Test 1: Aircraft English Tests

Aircraft English Tests
Page 1
TEST 1
Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76
13. Torque the union to _____ 120 and 140 lbf.

A. between
B. around
C. from
D. over
1.
A warning _____ appears in the window.

A. tab
B. tag
C. range
D. flag
2.
Put a _____ of sealant along the joint.

A. bead
B. stripe
C. lead
D. leak
14. The green LAND RCVRY indication comes _____ view

on the left of the ACC ESS busbar.
A. in
B. on
C. into
D. within
3.
Use the _____ to adjust the cable.

A. bellcrank
B. grommet
C. rod
D. turnbuckle
15. Put the aircraft _____ to its initial configuration.

A. beyond
B. behind
C. back
D. on
4.
Each task _____ is identified with a letter in

parentheses.
A. surface
B. step
C. job
D. scale
16. The static inverter is active in flight and on the ground

when _____ AC source is available.
A. some
B. any
C. no
D. none
5.
Put a _____ below the drain port.

A. case
B. tank
C. container
D. shroud
17. The ECU is _____ vibration-isolated single unit

mounted on the fan case.
A. one
B. a
C. an
D. the
6.
Choose the correct group of words.

A. pitch adjustment handwheel trim
B. pitch trim handwheel adjustment
C. adjustment handwheel pitch trim
D. trim adjustment pitch handwheel
7.

A. aft cargo compartment sidewall
B. aft sidewall cargo compartment
C. cargo sidewall aft compartment
D. aft sidewall compartment cargo
8.
9.

A. travel control flight range
B. flight travel control range
C. flight control range travel
D. flight control travel range
A. rotor assembly low pressure turbine
B. low pressure rotor turbine assembly
C. turbine assembly low pressure rotor
D. low pressure turbine rotor assembly
10. Choose the correct group of words.

A. clamp hose fuel main supply
B. main fuel supply hose clamp
C. supply main clamp fuel hose
D. hose clamp main fuel supply
18. _____ ECU channel receives data from the two

ADIRUs.
A. All
B. A
C. Both
D. Each
19. A trim air valve adds _____ hot air from the hot air
manifold to the forward cargo compartment.
A. the
B. C. a
D. several
20. The Captain and First Officer seats are symmetrical
and have the _____ functions.
A. several
B. same
C. more
D. some
21. One heat_____ power level only is available for the
windows.
A. s
B. ing
C. D. ED
11. Make sure that the ENG/MASTER switch is _____ OFF.

A. at
B. from
C. to
D. on
22. The pitch trim actuator has three brush_____ DC

motors.
A. less
B. mounted
C. over
D. free
12. Make sure that the parts retained _____ the removed
component are clean.
A. on
B. to
C. around
D. from
23. The BITE facilitates maintenance on _____-service

aircraft.
A. on
B. in
C. off
D. into
Page 2
24. A restrict_____ pack installed in port B controls the

rate of travel on the piston rod.
A. ed
B. C. or
D. ly
25. Each light contains a step-_____ transformer to
decrease the 115V AC busbar supply to 28 VAC.
A. up
B. under
C. on
D. down
26. A forward transfer is carried out if one of these
conditions _____.
A. completes
B. allows
C. occurs
D. provides
35. The fuel flows inside the fuel tubes and takes away
the heat _____ by the oil.
A. releasing
B. releases
C. released
D. to release
36. The spent air exhausts via a _____ duct in the aft
cavity of the intake cowl.
A. rough
B. flush
C. solid
D. shiny
37. This location gives the operator a _____ position and
a clear view of the door travel
A. secure
B. clean
C. safe
D. straight
27. The power from the hydraulic ground cart _____ the
RAT test motor.
A. drives
B. releases
C. excites
D. energizes
38. The air conditioning compartment ventilation system

ensures air circulation in order to maintain a _____
temperature of 80C.
A. mean
B. operative
C. minimum
D. full
28. The water storage system _____ potable water for use
in the aircraft.
A. keeps
B. supports
C. installs
D. uses
39. Make sure that the travel ranges of the flight controls
are _____.
A. dry
B. clean
C. clear
D. free
29. To _____ the maintenance personnel, this cover is

held open by a mechanical holding system.
A. inform
B. display
C. enable
D. help
40. The basic fan frame structure is made of _____ alloy.

A. aluminum
B. honeycomb
C. titanium
D. steel
30. The thermo-sensitive elements trigger the fire

warnings when the temperature _____ the threshold
of the monitored area of the engine.
A. provides
B. reaches
C. arrives
D. increases
31. On each engine there _____ two continuous loops.
A. is
B. are
C. has
D. have
32. The air intake flap actuator _____ the air intake flap to
the appropriate position.
A. moves
B. move
C. is moving
D. is moved
33. The maintenance messages _____ in clear English
language.
A. display
B. displaying
C. to display
D. are displayed
34. The oil quantity transmitter is a tank probe with a
compensator and an electronic module for probe
_____ and signal output.
A. energized
B. energizing
C. energize
D. to energize
41. Aerodynamic forces _____ cause unwanted

movement of the spoiler if the device is not in the "0"
position.
A. should
B. has to
C. will
D. shall
42. Use a respirator if you _____ smell vapors.
A. would
B. can
C. will
D. should
43. The APU hoist and the remaining two mounts _____
support the APU when you remove an APU mount.
A. must
B. can
C. may
D. could
44. Work on the hydraulic system _____ be dangerous.
A. will
B. must
C. can
D. should
45. All loose items _____ be secured before you start
work.
A. could
B. are to
C. may
D. can
Page 3
46. The nuts are safetied _____ prevent unwanted

movement.
A. so
B. therefore
C. because
D. in order to
58. Install the removed engine in a _____.

A. cradle
B. rotab
C. ground cart
D. hoist
47. The warning is triggered _____ the flight phase.

A. as soon as
B. whatever
C. once
D. thus
59. A toolkit contains a _____.

A. dolly, a mallet and a soldering iron
B. wrench, a lathe and an Allen key
C. wire stripper, pliers and calipers
D. drill bit, a ring spanner and a milling machine
48. Fill the tank _____ the high level is reached.

A. unless
B. if
C. until
D. however
60. Mix the fluids _____.

A. thoroughly
B. evenly
C. at equally spaced intervals
D. back and forth
49. The generator is disconnected _____ an overload.

A. despite
B. in the event of
C. however
D. provided
61. If unsatisfactory, do the _____ step again.

A. prevented
B. previous
C. subsequent
D. next
50. The blower fan is inoperative _____ the equipment

may overheat.
A. because
B. although
C. so
D. due to
62. _____ and sign the job card.

A. Fill
B. Record
C. Replenish
D. Fill in
51. Insert a _____ on the nose landing gear steering box.

A. stud
B. cotter pin
C. safety pin
D. grommet
52. Adjust the upper door _____.
A. socket
B. hinge
C. loom
D. gasket
53. Torque the double hexagon _____ to the given value.
A. nut
B. lug
C. washer
D. sleeve
54. The two pipes are connected by an _____ union.
A. hose
B. O-ring
C. insert
D. elbow
55. Lubricate the _____ of the screw.
A. thread
B. pitch
C. shank
D. collar
56. A _____ is designed to firmly hold a part as you work
on it.
A. drill
B. vise
C. clamp
D. bench
57. A _____ is used to cut through thick materials.
A. sling
B. lathe
C. file
D. grinder
63. De-energize the aircraft electrical _____.

A. network
B. net
C. harness
D. loop
64. _____ the cover with QAD fasteners.
A. Fix
B. Safety
C. Keep
D. Secure
65. Engine oil must be checked and _____ 5 minutes after
each shutdown.
A. completed
B. filled
C. refueled
D. replenished
66. Install the front spar access panels. This is ATA
chapter No.
A. 49 - APU
B. 28 - fuel
C. 29 - hydraulic power
D. 21 - air conditioning
67. Make sure that the pressure shown on the pressure
gage of the cylinder is more than the minimum
pressure found. This is ATA chapter No.:
A. 24 - elec. power
B. 35 - oxygen
C. 26 - fire protection
68. Loosen the clamp and move the sleeve away from the
smoke extraction fan. This is ATA chapter No:
A. 49 - APU
B. 21 - air conditioning
C. 36 - pneumatic power
D. 72 - engine
69. Install blanking plugs on the open discharge port of
the HMU and on the open ends of the fuel supply
tube. This is ATA chapter No:
A. 26 - fire protection
B. 49 - APU
D. 72 - engine
Page 4
70. When the reservoir is empty, tighten the screw. This

is ATA chapter No:
A. 29 - hydraulic power
B. 27 - flight controls
C. 28 - fuel
D. 52 - doors
71. It is preferred to arrange splices so that adjacent
splices do not overlap. Splices must not be:
A. end to end
B. on the same part of cable
C. opposite each other
D. too thick
72. After the subsequent flight, make sure that the fault
does not continue. You make sure that the fault is
repaired _____.
A. after the test flight
B. after the next revenue flight
C. at the first check
D. as soon as possible
73. When the position indicator lamp comes on, you must
record the value shown on the pressure monitor. You
need a :
A. multimeter
B. pressure gage
C. pen
D. ohmmeter
74. If the ends of the wear indicator pins are level with the
reference face you must replace the brake. The
indicator pin must be:
A. protruding
B. flush
C. recessed
D. available
75. View aft and inspect the inlet guide vanes and 1ststage blades for oil wetting and/or brown oil stains.
You are checking for:
A. chafing
B. cracks
C. leaks
D. F.O.D.
76. Ice protection heats the intake cowls with air bled
from the engine compressor. The installation consists
of ducting, coupling, seals, a shutoff valve,
mechanical supports and a swirl nozzle. The anti-ice
air is:
A. routed and regulated
B. isolated and monitored
C. routed and vortexed
D. regulated and isolated
77. The rotating artificial feel mechanism consists of two
levers and is hinged on a shaft held by the rudder
control frame, between which two parallel springs are
installed.
A. The artificial feel mechanism is installed on the rudder
control frame.
B. Two springs are connected to two levers.
C. Two springs are connected to the rudder control
frame.
D. The artificial feel mechanism consists of a shaft.
78. The stage 3 LPT nozzle assembly includes 18 nickel
alloy segments of 7 vane airfoils each with integral
inner stationary air seals. The third LPT stage nozzle
assembly has _____ vanes:
A. 7
B. 18
C. 126
D. 378
79. During retraction of the main landing gear, the

downlock actuator releases an overcenter lock of the
lock stay. It then folds it and the side stay against the
force in the lock springs. The actuator:
A. folds the landing gear
B. overcomes the spring force
C. releases the lock stay
D. releases the side stay
80. HP pipes outside fire zones are made of titanium alloy
and are unpainted. HP pipes in fire zones are in
stainless steel and are painted. LP pipes are in light
alloy and are painted for corrosion protection. HP
hydraulic pipes inside the engine are in:
A. painted aluminum alloy
B. unpainted titanium alloy
C. unpainted stainless steel
D. painted stainless steel
Page 5
TEST 2
13. The crossbleed valve isolates the left and right bleedair systems _____ each other.
A. from
B. through
C. at
D. to
1.
Pitch trim _____ can become difficult to move.

A. handles
B. handwheels
C. displays
D. leaks
2.
The aft cargo compartment comprises four _____.

A. bays
B. wells
C. stowages
D. holds
14. A pressure regulating valve controls the air pressure

and keeps the _____ pressure to a specified limit.
A. lower
B. under
C. downstream
D. down
3.
Make sure that the travel _____ of the flight controls

are clear.
A. rates
B. axes
C. arcs
D. ranges
15. Each wing is divided _____ two subsystems.

A. within
B. into
C. by
D. in
4.
The _____ opens the poppet when the upstream

pressure is greater.
A. connector
B. strap
C. seal
D. spring
5.
Examine all the ducts, _____ and check valves for

leaks.
A. wiring
B. unions
C. selectors
D. nuts
6.

A. button recline passenger seat
B. seat recline passenger button
C. passenger seat recline button
D. recline seat passenger button
7.

A. engine de-icing air intake
B. engine air intake de-icing
C. engine intake air de-icing
D. engine air de-icing intake.
8.

A. lockwire corrosion resistant steel
B. steel corrosion lockwire resistant
C. corrosion resistant steel lockwire
D. steel resistant lockwire corrosion
9.

A. over wing emergency exit
B. wing over emergency exit
C. over exit wing emergency
D. emergency over wing exit

A. fan cowl hoist point
B. cowl point fan hoist
C. hoist cowl fan point
D. cowl fan hoist point
11. The centering mode permits the system to bring
_____ and hold the elevator in the 0 position.
A. from
B. over
C. back
D. around
12. The mode selector valve moves _____ the action of its
spring.
A. on
B. from
C. at
D. under
16. _____ servo control is connected to two flight control

primary computers.
A. Both
B. All
C. Any
D. Each
17. Electrical power heats the system automatically when
_____ of these conditions occurs.
A. one
B. both
C. all
D. some
18. The fire detectors are the _____ and operate
independently.
A. same
B. several
C. most
D. equal
19. Install _____ DO-NOT-OPERATE tag on the APU
central switch on the P5 panel.
A. an
B. a
C. the
D. 20. The nose gear must be compressed _____ than 8
inches before steering is attempted.
A. most
B. much
C. more
D. less
21. The _____ device indicates the loss of a fire detection
loop.
A. monitor
B. monitors
C. monitored
D. monitoring
22. The APU is the primary source of _____ air on the
ground. The air is bled from the APU load _____.
A. compressor / compressing
B. compressed / compressor
C. compressing / compressor
D. compressed / compressing
23. Remove the harness from the upper ignition _____.
A. exciter
B. exciting
C. excites
D. excited
Page 6
24. You cannot detect potential oil leaks with a _____ test. 35. The thermal switches _____ along the wing leading
edge.
A. motored
A. find
B. motoring
B. are found
C. motor
C. finds
D. motors
D. is found
25. Four _____ drain masts are located on the lower
36. Corrosion-resistant _____ lockwire.
fuselage centerline.
A. steel
A. heating
B. aluminum
B. heat
C. iron
C. heated
D. copper
D. heater
26. The position of the rudder is _____ on the SD.
A. set
B. controlled
C. signalled
D. shown
27. The protection systems _____ if a pneumatic duct or a
wing anti-ice duct bursts.
A. occur
B. perform
C. operate
D. turn on
28. An air cycle machine first compresses the air and
then _____ it.
A. extends
B. extracts
C. expands
D. extrudes
29. When the valve block _____ hydraulic fluid to the
retract port, the motor moves in the direction
necessary to the flaps.
A. receives
B. supplies
C. ensures
D. transmits
30. Obey the safety procedures when you work in a fuel
tank. This will _____ injury or damage.
A. cause
B. provide
C. allow
D. prevent
31. The valve _____ of a valve body with a butterfly _____
by a pneumatic actuator.
A. consists / controlling
B. consist / to control
C. consist / controls
D. consists / controlled
32. _____ too much cleaner.
A. Use not
B. Do not use
C. No use
D. Use no
33. _____ a bead of sealant around the retainer nuts
_____ a sealing gun.
A. To apply / using
B. Applying / using
C. Apply / using
D. Apply / to use
34. Wiper operation _____ damage to a dry windshield.
A. cause
B. will cause
C. causing
D. to cause
37. Lubricate the _____ seals with FUELS (Material N 01001).

A. fresh
B. old
C. new
D. cool
38. Lay the lockwire tails _____ on the surface and apply
a 2 mm thick layer of SEALANTS.
A. deep
B. safe
C. flat
D. curved
39. Push in the LIGHT TEST P/BSW. Make sure that the
_____ FAULT light comes on.
A. green
B. applicable
C. applied
D. straight
40. Make sure that the work area is _____ and _____ of
tools and other items.
A. clear / clean
B. dry / full
C. shiny / erased
D. clean / clear
41. Leaks _____ occur around plumbing fittings.
A. should
B. may
C. will
D. must
42. All parts _____ be matchmarked before disassembly.
A. must
B. can
C. could
D. would
43. This task _____ two persons.
A. need
B. requires
C. has
D. must
44. If you turn the knob CW, the temperature _____
increase.
A. can
B. shall
C. has to
D. will
45. Particular care _____ exercised.
A. must
B. will
C. is to be
D. need
46. Each elevator is activated by a servo control in the
active mode _____ the other is in the damping mode.
A. provided
B. although
C. while
D. as soon as
Page 7
47. Use the common grease _____ otherwise specified.

A. unless
B. as long as
C. until
D. whether
59. _____ tighten the nuts but do not torque at this time.
A. Fully
B. Slowly
C. Suitably
D. Hand
48. The lights remain on _____ the gear is in transit.

A. as soon as
B. as long as
C. whereas
D. however
60. Remove the safety _____ and tags and close these
circuit breakers.
A. wire
B. pins
C. sleeves
D. clips
49. Lower the assembly carefully _____ sudden

movements may result in damage.
A. due to
B. although
C. as
D. so
50. The cold fuel in the inner tank absorbs the heat and
_____ it lowers the temperature of the regulated fuel.
A. whereas
B. thus
C. moreover
D. if
51. Put blanking _____ on the disconnected electrical
connectors.
A. lugs
B. caps
C. tabs
D. plugs
52. Loosen the _____ and disconnect the line.
A. gasket
B. washer
C. O-ring
D. nut
53. Install a new O-ring on the _____.
A. seal
B. union
C. hose
D. bonding jumper
54. Put a _____ to tell persons not to supply the ground
air source.
A. flag
B. tag
C. warning notice
D. caution
55. Remove the nut, the washer and the bonding _____.
A. lanyard
B. tie
C. lead
D. wrap
56. Put a _____ of one U.S. gal capacity under the IDG oil
cooler to drain the remaining oil.
A. cap
B. container
C. screen
D. sump
57. Apply between 45 and 50 lbf.in with the suitable
_____.
A. Allen key
B. screwdriver
C. socket wrench
D. torque wrench
58. Put the _____ in position under the cargo door.
A. access platform
B. jack
C. hoist
D. ground cart
61. The system is hydraulically _____ from the other two

systems.
A. insulated
B. installed
C. isolated
D. issued
62. The reservoirs are designed to remain pressurized for
at _____ 12 hours.
A. loss
B. least
C. less
D. last
63. The three phases and neutral are taken to the
generator _____ terminal block.
A. outlet
B. outboard
C. output
D. outflow
64. Make sure that _____ of the weight is on the shaft.
A. none
B. no
C. any
D. nothing
65. Install a doorway safety barrier to _____ falling thru
open doorway.
A. provide
B. warn
C. prevent
D. process
66. Installation of the Crossfeed Valve Actuator. This is
ATA chapter:
B. 36 - pneumatic power
C. 28 - fuel
D. 38 - water and waste
67. On the HP ground connectors, put warning notices to
tell persons not to supply the ground air source. This
is ATA chapter:
B. 49 - APU
C. 24 - elec. power
68. Disconnect the electrical connector. Safety it away
from the axle. This is ATA chapter:
A. 32 - landing gear
D. 72 - engine
69. Connect the nut of the rod supply pipe on the lower
pivoting door actuator. This is ATA chapter:
A. 27 - flight controls
B. 31 - instruments
C. 78 - exhaust
D. 36 - pneumatic power
Page 8
70. Put a container below the manifold to collect the fluid

leakage. This is ATA chapter:
A. 21 - air conditioning
B. 29 - hydraulic power
C. 26 - fire protection
D. 35 - oxygen
71. Paint a white line approximately 4 mm on each side of
the knot, then make sure that it does not move along
the line.
A. you must paint a white line
B. the white line must not move
C. you must paint a white line 4 mm wide
D. you must paint two white lines
72. Disconnect and remove the sense lines from the air
cycle machine, the condenser and the water extractor.
You must remove the _____ lines:
A. power
B. monitoring
C. detection
D. supply
73. Make sure that the safety barriers are in position to
prevent access to the landing gear door travel ranges.
You must stop:
A. people
B. gear movement
C. door movement
D. hydraulic supply
74. Determine the position number of the fuel nozzles to
be removed. You must know the _____ of the nozzles.
A. P/N
B. quantity
C. identification
D. location
75. If the pressure in all the reservoirs is less than 3.5
bars, continue as follows: - use special materials and
do a leak test
A. - you repair the leak if each reservoir < 3.5 bars
B. - you repair the leak if any reservoir < 3.5 bars
C. - you test the system if each reservoir < 3.5 bars
D. - you test the system if any reservoir < 3.5 bars
76. The recirculation pipe starts on the engine at the FRV
and finishes at the press-holding valve in the inner
tank. The holes in the adaptor let the fuel flow through
the recirculation pipe and into the inner tank. This fuel
is used to:
A. supply the engine
B. fill the fuel tanks
C. cool the IDG
D. supply another engine
77. The ventilation of the wing leading edge makes sure
that the flammable fuel vapor is removed and the hot
components are cooled. Air enters through gaps
around the slat tracks and goes out through drainage
holes. The air flow avoids:
A. icing
B. overheating
C. cavitation
D. fire and overheating
78. If one of the mode selector valves is in by-pass mode
while the other is in active mode, the interconnection
of the two chambers is achieved and the pressure
switch is activated by supply pressure. A difference of
modes is indicated as a result of:
A. chamber interconnection
B. supply pressure on the pressure switch
C. mode selector valve disagree
D. overpressure detection
79. The reference chamber makes allowances for the

differential pressure and temperature differences.
This makes sure that the detector operates on the
ground and in flight with the same level of sensitivity.
Spurious warnings are prevented by:
A. a ground and a flight mode
B. a temperature / pressure correlation
C. internal adjustments made for delta P and
temperature
D. a large tolerance
80. The diffuser is downstream of the load compressor
impeller. It is of radial design with 19 guide vanes in
the shape of cambered vanes. The radial _____ has 19
_____ vanes.
A. diffuser / curved
B. impeller / flat
C. diffuser / flat
D. impeller / curved
Page 9
TEST 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A coupling permits rapid removal or installation of the

electric pump without _____ of fluid.
A. bleed
B. display
C. loss
D. level
Energize the ground service _____.
A. network
B. loop
C. retainer
D. hose
Remove the _____ plugs from the disconnected line
ends.
A. sliding
B. bearing
C. bonding
D. blanking
Use solvents, _____ and other special materials only
with a good flow of air through the work area.
A. seals
B. fittings
C. sealants
D. fixtures
Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices
are in position.
A. devices
B. designs
C. displays
D. detectors
6.

A. bristle soft non-metallic brush
B. non-metallic soft bristle brush
C. soft brush non-metallic bristle
D. brush soft non-metallic bristle
7.

A. cabin system test and cockpit
B. test system cockpit and cabin
C. cabin system and cockpit test
D. cockpit and cabin system test
8.

A. main air extraction duct
B. duct air main extraction
C. main air duct extraction
D. extraction duct main air
9.

A. cargo forward compartment ceiling panels
B. cargo ceiling forward compartment panels
C. forward ceiling compartment cargo panels
D. forward cargo compartment ceiling panels

A. 100 ATA specification, 29 revision
B. ATA specification 100, revision 29
C. ATA specification 29, revision 100
D. revision 29-100 ATA specification
11. The windshield anti-icing system makes sure that the
crew can see _____ the windshield and side windows.
A. in
B. through
C. around
D. over
12. The nominal temperature regulation is _____ 35 and
42C.
A. from
B. within
C. between
D. below
13. The test results are shown _____ panel 231VU.

A. in
B. on
C. beyond
D. onto
14. The storage system also helps to protect the fuel
system _____ fire.
A. around
B. against
C. along
D. away
15. All the fuel tanks have water drain valves _____ their
lowest points.
A. thru
B. to
C. on
D. at
16. _____ movement caused by the rudder pedals is
transmitted from the steering crank to the quadrant.
A. None
B. Any
C. Some
D. Several
17. Do not hit the inlet plenum with your hands or your
tools. _____ damage to the plenum can occur.
A. The
B. A
C. D. Any
18. _____ windshield wiper is controlled with the WIPER
control switch.
A. A
B. C. Both
D. Each
19. The duct leak detection system uses thermal switches
to find _____ leak in a bleed air duct.
A. some
B. C. the
D. a
20. Only one CPC operates its system at a time, with the
_____ system on standby.
A. other
B. each
C. together
D. both
21. Tailwinds, or winds with tailwind components, _____
affect ground operation of engines.
A. adverseless
B. adverse
C. adversely
D. adversity
22. The equipment and furnishings are installed in the
cargo compartments for the _____ and safety of the
cargo.
A. handler
B. handling
C. handled
D. handle
23. The heating elements are part of the fill/drain nipple
and _____ nipple of the potable water system.
A. underfloor
B. outflow
C. overflow
D. overboard
Page 10
24. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes

which contain a _____-face _____-donning mask
each.
A. fully / quick
B. full / quickly
C. fully / quickly
D. full / quick
25. Put the _____ collar-door MLG (3) in position on the
piston rod of the MLG door actuator.
A. safely
B. safety
C. safe
D. safetied
26. Install the countersunk screws and _____.
A. safety
B. tighten
C. discard
D. loosen
27. Make sure that there _____ no leaks at the filter bowl.
A. is
B. has
C. have
D. are
28. The permanent measurement of the resistor of the inservice sensor _____ the correct temperature
regulation.
A. ensures
B. prevents
C. inserts
D. supplies
29. When the ground speed of the aircraft is more than 40
Knots the angle of steering available _____.
A. decreases
B. processes
C. initiates
D. increases
35. The IP check valve _____ _____ any air recirculation

through the engine.
A. close / to prevent
B. is closed / to prevent
C. is closed / to be prevented
D. closes / to be prevented
36. Make sure that all the circuits in maintenance are
_____ before you supply electrical power to the
aircraft.
A. insulated
B. detached
C. isolated
D. separated
37. Make sure that the engine throttle control levers are in
the _____ position.
A. idle
B. shutoff
C. cutout
D. override
38. When the test is _____ monitor the trim air valve
symbols on the AIRCOND page.
A. serviceable
B. updated
C. replenished
D. in progress
39. Make sure that the doors are closed, secured and
_____.
A. straight
B. flush
C. steady
D. flushed
40. Working in the vicinity of the engine air intakes can be
_____.
A. wrong
B. sharp
C. hazardous
D. protruding
30. The pressure relief disc will _____ out at a pressure of

2.7 to 6.8 bars relative.
A. burn
B. flow
C. show
D. blow
41. Old retainers _____ be used.

A. could
B. must
C. must not
D. do not have to
31. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not
_____ correctly or not _____ to cool sufficiently.
A. handling / allowing
B. handle / allow
C. handled / allowed
D. handle / arrows
42. The system _____ to handle two channels

simultaneously.
A. is unable
B. should
C. will
D. cannot
32. The outboard end of the retraction lever _____ to the

rear spar through a retraction link.
A. attach
B. is attached
C. attaching
D. are attached
43. Loose lockwire _____ cut you.

A. will
B. can
C. should
D. must
33. When trouble _____ trailing edge flap system faults

which _____ no similar CMC messages, it is important
to note the EICAS messages and their faults.
A. shoot / have
B. shooting / has
C. shoot / has
D. shooting / have
34. The ballscrews should _____ at closely.
A. be looked
B. look
C. be looking
D. to look
44. You _____ wear protective clothing.

A. shall
B. could
C. may
D. will
45. The Airworthiness Directive is _____.
A. recommended
B. mandatory
C. optional
D. unreliable
Page 11
46. _____ the filter becomes clogged, a bypass valve

opens.
A. Despite
B. Although
C. If
D. In order that
57. Connect the MLG shock absorber charging _____ to

the nipple.
A. container
B. union
C. accumulator
D. adapter
47. The cabin vertical speed is -500 ft/min _____ the

differential pressure reaches 0.1 psi.
A. since
B. while
C. so
D. until
58. Take the _____ safety precautions.

A. conditional
B. abnormal
C. applicable
D. emergency
48. The system is activated automatically _____ the

switch is at ON or not.
A. whatever
B. whether
C. because
D. despite
49. The system is available _____ the aircraft electrical
network is energized.
A. however
B. provided
C. due to
D. despite
50. The priority valve closes _____ a failure.
A. because
B. as
C. in the event of
D. whenever
51. Remove the 4 nuts, the 4 washers and the 4 _____.
A. straps
B. collars
C. bolts
D. bushings
52. Clean the component _____ and the adjacent area.
A. surface
B. interface
C. fixture
D. coating
59. Do steps (7) thru (11) _____.

A. still
B. always
C. again
D. also
60. Move the bogie around its axle _____ it is in the
horizontal position.
A. once
B. until
C. immediately
D. unless
61. _____ the tension bolt with corrosion-resistant steel
lockwire (0.8 mm) dia.
A. Safe
B. Secure
C. Seal
D. Safety
62. Clean the area with a new or laundered lint-free _____.
A. cloth
B. clothing
C. clothes
D. cloths
63. Make sure that the rigging pins can be _____.
A. introduced
B. inserted
C. ingressed
D. entered
53. Install the clamp on the _____ and tighten.

A. sleeve
B. socket
C. bracket
D. plate
64. Install the clamps, the collar and the _____ duct on
the shutoff valve.
A. ingress
B. input
C. intake
D. inlet
54. Tighten the two nuts until the distance between the
two _____ is between 90 mm and 94 mm.
A. pins
B. raceways
C. grommets
D. flanges
65. Lightly _____ the outer edge of the QAD adapter with
a soft face hammer.
A. hurt
B. hoist
C. hold
D. hit
55. Install the bonding _____ with the bolt, the washer
and the nut.
A. strip
B. strap
C. set
D. stripe
66. Check the expiry date on the cylinder to make sure

that you can still use the cylinder. This is ATA
chapter:
B. 35 - oxygen
C. 21 - air conditioning
56. Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices
are in position before you start work.
A. devices
B. units
C. packs
D. fittings
67. Examine the torque shaft assemblies. This is ATA

chapter:
A. 28 - fuel
Page 12
68. Disconnect the overflow line from the union. This is

ATA chapter:
B. 38 - water and waste
D. 24 - elec. power
69. Remove the cover from the terminal block of the
starter motor. This is ATA chapter:
B. 26 - fire protection
C. 27 - flight controls
D. 49 - APU
70. Remove the forward hose from the muscle tube and
from the anti-ice valve. This is ATA chapter:
B. 30 - ice/rain protection
71. Make sure that the clearance between the sensing
elements and the duct is approximately 12.7 mm
minimum. Check the gap between:
A. two ducts
B. the detection and a duct
C. the power supply and a duct
D. the fittings and a duct
72. Make an entry into the log-book that the APU LP fuel
shutoff valve is reactivated. You must:
A. connect
B. reactivate
C. shut off
D. write
73. Safety the free connector and the cable to the brake
manifold of the bogie beam with plastic ty-wraps. You
must _____ the equipment.
A. connect
B. remove
C. stow
D. install
74. Remove the hoisting point plugs and insert the
hoisting lugs. You are going to _____.
A. lift
B. close up
C. get access
D. reactivate
75. Before installation, you must examine the gaskets
already used to make sure that they are serviceable.
You must:
A. change all the seals
B. install the supports
C. change damaged seals
D. inspect the supports
76. Alternate braking with anti-skid: braking inputs are
made only at the pedals. These operate a LP system.
This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go
to the second set of pistons in the brakes. The
alternate braking system:
A. operates at reduced pressure
B. is not provided with anti-skid
C. operates few pistons
D. operates another batch of pistons
77. For minimum cooling, the ram air inlets and outlets
are almost closed and the regulation valves are fully
open. On the ground, the inlets are fully closed to
prevent dust entering the system. To increase air
temperature, the inlets and outlets are:
A. fully closed
B. fully open
C. nearly closed
D. nearly fully open
78. A drop-out RATdrives a hydraulic pump to pressurize
the green system in case of total generated DC power
being unavailable, with outboard engines failed. The
RAT is deployed in the event of the failure of:
A. engines 1 and 3
B. engines 2 and 3 and non-battery DC
C. engines 1 and 4 and non-battery DC
D. engines 1 and 4
79. Low heating or overcurrent or heating loss triggers a
warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is inhibited
on the ground. A monitoring system activates when
heating is incorrect. A warning is caused by:
A. TAT sensor heating on the ground
B. absence of voltage
C. overvoltage
D. low current
80. The distribution manifold is a forged component to
decrease the possibility of leaks. The number
connected/system is: - 2 LP systems for cockpit
distribution - 1 test port - 1 pressure switch. The
oxygen manifold consists of _____ piece(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Page 13
TEST 3B
1.
Old retainers _____ be used.

A. could
B. must
C. must not
D. do not have to
2.
The system _____ to handle two channels

simultaneously.
A. is unable
B. should
C. will
D. cannot
3.
Loose lockwire _____ cut you.

A. will
B. can
C. should
D. must
4.
You _____ wear protective clothing.

A. shall
B. could
C. may
D. will
5.
The Airworthiness Directive is _____.

A. recommended
B. mandatory
C. optional
D. unreliable
6.

A. bristle soft non-metallic brush
B. non-metallic soft bristle brush
C. soft brush non-metallic bristle
D. brush soft non-metallic bristle
7.
8.
9.

A. cabin system test and cockpit
B. test system cockpit and cabin
C. cabin system and cockpit test
D. cockpit and cabin system test
A. main air extraction duct
B. duct air main extraction
C. main air duct extraction
D. extraction duct main air
A. cargo forward compartment ceiling panels
B. cargo ceiling forward compartment panels
C. forward ceiling compartment cargo panels
D. forward cargo compartment ceiling panels

A. 100 ATA specification, 29 revision
B. ATA specification 100, revision 29
C. ATA specification 29, revision 100
D. revision 29-100 ATA specification
11. The windshield anti-icing system makes sure that the
crew can see _____ the windshield and side windows.
A. in
B. through
C. around
D. over
12. The nominal temperature regulation is _____ 35 and
42C.
A. from
B. within
C. between
D. below
13. The test results are shown _____ panel 231VU.

A. in
B. on
C. beyond
D. onto
14. The storage system also helps to protect the fuel
system _____ fire.
A. around
B. against
C. along
D. away
15. All the fuel tanks have water drain valves _____ their
lowest points.
A. thru
B. to
C. on
D. at
16. _____ movement caused by the rudder pedals is
transmitted from the steering crank to the quadrant.
A. None
B. Any
C. Some
D. Several
17. Do not hit the inlet plenum with your hands or your
tools. _____ damage to the plenum can occur.
A. The
B. A
C. D. Any
18. _____ windshield wiper is controlled with the WIPER
control switch.
A. A
B. C. Both
D. Each
19. The duct leak detection system uses thermal switches
to find _____ leak in a bleed air duct.
A. some
B. C. the
D. a
20. Only one CPC operates its system at a time, with the
_____ system on standby.
A. other
B. each
C. together
D. both
21. Tailwinds, or winds with tailwind components, _____
affect ground operation of engines.
A. adverseless
B. adverse
C. adversely
D. adversity
22. The equipment and furnishings are installed in the
cargo compartments for the _____ and safety of the
cargo.
A. handler
B. handling
C. handled
D. handle
23. The heating elements are part of the fill/drain nipple
and _____ nipple of the potable water system.
A. underfloor
B. outflow
C. overflow
D. overboard
Page 14
24. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes

which contain a _____-face _____-donning mask
each.
A. fully / quick
B. full / quickly
C. fully / quickly
D. full / quick
25. Put the _____ collar-door MLG (3) in position on the
piston rod of the MLG door actuator.
A. safely
B. safety
C. safe
D. safetied
26. Install the countersunk screws and _____.
A. safety
B. tighten
C. discard
D. loosen
27. Make sure that there _____ no leaks at the filter bowl.
A. is
B. has
C. have
D. are
28. The permanent measurement of the resistor of the inservice sensor _____ the correct temperature
regulation.
A. ensures
B. prevents
C. inserts
D. supplies
29. When the ground speed of the aircraft is more than 40
Knots the angle of steering available _____.
A. decreases
B. processes
C. initiates
D. increases
30. The pressure relief disc will _____ out at a pressure of
2.7 to 6.8 bars relative.
A. burn
B. flow
C. show
D. blow
31. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not
_____ correctly or not _____ to cool sufficiently.
A. handling / allowing
B. handle / allow
C. handled / allowed
D. handle / arrows
32. The outboard end of the retraction lever _____ to the
rear spar through a retraction link.
A. attach
B. is attached
C. attaching
D. are attached
33. When trouble _____ trailing edge flap system faults
which _____ no similar CMC messages, it is important
to note the EICAS messages and their faults.
A. shoot / have
B. shooting / has
C. shoot / has
D. shooting / have
34. The ballscrews should _____ at closely.
A. be looked
B. look
C. be looking
D. to look
35. The Airworthiness Directive is _____.

A. recommended
B. mandatory
C. optional
D. unreliable
36. Make sure that all the circuits in maintenance are
_____ before you supply electrical power to the
aircraft.
A. insulated
B. detached
C. isolated
D. separated
37. Make sure that the engine throttle control levers are in
the _____ position.
A. idle
B. shutoff
C. cutout
D. override
38. When the test is _____ monitor the trim air valve
symbols on the AIRCOND page.
A. serviceable
B. updated
C. replenished
D. in progress
39. Make sure that the doors are closed, secured and
_____.
A. straight
B. flush
C. steady
D. flushed
40. You _____ wear protective clothing.
A. shall
B. could
C. may
D. will
41. The cabin vertical speed is -500 ft/min _____ the
differential pressure reaches 0.1 psi.
A. since
B. while
C. so
D. until
42. The system is activated automatically _____ the
switch is at ON or not.
A. whatever
B. whether
C. because
D. despite
43. The system is available _____ the aircraft electrical
network is energized.
A. however
B. provided
C. due to
D. despite
44. The priority valve closes _____ a failure.
A. because
B. as
C. in the event of
D. whenever
45. Remove the 4 nuts, the 4 washers and the 4 _____.
A. straps
B. collars
C. bolts
D. bushings
Page 15
46. Clean the component _____ and the adjacent area.

A. surface
B. interface
C. fixture
D. coating
47. Install the clamp on the _____ and tighten.
A. sleeve
B. socket
C. bracket
D. plate
48. Tighten the two nuts until the distance between the
two _____ is between 90 mm and 94 mm.
A. pins
B. raceways
C. grommets
D. flanges
49. Install the bonding _____ with the bolt, the washer
and the nut.
A. strip
B. strap
C. set
D. stripe
50. Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices
are in position before you start work.
A. devices
B. units
C. packs
D. fittings
51. Connect the MLG shock absorber charging _____ to
the nipple.
A. container
B. union
C. accumulator
D. adapter
52. Take the _____ safety precautions.
A. conditional
B. abnormal
C. applicable
D. emergency
53. Do steps (7) thru (11) _____.
A. still
B. always
C. again
D. also
54. Move the bogie around its axle _____ it is in the
horizontal position.
A. once
B. until
C. immediately
D. unless
55. _____ the tension bolt with corrosion-resistant steel
lockwire (0.8 mm) dia.
A. Safe
B. Secure
C. Seal
D. Safety
56. Clean the area with a new or laundered lint-free _____.
A. cloth
B. clothing
C. clothes
D. cloths
57. Make sure that the rigging pins can be _____.
A. introduced
B. inserted
C. ingressed
D. entered
58. Install the clamps, the collar and the _____ duct on
the shutoff valve.
A. ingress
B. input
C. intake
D. inlet
59. Lightly _____ the outer edge of the QAD adapter with
a soft face hammer.
A. hurt
B. hoist
C. hold
D. hit
60. Check the expiry date on the cylinder to make sure
that you can still use the cylinder. This is ATA
chapter:
B. 35 - oxygen
61. Examine the torque shaft assemblies. This is ATA
chapter:
A. 28 - fuel
62. Disconnect the overflow line from the union. This is
ATA chapter:
B. 38 - water and waste
D. 24 - elec. power
63. Remove the cover from the terminal block of the
starter motor. This is ATA chapter:
D. 49 - APU
64. Remove the forward hose from the muscle tube and
from the anti-ice valve. This is ATA chapter:
B. 30 - ice/rain protection
65. Make sure that the clearance between the sensing
elements and the duct is approximately 12.7 mm
minimum. Check the gap between:
A. two ducts
B. the detection and a duct
C. the power supply and a duct
D. the fittings and a duct
66. Make an entry into the log-book that the APU LP fuel
shutoff valve is reactivated. You must:
A. connect
B. reactivate
C. shut off
D. write
67. Safety the free connector and the cable to the brake
manifold of the bogie beam with plastic ty-wraps. You
must _____ the equipment.
A. connect
B. remove
C. stow
D. install

68. Remove the hoisting point plugs and insert the
hoisting lugs. You are going to _____.
A. lift
B. close up
C. get access
D. reactivate
69. Before installation, you must examine the gaskets

already used to make sure that they are serviceable.
You must:
A. change all the seals
B. install the supports
C. change damaged seals
D. inspect the supports
70. Alternate braking with anti-skid: braking inputs are
made only at the pedals. These operate a LP system.
This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go
to the second set of pistons in the brakes. The
alternate braking system:
A. operates at reduced pressure
B. is not provided with anti-skid
C. operates few pistons
D. operates another batch of pistons
71. For minimum cooling, the ram air inlets and outlets
are almost closed and the regulation valves are fully
open. On the ground, the inlets are fully closed to
prevent dust entering the system. To increase air
temperature, the inlets and outlets are:
A. fully closed
B. fully open
C. nearly closed
D. nearly fully open
72. A drop-out RATdrives a hydraulic pump to pressurize
the green system in case of total generated DC power
being unavailable, with outboard engines failed. The
RAT is deployed in the event of the failure of:
A. engines 1 and 3
B. engines 2 and 3 and non-battery DC
C. engines 1 and 4 and non-battery DC
D. engines 1 and 4
73. Low heating or overcurrent or heating loss triggers a
warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is inhibited
on the ground. A monitoring system activates when
heating is incorrect. A warning is caused by:
A. TAT sensor heating on the ground
B. absence of voltage
C. overvoltage
D. low current
74. The distribution manifold is a forged component to
decrease the possibility of leaks. The number
connected/system is: - 2 LP systems for cockpit
distribution - 1 test port - 1 pressure switch. The
oxygen manifold consists of _____ piece(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Page 16
TEST 4
1.
Apply a thin _____ of common grease on the bare

metal areas.
A. screen
B. coat
C. collar
D. shim
2.
On the center _____, make sure that the speed brake

lever is set to RET.
A. pedestal
B. pylon
C. post
D. panel
3.
Use only special materials on the _____ of the nut.

A. seat
B. depth
C. elbow
D. thread
4.
The oxygen is stored in a high pressure cylinder

made in _____ material.
A. iron
B. steel
C. fabric
D. glass
5.
Disconnect the fuel supply tube from the fuel pump

and keep the _____.
A. latch
B. gasket
C. grommet
D. screen
6.

A. Master Minimum List Equipment
B. Equipment Minimum Master List
C. Master Minimum Equipment List
D. Minimum Equipment Master List
7.

A. doors operated hydraulically landing gear
B. gear operated hydraulically landing doors
C. landing gear hydraulically operated doors
D. hydraulically operated landing gear doors
8.

A. high pressure ground air supply unit
B. ground unit high pressure supply air
C. high pressure unit ground air supply
D. high pressure supply air ground unit
9.

A. valve control wing anti-ice
B. anti-ice wing control valve
C. wing control valve anti-ice
D. wing anti-ice control valve

A. potable water valve control handle
B. portable water control handle valve
C. potable water handle valve control
D. potable water handle control valve
11. The cabin linings are formed to the _____ contour of
the fuselage.
A. lower
B. inner
C. over
D. under
Page 17
12. A door opening mechanism lets the forward doors be

opened on the ground for access _____ the body gear
wheel well.
A. in
B. at
C. on
D. to
13. The supply and protection of the components and
functions is given in the table _____.
A. below
B. lower
C. bottom
D. inside
14. Each temperature sensor consists of a housing with a
thread and a tube without an orifice on one side. On
the _____ side there is an electrical connector.
A. next
B. opposite
C. throughout
D. against
15. The fault occurs at _____ flaps 25 to 30 position.
A. away
B. around
C. adjacent
D. along
16. If not, you can transmit _____ torque to the IDG
fittings and cause damage to the IDG bosses.
A. more
B. too much
C. enough
D. too many
17. Store in _____ rigid anti-static containers.
A. this
B. all
C. each
D. 18. Pedal steering engagement occurs if one or _____
interconnect actuators operate.
A. each
B. no
C. some
D. both
19. Fleet experience has shown that _____ roughness on
the screw threads can cause this fault.
A. the
B. C. each
D. a
20. If there is _____ ground at pin 1, replace the bleed
valve.
A. an
B. no
C. any
D. none
21. Because each nose gear door is _____ _____, you
must install two safety devices.
A. hydraulic independent
B. hydraulically independent
C. hydraulically independently
D. hydraulic independently
22. Removal of the _____ tank access panels.
A. underwing
B. inwing
C. overwing
D. upperwing
23. The pneumatic system gets compressed air and

supplies it through ducts to the _____ systems.
A. using
B. used
C. user
D. usually
24. The related fire _____ valve stops the fuel supply.
A. shutout
B. shutoff
C. shutdown
D. shut away
25. The engine lubrication system is completely _____
contained and separated from any other engine or
airplane fluid system.
A. in
B. auto
C. inside
D. self
26. The oxygen source _____ one composite cylinder
with valve assembly.
A. is made of
B. consists of
C. contains
D. stows
27. The pressure and temperature of the engine bleed air
are _____ by two pressure transducers.
A. comprised
B. controlled
C. contained
D. monitored
28. Make sure that the two ground test switches are
_____ to NORM after a ground test is complete.
A. pushed
B. positioned
C. set
D. controlled
29. See that the wiper operates smoothly and does not
_____ the window seal strips.
A. overlap
B. override
C. overcome
D. overhaul
30. With the squat switch not activated, the nose gear
squat relays _____ de-energized.
A. remain
B. begin
C. rest
D. occur
31. Acoustic panels _____ the fan case _____ sound
levels.
A. lines / to reduce
B. lines / reducing
C. line / to reduce
D. are lined / reducing
32. Do these steps _____ the bearing surfaces.
A. examining
B. to examine
C. examines
D. is examined
33. When the aircraft _____ up, tire pressure _____ 4%
lower.
A. is jacked / are
B. is jacked / is
C. jacks / is
D. is jacking / are
Page 18
34. Disconnect the panel _____ the fasteners 90

counterclockwise.
A. by turning
B. turning
C. to turn
D. turns
45. The volume _____ be adjusted with this knob.

A. needs
B. can
C. may
D. should
35. Wipe the surface with a cloth _____ with solvent.

A. by dampening
B. dampened
C. dampening
D. dampen
46. The unit is designed _____ give the flight crew

priority.
A. in order to
B. so
C. due to
D. because
36. Make sure that the thrust reverser doors are fully
_____.
A. stored
B. staggered
C. stacked
D. stowed
37. Check for a puddle or oil _____ at the lower end of the
strut.
A. stripping
B. wetting
C. fretting
D. icing
38. The input signals are _____ to the amount of pedal
travel.
A. proportional
B. perpendicular
C. mismatched
D. binary
39. Alternate braking without anti-skid is the _____ mode
of operation.
A. primary
B. minor
C. secondary
D. major
47. The crossfeed valve opens automatically _____ the

position of the selector.
A. whereas
B. whenever
C. although
D. irrespective of
48. The resistance is de-energized _____ the threshold
temperature is reached.
A. as long as
B. as a result of
C. while
D. as soon as
49. Rudder deflection decreases _____ airspeed
increases.
A. as
B. thus
C. therefore
D. due to
50. The pointer will be in the green arc _____ the oxygen
pressure is low.
A. whereas
B. until
C. unless
D. whenever
40. All ends of cable jacket must be cut _____ and at right
angles to the cable.
A. chamfered
B. tapered
C. longitudinally
D. square
51. Put the sense line in position with the _____ holder.
A. collar
B. cup
C. clamp
D. cam
41. The pump _____ to pressurize both systems.

A. can
B. may
C. is able
D. must
52. Open, safety and tag these _____.

A. electrical connectors
B. circuit breakers
C. bonding jumpers
D. terminal covers
42. A rapid movement _____ cause damage to the

equipment.
A. should
B. could
C. need
D. must
53. Pull the oxygen container forward until the _____ are
released.
A. safety pins
B. studs
C. cotter pins
D. retainers
43. The escape slide _____ be disarmed before opening

the passenger door.
A. could
B. may
C. has
D. is to
54. Remove the screws, the _____ and the handle.

A. collars
B. washers
C. studs
D. hi-locks
44. When you set the switch to ON, the cabin lights _____
come on.
A. can
B. shall
C. will
D. must
55. Remove and discard the _____ from the nut.

A. lockwire
B. link
C. loop
D. lanyard
56. Put _____ under the nose and main gear wheels.
A. wedges
B. chocks
C. shims
D. shocks
Page 19
57. Remove the bogie beam and put it on a wooden

_____.
A. trestle
B. dolly
C. truck
D. fixture
58. Install the _____ in the cable quadrant of the rudder
control frame.
A. cotter pin
B. pintle pin
C. safety pin
D. rigging pin
59. _____ pull the fuel supply hoses from the outlet
manifold.
A. Clockwise
B. Suddenly
C. Carefully
D. Freely
60. Make sure that the _____ P/N of the emergency
oxygen container is installed.
A. next
B. correct
C. previous
D. own
61. Do not pressurize the hydraulic _____ during the
adjustment of the flaps.
A. channels
B. systems
C. circuits
D. loops
62. The _____ four digits (dash number) of the diskette
part number reflects the software revision status.
A. less
B. last
C. least
D. first
63. Use the inflation _____ to find the correct pressure
from the temperature and dimension H measurements
you recorded.
A. range
B. scale
C. arc
D. chart
64. The fuel tanks are located between the front and rear
_____.
A. spars
B. spares
C. spears
D. spans
65. Thirty seconds later (after the first bottle discharge), if
the fire is _____ present, the pilot fires the second
bottle.
A. again
B. always
C. ever
D. still
66. Probe heat is automatically initiated at each engine
start-up. This is ATA chpter:
A. 30 - ice/rain protection
D. 72 - engine
67. On the center pedestal, on the panel 115 VU, make

sure that the RUD TRIM indicator shows 0. This is
ATA chapter:
A. 24 - elec. power
B. 49 - APU
D. 32 - landing gear
68. The inlet guide vanes and the first 3 stages of the
stator are variable. This is ATA chapter:
A. 36 - pneumatic power
B. 72 - engine
C. 28 - fuel
69. Hold the pump and remove it from its canister. This is
ATA chapter:
A. 25 - cabin furnishings
B. 28 - fuel
D. 73 - engine fuel and control
70. Check each heat-pack wear indicator with parking
brake applied. This is page block:
A. 201
B. 401
C. 501
D. 601
71. Set the oil tank in the correct position on the engine.
You must:
A. select a control position
B. fill the oil tank
C. adjust the oil
D. put the tank in position
72. Make sure that the LOCKING TOOL - FLAP/SLAT
CONTROL LEVER is installed on the slat/flap control
lever. You must be:
A. at the wing leading edge
B. at the wing trailing edge
C. at the wing leading and trailing edges
D. in the flight compartment
73. Make a dummy connector with three jumper leads to
simulate an installed LDMCR (lower deck mobile crew
rest compartment). You need:
A. an LDMCR
B. an electrician
C. a simulator
D. a wire loom
74. Connect the pressure and case drain lines together
with the engine pump case drain/pressure
connection. Connect the pressure hose of the
hydraulic cart to the case drain line with the interface.
You are going to _____ the system.
A. pressurize
B. flush
C. drain
D. fill
75. Remove the nipple from the RACSB valve drain port
and set aside for use on the new RACSB valve. You
must _____ the nipple.
A. replace
B. adjust
C. retain
D. install
Page 20
76. The command from the ENG / MASTER switch

interfaces directly with the lock type solenoid of the
HP fuel shut-off valve. The opening function is
ensured by: - a hydraulic changeover - a magnetic
locking device The ENG/MASTER switch signals:
A. a locking device
B. a hydraulic shut-off valve
C. the fuel shut-off valve
D. a solenoid
77. A differential connects the hydraulic motors together.
The hydraulic motors have a valve block. The Pitch
Trim Actuator controls the valve block. The valve
block can also be operated by the THS mechanical
input. The valve block is actuated:
A. electrically
B. hydraulically
C. electrically and hydraulically
D. hydraulically and mechanically
78. The actuator body attaches to the butterfly and
contains a rod. Two diaphragms divide the actuator
body into three chambers. A spring in the top
chamber keeps the actuator rod in the extended
position. The actuator rod is maintained extended by
the:
A. three diaphragms
B. top chamber
C. middle chamber
D. bottom chamber
79. If a REFUEL-DEFUEL-VALVES switch is moved to
OPEN during the automatic refuel, the FCMS ignores
the command until the automatic refuel is complete.
Then, after approximately 15 seconds, the refuel will
continue in manual mode into the applicable tank.
A. you can override the automatic mode by setting the
switch to OPEN
B. you can override the automatic mode after a 15 s.
time delay
C. manual mode is only effective after the automatic
cycle is finished
D. the REFUEL-DEFUEL-VALVES switch initiates the
automatic cycle
80. The loops are connected in parallel to a Fire Detection
Unit (FDU). The connection is made through an AND
logic to avoid spurious FIRE warnings. If one loop
fails, the AND becomes an OR logic. The aircraft can
be released in this configuration.
A. two sets of loops avoid false warnings
B. the aircraft cannot depart with only one loop operative
C. if one loop fails the OR logic becomes AND logic
D. normally, both loops must detect a fire simultaneously
TEST 5
1.
Remove the QAD bolt and retain its _____ and the ball
seat washer.
A. shrouding
B. coating
C. packing
D. cowling
2.
Apply common grease to the _____ of the drive shaft.

A. looms
B. elbows
C. splines
D. span
3.
Removal of the THS front _____ center box access

panel.
A. spar
B. tip
C. rib
D. spare
4.
Install the call _____ on its support.

A. worn
B. jack
C. bracket
D. horn
5.
On the instrument panel, set the BRT/DIM _____ to

OFF.
A. wrench
B. knob
C. notch
D. probe
6.

A. reverse or normal operation thrust
B. reverse operation or normal thrust
C. normal or reverse thrust operation
D. normal reverse or thrust operation
7.

A. one structure concial piece
B. one conical structure piece
C. one piece conical structure
D. one conical piece structure
8.

A. APU emergency shutdown pushbutton switch
B. pushbutton switch APU emergency shutdown
C. APU pushbutton switch emergency shutdown
D. APU shutdown pushbutton switch emergency
9.

A. bulk cargo lower deck compartment
B. lower deck bulk cargo compartment
C. bulk cargo compartment lower deck
D. bulk compartment lower deck cargo

A. pipe shroud drainage trim fuel
B. fuel trim pipe shroud drainage
C. drainage pipe trim shroud fuel
D. fuel pipe trim drainage shroud
11. A problem in a trailing edge ballscrew transmission
causes the torque limiter to lock _____.
A. in
B. back
C. out
D. through
12. If oil is flowing _____ the weld it will show a rippling
effect.
A. between
B. up
C. down
D. within
Page 21
13. The fan stator contains fixed stator vanes mounted

_____ all stages of the rotor.
A. in front of
B. beyond
C. behind
D. across
24. Cabin pressure _____ control the quantity of air that

flows out of the fuselage.
A. controller
B. controlling
C. controllers
D. controlled
14. Make sure that the backlash of the motor/converter

goes _____ when you apply light finger pressure on
the arm.
A. away
B. out of
C. off
D. under
25. The WING P/BSW is installed on the _____-ICE _____

panel 225 VU.
A. ANTI / overheat
B. DE / overheat
C. ANTI / overhead
D. DE / overhead
15. The thermal switches are found _____ the wing

leading edge and in the struts.
A. over
B. in front of
C. through
D. along
16. HP stage pressure _____ than 35 psig and lower than
100 psig, air is bled from the HP port.
A. most
B. less
C. much
D. higher
17. The engine features direct fan speed control for _____
low pressure and high pressure turbines.
A. each
B. both
C. all
D. either
18. This could cause _____ explosion.
A. an
B. one
C. some
D. a
19. _____ of the components of the green hydraulic
system are installed in the main landing gear well.
A. More
B. Each
C. Most
D. Much
20. The computer operates using _____ channel 1 or 2.
A. both
B. either
C. every
D. each
21. The engine fuel system consists of four _____
systems.
A. under
B. pre
C. sub
D. semi
26. _____ pressure from hydraulic system No. 1.

A. Repair
B. Request
C. Release
D. Require
27. During the APU shutdown cycle, when the P3
pressure _____ to a predetermined level, the springloaded valve will automatically start to close.
A. remains
B. drops
C. reaches
D. rises
28. The accessory drive system _____ energy from the
high pressure compressor rotor to drive the engine
accessories.
A. extends
B. expands
C. extracts
D. exceeds
29. Do these steps if the brake has _____ too hot because
of a rejected takeoff.
A. started
B. begun
C. come on
D. become
30. Make sure that the controls _____ with the position of
the items they operate.
A. achieve
B. agree
C. appear
D. act
31. The flaps _____ automatically when the signal _____.
A. will be moving / will be activated
B. will move / is activated
C. are moving / will be activated
D. are moving / is activated
32. _____ an engine on the other side _____ the relay to
close.
A. Starting / causes
B. Start / will cause
C. To start / causes
D. Starting / to cause
22. The water/waste system also discards wastewater

from the toilet washbasins and from the galleys
_____board.
A. over
B. under
C. out
D. in
33. If the starter _____ a malfunction, the input shaft

_____.
A. is / will disconnect
B. has / disconnect
C. has / disconnects
D. is / disconnects
23. Make sure that the O-ring is in the _____ position.

A. corrected
B. correctly
C. correct
D. correcting
34. On the ground the air _____ through a _____ unit.

A. passed / cooled
B. passes / cooling
C. passing / cool
D. pass / cooled
Page 22
35. The air conditioning system _____ the air in the _____
fuselage compartments at the correct pressure,
temperature and freshness.
A. is kept / pressurizing
B. keep / pressurized
C. keeps / pressurized
D. to keep / pressurizing
36. When the wiper blade is in the parked position it
should be _____ to move 1/8 to 1/4 inch from the stop.
A. available
B. free
C. serviceable
D. ready
37. The hot heater probes can cause _____ burns.
A. hard
B. deep
C. sharp
D. severe
46. Make sure the EICAS shows the TEST PASSED

message _____ the test is complete.
A. while
B. during
C. when
D. as long as
47. A fire can be _____ excessive overheat or flammable
fluid leaks and can endanger the aircraft safety.
A. because
B. despite
C. as
D. due to
48. On the ground, an external electrical power source is
needed _____ an internal aircraft power source is not
available.
A. although
B. as long as
C. so that
D. whereas
38. The fire extinguishing system is designed to

extinguish at an _____ stage any fire occurring in the
protected nacelle zones.
A. after
B. early
C. accurate
D. even
49. The connection is made through an AND logic _____

avoid spurious warnings.
A. in order to
B. due to
C. according to
D. therefore
39. If the fault produces a FLAPS PRIMARY message

followed by a FLAPS DRIVE message, it is _____ the
result of a Flaps Disagree.
A. likely
B. actually
C. fully
D. slightly
50. When energized in AP mode, the solenoid controls

roller engagement, _____ locking the artificial feel
mechanism.
A. also
B. then
C. but
D. thus
40. There are three cases of pneumatic operation: HP

stage pressure _____ than 35 psig (average value)...
A. slower
B. hotter
C. thicker
D. lower
51. Lubricate the new _____ with oil.

A. safety pin
B. lockwire
C. O-ring
D. bonding braid
41. If these components are not installed in the correct

position, oxygen flow _____ stop.
A. shall
B. would
C. could
D. should
42. Hot oil contacting eyes or skin _____ cause severe
burns.
A. will
B. has to
C. should
D. needs to
43. Do not reroll on any core less than 7 inches in
diameter or damage to laminate _____ occur.
A. must
B. would
C. should
D. may
44. Make sure you _____ see the threads on the end
fitting through the inspection hole.
A. will
B. can
C. shall
D. would
45. Splices _____ not be installed under clamps or other
supports.
A. may
B. can
C. would
D. shall
52. Push the line into the discharge head until you feel
the _____.
A. stop
B. flange
C. gasket
D. grommet
53. Remove and discard the _____.
A. washer
B. rod
C. cotter pin
D. nut
54. Hold the spoiler and remove the _____ bolt and the
bush.
A. hinge
B. groove
C. thread
D. shank
55. Engage the torque _____ into the torque limiter.
A. spindle
B. roller
C. pipe
D. shaft
56. Use _____ to protect the surface of the aileron during
removal and installation.
A. foil
B. padding
C. tape
D. patches
Page 23
57. Use _____ to tie the shaft to the trolley.

A. wires
B. hoists
C. lugs
D. straps
68. Remove the related mount vibration-isolator. This is

ATA chapter:
A. 49 - APU
B. 28 - fuel
D. 27 - flight controls
58. The connections must point _____ from the door

hinge of the compartment.
A. away
B. downstream
C. counterclockwise
D. overboard
69. An air cycle machine first compresses the air then

expands it. This is ATA chapter:
A. 72 - engine
B. 21 - air conditioning
59. Lock the mechanism of the access door with the

_____ when you open the access door.
A. key
B. rigging pin
C. wrench
D. pip pin
70. Operational Test of Engine Pump Depressurization.

This is page block:
A. 201
B. 401
C. 501
D. 601
60. Move the lever _____ backwards and forwards several

times.
A. steadily
B. around
C. fully
D. twice
71. Carefully put the valve into its recess on the rear face
of the fan frame at the 4.30 o'clock position. You
install the valve in a:
A. cavity
B. frame
C. housing
D. bracket
61. Troubleshooting ______: electrical power (MM 24-2200/201) and TE flaps position between up and 25
units.
A. requests
B. records
C. prerequisites
D. precedents
62. The first troubleshooting _____ is to look for
something to jam the drive train.
A. step
B. stage
C. ladder
D. scale
63. _____ the brakes and the wheels become cool.
A. Leave
B. Keep
C. Let
D. Get
64. On the ENG/APU FIRE PNL (on the _____ control and
indicating panel), press the ENG 1 TEST pushbutton
switch.
A. overheat
B. overhead
C. overall
D. overhaul
65. Instruments are powered with both _____ and direct
current.
A. alternating
B. alternative
C. alternate
D. alternated
66. Make sure that the wheel chocks are in position. This
is ATA chapter:
C. 32 - landing gear
67. The pressure regulator / transmitter reduces this high
pressure to low pressure for the downstream system
and distribution equipment. This is ATA chapter:
A. 24 - elec. power
B. 31 - instruments
D. 35 - oxygen
72. Put an entry in the aircraft log to tell people not to use
towbarless tow operations. You must:
A. not tow the aircraft
B. write to the manufacturer
C. use a tow vehicle and tow bar
D. placard the nose landing gear
73. Caution: Do not tighten the adjuster assembly on the
hoisting sling too much or you will cause damage to
the unit/assembly. You want to _____ a component:
A. lift
B. adjust
C. install
D. repair
74. Make sure that the dimension "y" is between 0.1 mm
and 0.5 mm (the stops of the actuator rod-end are
parallel). If one stop of the actuator rod end is in
contact with the washer the dimension "y" is between
0.5 and 1.0 mm. You make sure that:
A. "y" is between 0.5 and 1.0 mm
B. the stops touch the washers
C. one stop touches a washer
D. the stops of the rod-end are parallel
75. During a defuel, the fuel pump can empty the collector
cell faster than the collector cell can fill. Thus you
must let the collector cell fill again before the defuel
can continue. You must:
A. not let the collector cell become empty
B. drain the collector cell
C. wait for the collector cell to fill again
D. regulate the fuel pump
76. To prevent a hazardous condition, a baulk in the
bypass valve prevents the movement of the ground
door-opening handles to the close position, unless
the hydraulic system is pressurized. Unwanted door
closure is prevented:
A. hydraulically
B. mechanically
C. electrically
D. by external safeties
Page 24
77. The duct-type cooling effect detector ensures

permanent monitoring of the cooling capacity of the
blowing airflow by measuring the cooling of a heating
unit. The detectors monitor cooling:
A. on several sample avionic units
B. on a sample avionic unit
C. on a device installed in the cooling duct
D. by comparing inlet and outlet temperatures
78. As differential pressure increases, the piston
compresses its spring and moves away from the
upper magnetic piston. The upper piston spring
overcomes the magnetic force and drives the pop-out
indicator out. In case of excessive differential
pressure:
A. the upper piston moves
B. a spring moves the pop-out indicator
C. the upper piston pushes the pop-out indicator
D. the lower piston moves under spring pressure
79. It enables the airplane systems to be supplied with air
under a nominal pressure below 48 psig. The
pressure levels are slaved to the flow to obtain a
balance between the flows from the engines. The
bleed valve outlet pressure depends on:
A. demand
B. temperature
C. flight phase
D. flow
80. If there is a rupture of the aircraft return line, the relief
valve holds the fluid volume in the accumulator. The
mode selector valve moves under the action of its
spring and the servo control operates in damping
mode. Damping mode is triggered by:
A. the relief valve
B. spring action on the mode selector valve
C. the accumulator
D. the servo control
TEST 6
1.
Remove the 4 bolts which attach the fuel supply tube

to the _____ of the IDG cooler port.
A. groove
B. flange
C. thread
D. height
2.
Make sure that the pressure shown on the pressure

_____ is correct.
A. grip
B. gage
C. gasket
D. gouge
3.
Remove the _____ caps from the electrical

connectors.
A. setting
B. crimping
C. blanking
D. rigging
4.
While you hold the outer body in this position, turn

the removal _____ to push the lockwasher into
position.
A. sill
B. seal
C. beam
D. tool
5.
Put on _____ when you touch cables.

A. gloves
B. cloth
C. clothes
D. goggles
6.

A. defuel refuel isolation valves
B. refuel defuel valves isolation
C. refuel defuel isolation valves
D. defuel refuel valves isolation
7.

A. fixed interchangeable body servo controls
B. fixed servo controls interchangeable body
C. interchangeable fixed body servo controls
D. interchangeable fixed servo body controls
8.

A. sealed ignition lead conduit
B. conduit sealed ignition lead
C. ignition lead conduit sealed
D. sealed conduit ignition lead
9.

A. air bleed system supply engine
B. bleed air system engine supply
C. engine system bleed air supply
D. engine bleed air supply system

A. green valve fire shut-off
B. fire shut-off green valve
C. shut-off valve green fire
D. green fire shut-off valve
11. This applies to S/N 8576 _____ 8690.
A. between
B. thru
C. from
D. within
12. The fire extinguisher bottles are controlled _____ the
cockpit.
A. from
B. on
C. into
D. to
Page 25
13. The wrap shall extend 3/8 inch _____ the end of the
splice.
A. behind
B. within
C. in front of
D. beyond
14. If only one actuator operates, the status message
PEDAL STEERING will come _____ view on the
EICAS.
A. to
B. on
C. into
D. in
15. The contact must be seated squarely _____ the cable
dielectric or insulator.
A. under
B. against
C. over
D. near
16. Pressing the pushbutton switch at _____ attendant
station will turn on all the cabin lights.
A. these
B. a
C. some
D. any
17. Charge the cylinder until the pressure is _____ than
1850 psi.
A. greater
B. most
C. less
D. equal
18. Apply _____ water to the windshield to test the
windshield wiper system.
A. the
B. a
C. D. any
19. The elevator hydraulic actuation is ensured by 2
electro-hydraulic servo controls on _____ surface.
A. the
B. each
C. all
D. a
24. Install the four _____ sunk screws.

A. in
B. down
C. counter
D. self
25. The current speed and altitude are displayed on a
digital _____.
A. reader
B. readout
C. readup
D. reading
26. _____ goggles, protective gloves and face mask.
A. Wear
B. Carry
C. Support
D. Retain
27. The OFF legend of the IDG will _____ if a correct reset
of the disconnect mechanism has occurred.
A. lighten
B. come on
C. go off
D. de-energize
28. The active CPC _____ control signals through a bus
to the outflow valve.
A. sets
B. sends
C. releases
D. receives
29. _____ the operational test of the engine fire
extinguishing.
A. Ensure
B. Perform
C. Allow
D. Provide
30. This temperature selection will _____ the heat probe
stabilize at a temperature slightly below the nominal
close temperature.
A. do
B. let
C. permit
D. cause
31. The failure data _____ and you can _____ it on the
MCDU after each flight.
A. stored / see
B. is storing / see
C. is stored / to see
D. is stored / see
20. The MLI is a glass-reinforced plastic rod. At _____ end

of the rod is a magnet.
A. one
B. a
C. both
D. an
32.
21. The test may be _____ at any time by _____ the line
select key next to the ABORT prompt.
A. aborted / pressed
B. aborted / pressed
C. aborting / pressing
D. aborted / pressing
22. The control surfaces must be _____ after installation.
A. rigged
B. rig
C. rigging
D. rigger
23. Handsets are installed at all the cabin _____ stations.
A. attendants
B. attendants'
C. attendants's
D. attendant's
If there _____ a warning signal, the MASTER WARN

lights _____ and a continuous repetitive chime _____.
A. has / flash / hears
B. are / flash / is heard
C. is / flash / is heard
D. is / flashes / hearing
33. The surfaces _____ by three types of computer _____

on their functions.
A. controlled / depending
B. are controlled / depending
C. control / depended
D. are controlling / depending
34. Mechanically and hydraulically _____ doors close
_____ the aerodynamic contours when the landing
gear retracts.
A. operated / to make
B. operating / to make
C. operated / made
D. operating / making
Page 26
35. Servo _____ is ensured _____ the position data

supplied by one of the RVDTs driven by the other
cam.
A. monitored / to use
B. monitor / using
C. monitoring / to use
D. monitoring / using
36. The _____ valve will automatically start to close.
A. self-held
B. built-in
C. spring-loaded
D. self-contained
37. The system is kept physically _____ from the other
two systems wherever possible.
A. connected
B. integrated
C. apart
D. redundant
38. _____ checks should be made to make sure that the
tire pressure is within limits.
A. structural
B. daily
C. yearly
D. unscheduled
39. Wear goggles, _____ gloves and other protective
clothes.
A. isolated
B. rubber
C. plated
D. insulated
40. If any alodine is spilt on the skin, rinse immediately
with a _____ supply of water.
A. full
B. replenished
C. plentiful
D. complete
41. You _____ carefully install the ground locks in all the
landing gear.
A. may
B. must
C. will
D. can
42. Do not use external parts to pull or lift the IDG. If you
do so you _____ cause damage to the IDG.
A. would
B. have to
C. can
D. should
43. All foreign matter _____ be removed before starting
the repair.
A. is to
B. can
C. will
D. may
44. You _____ two persons to lift the assembly.
A. must
B. should
C. need
D. have to
45. Rinse the casing before refilling. There _____ be
contamination.
A. would
B. may
C. has to
D. shall
46. The indication is normally based on data sent by

FCSC1 _____ such data is found invalid.
A. as long as
B. except if
C. provided
D. if
47. The engine pumps are automatically controlled _____
the crew can control them from the cockpit when
necessary.
A. but
B. thus
C. if
D. when
48. You can monitor the operation of the pneumatic
system on the BLEED page of the SD. The APU page
of the SD _____ shows some information.
A. furthermore
B. and
C. so
D. also
49. If a second crossfeed valve is opened, the two fuel
feeds are connected together. _____ the four engines
can be supplied with the fuel from one of the wings.
A. Moreover
B. Whereas
C. Thus
D. However
50. The oil must be retained within the engine, _____
seals of various types are provided to confine and
direct oil re-circulation.
A. therefore
B. however
C. since
D. nevertheless
51. Install the new _____ on the union.
A. packing
B. groove
C. sealant
D. cable tie
52. Remove the blanking _____ from the disconnected
hydraulic lines.
A. taps
B. caps
C. plugs
D. lugs
53. Remove the proximity sensor _____ with the
proximity sensors.
A. brackets
B. clevises
C. gaskets
D. hinges
54. Put the hydraulic _____ and the 1 m harness in
position on the guide blocks.
A. tees
B. unions
C. locknut
D. hoses
55. Fully install the _____ in the lug of the shortening
mechanism rear pintle pin.
A. backshell
B. nut
C. sleeve
D. screw
Page 27
56. Put a safety _____ in position when you work near an

open door.
A. net
B. procedure
C. barrier
D. harness
57. Turn the pump 30 _____.
A. inboard
B. upwards
C. clockwise
D. forward
58. Wires break most _____ where cables go through
fairleads or around pulleys.
A. nearly
B. frequently
C. quietly
D. slowly
59. You must _____ install a new O-ring before you install
a removed union.
A. often
B. never
C. always
D. again
60. Adjust the position of the knurled nut with _____.
A. your fingers
B. a screwdriver
C. a wrench
D. a ring spanner.
61. The fire extinguishing system is _____ when fire is
detected by the fire and overheat detection system.
A. actuated
B. actualized
C. excited
D. activated
62. Slowly open the vacuum control _____ you get a
stable pressure value.
A. until
B. under
C. unless
D. onto
63. The relay continuously _____ the ground condition on
any switch.
A. displays
B. monitors
C. controls
D. commands
64. Put the removed parts in a bag in order not to _____
them.
A. loose
B. loosen
C. lose
D. loss
65. You must wait 5 minutes after each engine shutdown
before you check and _____ engine oil.
A. complete
B. fulfill
C. fill out
D. top off
66. A self-sealing coupling permits rapid removal or
installation of the electric pump without loss of fluid.
This is ATA chapter:
A. 36 - pneumatic power
B. 29 - hydraulic power
D. 26 - fire protection
67. The hydraulic actuation is controlled by the Pitch Trim

Actuator. This is ATA chapter:
D. 49 - APU
68. Hold the water heater and remove the clamps. This is
ATA chapter:
B. 36 - pneumatic power
C. 30 - ice/rain protection
69. Each detection loop has an electro/pneumatic
detector element set at different thresholds. This is
ATA chapter:
A. 72 - engine
C. 30 - ice/rain protection
D. 49 - APU
70. Remove and discard the lockwire from the seal
changeover valve drain plug. This is page block:
A. 201
B. 401
C. 501
D. 601
71. If you remove the drain tube from the fuel nozzle
adjacent to the 6 o'clock borescope plug, you will be
required to perform a leak check after this inspection.
Use the 6 o'clock borescope port only if necessary.
A. you use the borescope port to check for leaks
B. you remove the broescope plug to inspect the fuel
nozzle
C. to remove the drain tube, you must remove the
borescope plug
D. it is preferable not to remove the borescope plug
72. Wind three quarters of the full length of the
microphone cable and flexible hose and put them at
the bottom of the stowage box.
A. put most of the microphone cable and all the oxygen
hose at the bottom of the box
B. coil most of the microphone cable and the oxygen
hose at the bottom of the box
C. put the three microphone cables at the bottom of the
box
D. coil the three microphone cables and oxygen hose at
the bottom of the box
73. Make sure that you cannot install the GAGE-END
STOP, FLAP ACTUATOR between the rotary actuator
and the rotary actuator stop bolt.
A. you should install a stop
B. you should install an actuator
C. you should not be able to install a gage
D. you should not be able to install a stop
74. Turn the upper drum of the HOIST-MINILIFT until you
have removed the slack from the hoist cable. Make
sure that you do not lift the SUPPORT FRAME-APU.
Then disconnect the APU from the SUPPORT FRAMEAPU. To disconnect the APU:
A. the cable must be loose
B. the support must be raised
C. the cable must be tight
D. the support must be removed
Page 28
75. On the HP manifold 6103 JM, disconnect the pressure

switches 7JS2 and 19CE2 and on the free end make a
short circuit between the pins A and B with a plug
type E0052R8B3APNE.
A. you disconnect the HP manifold
B. you connect two pressure switches
C. you connect two pins
D. you connect the two ends of the cables
76. The transmitter unit has one potentiometer for each
MLG. Each one has 4 tracks. They send outputs to the
BSCU. The BSCU has two isolated channels; only one
controls system operation. The other is a backup.
A. the BSCUs have 4 tracks each
B. the potentiometer has 2 tracks per gear
C. only 1 potentiometer is active at a time
D. only 1 channel is active at a time
77. The mounting flange is attached with six studs to the
bottom skin of the tank. Four of the studs also attach
the actuator below the tank. The drive engages with
the actuator. The actuator is installed _____ the tank
with _____ studs.
A. in / six
B. under / four
C. under / six
D. in / four
78. The gearbox housing has a capacity of 8.5 l. On the
left side there are the gravity oil fill, the fill-pressure
and the overflow ports. The gearbox has internal oil
lines. They transmit the oil from the gearbox sump to
the oil pump.
A. there are two oil-fill ports on the right
B. there is a single oil-fill port on the left
C. each oil-fill port has an overflow port
D. the oil pump scavenges oil from the sump
79. The hydraulic fluid enters the annular space formed
by the two tubes. The fluid flows:
A. in the outer tube
B. in both tubes
C. from one tube to the other
D. in the inner tube
80. The tank heater assembly is installed on the water
tank. It is wrapped around the water tank and held in
position by the tension of loaded springs. The heating
resistance is:
A. at the bottom of the tank
B. in the center of the tank
C. around the outer surface of the tank
D. on the top of the tank
TEST 7
1.
The maneuvering speeds are linked directly to the

_____ and the center of gravity.
A. weight
B. depth
C. height
D. width
2.
Wash your _____ with soap and rinse with clean

water.
A. eyes
B. coil
C. skin
D. compound
3.
For the second group of computers, the links with the

data _____ are direct.
A. timer
B. spacer
C. loader
D. charger
4.
Make sure that the ON BAT _____ comes on for 5

seconds, then goes off.
A. annunciator
B. flag
C. switch
D. pad
5.
The high voltage electrical current in the _____ of the

strobe light is dangerous.
A. lens
B. sleeve
C. capacitor
D. backshell
6.

A. electrical power emergency pushbutton switch
B. pushbutton switch emergency electrical power
C. emergency electrical power pushbutton switch
D. emergency pushbutton switch electrical power
7.

A. flight control electrical system
B. electrical flight control system
C. electrical flight system control
D. system electrical flight control
8.

A. down loading and up system data
B. up and down data loading system
C. system loading up and down data
D. data up and down loading system
9.

A. 3.5 unit disk inch drive
B. disk drive unit 3.5 inch
C. unit disk drive 3.5 inch
D. 3.5 inch disk drive unit

A. floor proximity emergency escape path
B. emergency escape proximity floor path
C. floor proximity escape path emergency
D. floor path proximity emergency escape
11. Each engine (HP rotor) drives its associated IDG
_____ the accessory gearbox.
A. inside
B. around
C. through
D. across
Page 29
12. The current transformers provide outputs

proportional to the current in the links connecting the
neutral _____ of the main stator windings to the
neutral terminal.
A. ends
B. sides
C. tips
D. edges
13. Remove excess solder _____ the outer surface of the
contact.
A. at
B. from
C. to
D. in
14. Pulling a selector knob always leads _____ an
immediate acquisition and hold of the corresponding
parameter.
A. on
B. onto
C. at
D. to
15. Fully move down the handle to the _____ of the
screen.
A. rear
B. bottom
C. side
D. top
22. _____ electrical power can be dangerous.

A. shutoff
B. unwanting
C. shutdown
D. unwanted
23. _____ turn the pushbutton switch clockwise.
A. Smoothly
B. Smoothed
C. Smooth
D. Smoothing
24. The aircraft navigation systems provide the crew with
the data _____ for flight.
A. requiring
B. requires
C. require
D. required
25. A _____ panel is located on the center pedestal.
A. switch
B. switching
C. switches
D. switched
26. Where the wire lengths do not _____ arrangement in
accordance with para. 5.A, arrange splices with 0.25
inch minimum spacing.
A. apply
B. agree
C. allow
D. achieve
16. The MCDU also indicates _____ failures in the system

and gives trouble shooting data for the system.
A. each
B. some
C. any
D. both
27. The switches are _____ to close at 250F.

A. fitted
B. set
C. monitored
D. followed up
17. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power

source that is _____ than 30 meters away.
A. less
B. most
C. least
D. the same
28. The horn in the nose gear well must _____ as long as
you push the CALLS/MECH pushbutton switch.
A. operate
B. apply
C. trigger
D. come on
18. The interconnection between the FMGECs and the

peripherals is accomplished in such a way that a
single failure of a peripheral has _____ effect on the
AFS.
A. none
B. any
C. nothing
D. no
29. The clock is _____ with a built-in battery.

A. provided
B. pointed
C. performed
D. put
19. The AC main generation enables supply of the _____

aircraft electrical system in normal configuration.
A. entire
B. 100%
C. each
D. all
20. The sensors are calibrated at zero degree A/C pitch
attitude. They have a range of operation from _____ 5
to _____ 5 pitch attitude.
A. less / more
B. least / most
C. minus / plus
D. minimum / maximum
21. The VHF system is used for all _____-range voice
communications.
A. in
B. short
C. low
D. on
30. A short push action on the CLR key _____ the last
character.
A. releases
B. transmits
C. exits
D. erases
31. After a certain time period, the relay _____ and the
cams _____ their position.
A. de-energizes / keep
B. de-energizes / keeps
C. is de-energized / to keep
D. is de-energized / keep
32. If the operator does not make any action for 10 s., the
CMC, instead of _____ the current screen, _____ the
screen corresponding to the preceding level.
A. to display / displays
B. displaying / display
C. to display / will display
D. displaying / will display
Page 30
33. These keys _____ the operator _____ data to a

specific system.
A. enable / to enter
B. enabling / enter
C. enables / to enter
D. will enable / entering
34. The system is also _____ as a data concentrator
_____ data to other systems.
A. using / provide
B. used / to provide
C. using / provided
D. uses / providing
35. The AC emergency generator _____ part of the
distribution network _____ in case of loss of the main
generation sources.
A. allows / to recover
B. will allow / recovering
C. is allowing / to recover
D. allows / to be recovered
36. The generator is a 3-phase, _____, spray-oil cooled,
rotating, rectifier machine.
A. brushless
B. foolproof
C. lintfree
D. fire-resistant
37. The GCU ensures the _____ power quality of the
aircraft electrical system.
A. requested
B. required
C. prerequisite
D. redundant
38. If the amplifier output signal disappears or becomes
too _____, a search cycle is triggered.
A. hard
B. strong
C. soft
D. weak
39. The height information has been duplicated, allowing
a _____ comparison of the computed heights.
A. cross
B. mean
C. relevant
D. digital
44. Unwanted electrical power _____ be dangerous.

A. has to
B. should
C. must
D. can
45. Do not touch the strobe lights for at least 5 minutes
after operation. The strobe light _____ still be hot.
A. must
B. shall
C. will
D. should
46. The computer is active _____ the aircraft is supplied
with electrical power.
A. until
B. as long as
C. unless
D. whereas
47. The EICAS shows the TEST IN PROGRESS message
_____ the test is in progress.
A. while
B. during
C. although
D. whatever
48. A data item is encoded in one or in the other or in the
two languages _____ necessary.
A. also
B. and
C. so
D. as
49. Both APs can be engaged _____ the ILS approach
mode is selected.
A. but
B. as soon as
C. although
D. thus
50. When a longitudinal mode is engaged, it is associated
with an A/THR mode if the autothrust is engaged.
_____, the AP may be engaged in longitudinal mode
without A/THR engagement.
A. Therefore
B. Moreover
C. However
D. So
40. Remove the _____ bulb from its socket.

A. serviceable
B. alternating
C. defective
D. spare
51. Do not remove the captive bolts and _____ from the
contactor.
A. bonding straps
B. spring washers
C. clamps
D. hoses
41. Uneven or ragged faces _____ not seat properly in

contact or connector.
A. should
B. will
C. shall
D. must
52. In the cockpit, make sure that these _____ are

released:
A. pushbutton switches
B. terminal blocks
C. circuit breakers
D. wire looms
42. Splices _____ not be installed inside connector

backshells/adapters.
A. will
B. may
C. would
D. shall
53. Make sure that the _____ is in position on the access

door.
A. tag
B. flag
C. warning notice
D. annunciator
43. Electrocution is _____ if the AC or DC power stays

connected.
A. possible
B. mandatory
C. preferred
D. optional
54. Remove the blanking _____ from the electrical

connectors.
A. plugs
B. taps
C. caps
D. straps
Page 31

A. crimping lugs
B. backshell
C. cable ties
D. lampholder
56. Put the _____ of the voltmeter on the structure
adjacent to the bonding points.
A. pins
B. stubs
C. lugs
D. prods
57. Insulation test, 500 volt (nominal), with the related test
_____.
A. harnesses
B. leads
C. wires
D. looms
58. The resistivity test _____ measures the continuity of
the antistatic paint in relation to the aircraft metallic
structure.
A. can
B. set
C. calipers
D. case
59. _____ the contacts on the board.
A. crimp
B. weld
C. bond
D. solder
60. Carefully pull the _____ to remove the head of the
pushbutton switch.
A. extractor
B. probe
C. screwdriver
D. clip
61. The following conditions must be _____.
A. fulfilled
B. filled in
C. filled out
D. filled
62. The modules must be handled with extreme care.
_____ in rigid anti-static containers.
A. Stand
B. Stow
C. Store
D. Stay
63. Use a heat sink on the leads to _____ damage to the
device.
A. provide
B. prevent
C. process
D. warn
64. The human body generates and _____ static
electricity.
A. remains
B. stays
C. retains
D. requires
65. The OFF legend of the IDG pushbutton switch will
_____ if a correct reset of the disconnect mechanism
has occurred.
A. go off
B. switch off
C. cut off
D. turn off
66. NOTE: The reflector is only at the aisle ballast unit.

A. 22 - autoflight
B. 31 - instruments
C. 33 - lighting
D. 34 - navigation
67. The aircraft systems send their parameters in parallel
to the two CMCs. This is ATA chapter:
A. 24 - elec. power
C. 34 - navigation
D. 45 - centralized maintenance
68. The RETARD mode is available only in automatic
landing. This is ATA chapter:
A. 22 - autoflight
B. 31 - instruments
C. 34 - navigation
69. Release the EMER GEN TEST pushbutton switch. This
is ATA chapter:
A. 22 - autoflight
B. 24 - elec. power
C. 31 - instruments
70. On the FCU, on the EFIS control panels, set the ROSE
VOR mode. This is page block:
A. 201
B. 401
C. 501
D. 601
71. Be careful not to scratch the metal. The diameter or
width of the area you thus clean to bare metal must be
larger than the diameter or width of the fastener or
terminal by 2 mm to 4 mm. The terminal must be
_____ the prepared surface _____.
A. the same size as / to 2-4 mm
B. larger than / by 2 to 4 mm
C. smaller than / by 2 to 4 mm
D. the same size as / or 2 to 4 mm smaller
72. Install the new white chamfered silicone seal on the
ignition lead. The small diameter collar of the
chamfered silicone seal must be put into the large
collar of the caged spring assembly.
A. insert the lead into the spring
B. insert the seal into the spring
C. insert the small collar into the large one
D. insert the larger collar into the lead
73. On the FCU, engage AP2. Make sure that the load
threshold of the rudder pedals is more than that of
step 3 (the load you apply to the pedals must be
below the new load threshold).
A. you must overcome the load thresholds
B. you must not overcome the load threshold
C. you disengage the autopilot
D. you apply less pressure than in step 3
74. Output voltage of the ignition unit is dangerous and
could be lethal. Make sure it is de-energized and
grounded before input and output leads are
disconnected. Do not touch center contact of output
terminal. You must ground:
A. the center contact
B. the input and output leads
C. the capacitor
D. the ignition unit
Page 32
75. If you must replace the ECB and the APU Memory
Module, replace the Module first. After you have
replaced it, do the APU BITE test. This automatically
keeps the APU life data with the APU. In order not to
lose APU data, you must:
A. replace the ECB first
B. download the data from the memory module
C. do the APU BITE test
D. replace the Memory Module, then do the APU BITE
test
76. The Runway-Turnoff Lights System has two light
units. Each light unit has a 28 VAC 150 Watt single
filament lamp and a step-down transformer. The
transformer decreases the 115 VAC bus-bar supply to
28 VAC. If you lose one transformer, you lose:
A. 1 light
B. 2 lights
C. nothing
D. brightness
77. The microcomputer checks the validity of the
incoming word. It also sends data to the synthesizer
and voltage to the transceiver which it tunes to the
selected channel frequency. The _____ uses _____ to
tune the transceiver.
A. microcomputer / frequency
B. synthesizer / words
C. microcomputer / voltage
D. synthesizer / voltage
78. One ECU is healthy for autothrust engagement if the
comparison between the thrust target computed by
the auto-thrust basic loop and the thrust target given
by each ECU is not greater than 10% RPM. ATHR
engagement has a _______ tolerance of 10%.
A. speed
B. current thrust / target thrust
C. two target thrust
D. manual / auto thrust
79. ADIRU power consumption includes the supply of 3
Air Data Modules. With ON BAT annunciator, add 0.6
W. With IR annunciator at I = 250 mA, add 1.3 W. Other
annunciators are open/ground discretes. ADIRU
power consumption increases:
A. with all annunciators
B. with the ADMs
C. 0.6 Watts with ON BAT
D. with open/ground discretes
80. WAIT FOR SYSTEM RESPONSE. When the response
time is short, no message is sent to the scratchpad. If
the response display exceeds 1s, this message is
displayed. If the system responds within 3s, the
message is cleared. The message is displayed in:
A. < 1 second
B. = 1 second
C. > 1 second
D. 1-3 seconds
TEST 8
1.
The MCDU slew _____ (arrow up and arrow down)

adjacent to the LAT indication are shown.
A. keys
B. prompts
C. legends
D. knob
2.
Lift the safety _____. Push and hold the EMER GEN
TEST pushbutton switch.
A. knob
B. pin
C. lug
D. guard
3.
The _____ of this document is to give the detailed

description of the SD, the logics and associated
controls.
A. purpose
B. display
C. range
D. legend
4.
During the _____ of time or date, only the digits

corresponding to the position of the UTC selector
switch are displayed.
A. sizing
B. setting
C. scanning
D. sampling
5.
For all display _____, only valid data are displayed,

otherwise dashes are displayed.
A. arcs
B. times
C. fields
D. lengths
6.

A. test annunciator and dimming light
B. annunciator light test and dimming
C. annunciator light and test dimming
D. test light and annunciator dimming
7.

A. lateral loss approach mode
B. loss mode lateral approach
C. lateral approach mode loss
D. approach loss lateral mode
8.

A. 28V essential bus contactor
B. 28 V bus essential contactor
C. essential bus 28 V contactor
D. essential bus contactor 28 V
9.

A. various system aircraft interfaces
B. aircraft system various interfaces
C. various interfaces aircraft system
D. various aircraft system interfaces

A. landing gear control light red lever arrow
B. landing gear control lever red arrow light
C. red landing gear lever control arrow light
D. red landing gear control lever light arrow
11. The CMC is the interface _____ the FWCs and the
system BITEs.
A. from
B. to
C. between
D. thru
Page 33
12. 5 VDC is applied _____ pin AB.

A. over
B. around
C. across
D. through
13. The ESS TR powered from AC BUS 1-1 supplies _____
its contactor: - the direct current bus 2 PP.
A. across
B. through
C. on
D. to
14. This lighting system is specially used _____ night for
the check lists.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. to
15. The fire protection system protects the engine pylon
_____ any torching flame from the combustion
chamber.
A. away
B. to
C. beyond
D. against
16. Forces on the landing gear caused by differential tire
pressure have _____ effect on the measurement
accuracy.
A. any
B. not
C. no
D. none
17. _____ BCD data word contains the sign and the
transmitter hardware status in bits 30 and 31.
A. Several
B. Each
C. Both
D. All
22. From a data processing medium, the data loading unit

is used to _____ the data bases.
A. ondate
B. update
C. downdate
D. indate
23. These disk-_____ data can be _____ analyzed on the
ground.
A. storing / direct
B. storing / director
C. stored / direct
D. stored / directly
24. Set the ANN LT switch to DIM. The annunciators that
come on during the job _____ get _____.
A. set-up / dimmer
B. set-on / dimming
C. set-up / dimming
D. set-on / dimmer
25. The galley can be shed _____ by _____ the
COMMERCIAL pushbutton switch.
A. complete / push
B. completed / pushing
C. completely / pushing
D. completed / pushed
26. The CMC _____ and _____ the data transmitted by the
BITEs.
A. achieves / performs
B. acquires / processes
C. actuates / prints
D. applies / provides
27. This action _____ the identification and/or
confirmation of fault conditions.
A. computes
B. contains
C. covers
D. consists of
18. Put _____ blanking caps on the disconnected

electrical connectors.
A. the
B. some
C. D. any
28. The PMG rotor causes an alternating flux in the

winding. This alternating flux _____ an alternating
voltage.
A. induces
B. introduces
C. includes
D. inserts
19. The printer communicates with _____ system at a

time.
A. a
B. the
C. one
D. all
29. When at least one inertial position _____ valid, the FM

position is initialized to the mixed IR position.
A. begins
B. goes
C. becomes
D. appears
20. Remove _____ blanking caps from the electrical

connectors.
A. the
B. some
C. D. many
30. Install the screws and _____ them to between 0.49

and 0.68m.daN.
A. safety
B. tighten
C. turn
D. loosen
21. The weather radar system is _____ used to detect and

localize various types of atmospheric disturbances in
the area _____ by the antenna.
A. mainly / scanning
B. main / scanning
C. mainly / scanned
D. main / scanned
31. On the SD, the AC ESS indication _____ green again

and the synoptic diagram _____.
A. become / modified
B. becomes / is modifying
C. becomes / is modified
D. is becoming / is modified
Page 34
32. The pilot _____ the throttle control levers to the IDLE
position and thus _____ manual control of the thrust
at landing.
A. moves / takes
B. moves / to take
C. move / take
D. moves / taking
33. In the right window, with the dual selector knob,
_____ the frequency of a station that _____.
A. setting / transmitted
B. set / transmits
C. to set / transmits
D. set / is transmitted
34. RMP 2 and 3 _____ the last frequencies _____.
A. shows / using
B. show / using
C. is showing / to use
D. show / used
35. When the IR is off, the output buses _____ and the IR
FAULT legend _____.
A. disable / inhibit
B. is disabled/ is inhibited
C. are disabled / are inhibited
D. are disabled / is inhibited
36. The CLR and STS key lights come on when the
corresponding bits are _____ to 1.
A. timed
B. split
C. tuned
D. set
37. The TCAS II system is designed to provide the air
traffic control system with this _____ possibility.
A. prior
B. subsequent
C. additional
D. various
38. The cockpit loudspeakers broadcast _____ warnings.
A. aural
B. red
C. visual
D. twin
39. These systems have the capacity of memorizing data
concerning the faults detected on the _____ flight.
A. miscellaneous
B. next
C. actual
D. last
40. The AC essential busbar and the AC _____ essential
busbar are normally supplied in parallel from AC BUS
1-1.
A. suitable
B. sheddable
C. dimmable
D. retractable
41. Some components have dangerous voltages which
_____ kill or injure you.
A. need
B. can
C. should
D. must
42. Do not touch the lamp glass with your fingers. The
oils from your skin _____ quickly cause deterioration
of the lamp.
A. must
B. have to
C. will
D. should
43. All live circuits _____ be isolated.

A. are to
B. may
C. might
D. would
44. When the item you _____ bond has a bonding tab or
rivet, it is not necessary to remove the surface
protection.
A. may
B. must
C. can
D. do
45. Push the line key adjacent to the A/C STATUS
indication. The A/C STATUS page _____ come into
view.
A. should
B. will
C. can
D. must
46. On the ground, in the acceleration stop configuration,
the dome light is automatically activated _____ the
position of the switches.
A. however
B. due to
C. whatever
D. according to
47. The System Isolation Contactor closes automatically
when GEN3 and EXT PWR A are not available and
APU GEN is available _____ supply network 3 from
the APU GEN.
A. due to
B. so
C. provided
D. in order to
48. _____ a given fault has been determined, an
indication of the fault is written in the NUM.
A. Once
B. Although
C. Before
D. Whereas
49. The localizer operates in a frequency band which
ranges from 108.1 MHz to 111.95 MHz _____ defined
by ARINC specification 710.
A. regardless
B. as
C. since
D. however
50. Each lobe is modulated at 90 or 150 Hz, _____ an
aircraft flying down the centerline would receive a
signal with equal levels of each tone.
A. so that
B. because
C. whilst
D. in order to
51. Remove the ballast unit with the _____.
A. guide blocks
B. lampholder
C. pushbutton
D. terminal cover
52. Remove the controller from the _____.
A. shim
B. shelf
C. shunt
D. shaft
Page 35
53. Make a bead of sealant around the _____ of the

engine scan light.
A. lug
B. strap
C. board
D. flange
54. Remove the igniter _____ from the terminals.
A. thermocouple
B. harness
C. spacer
D. wire
55. Hold the lower panel and loosen the three _____ by a
quarter turn.
A. nuts
B. screws
C. bolts
D. Dzus fasteners
56. On the ACP _____ turn the INT reception pushbutton
switch clockwise.
A. correctly
B. suitably
C. smoothly
D. still
57. Do a _____ inspection of the component interface
and/or adjacent area.
A. bonding
B. continuity
C. tapping
D. visual
58. Remove the antenna drive and put it in a _____.
A. can
B. plastic bag
C. flat surface
D. trolley
59. Make sure that the two screws are _____ loose to
permit free movement.
A. lightly
B. sufficiently
C. enough
D. fully
60. Use appropriate _____ to remove 3/8 inch of
insulation.
A. soldering iron
B. wire-strippers
C. pliers
D. cutter
61. Install notices to _____ personnel of the danger.
A. let
B. prevent
C. warn
D. allow
64. This mode is selected by moving the MSU selector

switch from NAV to OFF then to NAV _____ five
seconds.
A. in
B. inside
C. within
D. into
65. When no ADR source is available, the labels 361 and
365 remain valid _____ 30 seconds.
A. for
B. in
C. during
D. since
66. Make sure that the data base numbers of the active
data base are not the same. This is ATA chapter:
A. 34 - navigation
B. 31 - instruments
C. 45 - centralized maintenance
D. 22 - autoflight
67. Make sure that the lamp capsule is in the detached
position when you remove it from an alternate action
switch. This is ATA chapter:
A. 34 - navigation
B. 33 - lighting
C. 31 - instruments
D. 22 - autoflight
68. Remove the static inverter. This is ATA chapter:
A. 24 - elec. power
B. 34 - navigation
D. 31 - instruments
69. Carefully pull the smoke detector away from the
ventilation duct. This is ATA chapter:
A. 24 - elec. power
70. Remove the blanking caps from the electrical
connectors. This is page block:
A. 301
B. 401
C. 501
D. 801
71. In order to make the visual identification of these
holes easier, you can also count them as the fifth and
seventh holes clockwise, starting from the hole
immediately under the horizontal line of the flange
which is at 3 o'clock. The holes are:
A. upper left
B. upper right
C. lower left
D. lower right
62. The _____ current main generation is provided by four 72. On the painted surface, apply two parallel strips (100
Integrated Drive Generators.
mm in length) of 3 m conductive electrical tape, 100
A. alternating
mm away from each other so as to make a square.
B. alternative
Apply the plugs of the megohmmeter on each strip
C. alternated
and read the Square Resistance Rs. You must:
D. alternate
A. form a square of tape
B. form a square of wiring
63. The BITE detects and identifies a failure related to the
C. measure the resistance between the two strips
ADIRS and _____ it to the CMS.
D. connect the strips in parallel
A. advises
B. requires
C. requests
D. reports
Page 36
73. Make sure that the antenna attachment screw-head

recesses have no signs of paint, corrosion or sealant
because the antenna electrical bonding is made
through the attachment screws. You must remove any
paint, corrosion or sealant from:
A. the cavities
B. the antenna
C. the screws
D. the screw heads
74. Make sure that the heating element of the static probe
points in the direction of flight, but not the static
probe between FR27 and FR28 RH, this points to the
rear of the aircraft. Install the left hand static probes
pointing:
A. aft
B. forward except between FR27 and 28
C. aft except between FR27 and 28
D. forward
75. Spiral wrap Scotch 3082 tape over one completed
splice. Cover the entire splice with two wraps. Each
wrap should have a 50% overlap. The first layer
should be opposite the second layer. Place the two
layers:
A. one overlapping half the other
B. in spirals in opposite directions
C. superimposed
D. with insulation between them
76. A discrete enables (ground signal) or inhibits (open
circuit) the UPLOADING function. The LGCIU sends a
ground RH shock absorber compressed and an open
circuit with LH absorber extended. The function is
disabled when _____ MLG is _____.
A. right / compressed
B. left / extended
C. left / compressed
D. right extended
77. A frequency-modulated signal is transmitted towards
the ground, reflected and received after a delay (t)
depending upon the aircraft height above the ground
and the delay in the cables connecting the transceiver
to the antennas. Signal time depends on:
A. airspeed and frequency
B. height and frequency
C. altitude and wiring
D. height and wiring
78. Each channel ensures the three functions.
Reconfiguration for the activated channel therefore
consists in connection of that channel to output
interfaces via ARINC bus to the related control panel.
The activated channel is reconfigured:
A. from the control panel
B. by an ARINC connection
C. using output data
D. by means of three functions
79. If 601 PP is lost, only the right dome light remains. It
is supplied by busbar 403 PP through CB 1LE1. The
three positions of the switch operate. In case of
busbar 601 PP loss, the _____ dome light is supplied
_____ regulation.
A. captain / with
B. captain / without
C. First Officer / with
D. First Officer / without
80. The drive and control board controls the speed and
direction of the tape motion. The tape drive depends
on the run signal, the speed signal and the
forward/reverse command from the track select logic.
The _____ of the tape is controlled.
A. activation
B. activation and speed
C. activation, speed and direction
D. activation, speed, direction and tracks used
Page 37
TEST 9
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
These materials are poisonous and flammable and

_____ irritants.
A. sill
B. skin
C. shim
D. seal
Remove the old _____ from the floor panel and the
component interface with a non-metallic scraper.
A. stringer
B. beam
C. splice
D. sealant
Detailed visual inspection of the forward face of the
rear pressure _____ below the cabin floor.
A. ceiling
B. bulkhead
C. chord
D. partition
Clean the contact areas of the sealing _____ with
cleaning agents with a lint-free cloth.
A. strips
B. straps
C. scratches
D. stripes
Minor damage such as scratches, _____ and marks
can cause cracks and corrosion.
A. dents
B. debonding
C. buckling
D. rupture
A. light circular alloy frames
B. alloy light circular frames
C. light alloy circular frames
D. circular frames light alloy
7.

A. door passenger aft cutout
B. aft passenger door cutout
C. aft cutout passenger door
D. passenger cutout aft door
8.

A. bonded non surface slip
B. bonded non slip surface
C. non bonded surface slip
D. non bonded slip surface
9.

A. carbon procedure identification rod
B. carbon rod procedure identification
C. identification rod carbon procedure
D. carbon rod identification procedure

A. horizontal front stabilizer trimmable spar
B. trimmable horizontal stabilizer front spar
C. front spar trimmable horizontal stabilizer
D. front trimmable horizontal stabilizer spar
11. Obey the special precautions before you start work
_____ the door.
A. through
B. into
C. on
D. to
12. Torque the nut to _____ 0.54 and 0.59 m.daN.
A. through
B. between
C. from
D. around
13. Put an access platform _____ the belly fairing.

A. above
B. over
C. across
D. under
14. Examine the structure of the _____ face of pressure
bulkhead at FR 40 below the wing center box.
A. lower
B. aft
C. under
D. after
15. Make sure that the safety devices and the warning
notices are in position before you start a task on or
_____ the flight controls.
A. off
B. rear
C. near
D. in
16. _____ the mating surfaces of the threaded pins are
chrome-plated.
A. None
B. All
C. Most
D. Each
17. Bushes are installed in _____ shackle point.
A. each
B. all
C. many
D. no
18. These access doors are located on _____ side of the
pylon box.
A. both
B. all
C. three
D. either
19. The skin panels extend the _____ length of the
fuselage.
A. equal
B. all
C. same
D. whole
20. Put on _____ protective clothing.
A. a
B. the
C. D. some
21. The pylon bar is secured to the wing by shackles
reinforced with corrosion-_____ steel.
A. less
B. resistant
C. proof
D. free
22. Two _____, for the installation of static _____, are
attached to the lightning conductor.
A. retainers / discharging
B. retainings / discharging
C. retainers / dischargers
D. retainings / dischargers
23. Remove the _____ sealant and release agent around
the work area with _____ agents.
A. remaining / cleaning
B. remained / cleaned
C. remaining / cleaned
D. remained / cleaning
Page 38
24. Make sure that the floor _____ are _____ fastened on
the floor structure.
A. panel / correctly
B. panels / correctly
C. panel / correct
D. panels / correct
25. If you install a new support strut, drill and ream the
support strut with the DEVICE-_____ AND _____.
A. DRILLED / REAMED
B. DRILLS / REAMS
C. DRILL / REAM
D. DRILLING / REAMING
26. Make sure that the ground safety locks are correctly
installed on the landing gear. This _____ unwanted
movement of the landing gear.
A. permits
B. provides
C. prevents
D. supplies
27. Remove and _____ the cotter pin.
A. discard
B. disconnect
C. display
D. distort
28. _____ a thin layer of common grease.
A. Hold
B. Install
C. Apply
D. Release
29. Install the ligature cord MISCELLANEOUS (Material
No. 19-008) so that it _____ approximately 250.0 mm
over the floor panel ends.
A. expands
B. presses
C. extracts
D. protrudes
30. Some skin panels are chemically _____ in areas to
which high loads are applied.
A. riveted
B. milled
C. countersunk
D. drilled
31. _____ sure that the attachment fittings _____ in the
correct condition.
A. Make / be
B. To make / are
C. Make / are
D. Making / is
32. The upper section of the center wing box _____ of two
skin panels _____ between the front spar and the
center spar.
A. consist / located
B. consists / located
C. consist / locating
D. consists / locating
33. _____ the old sealant from the mating surface _____ a
non-metallic scraper.
A. To remove / using
B. To remove / used
C. Remove / using
D. Remove / to use
34. _____ sure of the correct installation of the removed
screws _____ the positions of the removed screws.
A. Make / to record
B. To make / recording
C. Make / record
D. To make / record
35. _____ a torch _____ the inspection.

A. Take / to do
B. To take / do
C. Taking / does
D. Take / doing
36. For high aircraft performance, it is necessary that the
aircraft has an aerodynamically clean shape and a
_____ external surface.
A. clear
B. smooth
C. shiny
D. steady
37. The seals must be sufficiently _____ to form an air
tight seal and not come into the airflow.
A. compressed
B. stiff
C. loose
D. expanded
38. Polish the _____ metal with SPECIAL MATERIALS
(Material No. 05-025) and a lint-free cloth.
A. missing
B. rounded
C. flammable
D. bare
39. The surface coating for aluminum-alloy components
is _____ chromating or chromic acid anodizing.
A. white
B. gray
C. yellow
D. brown
40. Tighten the bolts before the sealant becomes _____.
A. moist
B. dry
C. soft
D. wet
41. Be careful when you release the leaf spring. The
tension in the spring _____ cause injury.
A. will
B. must
C. should
D. can
42. All objects _____ to be secured before you start work
in this area.
A. must
B. are
C. should
D. shall
43. Safety precautions _____ be respected at all times.
A. shall
B. could
C. would
D. may
44. A sudden movement _____ cause damage to the
equipment.
A. must
B. will
C. should
D. could
45. Impact damage and scratches _____ be found in this
area.
A. would
B. may
C. must
D. should
Page 39
46. The structure is an extension to the lower fuselage

_____ contains air-conditioning equipment.
A. but
B. and
C. if
D. when
47. _____ the cabin pressure is below a certain value,
springs hold the valves open and let the water
condensation drain out.
A. So
B. Due to
C. However
D. If
48. When a repair or cleaning procedure removes the
original surface protection, the protective treatment
must _____ be repaired.
A. thus
B. until
C. also
D. however
49. Any panels with cracks must be repaired, _____ their
length.
A. depending on
B. irrespective of
C. according to
D. as a result of
50. A polyurethane top coat is applied _____ give
protection to the structure.
A. providing
B. due to
C. because
D. in order to
51. Remove the nuts, the _____ and the bolts.
A. bushings
B. collars
C. washers
D. spacers
52. Remove the screws and the spherical _____
assembly.
A. fitting
B. bearing
C. sealing
D. bonding
A. bonding strap
B. fastener
C. cotter pin
D. double hex. nut
54. Remove the support _____.
A. strut
B. shaft
C. groove
D. shim
55. Pre-assemble the link assembly with the adjustable
_____.
A. captive bolts
B. rings
C. spacers
D. lock nuts
56. Make sure that the tool _____ go into the nut slots
which do not contain the lockwasher tabs.
A. spacers
B. lugs
C. grooves
D. threads
57. Put the installation tool core in the _____ extended

position.
A. manually
B. slowly
C. carefully
D. fully
58. Attach a _____ capable of lifting 1,500 Kg.
A. shackle
B. strap
C. beam
D. hoist
59. Put _____ in position at the rudder.
A. an adjustable access platform
B. a jack
C. a fire extinguisher
D. a trolley
60. Wear and attach a _____ when you work on high
sections. A fall can kill or injure you.
A. safety barrier
B. safety net
C. safety harness
D. safety pin
61. The slat mounting brackets are installed on the
forward face of the front _____.
A. spares
B. pans
C. spars
D. spans
62. Struts attach the shroud box to the fuselage through
_____ installed on the inboard rib.
A. fillets
B. fairings
C. fittings
D. fixtures
63. The nose/forward fuselage _____ from FR 0 to FR 18.
A. expands
B. extends
C. extracts
D. extrudes
64. Remove the 3 m length of rubber sealing _____.
A. strap
B. stripe
C. tip
D. strip
65. Apply a _____ of sealant to the clearances between
the panels.
A. bead
B. bed
C. head
D. seat
66. Put the wing tip in the correct position using the
SLING-WING TIP. This is ATA chapter:
A. 53 - fuselage
B. 54 - pylons
C. 55 - stabilizers
D. 57 - wings
67. Remove the door frame lining panels. This is ATA
chapter:
A. 53 - fuselage
B. 56 - windows
C. 52 - doors
D. 55 - stabilizers
Page 40
68. Installation of the pylon-to-engine attach fittings. This

is ATA chapter:
A. 54 - pylons
B. 55 - stabilizers
C. 52 - doors
D. 56 - windows
69. Remove the textile floor covering. This is ATA
chapter:
A. 57 - wings
B. 52 - doors
C. 53 - fuselage
D. 55 - stabilizers
70. The length of the damage shows as a dark line on the
graph paper. This is page block:
A. 201
B. 401
C. 501
D. 601
71. Apply a continuous fillet of sealant along the repair
area. NOTE: The repair must have an overlap of at
least 12.5 mm on the sealant adjacent to the repair.
The repair part must overlap the existing sealant by:
A.
>6.5 mm
B.
>12.5 mm
72. To do the inspection of the forward shackles, remove

the shackles on one side, with the shackles of the
opposite side installed. Inspect the _____ shackles.
A. left then right
B. left and right
C. forward then rear
D. forward and rear
73. Do not remove the soft liner from the windshield. If it
is necessary to replace the soft liner, you must
remove the windshield and send it to the vendor. If
the inner surface of the windshield is damaged:
A. repair it
B. replace it
C. send the whole assembly to the supplier
D. contact the supplier
74. Be careful when you go into the center wing box. You
can cause damage to the carbon rods. You may cause
damage because of:
A. limited access
B. composite materials
C. sharp tools
D. incorrect procedures
75. To prevent contamination of the cleaning agent, put
the clean agent to the cloth. You should always:
A. use a new cloth
B. use fresh cleaning agent
C. pour the cleaning agent on the cloth
D. replace the plug on the container
76. Raceways contain some electrical cables. They are
made in U-sections from aluminum alloy with a nylon
coating. The mounting brackets are installed on the
forward face of the front spar and the aft face of the
rear spar. Wiring is routed _____ .
A. along the wing trailing edge
B. throughout the wing
C. along the wing leading edge
D. along the wing leading and trailing edges.
77. Two hinge arms connect the door to the fuselage.

They are made of machined aluminum. Each hinge
arm is attached to the door at two points. The lower
attach point has an adjustable shockmount. The door
has _____ attachment fittings.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
78. The skin panels are attached to the front spar and to
the ribs. Hi-Loc fasteners attach them to the front spar
and ribs. Honeycomb cores make them stronger.
Screws connect the aft joint of the skin panels. This is
the:
A. forward fuselage
B. pressure bulkhead
C. elevator box
D. tail cone
79. The spar is made of resin-fiber composite, which is
bonded to a honeycomb core. It has holes which
make it lighter and also give access to the inside of
the main rudder structure. The holes are designed for:
A. access and ventilation
B. access and weightsaving
C. cables and ventilation
D. access and cables
80. The horizontal pressure bulkhead extends from the
wing center box FR 47 to FR 53.2. This bulkhead
consists of a catenary floor with longitudinal beams
and a floor support structure. The horizontal pressure
bulkhead is located:
A. above the nose landing gear wheel well
B. from the wing center box to FR 47
C. from the wing center box to FR 53.2
D. level with the wings
Page 41
TEST 10
13. Carefully put a non-metallic wedge _____ the fuselage

skin and the scuff plates.
A. along
B. between
C. from
D. across
1.
Measure the _____ of the scratch.

A. height
B. duration
C. depth
D. weight
2.
Remove all the paint from the area with abrasive

_____ grade 280.
A. clothes
B. lint-free
C. scale
D. cloth
14. Apply SPECIAL MATERIALS (Material No. 05-013)

_____ the panel and the related surfaces of the
aircraft.
A. at
B. to
C. onto
D. across
3.
Put the drilling gage in position on the drilling _____

and install the knurled screws.
A. lathe
B. jack
C. ream
D. jig
15. With the installation tool, move the front window

panel in position _____ the center post.
A. forward
B. against
C. rear
D. upper
4.
The bottom structure between FR0 and FR19 includes

a nose landing gear bay which has _____ panels.
A. flushed
B. machined
C. reworked
D. embedded
16. Make sure that the floor panels have _____ damage,
scratches, dents or holes.
A. not any
B. any
C. none
D. no
5.
There is a _____ between FR59 and FR65 for the aft

cargo-compartment door.
A. cut-out
B. close-up
C. pick-up
D. feed-through
17. Put _____ blanking plugs on the disconnected line

ends.
A. any
B. C. the
D. a
6.

A. fairing fillet triangular rudder
B. triangular fillet rudder fairing
C. triangular fairing rudder fillet
D. triangular rudder fillet fairing
7.

A. trimmable horizontal stabilizer attachment fitting
B. attachment stabilizer trimmable horizontal fitting
C. horizontal trimmable stabilizer fitting attachment
D. fitting attachment trimmable horizontal stabilizer
18. The primary structural components of the stabilizer

are made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. _____
other components are made of Glass Fiber Reinforced
Plastic.
A. All
B. Every
C. Each
D. More
8.
9.

A. cargo compartment door forward bracket hinge
B. forward cargo compartment bracket hinge door
C. cargo compartment door forward hinge bracket
D. forward cargo compartment door hinge bracket
A. round type hose seal
B. round hose type seal
C. seal type round hose
D. round type seal hose

A. cross bracket support beam
B. cross beam support bracket
C. beam support cross bracket
D. beam bracket cross support
11. Use solvents, sealants and other special materials
only with a good flow of air _____ the work area.
A. through
B. around
C. along
D. from
12. Make sure that the access platform is in position
_____ the maintenance door.
A. behind
B. above
C. beyond
D. below
19. Remove _____ roller bearing (10).

A. B. the
C. a
D. both
20. Use _____ indelible marker to identify the position of
the side pad.
A. a
B. one
C. the
D. an
21. Remove the old sealant from the _____ surface with a
non-metallic _____.
A. mated / scraping
B. mating / scraper
C. mated / scraper
D. mating / scraping
22. Support struts and _____ beams support the cabin
floor structure.
A. standing
B. cross
C. twin
D. inter
23. The lower part of the assembly contains the forward
cargo-compartment door-_____.
A. cutout
B. cutaway
C. cutthrough
D. cutaround
Page 42
24. Remove the _____ _____ strips.

A. damaged / sealed
B. damaging / sealed
C. damaged / sealing
D. damaged / sealed
25. Clean the surface with a lint-_____ cloth.
A. less
B. ness
C. resistant
D. free
26. Crossbeams, which are attached to the frames, _____
the mechanical strength of the assembly.
A. include
B. contain
C. increase
D. extend
27. All the mating surfaces of the threaded pin are
chrome _____.
A. plated
B. bonded
C. treated
D. cured
28. The pylon bar is _____ to the wing by the forward
shackles.
A. disconnected
B. safetied
C. located
D. secured
29. Movement of components can _____ or _____
persons.
A. hit / damage
B. kill / damage
C. kill / injure
D. hit / injure
35. _____ the surface _____ an approved solvent.

A. Clean / to use
B. To clean / using
C. Cleaning / to use
D. Clean / using
36. Remove the old sealants with a _____ or plastic
scraper.
A. serrated
B. tapered
C. wooden
D. sharp
37. The longitudinal beams and crossbeams are made of
_____ caps and clad sheet webs.
A. extracted
B. extruded
C. expanded
D. extended
38. Do not open the radome if the wind speed is _____
than 35 knots.
A. larger
B. wider
C. higher
D. harder
39. Make sure that the scratch is not more than 0.5 mm
_____.
A. long
B. deep
C. thick
D. wide
40. The skin panels are made of 2024 _____.
A. stainless steel
B. compound material
C. steel alloy
D. aluminum alloy
30. If you _____ corrosion damage, refer to the Structural

Repair Manual for types, inspection, removal and
corrosion protection.
A. appear
B. tell
C. display
D. find
41. The rod _____ be re-installed if you do not use the

proper fittings.
A. can
B. may
C. cannot
D. should
31. If you _____ the fitting, _____ a layer of primer.

A. will replace / apply
B. replace / apply
C. replace / to apply
D. are replacing / to apply
42. You _____ special materials to perform the

inspection.
A. need
B. must
C. have to
D. would
32. Put the warning notices in position _____ persons not

_____ the cargo door.
A. tell / opening
B. telling / open
C. to tell / to open
D. tell / to open
43. Make sure that the part _____ move freely.

A. should
B. must
C. may
D. can
33. The crossbeams _____ _____ holes.

A. have / lightened
B. has / lightened
C. have / lightening
D. has / lightening
44. You _____ not use any sharp tools.

A. would
B. should
C. will
D. may
34. The floor panels _____ of honeycomb core, which

_____ between sheets of composite materials.
A. are made / is bonded
B. are made / are bonded
C. made / are bonded
D. are made / bonds
45. Ground locks _____ be installed on all the gears.

A. could
B. will
C. must
D. need
Page 43
46. It is not necessary to replace the structure _____ the

damage is less than half an inch from the attachment
holes.
A. if
B. because
C. unless
D. provided
47. All cracks must be repaired _____ their length.
A. according to
B. whatever
C. depending on
D. however
48. Perform the inspection _____ specified in SRM 53-1116.
A. per
B. as
C. while
D. once
49. _____ you use the hoisting points you must remove
the plugs and install the hoisting lugs.
A. When
B. In order to
C. Thus
D. As long as
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58. Make sure that the safety _____ and the warning
notices are in position before you start a task.
A. kit
B. device
C. fixtures
D. procedure
59. Use the related tool from the tool _____.
A. set
B. container
C. stand
D. shop
60. _____ pull the sleeve from its housing.
A. Quickly
B. Quietly
C. Correctly
D. Carefully
61. _____ the clamping levers of the drilling gage.
A. Loose
B. Lose
C. Loss
D. Loosen
62. _____ the bolts with new cotter pins.

A. Security
B. Safety
C. Safe
Install the bolts _____ do not tighten them at this time.
D. Secure
A. if
63. Wear protective _____.
B. and
A. clothing
C. then
B. cloths
D. but
C. fabrics
Remove the old sealant from the _____ surfaces of
D. cloth
the elevator leading edge panels.
64. Make sure that you use the _____ revision of the SRM
A. bonding
procedure.
B. splicing
A. standby
C. hoisting
B. current
D. mating
C. previous
Remove and discard the _____.
D. actual
A. tab washer
65. Cut a groove 65 mm long and 12 mm _____.
B. bolt head
A. large
C. sleeves
B. high
D. flanges
C. wide
Install the _____ in its housing.
D. thick
A. collar
66. Removal of the THS Front Spar Box Access Panel.
B. bracket
C. bearing
D. lug
A. 53 - fuselage
B. 54 - pylons
Lubricate the screw _____.
C. 55 - stabilizers
A. splines
D. 57 - wings
B. threads
67. Detailed Visual Inspection of the Outer-Wing Fixed
C. shank
Leading Edge Lower Roller Pin Holes. This is ATA
D. head
chapter:
Put a _____ to tell persons not to supply power to the
A. 57 - wings
ECU.
B. 56 - windows
A. safety pin
C. 55 - stabilizers
B. label
D. 54 - pylons
C. warning notice
68. Clean the outer surface of the windshields with a
D. flag
sponge and a solution 1/3 cleaning agent 2/3 water.
Tighten the turnbuckles with _____ .
A. your hands
A. 57 - wings
B. a torque wrench
B. 56 - windows
C. a screwdriver
C. 55 - stabilizers
D. a hammer
D. 54 - pylons
Use the _____ and remove the slotted nut.
A. pneumatic gun
B. notched wrench
C. Allen key
D. extractor
Page 44
69. Remove the protective linings of the forward cargocompartment. This is ATA chapter:
A. 55 - stabilizers
B. 57 - wings
C. 52 - doors
D. 53 - fuselage
70. Removal of Rudder Hinge Bearing No. 4. This is page
block:
A. 201
B. 301
C. 401
D. 601
77. The skin panels are made of aluminum alloy sheet

and chemically milled in areas to which high loads are
applied. Antichafing plates are installed between FR
85 and FR91 around the horizontal stabilizer cutouts.
_____ surround the THS installation.
A. Chafing plates
B. Chemically-milled panels
C. Ordinary aluminum alloy panels
D. Stiffeners
78. The forward secondary structure is made up of: - 10

ribs - 2 sealed longitudinal webs - 1 lower cap - 1 fixed
fairing - 6 removable panels - 1 pressure relief door hinge fittings for the thrust reversers. You are on:
A. the wing
71. Beginning at the forward edge and working rearwards
B. the vertical stabilizer
tighten the nuts in small increments so that the
C. the pylon
clamping bars hold the fairing assembly fully engaged
D. the horizontal stabilizer
on the fairing supports.
A. only partially tighten the nuts
79. Most of the shroud box is made from composite
B. tighten the nuts gradually
material, but it has 5 ribs of aluminum alloy. The
C. tighten the nuts at the forward and rear edges
trailing edge of the shroud box has a honeycomb core
D. tighten the nuts at both sides
and a rubbing strip made of Fabroid. _____ the
72. Put the removal tool core in the fully extended
position: make sure that its inner face aligns with the
bottom internal face of the outer tab lockwasher body.
Align the _____ face of the tool with the _____ part of
the lockwasher.
A. inner / internal
B. extended / internal
C. inner / outer
D. extended / outer
73. You must mix the base compound and accelerator of
the sealant slowly to an even consistency and color.
Fast mixing will cause heat and air bubbles and
shorten the application life of the sealant. You must
not prepare the compound too _____.
A. quickly
B. late
C. slowly
D. early
74. Excessive white light will interfere with detection of a
rejectable size indication. A test part having a known
defect can be used to evaluate effectiveness of white
light shielding. You may need a _____ to do this
inspection.
A. measure
B. sample
C. shield
D. second light source
75. NOTE: Parts to be cleaned before being subjected to
the inspection process. Plug or cap tubes and holes
in the area to be inspected to prevent inspection
materials from being entrapped. You must take action
to avoid:
A. mismatching
B. corrosion
C. interference
D. contamination
76. The floor panels are made of honeycomb core bonded
between composite sheets. A core filler makes the
panels at the edges and the screw hole area stronger.
The _____ strengthen the attachment area.
A. composite materials
B. panels
C. core fillers
D. sheets
shroud box has a honeycomb core.

A. all
B. the front of
C. the top of
D. the rear of
80. The fan cowls are made from epoxy skins that contain
a Nomex honeycomb core and copper screen. Lands
provide an interface with the intake cowl at the
forward end, and with the thrust reverser at the aft
end. The rear edge of the fan cowls touches:
A. the exhaust nozzle
B. the turbine casing
C. the thrust reverser
D. the pylon fillets
ANSWER KEYS FOR AIRCRAFT ENGLISH TESTS

TEST 1
TEST 2
TEST 3
TEST 3B
TEST 4
TEST 5
TEST 6
TEST 7
TEST 8
TEST 9
TEST 10
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Test 1: Aircraft English Tests

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Test 1: Aircraft English Tests

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Aircraft English Tests

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

13. Torque the union to _____ 120 and 140 lbf.

A warning _____ appears in the window.

Put a _____ of sealant along the joint.

14. The green LAND RCVRY indication comes _____ view

Use the _____ to adjust the cable.

15. Put the aircraft _____ to its initial configuration.

Each task _____ is identified with a letter in

16. The static inverter is active in flight and on the ground

Put a _____ below the drain port.

17. The ECU is _____ vibration-isolated single unit

Choose the correct group of words.

Choose the correct group of words.

Choose the correct group of words.

10. Choose the correct group of words.

18. _____ ECU channel receives data from the two

11. Make sure that the ENG/MASTER switch is _____ OFF.

22. The pitch trim actuator has three brush_____ DC

23. The BITE facilitates maintenance on _____-service

Aircraft English Tests

24. A restrict_____ pack installed in port B controls the

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

38. The air conditioning compartment ventilation system

29. To _____ the maintenance personnel, this cover is

40. The basic fan frame structure is made of _____ alloy.

30. The thermo-sensitive elements trigger the fire

41. Aerodynamic forces _____ cause unwanted

Aircraft English Tests

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

46. The nuts are safetied _____ prevent unwanted

58. Install the removed engine in a _____.

47. The warning is triggered _____ the flight phase.

59. A toolkit contains a _____.

48. Fill the tank _____ the high level is reached.

60. Mix the fluids _____.

49. The generator is disconnected _____ an overload.

61. If unsatisfactory, do the _____ step again.

50. The blower fan is inoperative _____ the equipment

62. _____ and sign the job card.

51. Insert a _____ on the nose landing gear steering box.

63. De-energize the aircraft electrical _____.

Aircraft English Tests

70. When the reservoir is empty, tighten the screw. This

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

79. During retraction of the main landing gear, the

Aircraft English Tests

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

Pitch trim _____ can become difficult to move.

The aft cargo compartment comprises four _____.

14. A pressure regulating valve controls the air pressure

Make sure that the travel _____ of the flight controls

15. Each wing is divided _____ two subsystems.

The _____ opens the poppet when the upstream

Examine all the ducts, _____ and check valves for

Choose the correct group of words.

Choose the correct group of words.

Choose the correct group of words.

Choose the correct group of words.

10. Choose the correct group of words.

16. _____ servo control is connected to two flight control

Aircraft English Tests

Prepared by Chu The Cuong QA-A76

35. The IP check valve _ _ any air recirculation