specifically, the court order states that before a ship arrives for dismantling, it
should get the consent of “the concerned authority or the State Maritime Board, stating that it
does not contain any hazardous wastes or radioactive substances.”
© Career Avenues 8

Another provision requires that the ship be “properly decontaminated by the ship-owner prior to
the breaking.” Prof. Menon says that there should be no violation of these orders. He writes:
“Any effort to dilute the Supreme Court orders of October 14, 2003 to try to remove the concept
of prior decontamination would be a measure going against the interests of workers in the ship-
breaking yards as also a violation of the Basel Convention. This will be a violation by both
Malaysia and India, who are signatories to the Convention.”

It is significant that Prof. Menon has mentioned the interest of workers, often forgotten in such
discussions. Reports on the way ships were being dismantled at Alang revealed the hazards that
workers faced. Groups like the International Metalworkers’ Federation also intervened and voiced
concerns about the conditions of work at Alang. Ship-breakers employ workers on contract and it
is well known that the impact on their health of the toxic substances they are exposed to is rarely
monitored.
A recent health survey conducted by the National Institute of Occupational Health of workers at
the ship-breaking yards in Alang found a substantial percentage of workers had asbestosis.
According to a senior official of NIOH, 83 workers were examined. Of these, nine workers had
asbestosis, the disease you develop by inhaling asbestos fibers.

NIOH also found that several others had asbestos-related changes in the lungs. This, according to
the official, is an unacceptably high percentage of the disease. Even if this is a small sample, it is
indicative of a much larger problem. The economics of ship-breaking should not be built on the
destroyed lives of the men who dismantle the ships.

As Prof. Menon has pointed out in his letter, there are already clear provisions in place that set
out whether a ship can enter Indian waters for dismantling. If even these were strictly followed,
part of the problem would be resolved. This is as good a time as any to examine all sides of the
ship-breaking business and evolve a policy and an effective system of monitoring.

Neither environmentalists nor those concerned about workers’ health are against the business of
ship-breaking. The controversy persists because too often, in the name of exploiting India’s
economic advantage in such matters, the concerns of people and the environment are given short
shrift.

17. What, according to the author, should we have learnt from the Le Clemenceau episode?
1] Ship-breaking industry is too dangerous to be allowed to exist
2] Judicial interventions are hardly effective so we must look for other deterrents.
3] We need to have a ship-breaking policy that ensures environmental safeguards while
keeping the industry alive.
4] India should campaign for a new convention on the Trans-boundary Movement of
Hazardous Wastes as Basel convention is not is proving to be ineffectual.

18. According to the passage, which of the following has been classified as a hazardous
substance under the Basel Convention?
1] Asbestos 2] Polychlorinated biphenyl
3] Lead 4] All of the above

19. If SS Blue Lady is dismantled at Alang without prior decontamination by Malaysia, this
action will be violating the orders of which of the following authorities?
1] The Supreme Court of India 2] The Basel Convention
3] Both 1] and 2] 4] The State Maritime Board
© Career Avenues 9

20. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

1] India has an economic advantage in the ship-breaking industry.
2] Supreme Court’s Monitoring Committee had unequivocally advocated the return of Le
Clemenceau to France.
3] France is a signatory of the Basel convention.
4] Ship-breaking companies try to evade responsibility by hiring workers on contract

21. The author is most likely to disagree with which of the following?
1] Enlightened citizens and civil society should play a bigger role in ensuring an effective
policy on ship-breaking.
2] Unsafe ship-breaking is more of a health issue rather than an environmental problem.
3] The ship-breaking industry should not be shut down.
4] There should be an international consensus on the stricter implementation of the Basel
Convention.

DIRECTIONS: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.

22. A. The little boy was afraid to talk to his teacher.
B. The school environment is conducive for learning.
C. Everyone is entitled for his/her opinions.
D. Job satisfaction is an important incentive to hard work.

1] Only D 2] Only A 3] Both A&C 4] Only B

23. A. We have known each other since five years.

B. In the whole play, the two artists shared a good chemistry.
C. Ayn Rand presents us with a whole new interpretation of selfishness.
D. She came back home because it was not anymore possible to stay in a hostel.

1] Only A 2] Both A&B 3] Only C 4] Both B&D

24. A. He is married with the most beautiful girl in the neighborhood.

B. I threw a coin in the fountain.
C. There were a number of coins in the fountain.
D. He made me feel as a queen.

1] Both B&C 2] Only C 3] Both A&D 4] Only B

25. A. I am not used to drive at such a high speed.

B. They arrived at the decision faster than we had imagined.
C. I am living in this house for the past ten years
D. I would really like that you left.

1] Only A 2] Both A&C 3] Only B 4] Both B&D

26. A. All the evidences are against the accused.

B. This is story of a little girl whose eyes were blue as the sea.
C. The teacher explained us the importance of discipline.
D. I feel the same about her as you do.

1] Only C 2] Both B&D 3] Only A 4] Both A&B

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DIRECTIONS: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways,
numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or
INAPPROPRIATE.

27. Keep
1] Why isn’t he here yet; what’s keeping him?
2] He is somewhat a recluse; he usually keeps to himself.
3] Please don’t tell this to anyone; keep it to yourself.
4] You keep off from my daughter!

28. Air
1] She has an air of mystery about her.
2] The radio show will soon be off the air.
3] She is always putting on air and behaving like a queen.
4] On Valentine’s Day you could feel the love in the air.

29. Premise
1] We will soon move our office to new premises.
2] The ideology of socialism works on premises that everybody is equal
3] No cell phones are allowed on the college premises.
4] The chief guest will soon be escorted off the premises.

30. Iron
1] Iron rusts easily if kept in moist conditions.
2] You need to iron out the kinks in your speech before you actually deliver it.
3] The prisoner was tied with iron.
4] He is stressed out because he always has several irons in the fire.

31. Custom
1] These shoes have been custom-made especially for you.
2] She was stopped by the custom officers at the airport.
3] He took his bath before having his breakfast – as was his custom.
4] By custom we have to invite them to our house.

32. Pain
1] It pains me to see you like this.
2] I have taken great pain to arrange this party for you.
3] Insurance agents can sometimes be a real pain in the neck
4] Her face shows that she is in great pain.
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DIRECTIONS: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of
words given, choose the one that fills the blanks most appropriately.

33. With interest rates having been put up this month and with gas and electricity bills ______,
many analysts think consumer spending will grow more _____ over the next year or two
than it has in recent years.
1] plummeting, rapidly 2] escalating, modestly
3] mounting, briskly 4] tumbling, moderately

34. Their call to both the Government and the LTTE to cease _____ immediately and return to
the ______ has not gone down well with Colombo.
1] hostilities, negotiations 2] conflict, former state
3] dialogue, status quo 4] truce, discussions

35. If fossil-fuel companies would include environmental damage, caused by the exploitation of
oil resources, in their lost and profit accounts, the industries record _____ would suddenly
turn into enormous _____.
1] earnings, gains 2] revenue, turnover
3] profit, losses 4] deficit, income

36. The nuclear deal is about _____, not about _____steps taken by the USA.
1] equity, misleading 2] reliability, abrupt
3] deliberation, hasty 4] reciprocity, unilateral

37. Low _____of backward groups in higher education bears a strong _____to poor quality
primary and secondary education.
1] participation, resemblance 2] representation, correlation
3] presence, likeness 4] influence, correspondence
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Section 1 Part 3
The questions from 38 to 46 carry 2 marks each.

DIRECTIONS: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Enlightenment is man’s emergence from his self-incurred immaturity. Immaturity is the inability
to use one’s own understanding without the guidance of another. This immaturity is self-incurred
if its cause is not lack of understanding, but lack of resolution and courage to use it without the
guidance of another. The motto of enlightenment is therefore: Sapere aude! Have courage to use
your own understanding!

Laziness and cowardice are the reasons why such a large proportion of men, even when nature
has long emancipated them from alien guidance (naturaliter maiorennes), nevertheless gladly
remain immature for life. For the same reasons, it is all too easy for others to set themselves up as
their guardians. It is so convenient to be immature! If I have a book to have understanding in
place of me, a spiritual adviser to have a conscience for me, a doctor to judge my diet for me, and
so on, I need not make any efforts at all. I need not think, so long as I can pay; others will soon
enough take the tiresome job over for me. The guardians who have kindly taken upon themselves
the work of supervision will soon see to it that by far the largest part of mankind (including the
entire fair sex) should consider the step forward to maturity not only as difficult but also as highly
dangerous. Having first infatuated their domesticated animals, and carefully prevented the docile
creatures from daring to take a single step without the leading-strings to which they are tied, they
next show them the danger which threatens them if they try to walk unaided. Now this danger is
not in fact so very great, for they would certainly learn to walk eventually after a few falls. But an
example of this kind is intimidating, and usually frightens them off from further attempts.

Thus it is difficult for each separate individual to work his way out of the immaturity which has
become almost second nature to him. He has even grown fond of it and is really incapable for the
time being of using his own understanding, because he was never allowed to make the attempt.
Dogmas and formulas, those mechanical instruments for rational use (or rather misuse) of his
natural endowments, are the ball and chain of his permanent immaturity. And if anyone did throw
them off, he would still be uncertain about jumping over even the narrowest of trenches, for he
would be unaccustomed to free movement of this kind. Thus only a few, by cultivating their own
minds, have succeeded in freeing themselves from immaturity and in continuing boldly on their
way.

There is more chance of an entire public enlightening itself. This is indeed almost inevitable, if
only the public concerned is left in freedom. For there will always be a few who think for
themselves, even among those appointed as guardians of the common mass. Such guardians, once
they have themselves thrown off the yoke of immaturity, will disseminate the spirit of rational
respect for personal value and for the duty of all men to think for themselves. The remarkable
thing about this is that if the public, which was previously put under this yoke by the guardians, is
suitably stirred up by some of the latter who are incapable of enlightenment, it may subsequently
compel the guardians themselves to remain under the yoke. For it is very harmful to propagate
prejudices, because they finally avenge themselves on the very people who first encouraged them
(or whose predecessors did so). Thus a public can only achieve enlightenment slowly. A
revolution may well put an end to autocratic despotism and to rapacious or power-seeking
oppression, but it will never produce a true reform in ways of thinking. Instead, new prejudices,
like the ones they replaced, will serve as a leash to control the great unthinking mass.
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For enlightenment of this kind, all that is needed is freedom. And the freedom in question is the
most innocuous form of all freedom to make public use of one’s reason in all matters. But I hear
on all sides the cry: Don’t argue! The officer says: Don’t argue, get on parade! The tax-official:
Don’t argue, pay! The clergyman: Don’t argue, believe! (Only one ruler in the world says: Argue
as much as you like and about whatever you like, but obey!). All this means restrictions on
freedom everywhere. But which sort of restriction prevents enlightenment, and which, instead of
hindering it, can actually promote it ? I reply: The public use of man’s reason must always be
free, and it alone can bring about enlightenment among men; the private use of reason may quite
often be very narrowly restricted, however, without undue hindrance to the progress of
enlightenment. But by the public use of one’s own reason I mean that use which anyone may
make of it as a man of learning addressing the entire reading public. What I term the private use
of reason is that which a person may make of it in a particular civil post or office with which he is
entrusted.

38. Which of the following is a reason why a large proportion of men remain immature?
1] They are born with an inability to mature
2] They lack the necessary cognitive capacity
3] They are devoid of willingness to use their own discernment
4] They are glad to be immature as ignorance is bliss

39. By giving the example of ‘domestication of animals’, which of the following points is the
author trying to illustrate?
1] Immature people often behave as domestic animals, taking it easy, without having to
hunt for themselves
2] Domestication of animals is a classic example of how immature human beings can get
3] Like domestic animals immature people are servile and subservient
4] The supervisors of immature people tend to tame them like domestic animals are tamed.

40. What the does the author mean when he says in the third para that ‘dogmas and formulas are
the ball and chain of his permanent immaturity’?
1] Dogmatic beliefs are the equipment with which an immature person enjoys his immature
existence
2] Dogmas and formulas are the contrivances used by ‘guardians’ to tame immature people
3] Rigid beliefs and doctrines restrain immature people from maturing
4] Superstitions and myths are a sign of permanent immaturity

41. The author is least likely to agree with which of the following:
1] “Immaturity is the incapacity to use one’s intelligence without the guidance of another.”
2] “There is no expedient to which a man will not go to avoid the labor of thinking.”
3] “Revolutions have never lightened the burden of tyranny: they have only shifted it to
another shoulder.”
4] “If I could define enlightenment briefly I would say it is ‘the quiet acceptance of what
is.’”

42. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author?
1] Didactic 2] Pedantic 3] Sophistic 4] Prosaic
© Career Avenues 14

43. Which of the following, according to the author, is not an instrument for bringing about
enlightenment?
1] An entire public left to think for itself.
2] Gradual yet steady reformation
3] Guardians who have freed themselves from immaturity
4] Private use of reason

DIRECTIONS: Four alternative summaries are given below each paragraph. Choose the option
that best captures the essence of the paragraph.

44. The ministry of women and child development’s recent announcement to introduce a
policy that shall make it mandatory for private and public organizations to provide young
working mothers with facilities of crèches and day-care centers is a welcome step.
Workplaces have traditionally been designed keeping men in mind, with long hours and
the expectation of total commitment to work. Such practices have largely been seen to
deter young mothers from seeking competitive jobs and careers. Many educated, working
women have to opt out of a career when it’s time to don a mother’s role. High-powered
careers might have forced many accomplished women to make a dash for a family (lest
biological deadlines be missed), and eventually, life outside work. The two roles often
cannot be juxtaposed. Juggling them is only possible for households that have human or
financial resources in place. This solution, however, still does not eliminate the rising
stress levels of millions of multi-tasking working mothers. Other young mothers, who
decide to continue working, often end up choosing some softer options that come with
relatively thinner pay packets, but promise shorter or regular working hours. No matter
which route women take, an entry back into a career through regular jobs becomes
challenging. Indeed, a recent study in the US reveals that of all the women who left their
careers to start a family, 93 per cent wanted to come back but could not. However, popular
discourse has always misrepresented the two distinct decisions — of being a stay-at-home
mother or carrying the double-burden — as choices. The fact is that there is no choice for
most women. The proposed Bill does raise hope to bridge the Y between the so-called
choices and promises quality life for women.

1] The government’s decision to provide working mothers with facilities of crèches and
day-care centers is definitely a step forward as it will make the system more
accommodating to a woman’s way of life. It will make things better for women who
want to juggle the roles of a mother and a working woman.

2] Even though the government’s decision is quite commendable but the necessity of being
there for their family keeps women from going for challenging careers. They often end
up choosing some softer options that come with relatively thinner pay packets, but
promise shorter or regular working hours.

3] Once the women choose the family way, it gets very difficult for them to go back to
work even if they want to. When the new policy gets implemented the working woman
will get to have the cake and eat it too and she can also bake it for her family.

4] Though the govt. decision, which makes it mandatory for offices to have crèches,
promises an easier life for working mothers. But the bottom line is that working mothers
have limited choice - of being a stay-at-home mother, carrying the double-burden or
selling themselves short.
© Career Avenues 15

45. There’s no gainsaying, however, that the vast majority of private schools in the country
are teaching shops who may rip off their paying clients. But this is where India Inc,
including companies like Infosys and Reliance, can step in. Retail is seen as a sunrise
sector and is attracting large-scale corporate investment, but there’s no reason why
schools that provide quality education can’t be another such area of emerging opportunity.
One, they would satisfy existing demand. Two, they would redress a significant bottleneck
that India Inc faces the shortage of trained personnel for its future staffing needs. Just as
the local mom-and-pop store is about to be upgraded to large retail chains, there’s a case
for upgrading the mom-and-pop (or religious-missionary) private school to professionally-
run corporate chains where large business houses lend their brand value. Once good
schools come on the market, they will drive out the bad through competition. Government,
on its part, can help by getting out of the way, instead of looking at the private education
sector as a means of extracting bureaucratic rent or otherwise colonizing it in the name of
grandiose social engineering projects. Rather than bossing schools around, it should
practice some humility given its own demonstrated lack of aptitude in this area.

1] No doubt, private schools are big swindlers. But they would certainly be good
competition if the corporate sector decides to step in the education sector. Only the
future will tell who will emerge as a leader in the education market – missionary
schools, corporate chains or government-run institutes.

2] This the right time for India Inc. to enter into the business of providing quality
education. Not only will this cater to the existing market by providing cost-effective
education but it will also help overcome the dearth of trained personnel for the corporate
sector. The government can also help out by staying away.

3] The education sector provides companies like Infosys and Reliance, a golden
opportunity to cash in on the retail boom. With better management these professionally
run corporate chains will drive out the competition from private schools. Government
schools are hardly a competition

4] Just like we now have a supermarket in the place of the local mom-and-pop store, we
will soon have retail chains of schools instead of private and government schools unless
the government decides to exert its control and colonize the corporate venture.
© Career Avenues 16

46. The U.S. funneled aid and training of the fundamentalist Mujahideen through Pakistan,
and specifically through the Pakistani military intelligence agencies that Zia had created to
cement his iron rule. This alliance not only brought modern weapons and technology to
the Mujahideen, but converted my homeland from a peaceful nation into a violent society
of Kalashnikov weapons, heroin addiction and a radicalized interpretation of Islam. The
streets of Karachi were given over to guns and kidnapping. And the diversion of resources
away from the social sector to the military caused rippling consequences in Pakistani
society. As the government relinquished its responsibility in education, health, housing
and social services, the people looked elsewhere for support. The clearest manifestation of
this pattern was the spread of political madrassas across Pakistan. These schools exploited
the name of Islam to teach a radical and intolerant message with paramilitary-type training
given to the students. They became the breeding ground for hatred, xenophobia
extremism, militancy and terrorism. Once the Soviets left Afghanistan, the West
abandoned democracy in Afghanistan, leaving behind the most radical elements of the
Mujahideen. Pakistan and Afghanistan became the sources of a political and religious
extremist movement that morphed into the Taliban and later Al-Qaeda.

1] It was the US that fostered fundamentalism in Pakistan in order to deal with the Soviet
forces in Afghanistan. After the Soviets left Afghanistan, the US withdrew its support to
the extremist organizations. However the seeds of radicalism that had already been sown
in Pakistan and Afghanistan soon grew into Taliban and Al-Qaeda.

2] The United States is responsible for the fanaticism and religious fundamentalism in
Pakistan. It is on the aegis of the US that government after government in Pakistan has
shirked its responsibility towards the public while concentrating its efforts on
strengthening the US position in the region

3] Pakistan and Afghanistan have become the breeding ground for hatred, xenophobia
extremism, militancy and terrorism. Political madrassas across Pakistan are responsible
for this because they are the ones who have promoted the radicalized and intolerant
interpretation of Islam.

4] After the end of the Cold War, the US stopped aiding extremist groups in Pakistan and
Afghanistan. But these groups had become self-sustaining and after metamorphosing
into Taliban and Al-Qaeda lashed back at the United States.
© Career Avenues 17

Section 2
Part 1 (2 mark questions)

47. Three circles with centers A, B and C are tangent to each other. Each circle has radius of 5
cm. Lines DE and FG are tangent to C and intersect at G. Find the length of FG.

1] 5.8 cm 2] 5.65 cm 3] 5.40 cm 4] 6.10 cm

48. A pentagon is formed by cutting a triangular corner from a rectangular piece of paper. The
five sides of the pentagon have lengths 13, 19, 20, 25 and 31 (not necessarily in that order).
What is the area of the pentagon?
1] 600 2] 680 3] 720 4] 745

49. You and your spouse invite four other couples to a party. During the course of the
conversation, it is discovered that, prior to the party, each person except you was acquainted
with a different number of the people present, (and everyone knew atleast their spouses).
Assuming the acquaintance relationship is symmetric (i.e., if you are acquainted with
someone, that person is also acquainted with you), then how many people did your spouse
know prior to the party? How many people did you know?
1] 1 and 9 2] 4 and 4 3] 5 and 5 4] Indeterminate

50. Let ‘a’ and ‘b’ be prime numbers for which a 2 + 7ab + b2 + a 2 + 14ab + b2 is an integer,
then which of the following statements is true?
1] a ≠ b 2] a + b is always a prime
3] a = b 4] a – b is always a prime.

51. Two congruent circles are to be cut from a 9 inch by 12 inch sheet of paper. What is the
maximum possible radius (to the nearest hundredth of an inch) of these circles?

1] 3.75 2] 3.15 3] 3 4] 3.25

© Career Avenues 18

52. There is a totally circular island of circumference 100 km. At point P on this circumference is
the only port of the island which houses a few similar boats. All boats have a fuel capacity such
that each of them can travel half way around the island (50km). The boats sink immediately as
soon as their fuel tanks become empty. Fuel is consumed even if the boats are not sailing, i.e.
are stationary. Fuel can be filled either at the port, or can be transferred from one boat to
another. Fuel transfer takes no time. All boats can go around the island clockwise or
anticlockwise.

A boat “Navigator” aims at completing one full circle round the island clockwise. It takes off
with the minimum number of boats required to assist it doing its journey. All boats safely
return to the port, with Navigator completing a full circle.

What is the minimum number of boats required to assist Navigator to complete its journey ?
1] 2 2] 1 3] 4 4] 3

53. A police motorcyclist is escorting a 2 mile line of VIP vehicles. He drives at constant speed
from his starting place at the back to the front of the line, and immediately returns with the
same speed to the back of the line. He arrives at the back just as the line has moved 2 miles.
How many miles did the policeman travel?
1] 2 2 2] 4 2 3] 2 + 2 2 4] 2 + 4 2

54. On a blackboard the teacher writes twenty ‘1s’ and nineteen ‘+’ symbols between them. Roll
No. 1 changes all the ‘+’ into ‘–’ symbols. Roll No. 2 changes the order of every second sign
(i.e. ‘+’ into ‘–’ and ‘–’ into ‘+’). Roll No. 3 then changes the order of every 3rd symbol.
Every nth roll number changes the order of all symbols the position of which is divisible by n.
After the 19th roll number has changed the order of the 19th sign, the teacher erases all the ‘–’
symbols to get numbers like 11 or 111 etc., with only a few ‘+’ signs remaining. What is the
sum of the numbers thus left on the board?
1] 56 2] 1212117 3] 1123445 4] 123456789

55. One morning it starts to snow at a constant rate. Later, at 6:00 am, a snow plow sets out to
clear a straight street. The plow can remove a fixed volume of snow per unit time, in other
words its speed is inversely proportional to the depth of the snow. If the plow covered twice
as much distance in the first hour as the second hour, what time did it start snowing?
1] Indeterminate 2] 5: 00 am 3] 5: 15 am 4] 5: 30 am

56. In a shooting competition among 200 participants, each of the players numbered from 1 to
200, shoot as many bulls-eye as the number of factors of their respective numbers. The
participant (or participants) who score/s the highest number of bulls-eye is/are declared
winner/s. What’s the number of bulls-eye that the winner/s has/have scored.?
1] 16 2] 15 3] 14 4] None of these
© Career Avenues 19

Section 2
Part 2 (1 mark questions)

57. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle and a square is inscribed in the circle. What is
the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the square ?
1] 3 : 1 2] 3 : 2 3] 3 3 : 2 4] 3 : 2

58. In triangle ABC, the measure of segment AB is equal to the measure of segment AC. The
measure of angle BAD is 30 degrees. If the measure of segment AE is equal to segment AD,
what is the measure of angle CDE?

1] 300 2] 250 3] 220 4] 150

59. In this diagram, AB is the diameter of the circle. If AB is 10 cm and the area of the triangle is
11 cm2, then find the perimeter of triangle ABC.

1] 20 cm 2] 21 cm 3] 22 cm 4] 24 cm

x+y
60. If x = 3 − 5 + 9 − 4 5 and y = 7 − 1 − 11 − 4 7 then is
x−y
1] 0 2] 1 3] 2 4] Not defined

61. When Mr Joshi started on a three hour drive from Mumbai to Nasik, his car’s odometer
reading was 39793, a palindrome. At Nasik, the odometer reading was another palindrome. If
Mr Joshi never exceeded the speed limit of 90 km/hr, which of the following was his greatest
possible average speed in km/hr?
1 1 2 1
1] 74 2] 70 3] 66 4] 55
3 3 3 3
© Career Avenues 20

62. Each side of triangle ABC is 75 units in length. Point D is the foot of the perpendicular drawn
from A to side BC. Point E is the midpoint of segment AD. Find BE.

1] 41.70 units 2] 43. 30 units 3] 47.20 units 4] 49.6 units

63. A toy store ordered 7 small bags and 18 large bags of identical marbles. When the marbles
arrived, it was discovered that the bags had broken during shipping, and all 233 of the
marbles were rolling around loose in the box. Can you help the store keeper to find the
number of marbles that are to put in the small bags?
1] 5 2] 7 3] 11 4] 13

64. The 8" pizza sells for $ 5.99 at my favorite pizza store. The store claims they have a great
deal on the large 12" pizza, which is specially priced at $ 11.46. What is the percentage
discount the store is offering?
1] 10% 2] 12.5% 3] 13.80% 4] None of these

65. Eapen has to light 100 lamps. To go from one lamp to another it takes 1 min. Each lamp
burns 10 cubic feet of gas per hour. If he lights the first lamp at 6 pm, then the gas burnt
when he lights the last lamp is
1] 1262.5 ft3 2] 1000 ft3 3] 825 ft3 4] 762.5 ft3

66. 59292564P61Q is divisible by 99, but not by 22. Q is greater than P, then P is
1] 5 2] 2 3] 0 4] 4

67. The midpoints of the sides of a regular hexagon ABCDEF are joined to form a smaller
hexagon. What fraction of the area of ABCDEF is enclosed by the smaller hexagon?
3 3 2 1
1] 2] 3] 4]
2 4 3 2
© Career Avenues 21

68. How many four digit numbers N = abcd of base 10 satisfy all three of the following
conditions?
i. 3000 ≤ N< 6000
ii N is a multiple of 5
iii. 3 ≤ b < c ≤ 6
1] 24 2] 36 3] 40 4] 48

69. A cube of length ‘n’ cm (where n is an integer > 2] is painted green all over. It is cut in to
cubes of length 1 cm by slicing parallel to its faces. If the number of smaller cubes with just
one face painted green is equal to the number of smaller cubes completely free of paint, then
what is n?
1] 5 2] 6 3] 7 4] 8

70. In Ramnagar eggs are being sold at 2x rupees a dozen and in shyamnagar they are sold at 8x
eggs a rupee. By buying six dozen eggs in the latter place and selling them in the former
place, a profit of Rs. 3 is made. What is the buying price of the six dozen eggs?
1] Rs. 6.75 2] Rs. 9 3] Rs. 12 4] Rs. 16

71. A certain number of men are required to form a hollow square containing ‘a’ men in the front
rows and ‘b’ men deep. If 1000 men are required in the hollow square, then which of the
following values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ are incorrect?
1] a = 251, b = 1 2] a = 127, b = 2 3] a = 55, b = 5 4] a = 36, b = 9

72. A party of 4 people is to be chosen from 9, among whom are Sitar and his wife Sitara and
Puneet and his wife Punita. Sitar, or Sitara, if invited, must be always invited together;
Similarly Puneet and Puneeta must be invited together if at all. In how many ways can the
party be chosen?
1] 28 2] 26 3] 21 4] None of these

73. Nine points on a circle are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 in clockwise order. A bug
jumps in a clockwise direction from one point to another around the circle. If it is on an odd
numbered point, it moves one point, and if it on an even numbered point, it moves four
points. If the bug begins on point 9, after 1995 jumps it will be on the point.
1] 1 2] 2 3] 6 4] 9

74. A 3 kg cake is cut into 4 pieces. The first piece is one fifth the weight of the sum of the
weights of the other 3 pieces. The second is one third the weight of the sum of the weights of
the other pieces. The third piece is one-half the weight of the sum of the weights of the other
pieces. How much did the fourth piece weigh ?
1] 1000 grams 2] 850 grams 3] 750 grams 4] 600 grams
© Career Avenues 22

75. In a poll of 10,560 people there were 2 contestants X and Y. X got 50% of the total electorate
voting for him. The number of votes that Y got was 50% more than the number of people in the
electorate who abstained from voting. By how many votes did X beat Y ?
1]1056 2] 528 3] 4224 4] 2112

76. As given in the figure, ABCD and AEFG are two squares with sides of length 1.The point H is
the midpoint of both BC and FG. What is the area of AEFHCD ?

5 3 4
1] 2 2] 3] 4]
2 2 3

77. On glancing through the standard magazine stapled at the center it was noticed that four pages
were missing. One of the missing pages was 21. The back page of the magazine is page number
28. What are the other three missing pages ?
1] 7, 8, 22 2] 7, 8, 20 3] 8, 9, 20 4] 8, 9, 22

78. Two champion swimmers start a two length swimming race at the same time but from the
opposite ends of the pool. They swim in line and at constant speeds. They first pass at a
point18.5 m from the deep end and having completed one length, set off on returning length.
They pass for the second time just 10.5 m from the shallow end. The length of the pool is
1] 90 m 2] 45 m 3] 26 m 4] 52 m

79. A series of numbers from 1 to n have to be inverted as n to 1. If only two adjacent numbers
can be swapped in each move, then how many moves do you need to invert numbers from 1
to n.
n +1 n(n − 1) n(n + 1)
1] 2] 3] 4] n − 1
2 2 2

80. On a sunny morning, a greengrocer places 200 kilograms of cucumbers in cases in front of
his shop. At that moment, the cucumbers are with 99% water. In the afternoon, it turns out
that it is the hottest day of the year, and as a result, the cucumbers dry out a little bit. At the
end of the day, the greengrocer has not sold a single cucumber, and the cucumbers are only
with 98% water. How many kilograms of cucumbers has the greengrocer left at the end of the
day?
1] 199 kg 2] 160 kg 3] 198 kg 4] 100 kg
© Career Avenues 23

81. Determine how many distinct isosceles triangles with integral side lengths and a perimeter of
113 units are possible?
1] 26 2] 58 3] 28 4] 56

82. In the figure below, if the area of triangle CDE is 3 square units, then find the area of
triangle ABC.

1] 12 sq. units 2] 10 sq. units 3] 27 sq. units 4] 24 sq. units

83. Observe the two squares in the figure below with side lengths of 4 and 10 units respectively.
What is the area of the shaded region?

1] 5 sq. units 2] 11 sq. units 3] 5.70 sq. units 4] 6 sq. units

84. A bath-tub can be filled by the cold water pipe in 12 min and by the hot water pipe in 18 min.
I leave both taps open and return when the tub should be full, but find that I had left the
drainage tap open by mistake. I close it and wait for 3 minutes for the tub to be full. After a
bath, how long will it take to empty the tub ?
1] 22.4 min 2] 12.5 min 3]17.28 min 4] 16 min
© Career Avenues 24

85. You are given a triangle ABC with ∠ ABC = 45 0 . You have a segment connecting point A to
a point D, on segment BC, such that 2 × BD = CD and you know that ∠ DAB = 15 0 . Find the
measure of angle ACB. (Note: the picture is not necessarily drawn to scale).

1] 600 2] 400 3] 300 4] 700

86. [x – {a2(b – c) + b2(c – a) + c2(a – b)}] [x – (ab(a – b) + bc(b – c) + ca(c – a))] = 0

This equation can also be written as

1] x2 – [(a – b)(b – c)(c – a)]2 = 0

2] (x – (a – b))(x – (b – c))(x – (c – a)) = 0
3] [x + (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)]2 = 0
4] [x – (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)]2 = 0
© Career Avenues 25

Section 3 Part 1
The questions from 87 to 90 carry 4 marks each.

The following information is about daily flights available between one city and another. All start
timings are as per city of origin. Example, Mumbai, Dubai 06:30 indicates 6.30 a.m. in Mumbai. The
table also indicates that there can be more than one flight between two cities.

Airline Flight No. / Origin Destination Start time from place of Origin Duration
Nos. (Local time of place of origin) (in hours)

Air India AI 101, 102 Mumbai Dubai 06:30:00 hrs and 13:50:00 hrs. 3
AI 103 Mumbai Paris 23:30:00 hrs 9
AI 104 Mumbai Amsterdam 21:30:00 hrs 8.5
AI 105 Mumbai London 22:00:00 hrs 10.5
AI 106 Mumbai Singapore 11:30:00 hrs 4
AI 107 Mumbai Tokyo 12:00:00 Hrs 12

Air AF 201, 202, Paris London 05:30:00 hrs and every 2 hours 2
France 203 … thereafter, upto 21:30:00 hrs.
AF 301, 302, Amsterdam London 06:00:00, 10:00:00; 14:00:00 and 3
303, 304 18:00:00 hrs
AF 401, 402, Dubai London 11:00:00, 17:00:00 and 21:00:00 hrs 7
403
AF 501 Singapore London 16:00:00 hrs 14
AF 601 London New York 21:30:00 hrs 7.5

British BA 101, 102, Paris London 06:00:00 hrs and every 3 hours 2
Airways 103 … thereafter, upto 21:00:00 hrs
BA 201, 202, Amsterdam London 08:00:00 hrs and every 2 hours 3
203 … thereafter, upto 20:00:00 hrs
BA 301, 302, Paris New York 06:00:00, 12:00:00; and 18:00:00 8
303 hrs
BA 401, 402, London New York 05:00:00, 11:00:00; and 17:00:00 7
403 hrs
BA 501 Mumbai London 13:00:00 hrs 12

When a person changes flights en-route to his final destination, he may choose the same airline or
another airline. When choosing between the same airline, the minimum changeover time required is 1
hour, and when choosing between another airline, the minimum changeover time required is 3 hours.

The following table shows the time at some of the cities in comparison to Greenwich Meridian Time
(GMT). For ex., if it is 12.00 hrs GMT, then time in Mumbai is 17:30 hours (5.30 p.m.). All timings
are given in 24 hours format.

GMT Tokyo Singapore Mumbai Dubai Amsterdam Paris London New York
12:00 21:00 20:00 17:30 15:00 13:00 13:00 12:00 7:00
© Career Avenues 26

87. Amit travels from Mumbai to New York. If he takes a flight after 12 : 00 hrs from Mumbai,
then what is the earliest time (in GMT) that he can reach New York ?
1] 05 : 00 hrs 2] 06 : 00 hrs 3] 18 : 00 hrs 4] None of these

88. Guru travels from Mumbai to London. He reaches London and immediately calls his office in
New York. If Guru leaves from Mumbai before 12 : 00 hrs, then what is the earliest time (in
New York time) by which his New York office receives Guru’s call ?
1] 15 : 00 hrs 2] 16 : 00 hrs 3] 10 : 00 hrs 4] None of these

89. How many different routes can Joseph take to fly between Mumbai and New York? A route
is said to be unique if atleast one of the interim cities, airline, flight duration or flight number
is different. Joseph should not have a stopover (changeover) of more than 8 hours.
1] 5 2] 6 3] 8 4] None of these

90. Given the definition of route as per the previous question, how many different routes exist
between Amsterdam and New York ? No stopover (changeover) should be more than 8 hours,
and there can be maximum one stopover.
1] 10 2] 11 3] 13 4] None of these
© Career Avenues 27

Section 3 Part 2
The questions from 91 to 110 carry 1 mark each.

DIRECTIONS for questions 91 to 93: Refer to the data below.

The following table gives information on the top 10 IT companies in India in terms of
revenues. The companies may have revenue from other business as well.

Company India Head count Revenue Profits Number % of

Headquarters (No. of 05-06 (in 05-06 (in of offices revenue
employees) Rs. Rs. in India from
crores) crores) non- IT
business
A Bangalore 78410 11350 4600 18 15%
B Mumbai 66345 10107 4150 18 20%
C Bangalore 68650 9685 3250 12 25%
D Delhi 45470 9540 3750 6 15%
E Hyderabad 48650 8725 2500 8 25%
F Chennai 53250 7560 3250 12 30%
G Bangalore 36450 7125 1580 8 25%
H Delhi 42700 6810 2150 10 0%
I Mumbai 28650 5750 1750 6 20%
J Bangalore 21300 5250 1800 3 30%

91. Of the top 10 companies, how many companies not headquartered in Bangalore have a profit-
revenue ratio of less than 33% ?
1] 3 2] 4 3] 2 4] 1

92. The four metropolitan cities in India are Delhi, Calcutta, Mumbai and Chennai. How many
companies located in non-metros have a headcount of over 40000 and revenues from purely
IT business greater than Rs. 5000 crores ?
1] 2 2] 3 3] 4 4] 1

93. Of the companies with revenues greater than Rs. 7000 crores and profit more than Rs. 3000
crores, how many companies have the ratio of headcounts per office greater than 5000 ?
1] 4 2] 3 3] 5 4] 2
© Career Avenues 28

DIRECTIONS for questions 94 to 96: Refer to the data below.

Five players A, B, C, D and E in a cricket team went in for batting. They scored a total of 246 runs.
They were seen wearing either a cap, helmet, spectacle, glares or pad. Three of them scored runs in
prime numbers. The player batting third scored the highest runs. The second highest score was by
the player wearing glares. The player wearing the cap with D opened the batting. C was fourth in the
batting order. The player wearing a spectacle was the player who batted before the last player came
in. One player scored runs which is a perfect square number. A scored the least runs and D’s score
was 10 more than B’s score. None of them scored equal runs and nobody scored less than 40 or more
than 60 and the second lowest run getter was wearing a helmet. E was wearing a pad. D’s score was
7 less than the highest score. Two players scored half centuries (50 runs or more). B was hit on his
helmet while batting and A’s cap flew off.

94. Who was the highest scorer ?

1] E 2] C 3] A 4] B

95. What was B’s score ?

1] 49 2] 43 3] 47 4] 53

96. Which combination must be false ?

1] Glares - 2nd highest score 2] Spectacle - Perfect square number of runs
3] Helmet - 5th in batting order 4] Pad - Prime number runs

DIRECTIONS for questions 97 to 99: Refer to the data below.

In the Alpha, Beta island people speak in 2 sentences - one of which is true and the other false. While
talking with the couples, one also stands to meet 2 of their neighbours Ravi and Venkat, both of
whom are unmarried. Now one wants to find out the profession of each and their respective house
numbers, one also possesses the following information:
i) The married couples are A and C, and B and D.
ii) The ladies are either teachers or engineers.
iii) The above mentioned people live in houses numbered 1 to 4.

When you ask them a question, you will get the following responses:
A: My wife is a teacher. We live in house no.1 which is reserved for a doctor.
B: My wife is a teacher. Venkat lives in the 4th house.
C: I am an engineer. My husband always tells the truth.
D: Ravi is our next door neighbour. We live at other end of the road.
Ravi: I’m a student. I’m not the next door neighbour to the doctor.
Venkat: The teacher is the doctor’s wife. The doctor has Ravi as his neighbour.

97. What is the profession of D’s husband ?

1] Engineer or CA 2] CA or doctor 3] Singer or CA 4] Student or CA

98. Who is the student ?

1] Ravi 2] Venkat 3] B 4] A

99. Which of the following statements is false ?

1] Venkat lives next to Ravi.
2] Ravi lives in a house adjacent to a singer or a CA.
3] The teacher is not the doctor’s wife.
4] None of the above
© Career Avenues 29

Directions for 100 to 103 questions: A company conducted two training programmes for their IT
and ITES employees to develop their customer interaction skills. The training programmes were on
Sales and Marketing. The following table gives the number of IT and ITES employees who attended
these workshops, classified as per the length of employment.

Length of Programmes attended Total Number

Employment
Sales Marketing Both
IT ITES IT ITES IT ITES IT ITES
Less than 3 years 40 30 30 20 10 15 100 120
3 to 5 years 60 20 80 60 30 15 140 90
More than 5 years 50 40 40 50 30 20 200 160

100. What is the number of the employees with 3 to 5 years to employment who have not attended
the programme on Marketing?
1] 190 2] 140 3] 60 4] 80

101. What is the number of employees with less than 3 years of employment who attended only one
of the programmes?
1] 120 2] 70 3] 25 4] 95

102. What percent of the employees with more than 5 years of employment did not attend either
workshop?
1] 64% 2] 86% 3] 50% 4] 14%

103. How many of the employees who attended at least one programme have more than 5 years of
employment?
1] 180 2] 130 3] 230 4] 36
© Career Avenues 30

Direction for questions 104 to 106 :

Data Fudge Inc is a company specializing in data extraction, manipulation and calculation.
The company was hired to provide sales information of 5 companies across 3 years (Y1, Y2
and Y3]. The client also asked Data Fudge Inc to calculate the average sales of each of the 5
companies over the 3 year period.

However, Data Fudge got the client orders all wrong, and though it had the right data, it
provided three different values for each of the companies to the client, labeled Avg 1, Avg 2
and Avg 3. The three values have been calculated as follows

Avg 1 = Average of [ ( Average of Y1 and Y2], Y3]

Avg 2 = Average of [(Average of Y1 and Y3], Y2]

Avg 3 = Average of [(Average of Y2 and Y3], Y1]

As CEO of Data Interpretation Inc, you have been hired to make sense of the data provided
by Data Fudge. The data provided by Data Fudge reads as follows

Company A B C D E

Avg 1 52.5 32.5 40 68.75 77.5

Avg 2 50 35 40 56.25 70

Avg 3 47.5 32.5 40 50 82.5

104. The companies when arranged in ascending order of average sales would be
1] EDACB 2] BCADE 3] EADCB 4]Indeterminate

105. What is the difference between sales of all companies together for the year Y1 and Y2?
1] 5 2] 15 3] 25 4] 10

106. Which of the following expressions give the correct average of the company?
Avg1 + Avg 2 + Avg 3 3(Avg1 + Avg 2 + Avg 3)
1] 2]
3 2
4
3] (Avg1 + Avg 2 + Avg 3) 4] None of these
3
© Career Avenues 31

DIRECTIONS for questions 107 to 110 :

Six teams, A, B, C, D, E, and F participate in a football tournament. In the first round each
team play one match each against every other team. The winning team is awarded 3 points
and the loosing team 1 point. In case of a draw each team is awarded 2 points. The team with
the highest number of points enters the finals. The semifinals are played between the next two
teams. The winner of the semifinals enters the finals. The winner of the finals is declared the
champion. There can be no draws in the finals and the semifinals. The point tally of the teams
at the end of the tournament is given below.

Teams Wins Losses Draws

A 3 1 2
B 1 1 3
C 0 5 0
D 2 3 0
E 2 1 3
F 4 1 2

107. Who is the Champion?

1] A 2] F 3] E 4] Can’t say

108. What were the scores of the semifinalists before the semifinals ?
1] 9, 10 2] 10, 10 3] 10, 11 4] None of these

109. Which of the following is/are true?

a] The top three rankings at the end of the tournament are same as those at the end of the first
round
b] F won the maximum number of matches in the first round
c] Team A has the highest score at the end of the first round

1] a only 2] b only 3] c only 4] b and c

110. Which of the following is/are true?

a] Team A defeated team F in the first round matches.
b] Team F won against team B in the first round matches.
c] Team E drew against team B in a first round match.
d] Team D lost against team B in the first round match.

1] a and c only 2] b and c only 3] a and d only 4] a, c and d

© Career Avenues 32

Section 3 Part 3
The questions from 111 to 117 carry 2 marks each.

Direction for questions 111 to 113 :

At a party at CAV, students ordered food from a fast food joint called Juice Junction. They
ordered 4 grilled sandwiches, 3 watermelon juices and 1 custard apple juice. However, as the
food did not arrive for about an hour, the students asked a faculty to intervene.

Besides their order, the faculty additionally ordered for himself, a chilly cheese sandwich and
a watermelon juice for, from another restaurant called JJ. The prices at JJ on sandwiches are
higher than Juice Junction by 25%, while the price of juices are higher at Juice Junction by
20%.

Both the restaurants end up delivering the order, and the value of the bills were JJ
Rs. 285
and Juice Junction
Rs. 212.

The faculty mentioned that if the first order had been placed with JJ and the second order
with Juice Junction, then the bill amounts would have been Rs. 210 and Rs. 282 respectively.

111. What would be the cost of 1 grilled sandwich and 1 chilly cheese sandwich at JJ?
1] 75 2] 60 3] 65 4] 70

112. The cost of 1 item each at JJ would exceed the cost of 1 item each at Juice Junction by
Rs.________
1] 3 2] 5 3] 0 4]None of these

113. An order of 2 grilled sandwiches and 3 custard apple juice would be more expensive at
_________ by Rs. _________.
1] JJ, 14 2] Juice Junction, 12 3] JJ, 6 4]None of these
© Career Avenues 33

Direction for questions 114 to 117 :

5 machines – A, B, C, D and E produce widgets, but at different speeds. Two of the machines
produce a widget in 7 minutes, and the others produce a widget in 4, 8 and 11 minutes, not
necessarily in that order.

A machine operator started all these machines sometime after 5.00 pm on a particular day and
switched off these machines sometime before 7.00 pm. All machines produced an integral
number of widgets, i.e. no part widgets were produced. The following information is also
known

- Machine E worked for 1 hour.

- All machines started at exactly 5.15 (2 machines) or 5.30 (2 machines) or 5.45 (1
machine) only, and all machines stopped after 6.10 pm.
- The machine A manufactured 12 widgets and stopped at 6.39, while the machine that
manufactured 8 widgets was the first to stop.
- Machines B and C worked for the same time, and produced 15 widgets in total.
- The last machine to start produced just 3 widgets.

114. How many machine minutes did it take to produce all the widgets that were produced?
1] 289 2] 267 3] 312 4] None of these

115. Which machine was the first to stop ?

1] B 2] C 3] D 4] Indeterminate

116. The two machines that started at 5.30 pm are

1] B & E 2] C & E 3} B & C 4] Indeterminate

117. At what time did E start production?

1] 5.30 2] 5.15 3] 5.45 4] Can’t say
© Career Avenues 34

SAMPLE OMR SHEET

NAME DATE

DIRECTIONS : 1 Mark your answer by darkening the appropriate circle with an HB

Pencil.
2 Erase clearly any answer you want to change.
3 Make no stray mark anywhere on the score sheet.

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1 OOOO 26 OOOO 51 OOOO 76 OOOO 101 OOOO
2 OOOO 27 OOOO 52 OOOO 77 OOOO 102 OOOO
3 OOOO 28 OOOO 53 OOOO 78 OOOO 103 OOOO
4 OOOO 29 OOOO 54 OOOO 79 OOOO 104 OOOO
5 OOOO 30 OOOO 55 OOOO 80 OOOO 105 OOOO

6 OOOO 31 OOOO 56 OOOO 81 OOOO 106 OOOO

7 OOOO 32 OOOO 57 OOOO 82 OOOO 107 OOOO
8 OOOO 33 OOOO 58 OOOO 83 OOOO 108 OOOO
9 OOOO 34 OOOO 59 OOOO 84 OOOO 109 OOOO
10 OOOO 35 OOOO 60 OOOO 85 OOOO 110 OOOO

11 OOOO 36 OOOO 61 OOOO 86 OOOO 111 OOOO

12 OOOO 37 OOOO 62 OOOO 87 OOOO 112 OOOO
13 OOOO 38 OOOO 63 OOOO 88 OOOO 113 OOOO
14 OOOO 39 OOOO 64 OOOO 89 OOOO 114 OOOO
15 OOOO 40 OOOO 65 OOOO 90 OOOO 115 OOOO

16 OOOO 41 OOOO 66 OOOO 91 OOOO 116 OOOO

17 OOOO 42 OOOO 67 OOOO 92 OOOO 117 OOOO
18 OOOO 43 OOOO 68 OOOO 93 OOOO 118 OOOO
19 OOOO 44 OOOO 69 OOOO 94 OOOO 119 OOOO
20 OOOO 45 OOOO 70 OOOO 95 OOOO 120 OOOO

21 OOOO 46 OOOO 71 OOOO 96 OOOO 121 OOOO

22 OOOO 47 OOOO 72 OOOO 97 OOOO 122 OOOO
23 OOOO 48 OOOO 73 OOOO 98 OOOO 123 OOOO
24 OOOO 49 OOOO 74 OOOO 99 OOOO 124 OOOO
25 OOOO 50 OOOO 75 OOOO 100 OOOO 125 OOOO