Acoustics

1.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which best describe the sound wave?

It may be longitudinal
It is always transverse
It is always longitudinal
All of the above

2.
Which of the following can not travel through a
vacuum?
a.
Electromagnetic wave
b.
Radio wave
c.
Soundwave
d.
Light wave
3.
Through which medium does sound travel
fastest?
a.
Air
b.
Water
c.
Steel
d.
Mercury
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Speed that is faster than that of sound.

Ultrasonic
Supersonic
Subsonic
Transonic

5.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the speed of sound in air at 20C?

1087 ft/s
1100 ft/s
1126 ft/s
200 ft/s

6.
Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound
of 16000 Hz
a.
35 ft
b.
10 ft
c.
0.035 ft
d.
100 ft

7.
The lowest frequency that a human ear can
hear is
a.
5 Hz
b.
20 Hz
c.
30 Hz
d.
20 Hz

13.
When waves bend away from straight lines of
travel, it is called
a.
Reflection
b.
Diffraction
c.
Rarefaction
d.
Refraction

8.
Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for
the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
a.
Subsonic
b.
Ultrasonic
c.
Transonic
d.
Stereo

14.
The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum
displacement of each air particle, is the property
which perceive as _____ of a sound
a.
Pitch
b.
Intensity
c.
Loudness
d.
Harmonics

9.
The frequency interval between two sounds
whose frequency ratio is 10
a.
Octave
b.
Half octave
c.
Third-octave
d.
Decade
10.
A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher
than a 500 Hz sound
a.
2
b.
5
c.
4
d.
8
11.
is a/an
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sound waves composed of but one frequency

Infra sound
Pure tone
Structure borne
Residual sound

12.
Sound wave has two main characteristics
which are
a.
Highness and loudness
b.
Tone and loudness
c.
Pitch and loudness
d.
Rarefactions and compressions

15.
It is the weakest sound that average human
hearing can detect.
a.
SPL = 0 dB
b.
Threshold of hearing
c.
Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2
d.
A, b, c
16.
What is a device that is used to measure the
hearing sensitivity of a person?
a.
Audiometer
b.
OTDR
c.
SLM
d.
Spectrum analyzer
17.
What is the device used in measuring sound
pressure levels incorporating a microphone,
amplification, filtering and a display.
a.
Audiometer
b.
OTDR
c.
SLM
d.
Spectrum analyzer
18.
What weighted scale in a sound level meter
gives a reading that is most closely to the response of
the human ear?
a.
Weighted scale A
b.
Weighted scale B

c.
d.

Weighted scale C
Weighted scale D

19.
For aircraft noise measurements, the
weighting scale that is used is _____.
a.
Weighted scale A
b.
Weighted scale B
c.
Weighted scale C
d.
Weighted scale D
20.
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is the device used to calibrate an SLM?

Microphone
Pistonphone
Telephone
Filter

d.

14 dB

25.
What is the sound intensity for an RMS
pressure of 200 Pascal?
a.
90 W/m2
b.
98 W/m2
c.
108 W/m2
d.
88 W/m2
26.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the pressure is doubled.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6

21.
_____ is the sound power measured over the
area upon which is received.
a.
Sound pressure
b.
Sound energy
c.
Sound intensity
d.
Sound pressure level

27.
The sound pressure level is increased by
_____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6

22.
A measure of the intensity of sound in
comparison to another sound intensity
a.
Phon
b.
Decibel
c.
Pascal
d.
Watts

28.
If four identical sounds are added what is the
increase in level in dB?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6

23.
Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a
sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2.
a.
95 dB
b.
91 dB
c.
98 dB
d.
101 dB

29.
The transmission of sound from one room to
an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.
a.
Flanking transmission
b.
Reflection
c.
Refraction
d.
Reverberation

24.
What is the sound pressure level for a given
sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2?
a.
200 dB
b.
20 dB
c.
140 dB

30.
_____ is the continuing presence of an
audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a.
Flutter echo
b.
Sound concentration

c.
d.

Sound shadow
Reverberation

31.
dB
a.
b.
c.
d.

Required time for any sound to decay to 60

Echo time
Reverberation time
Delay time
Transient time

32.
A room containing relatively little sound
absorption
a.
Dead room
b.
Anechoic room
c.
Live room
d.
Free-field
33.
A room in which the walls offer essentially
100% absorption, therefore simulating free field
conditions.
a.
Dead room
b.
Anechoic room
c.
Live room
d.
Closed room
34.
Calculate the reverberation time of the room,
which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound
absorption 140 sabins.
a.
0.3 sec
b.
3.5 sec
c.
3 sec
d.
0.53 sec
35.
It is an audio transducer that converts
acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical
impulses
a.
Loudspeaker
b.
Amplifier
c.
Baffle
d.
Microphone

36.
_____ is a pressure type microphone with
permanent coil as a transducing element.
a.
Dynamic
b.
Condenser
c.
Magnetic
d.
Carbon
37.
A microphone which has an internal
impedance of 25 k is _____ type.
a.
High impedance
b.
Low impedance
c.
Dynamic
d.
Magnetic
38.
effect
a.
b.
c.
d.

A microphone that uses the piezoelectric

Dynamic
Condenser
Crystal
Carbon

39.
_____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an
effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio
frequency.
a.
Tweeter
b.
Woofer
c.
Mid-range
d.
A or C
40.
_____ is measure of how much sound is
produced from the electrical signal.
a.
Sensitivity
b.
Distortion
c.
Efficiency
d.
Frequency response
41.
It describes the output of a microphone over a
range of frequencies.
a.
Directivity
b.
Sensitivity
c.
Frequency response
d.
All of the above

42.
A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1
mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated
efficiency?
a.
-10 dB
b.
-20 dB
c.
-30 dB
d.
-40 dB
43.
An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a
loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker
is -60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from
it?
a.
10 dB
b.
20 dB
c.
30 dB
d.
40 dB
44.
Speaker is a device that
a.
Converts sound waves into current and
voltage
b.
Converts current variations into sound waves
c.
Converts electrical energy to mechanical
energy
d.
Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic
energy
45.
The impedance of most drivers is about _____
ohms at their resonant frequency.
a.
4
b.
6
c.
8
d.
10
46.
It is a transducer used to convert electrical
energy to mechanical energy.
a.
Microphone
b.
Baffle
c.
Magnetic assemble
d.
Driver

47.
It is an enclosure used to prevent front and
back wave cancellation.
a.
Loudspeaker
b.
Driver
c.
Baffle
d.
Frame
48.
A circuit that divides the frequency
components into separate bands in order to have
individual feeds to the different drivers.
a.
Suspension system
b.
Dividing network
c.
Magnet assembly
d.
Panel board
49.
a.
b.
c.
d.

_____ is early reflection of sound.

Echo
Pure sound
Reverberation
Intelligible sound

50.
movie.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Noise reduction system used for film sound in

Dolby
DBx
dBa
dBk

51.
Using a microphone at less than the
recommended working distance will create a _____
which greatly increases the low frequency signals.
a.
Roll-off
b.
Proximity effect
c.
Drop out
d.
None of the choices
52.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the unit of loudness?

Sone
Phon
Decibel
Mel

53.
A unit of noisiness related to the perceived
noise level
a.
Noy
b.
dB
c.
Sone
d.
Phon
54.
What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its
intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?
a.
100 phons
b.
105 phons
c.
110 phons
d.
100 phons

Broadcasting
55.
What is the process of sending voice, speech,
music or image intended for reception by the general
public?
a.
Navigation
b.
Telephony
c.
Broadcasting
d.
Mixing
56.
What is the frequency tolerance for the RF
carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?
a.
Zero
b.
20 Hz
c.
10 Hz
d.
20 KHz
57.
The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast
station should have a _____ polarization.
a.
Vertical
b.
Horizontal
c.
Circular
d.
Elliptical
58.
The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6
AM local time
a.
Daytime
b.
Nighttime

c.
d.

Bed time
Experimental period

59.
The service area where the signal is not
subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a.
Primary Service Area
b.
Secondary Service Area
c.
Intermittent Service Area
d.
Quarternary Service Area
60.
It is a resistive load used in place of an
antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded
condition without actually radiating the transmitters
output signal.
a.
Auxiliary Tx
b.
Main Tx
c.
Secondary Tx
d.
Artificial Antenna
61.
The operating power of the auxiliary
transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never
greater than the authorized operating power of the
main transmitter.
a.
5
b.
10
c.
15
d.
20
62.
band?
a.
b.
c.
d.

What are the frequency limits of the MF BC

300-3000 kHz
3-30 MHz
535-1605 kHz
88-108 MHz

63.
The center to center spacing between two
adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.
a.
9 kHz
b.
200 kHz
c.
36 kHz
d.
800 kHz

64.
How many AM stations can be
accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest
modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
a.
10
b.
15
c.
7
d.
14
65.
band?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Short wave broadcasting operates in what

MF
HF
VHF
VLF

66.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What does the acronym STL stand for?

Station-to-link
Signal-to-loss-ratio
Shout-to-live
Studio-to-transmitter-link

67.
One of the main considerations in the
selection of antenna site is (AM)
a.
Conductivity of the soil
b.
Height of the terrain
c.
Elevation of the site
d.
Accessibility
68.
One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary
services is:
a.
Remote pick-up
b.
STL
c.
Communication, Coordination and Control
d.
All of the above
69.
What is the spacing between any two adjacent
channels in the FM broadcast band?
a.
20 KHz
b.
36 KHz
c.
200 KHz
d.
800 KHz

70.
The first channel in the FM BC band has a
center frequency of
a.
88 MHz
b.
88.1 MHz
c.
88.3 MHz
d.
108 MHz
71.
What is the radio transmission of two separate
signals, left, and right, used to create a
multidimensional effect on the receiver?
a.
SCA
b.
Stereo system
c.
Pilot transmission
d.
Monophonic
transmission

76.
Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM
system?
a.
Before the matrix at the TX
b.
Before the matrix at the RX
c.
After the matrix at the TX
d.
After the matrix at the RX
77.
Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo
FM system?
a.
Before the matrix at the TX
b.
Before the matrix at the RX
c.
After the matrix at the TX
d.
After the matrix at the RX

72.
The carrier frequency tolerance for FM
broadcasting is _____.
a.
25 kHz
b.
2 kHz
c.
20 kHz
d.
30 kHz

78.
The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier
is _____ KHz.
a.
67
b.
76
c.
38
d.
19

73.
What is the modulation used by the
stereophonic subcarrier?
a.
FM
b.
PM
c.
ISB
d.
DSB

79.
A monaural FM receiver receives only the
_____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a.
L+R
b.
LR
c.
Both a & b
d.
67 KHz

74.
a.
b.
c.
d.

80.
When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what
form are the L R signals?
a.
AF
b.
DSBSC
c.
19 kHz
d.
38 kHz

What is the pilot signal for stereo FM?

4.25 MHz
10 kHz
19 KHz
38 KHz

75.
With stereo FM transmission, does a
monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a
stereo does?
a.
Yes
b.
No
c.
Either a or b
d.
Neither a or b

81.
An additional channel of multiplex information
that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio
stations to feed services such as commercial-free
programming to selected customers.
a.
STL
b.
EBS

c.
d.

EIA
SCA

82.
The class of FM station, which has an
authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a.
Class C
b.
Class A
c.
Class D
d.
Class B
83.
An FM broadcast station, which has an
authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW
and ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a.
Class D
b.
Class C
c.
Class A
d.
Class B
84.
A class of FM station which is limited in
antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a.
Class D
b.
Class C
c.
Class A
d.
Class B
85.
What type of broadcast service might have
their antennas on top of hills?
a.
FM
b.
AM
c.
TV
d.
A&C
86.
How are guardbands allocated in commercial
FM stations?
a.
25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting
signal
b.
50 kHz on each side of the carrier
c.
75 kHz deviation
d.
15 kHz modulation

87.
How many commercial FM broadcast
channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station?
a.
10
b.
20
c.
30
d.
40
88.
How many international commercial AM
broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth
occupied by a commercial TV station?
a.
100
b.
200
c.
125
d.
600
89.
What kind of modulation is used for the sound
portion of a commercial broadcast TV transmission?
a.
PM
b.
FM
c.
C3F
d.
AM
90.
Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the
sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a.
25 kHz
b.
800 kHz
c.
80 kHz
d.
200 kHz
91.
What is the main reason why television picture
signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is
frequency modulated?
a.
Better efficiency
b.
Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio
c.
Maintain synchronized scanning between
transmit and received video
d.
To minimize interference between signals at
received end
92.
The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a
TV receiver are _____ respectively.

a.
b.
c.
d.

41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz

45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz
41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz
45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz

c.
d.

99.
What is the frequency tolerance in the color
carrier of TV broadcasting?
a.
2 kHz
b.
20 Hz
c.
10 Hz
d.
1 kHz

93.
What is the separation between visual and
aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
4.5 MHz
c.
5.75 MHz
d.
0.25 MHz

100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for

frequency for channel 7 offset by 10 KHz?
a
175.25 MHz
b
175.26 MHz
c
174 MHz
d
175.24 MHz

94.
What is the separation between the lower limit
of a channel and the aural carrier?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
4.5 MHz
c.
5.75 MHz
d.
0.25 MHz
95.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the visual carrier for channel 12?

205.25 MHz
55.25 MHz
65.75 MHz
59.75 MHz

96.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the aural carrier for channel 3?

61.25 MHz
55.25 MHz
65.75 MHz
59.75 MHz

97.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is color subcarrier for channel 2?

68.83 MHz
211.25 MHz
58.83 MHz
214.83 MHz

98.
If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is
529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners local
oscillator, when turned to this channel?
a.
a.
571 MHz
b.
b.
511 MHz
c.

498 MHz
500 MHz

101. TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as

_____.
a.
Mid band UHF
b.
Low band UHF
c.
High band VHF
d.
low band UHF
102.
What is eliminated by using interlaced
scanning?
a.
Noise
b.
Excessive BW
c.
Frame
d.
Flicker

a.
b.
c.

103. What percentage of the primary colors used in

color TV are needed to produce the brightest white?
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue
c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue
d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue
104. The color with the most luminance is
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Green

d. Blue
105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has
R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the
maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the
luminance signal
a.
0.498
b.
0.254
c.
0.1325
d.
1.4
106.
In the previous problem, calculate the
chrominance signal
a.
0.305
b.
0.304
c.
0.498
d.
0.022
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The three complementary colors are:

White, yellow, cyan
Black, white, gray
Yellow, magenta, cyan
Violet, indigo, fushcia

108. When the colors Magenta and Yellow are

mixed the resultant color is:
a.
Red
b.
White
c.
Blue
d.
Green
109. Which of the following consist of two of the
three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b)
violet, c) yellow, and d) blue
a.
A and B
b.
B and C
c.
C and D
d.
A and D
110. The studio camera produces a luminance
signal that contains information about
a.
The musical content

b.
c.
d.

The speech content

The brightness of the scene
The color content of the scene

111. Brightness variations of the picture information

are in which signal?
a.
I
b.
Q
c.
Y
d.
Z
112. Which of the following is the color video signal
transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz
C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?
a.
I signal
b.
Q signal
c.
Y signal
d.
X signal
113. Which of the following is the color video signal
transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz
C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5
MHz?
a.
I signal
b.
Q signal
c.
Y signal
d.
Z signal
114. The _____ affects the difference between
black and white on the picture tube and controls the
gain of the video amplifier
a.
Brightness control
b.
Volume control
c.
Power control
d.
Contrast control
115. Which of the following is not a requirement for
a color TV signal?
a.
compatibility with b lack and white receivers
b.
Within 6 MHz bandwidth
c.
Simulate a wide variety of colors
d.
Functional with baron super antenna

116. How many electron beams actually leave the

electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
1/3
117. What is the difference between the sound
carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a.
1.25 MHz
b.
3.58 MHz
c.
4.5 MHz
d.
0.92 MHz
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What does aspect ratio mean?

Ratio of the screen width to its height
Ratio of the screen height to its width
Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width
Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height

119.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system?

4/3
9/7
19/6
16/9

120.
The signal that will give the exact color
wavelength is _____.
a.
Hue
b.
Saturation
c.
Carrier
d.
Monochrome
121. Which of the following represents the intensity
of a given color?
a.
Hue
b.
Saturation
c.
Carrier
d.
Monochrome

122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will

strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a.
Coating
b.
Aperture Mask
c.
Diplexer
d.
Duplexer

128.
video?
a.
b.
c.
d.

123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal

frequency?
a.
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
c.
15750 Hz
d.
157625 Hz

129. What is the maximum allowable frequency

deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for
PAL/SECAM?
a.
25 kHz
b.
50 kHz
c.
75 kHz
d.
100 kHz

135. It is the popular TV camera designed with

much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier
designs
a.
Image orthicon
b.
Iconoscope
c.
Vidicon
d.
Plumbicon

130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV

system?
a.
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
c.
15750 Hz
d.
157625 Hz

136. In a composite video signal, what is the

relationship between the amplitude of the signal and
the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver
picture tube?
a.
The greater the amplitude the darker the
picture
b.
The lower the amplitude the darker the picture
c.
The greater the amplitude the lighter the
picture
d.
No effect

124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal

frequency?
a.
30 Hz
b.
60 Hz
c.
15750 Hz
d.
157625 Hz
125.
What scheme is employed to cause the
electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron
beam in the studio camera to track identically?
a.
Interlacing
b.
NTSC
c.
Interleaving
d.
Transmission of sync pulses
126. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during
a.
Horizontal blanking
b.
Vertical blanking
c.
The serrations
d.
Equalizing intervals
127. What is the return of the electron beam in a
CRT from right to left or from bottom to top?
a.
Relay
b.
Flyback
c.
Utilization
d.
Resolution

What is the North American TV standard

PAL
SECAM
NTSC
FCC

131. What is the highest video frequency set by the

FCC for commercial TV?
a.
4.2 MHz
b.
15 MHz
c.
6 MHz
d.
5.5 MHz
132. What determines the maximum number of
vertical picture elements?
a.
Number of frames per second
b.
Number of lines on the screen
c.
Number of pixels
d.
Number of fields per second
133.
How many horizontal lines are used to
develop a TV raster?
a.
615
b.
525
c.
750
d.
15750

134.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The channel width in the U.S. TV system is :

2 MHz
6 MHz
7 MHz
8 MHz

137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the

number of lines per field are:
a.
1250
b.
312.5
c.
625
d.
2500
138.
What is the process of placing the
chrominance signal in the band space between
portions of the luminance signal?
a.
Interlacing
b.
Fitting
c.
Sneaking
d.
Interleaving

139. How much time elapses between the start of

one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a.
10.2 s
b.
63.5 s
c.
16.67 s
d.
100 s

145. What section of a TV receiver determines the

bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?
a.
RF amplifier
b.
Audio amplifier
c.
IF amplifier
d.
Tuned circuit

140. Which of the following frequencies is wrong?

a.
15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning
b.
60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning
c.
31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and
serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d.
31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency

Answers:
1C 2C 3C 4B 5A

141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic

and tellurium
a.
Plumbicon
b.
Vidicon
c.
Saticon
d.
Silicon Vidicon

21C 22B 23C 24C 25B

142.
are:
a.
b.
c.
d.

The components of composite video signal

Chroma signal
Blanking pulse
Synchronizing pulse
All of these

143. What is the smallest amount of information

that can be displayed on a television screen?
a.
Blip
b.
Burst
c.
Pixel
d.
Bits
144.
It is the quality of the TV picture after
imperfections
a.
Aspect ratio
b.
Utilization ratio
c.
A1
d.
Monochrome

6C 7B 8B 9A 10B
11B 12C 13D 14C 15D
16A 17C 18A 19D 20B
26D 27A 28D 29A 30D
31B 32C 33B 34C 35D
36A 37A 38C 39C 40C
41C 42D 43C 44B 45C
46D 47C 48B 49A 50A
51B 52A 53A 54C 55C
56B 57A 58A 59A 60D
61B 62C 63C 64C 65B
66D 67A 68D 69C 70B
71B 72B 73D 74C 75A
76D 77A 78A 79A 80B
81D 82B 83D 84D 85D
86A 87C 88D 89B 90C
91D 92D 93B 94C 95A
96C 97C 98A 99C 100D
101C 102D 103A 104B 105A
106A 107C 108B 109B 110C
111C 112A 113B 114D 115D

116C 117D 118A 119D 120A

121B 122B 123C 124B 125D
126B 127B 128C 129B 130A
131A 132B 133B 134B 135C
136A 137B 138D 139B 140D
141C 142D 143C 144B 145C