MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 1 of XX pages

SECTION A
SHORT ANSWER QUESTION 1
Below is the structure of glutathione, a tripeptide involved in keeping the intracellular environment of
the red blood cell reduced.
OO

C
CH
+NH3

O
H2
C

H2
C

O
HN

CH

O
NH

CH2

O-

CH2
SH

i)

What are the 3 amino acids that make up this peptide?

This is an old question. Note that we would not ask a question in the exam that required
memorization of the amino acids.

ii)

What is unusual about the way these amino acids are joined together?

iii)

Which amino acid would be responsible for maintaining the reduced environment?

iv)

Predict what this structure would look like when oxidized.

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 2 of XX pages

SHORT ANSWER QUESTION 2

One of the enzymes of glycolysis, Fructose Bisphosphate aldolase, is found in all cells. The G for
this reaction inside the cell under steady state cellular conditions is quoted as -0.223 kJ/mol. Why is
there such a disparity between the Go of +23.9 kJ/mol and the G inside the cell? After all one is
showing a thermodynamically favourable reaction (inside the cell) while the Go indicates a very
strongly endergonic reaction (most unfavourable)

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 3 of XX pages

SHORT ANSWER QUESTION 3

i) Why do DNA polymerases have 3 to 5 exonucleases while RNA polymerase does not? (2
marks)

ii) What is the role of the 5 to 3 exonuclease in DNA pol I? (2 marks)

iii) If both DNA polymerase and DNA ligase can form a phosphodiester bond why is ligase
necessary in replication? (2 marks)

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 4 of XX pages

SHORT ANSWER QUESTION 4

a) How do the sequences of bases on DNA upstream from the transcription start site affect the
rate of transcription of genes? Give 2 examples of how changes in the base sequence at these
areas might increase or decrease transcription. (5 marks)

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 5 of XX pages

b) What would be the effect of the following defects on an E. coli cell? (5 marks)
i.

The amino acyl tRNA synthase for methionine is impaired.

ii. The 3 terminal of one of the leu tRNAs cannot attach its amino acid.

iii. The formation of f-Met from Met is impaired.

iv. The trp tRNA anticodon has mutated to recognize a stop codon.

v. The DNA code for one of the lysine tRNA anticodons has mutated to another amino acids

anticodon

SHORT ANSWER QUESTION 5

10 marks of questions from Lectures 16-25. See Tutorial for examples.

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 6 of XX pages

SECTION B
1.

Life evolved to be carbon based rather than silicon based because:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

2.

Which of the following statements about the alpha helix is FALSE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

3.

The alpha helix is found in zinc finger motifs and leucine zippers
The twist in the alpha helix is the result of repulsive forces acting on the phosphates
An alpha helix from any source has approximately the same phi angle
Hydrogen bonds form between the carbonyl Oxygen and the amide Nitrogen of the
backbone
Alpha helices interact with the DNA bases through the major groove.

Which of the following statements concerning Anfinsens experiment is FALSE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

4.

Silicon only allows 2 options for coding (1/0), whereas carbon allows 4 (A/T/G/C)
Silicon has a smaller atomic radius
Silicon reactions, unlike carbon, are controlled kinetically rather than
thermodynamically
Si-O bonds are stronger than Si-Si bonds
Carbon is more abundant than silicon

The aim of the experiment was to show that hydrophobic interactions drive water
soluble proteins to fold
The 6 M guanidine HCl was added to reversibly disrupt the hydrophobic interactions
Measuring the enzyme activity of RNase can be used to monitor the extent of folding
The fully denatured protein was inactive
Dialysis was used to slowly remove the denaturant

Caution must be applied when extrapolating Anfinsens conclusions to the folding of ALL
proteins in vivo. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for this caution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

The cytoplasm contains many proteins (~300 mg/mL) which may interfere with
folding
Some large proteins need chaperones to fold
Some proteins fold in the membrane
Ribonuclease is a small, unusually stable protein
The experiment was never done with proteins that need to form disulphide bonds

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 7 of XX pages

The graph below shows the titration curve for glycine.

pH
B

H+ added

OH- added

In which region of the titration curve (A E) would you have:

5.

Equal amounts of H3N+ -CH2-COOH and H3N+-CH2-COO-.

6.

Predominantly H3N+-CH2-COO-.

7.

Which region would make a good buffer?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Any region could be used as the solution can be made to any pH

No region would be suitable as the pH changes with the addition of H+
Region C, as it is in the middle of the pH range
Only regions B or D
Only regions A or E

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 8 of XX pages

The following diagram refers to questions 8 11

C
O
H3N+

CH
CH2

O
HN

CH

O
HN

CH

CH3

CH2

C
NH2

O
HN

CH

O-

CH2
O

SH

D
OH

A
Your research team has isolated the peptide above, peptide K, from the pituitary gland. You believe it
may be an endorphin (or opiate neuropeptide) involved in the control of neurotransmission.
8.

Peptide K is found as a covalent dimer under some conditions. Which of the circled features
(A E) would enable it to form covalent dimers?

9.

Which of the circled features (A E) would enable its detection at 280 nm?

10.

Peptide K is often found associated with other neuropeptides by hydrogen bonding. Which of
the circled features (A E) could NOT participate in this hydrogen bonding?

11.

As part of its neurotransmission regulatory role Peptide K is sometimes phosphorylated.

Which of the circled features (A E) would be most likely to be phosphorylated?

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 9 of XX pages

Your team has isolated a second neuropeptide, Peptide J, which is slightly longer. Peptide J was found
to be composed of equal amounts of the following amino acids.
O

A
H2N

CH

B
OH

H2N

CH

CH2

CH

CH3

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH3

OH

CH2
NH2
O

C
H2N

CH

D
OH

H2N

CH

CH2

CH2

CH2

NH2

OH
O

OH

HN

12.

What is the overall charge of Peptide J at pH 13?

13.

How many charged groups will Peptide J have at pH 7?

OH

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 10 of XX pages

14.

Peptide J was found to have a sharp bend in its backbone conformation, unlike peptide K.
Which amino acid (A E) would be responsible for this unusual backbone conformation?

15.

One of the enzymes of glycolysis, Fructose Bisphosphate aldolase, is found in all cells. The
reaction it catalyses has a Keq ([product]/[substrate] at equilibrium) of 6 X 10-5 at 25oC. What
can NOT be concluded from this information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

16.

Which of the following statements concerning equilibrium is CORRECT?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

17.

For a cellular reaction to reach equilibrium the product must be continually used by the
cell elsewhere
At equilibrium the [products] always equals the [substrate] i.e. Keq = 0
Reactions with large negative Go reach equilibrium quicker
At equilibrium the entropy of the system is zero i.e. S = 0
The reaction will probably reach equilibrium quicker in the presence of an enzyme

Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning weak forces?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

18.

The Gof of the product is greater than the Gof of the substrate
The reaction is endergonic
The reverse reaction (formation of substrate) will be favoured
The small Keq means the reaction rate will be slow
The Go for this reaction will be positive

Hydrogen bonding is only significant in macromolecules such as proteins and DNA.

Hydrophobic interactions result from hydrogen bonding between hydrophobic
molecules.
Hydrogen bonding results from minimizing the loss of entropy rather than forming
bonds.
The strength of ionic interactions decreases in an environment with higher [salt].
Unlike the other weak forces (hydrogen bonding, ionic and hydrophobic interactions)
van der Waals forces cannot be induced.

Which of the following statements best describes the primary structure of a protein?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

The number of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain.

The percent amino acid composition of the polypeptide chain.
The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
The regular folding of a single polypeptide chain in repeated patterns - the local
conformation of the polypeptide backbone.
The unique three-dimensional structure of a polypeptide chain.

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

19.

DNA contains thymine

DNA polymerases proof read
DNA polymerases work in a 5 to 3 direction
DNA contains deoxyribose
DNA is double stranded

A fragment of E coli DNA contains 2 000 base pairs. Analysis reveals a composition of 40 %
G + C content. (0.5 marks for each correct option) [Obviously in an exam the question would
have a different format: Weve written it like this to give you extra practise]
A.
B.
C.
D.

22.

Used to predict the maximum attainable rate of the reaction.

The [substrate] that gives half the maximum attainable rate of reaction
The [substrate] where half the enzyme present in the reaction is bound to substrate
Used to determine the [substrate] when measuring the activity of an enzyme
A measure of the affinity the enzyme has for the substrate

DNA is a better storage form for genetic material than RNA. Which of the following
properties does NOT contribute to this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

21.

Page 11 of XX pages

Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning KM? KM is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

20.

QUESTIONS

How many purine bases does this fragment contain?

How many deoxyriboses does this fragment contain?
How many adenine bases does this fragment contain?
How many hydrogen bonds does this fragment contain?

Which of the following procedures would PROMOTE/DISRUPT or have NO EFFECT on

base pairing between 2 strands of DNA? Circle the correct option. Each correct option is worth
0.5 marks. [Obviously in an exam the question would have a different format: Weve written it
like this to give you extra practise]
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Reacting with formaldehyde (MBLG1901) (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO EFFECT)

Increasing the ionic strength of the solution (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO EFFECT)
Decreasing the temperature of the solution (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO EFFECT)
Increasing the pH of the solution (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO EFFECT)
Adding formamide to the solution (MBLG1901) (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO
EFFECT)
Adding distilled water to the solution (PROMOTE/DISRUPT/NO EFFECT)

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 12 of XX pages

Use the options (A E) below to answer questions 23 24.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Measure 32P dNTP incorporation into DNA, using a DNA template

Measure 32P dNTP incorporation into RNA, using a DNA template
Measure 32P dNTP incorporation into DNA, using an RNA template
Measure 35S dNTP incorporation into DNA, using an RNA template
Measure 32P NTP incorporation into RNA, using a DNA template

23.

Which of the options (A E) would allow you to monitor the activity of the Klenow enzyme?

24.

Which of the options (A E) would allow you to monitor the activity of the Primase?

Use the options below (A E) to answer questions 25 to 28 (Advanced only).

Considering the Meselson and Stahl experiment; cells grown up on heavy 15N nitrogen are then
changed to light 14N media. DNA samples are taken at various times after the media change.

25.
26.
27.
28.

A.

All HL hybrid

B.

50% HL and 50% LL

C.

50% LL and 50% HH

D.

25% HH and 75% LL

E.

25% HL and 75% LL

If DNA replicated conservatively, after one generation you would expect to see:
If DNA replicated conservatively, after two generations you would expect to see:
If DNA replicated semi-conservatively, after one generation you would expect to see:
If DNA replicated semi-conservatively, after two generations you would expect to see:

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

QUESTIONS

Page 13 of XX pages

Use the options below to answer questions 29 32.

A.

Adds dNTPs to a growing nucleotide chain in a template directed manner

B.

Adds NTPs to a growing nucleotide chain in a template directed manner

C.

Adds amino acyl tRNAs to a growing peptide chain in a template directed manner

D.

Cleaves double stranded DNA at a specific recognition sequence

E.

None of these activities

29.

Which of the options above (A E) describes the activity of ligase?

30.

Which of the options above (A E) describes the activity of 23S rRNA?

31.

Which of the options above (A E) describes the activity of amino acyl tRNA synthase?

32.

Which of the options above (A E) describes the activity of Reverse transcriptase?

33.

Which of the following statements about transcription in procaryotes is TRUE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

34.

After cell division, the entire genome is copied into mRNA as a back-up.
During transcription, both strands of DNA are simultaneously copied in opposite
directions.
During transcription, the 3 end of mRNA remains attached to the DNA template.
Before a gene is transcribed, its entire length must be unwound into single stranded
DNA.
As RNA polymerase transcribes a gene, the sigma subunit unwinds DNA ahead of it.

Which of the events results in TERMINATION of procaryotic transcription?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

When RNA polymerase reaches a STOP codon.

When the rho protein falls off RNA polymerase
When the RNA polymerase reaches the START codon for the next gene.
When a recently transcribed part of mRNA forms intra-molecular base pairs
When the transcription bubble reaches a section of DNA that is blocked by a group of
stationary holoenzymes.

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

35.

D.
E.

This repressor also inhibits expression of the genes that code for glucose metabolism.
Binding of lactose to this repressor lessens its affinity for DNA.
This repressor is only produced when lactose is around.
This repressor stimulates the termination of transcription.
This repressor displaces CAP from the DNA.

Which of the following statements about directionality in procaryotic translation is FALSE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

39.

CAP binds to the DNA downstream of the initiation site

CAP displaces the repressor from DNA
CAP interacts with the alpha subunits of RNA polymerase
CAP requires cyclic AMP to properly bind to DNA
After binding to DNA, CAP simulates the transcription of genes

Which statement BEST describes the function of the repressor used to regulate expression of
the gene that codes for lactose metabolizing enzymes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

38.

A single polycistronic mRNAs can be translated to give several proteins.

A polycistronic mRNA contains just one start and one stop codon.
Polycistronic mRNAs are the only transcripts that can be produced in multiple copies
after initiation of a gene.
Polycistronic mRNAs are the only transcripts that can be simultaneously translated as
they are being transcribed
Polycistronic mRNAs are formed by post-transcriptional splicing of small transcripts.

What does NOT describe the function of the procaryotic catabolite activator protein (CAP)?
(There is more than 1 false statement)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

37.

Page 14 of XX pages

Which statement regarding polycistronic mRNAs is TRUE?

A.
B.
C.

36.

QUESTIONS

The mRNA is translated in the 5 to 3 direction.

Codon:anti-codon base pairing is complementary and anti-parallel
The protein is made in the C- to N- direction.
The ribosome moves down the mRNA in the 5 to 3 direction
The tip of a polypeptide chain emerging from a ribosome is a formyl group.

Which of the following statements regarding procaryotic ribosomes is CORRECT?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The 30S and 50S subunits are held together by proteins called initiation factors
The 50 S subunit contains 16 S rRNA
The 30 S subunit contains rRNA that catalyses the formation of the peptide bond
A mixture of ribosomal RNAs and proteins can self assemble to produce functional
ribosomes

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

E.
40.

B.
C.
D.
E.

In the aa-tRNA coming into the ribosome, the carboxylic acid group of the amino acid
is in a bond with the tRNA.
During peptide bond formation, the peptide on the tRNA at the P-site moves onto the
tRNA at the A-site.
Empty tRNAs are ejected before the ribosome moves down the mRNA
EF-G catalyses the relative movement of the ribosome and the mRNA
New aa-tRNAs come into the A-site

Only polycistronic mRNAs can be translated by more than one ribosome at a time
An mRNA can only be translated once it has been fully transcribed
The rate of transcription of mRNA is much faster than the rate of translation
The rate of translation of mRNA is much faster than the rate of transcription.
The presence of polysomes makes an mRNA less prone to nuclease digestion

Considering that there is degeneracy and wobble in the code, which statement about the
relationship between mRNA and protein sequence is TRUE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

43.

The 30 S subunit contains the P- and A-sites for tRNA

Which statement about procaryotic translation is TRUE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

42.

Page 15 of XX pages

Which statement regarding the elongation phase of procaryotic protein synthesis is FALSE?
A.

41.

QUESTIONS

Given an amino acid sequence of a protein, it would be impossible to predict the

correct nucleotide sequence of its mRNA
Given an amino acid sequence of a protein, it would be possible to predict the correct
nucleotide sequence of its DNA.
Given an mRNA sequence, it would be impossible to determine the amino acid
sequence of the protein
Sequence predictions are only possible in some species
Given the DNA sequence, it would be impossible to determine the amino acid
sequence of the protein.

Which statement regarding the differences between procaryotic and eucaryotic molecular
biology is FALSE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

In eucaryotes, DNA is located in organelles

In eucaryotes, DNA is wrapped around a core of protein
In procaryotes, most of the DNA is in introns
In eucaryotes, mRNA must be transported into the cytoplasm before translation
mRNA molecules tend to be longer-lived in eucaryotes

MBLG1001 Sample Exam

44.

E.

mRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase II

Sections of DNA that are being transcribed are more prone to nuclease digestion
Eucaryotic promoters bind multiple transcription factors
Eucaryotic enhancer sequences can be located within the transcribed portion of the
gene
The eucaryotic promoter sequence is the same as the procaryotic consensus sequence.

During post-transcriptional processing, what does NOT happen to a primary mRNA

transcript?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

46.

Page 16 of XX pages

Which statement regarding eucaryotic transcription is FALSE?

A.
B.
C.
D.

45.

QUESTIONS

A guanine nucleotide is attached to the 5 end

Several hundred adenine nucleotides are attached to the 3 end
Intronic sequences are cut out and assembled into a mature transcript
The transcript is acted on by spliceosomes
The transcript is cleaved by small nuclear ribonuceloproteins

Which statement about the initiation of eucaryotic translation is TRUE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

The mRNA binds to the ribosome through the Shine Dalgarno sequence
The first tRNA to come in contains N-formyl-methionine
The first AUG codon in the transcript is normally the first to be translated
The 5 cap of mRNA is positioned into the P-site
The initiating complex is between the mRNA and the 60 S subunit

There will also be approximately 20 multiple choice questions related to lectures 16-25. The
questions presented and discussed during lectures, as well as the tutorial questions, are good
examples of exam questions and their explanations

SECTION C
THEORY OF PRACTICAL
Sample Questions are in a separate document