EAMCET Zoology Preparation Plan: Planned Work To Achieve M.B.B.S Seat

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EAMCET Zoology Preparation Plan
By K.SREENIVASULU, LECTURER IN ZOOLOGY
Congrats to medical aspirants for choosing the profession to join which has no
alternative to serve the people, society and nation.
Really it is a dream /goal for many young students. With that Ambition, all of them join
in Bi.P.C. Majority of them decide to do hard work at any level to achieve their goal.
Inspite of doing hard work, many of them unable to reach the targets. It is due to lack of
systematic planning and planned hard work. There is no idea in their minds how to do
the work in easy manner or how to enjoy during the work also or how to convert the
difficult thing into easiest ones.
Planned work to achieve M.B.B.S seat:

In medical stream of EAMCET, getting 130/160 with good I.P.E weightage is needed to
get comfortable rank for getting M.B.B.S seat.
In this process of reaching 130/160, getting 75/80 in Biology is compulsory. Without
that level of marks in Biology, it is very difficult to reach that target.
The following table reveals the number of students at various marks levels in EAMCET
(Medical) exams of the years 2009, 2010 & 2011.
Number of Students at various levels In Medical Stream: facts tell the truth
Total marks (Out of 160) 2009 2010 2011
130 + 340 433 529
120129 834 659 525
110119 1,274 1,084 918
100109 1,694 1,436 1,351
80 99 4,904 4,433 4,209
100 + 4,142 3,612 3,323
80 + 9,046 8,045 7,532


Except 130 + range, in all the remaining ranges, the number of students decreases
gradually from 2009 to 2011.
Average number of students at different levels in EAMCET (2009-11)

The analysis of the above data clearly reveals the significance of Biology marks.
Scoring 70 + in Biology is always is an advantage and big bonanza in final rankings.
Biology carries 80 marks out of 160 marks in the medical wing of EAMCET and the
order of ranks is determined on the basis of marks in that subject.
Many students are not getting good marks in Biology even they are doing much hard
work in that subjects.
Subject
Range of
marks
No. of students
(average in 2009,10,11)
out of 60,000 students

%

Physics (40)
>30 142 0.24 %
25 29 537
20 24 1,205
>25 679 0.99 %
>20 1,884 2.78 %

Chemistry(40)
>30 1,709 2.60 %
25 29 2,613
20 24 4,356
>25 4,322 7.42 %
>20 8,678 13.3 %

Biology (80)
>70 911 1.52 %
65 69 1,996
60 64 2,524
>60 5,432 9.05 %

Reasons for not getting good marks in biology are
Common mistakes during preparation:
In Physics and Chemistry, they practice problems without preparing the basic
information required to solve them. They depend on practicing same type of questions
without much thinking for many times.
In Biology, they prepare or read the same topics (either easy or difficult) for many times.
But they never practice the assignments, question banks related to those topics properly.
Problems with time management in examination hall
The opinion of many students with overconfidence is that they can complete the Biology
paper with 80 questions within 40-50 minutes out of 3 hrs. The remaining time they
want to spend for Physics and Chemistry to get more marks there.
With this wrong opinion they face the problems like fail to read the question properly,
cannot understand the question clearly which ultimately force them to commit silly
mistakes which finally transform into very costly and severe mistakes.
Both of the above are wrong methods applied by many students which finally show
pathetic impact on their performance and create hurdles to them to reach their targets.


How to get 100 % success rate in biology?
The possibilities to get 100 % marks in Biology are more compared to other subjects.
Prepare the contents in all topics from Academy text books thoroughly is the basic thing
should be done by the students.
Preparation of synopsis of the contents is also helps the students in the final phase of
preparation.
Prepare the important contents, comparative points, examples in tabular forms and
revise them regularly.
Practice the question banks and assignments which help the assessment and review of
their preparation.
Group discussion with friends regarding important topics are also helps them.
Regular practice, serious involvement during preparation, strong determination, perfect
planning, micro level preparation, concentration on basic information instead of blind
reading are the essential things to get success in EAMCET like competitive exams.
Make the things simple by preparing outlines, flow charts, easily assessed tables etc.
Concentrate on lengthy questions in Biology. Try to assess them carefully and answer
them very quickly. More lengthy questions asked in Biology especially in Botany in the
year 2009.
Practice the methods to solve problems in Botany. In the year 2011, about 12-14
questions asked from problems in Botany


How to prepare zoology for EAMCET in easy way?
Zoology is most interesting subject among the four subjects for medical entrance as the
most of the topics are related to human life and general society.
Because of that interest, zoology becomes easier to prepare and to get marks also.
In the question paper, they frame five or six different types of questions generally.
The analysis of the weightage given for all the six types of questions will help the
students to assess the pattern of question paper the methods of preparation.
Setting of questions based on diagrams is the new trend started from 3 or 4 years.
Action potential, ECG, Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, flying locomotion in
cockroach, Types of joints is some of the diagrams to concentrate.

Various types of questions in previous EAMCET zoology question paper (2007 -- 2011)
YEAR MATCHING SEQUENCE STATEMENTS A/R MCQ TOTAL
2007 07 01 03 03 26 40
2008 02 02 10 03 23 40
2009 03 01 06 03 27 40
2010 06 03 02 03 26 40
2011 07 02 02 03 26 40
AVERAGE 06 02 04 03 26

Chapters with More Weightage in Zoology
In Junior Inter, concentrate more on the units like II, III, V, VI & VII .
In Senior Inter, concentrate more on the units like Rabbit units, VI &VIII.
Chapter wise weightage in zoology in the EAMCET exams from 2004 to 2011 is given
below.
It helps the students to assess and to get an idea about the exam.

Chapter Wise Weightage in Zoology in EAMCET
Junior Inter

Senior Inter
No. CHAPTER 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
1. Chordata 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2.
Reptilia, Aves &
Mammalia
2 3 2 1 2 2 3 3
3. Rabbit I 4 2 4 4 4 3 3 3
4. Rabbit II 3 4 0 4 3 4 2 3
5. Rabbit III 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 2
6. Genetics 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 3
7. Evolution 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 2
8. Applied Biology 3 5 4 3 3 3 4 2
TOTAL (II year) 20 23 21 20 21 23 23 19
No. CHAPTER 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
1. Basics 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2. Invertebrate phyla 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 2
3. Animal organisation 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 4
4.
Locomotion &
Reproduction in
Protozoa
2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2
5. Animal Associations 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 2
6. Annelida 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 2
7. Arthropoda 5 3 6 4 4 3 3 5
8. Man & Biosphere 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 3

TOTAL (I year)

20 17 19 20 19 17 17 21

Chapter Wise Preparation Methods-Junior Inter
1. BASICS (1 mark)
Concentrate on species concept
types of classification,
Classification of kingdom Animalia.
Statement type of questions is asking many times in this chapter.
Previous questions:
1. Which of the following statements are true about protostomes? (2011)
a. Cleavage spindles or planes are oblique to the polar axis of the zygote
b. Cleavage spindles or planes are at right angles to the polar axis of zygote.
c. The fate of blastomeres is fixed early in the development.
d. The fate of blastomeres is fixed relatively late in the development.
1) a & b 2) a & c 3)c& d 4) a & b

2. Statement (S): Populations of a species inhabiting different geographical areas are in a
continuous process of adaptation to their surrounding environments and this leads to
the evolution of new species. (2010)
Reason (R): Geographical barriers instruct interbreeding of populations of a species
leading to reproductive isolation and evolution of new species.
The correct one is
1) Both S and R not true 2) Only S is true but not R
3) Both S and R are true but R does not explain S
4) Both S and R are true and R explains S

3. Assertion: The Biological Species concept helps us to ask how species are formed.
(2009)
Reason: The concept of biological species focuses our attention on the question of how
reproductive isolation comes about.


4. Which of the following groups of organisms are ecologically similar? (2008)
1) Producer protists and consumer protists 2) Monerans & producer protists
3) Consumer protists and fungi 4) Monerans and fungi

5. Identify the correct set from the following (2007)
I) The application of mathematics of biology is biometry.
II) The study of genetics that deals with systematic treatment of genetic disorders is
euphenics.
III) The branch of biochemistry concerned with the study of transformation and use of
energy of living cells of organisms is biotechnology.
IV) The study deals with the application of statistical methods for computation and
analysis of biological data is bioinformatics.
1) I & II 2) I & III 3) II & III 4) I & IV

6. Statement: Linnaeus system of animal classification is essentially an artificial system,
yet it has become a natural system. (2006)
Reason: Similarities forming the basis in Linnaeus system are indicative of genetic
relationship.

7. Statement: Species are groups of potentially inter breeding natural population that are
isolated from other subspecies. (2005).
Reason: Reproductive isolation brings about distinctive morphological characters.

8. Statement: Subspecies has a geographical area and geographically isolated from other
sub species. (2004)
Reason: When members of a species are geographically isolated they give rise to a Sub
species.


2. INVERTEBRATE PHYLA ( 2 3 marks)
Concentrate on examples from all the phyla.
Prepare the comparative study in the systems like respiration, life history with larval
stages etc., among all the phyla.
List out the special features like endodyogeny, plasmotomy, metagenesis, eutely,
radula, crystalline style, gnathochilarium, Aristotles lantern etc.
Previous EAMCET questions from this chapter are given below.

1. Identify the correct combinations with reference to their larval forms (2011)
A) Holothuroidea ----- Ophiopluteus
B) Asteroidea ----- Bipinnaria
C) Pelecypoda ----- Glochidium
D) Cephalopoda ----- Auricularia
1) A & D 2) B & D 3)A & B 4)B & C

2. Statement (S): Nematodes exhibit eutely.(2011)
Reason (R): In nematodes cell divisions cease near the end of embryonic development
so that the number of the cells of the adult is constant

3. The tissue present between the gut and body wall in Convoluta is (2011)
1) Mesoderm 2) Parenchyma 3) Botryoidal tissue 4)Mesoglea

4. Choose the animal which exhibits the following characteristics.(2010)
a) Marine habitat b) Bilateral symmetry with cephalisation
c) Haemocoel as principal body cavity d) Eye similar to that of vertebrates
1) Jelly fish 2) Cuttle fish 3)Silver fish 4)Dog fish

5. Which one of the following arthropods is viviparous? (2010)

1) Palaemon 2)Palamnaeus 3)Pediculus 4)Periplaneta

6. In Ophiuroides branched arms are seen in (2009)
1) Gorgonocephalus 2)Clypeaster 3)Salmacis 4)Gorgonia

7. Match the following(2009)
LIST I LIST II
A) Green glands I) Scolopendra
B) Amphids & phasmids II) Respiratory organs
C) Ctenidia III) Shell protein
D) Poison claw IV) Excretory organs
E) Concholin V)Sense organs

8. Statement (S): In many gastropods the anus and the mantle cavity are placed anteriorly
above the head. (2008)
Reason (R): During embryonic development in many gastropods one side of the
visceral mass grows faster than the other side. This uneven growth rotates the visceral
organs up to 180
0
in many gastropods.

9. Study the following (2008)
A) It is a terrestrial arthropod
B) The prosoma bears a pair of chelicerae, a pair of pedipalps and four pairs of walking
legs.
C) Metasoma ends in a telson.
D) First pair of walking legs are modified as poisonous claws.

10. Which of the above are true for Heterometrus or Palamnaeus
1) A & C 2) A & B 3) A & D 4) C & D


11. The bilateria member that exhibits pentaradial symmetry is (2008)
1) Neomenia 2) Nautilus 3)Neometra 4)Neopilina

12. Which of the following is not only a living fossil but also considered as connecting
link ? (2007)
1) Sphenodon 2) Limulus 3)Neopilina 4)Latimeria

13. Which of the following possesses a hard exoskeleton formed by calcium carbonate
? (2007)
1) Physalia 2) Aurelia 3)Corallium 4)Halistemma

14. Lepas,Limulus, Lepisma & Scolopendra have jointed appendages. Which of the
below given set of organisms are aquatic and respire through gills ? (2006)
1) Lepas & Lepisma 2) Lepas & Limulus
3) Limulus & Scolopendra 4) Scolopendra & Lepas

15. Lepidopleurus belongs to (2005)
1) Polyplacophora 2)Echinoidea 3)Cephalopoda 4)Asteroidea

16. Main excretory organ in Prawn is (2005)
1) Green gland 2) Flame cell 3) Malphigian tubule 4) Nephridia

17. Characteristic feature of coelenterates is (2005)
1) Nematocysts 2) Polymorphism 3) Flame cells 4) Choanocytes

18. In which group of animals blastocoel is persistent as body cavity in adult ?(2004)
1) Arthropoda 2) Nemathlelminthes 3)Mollusca 4)Annelida


19. Read the following statements (2004)
1) Red algae, Fungi and Sponges are included
2) Multicellular animals
3)Tissues and organ systems are absent
Which of them are the characters of Parazoa?
1) 1 & 3 2)1 & 2 3)All 4) 2 & 3 only

20. Members of this phylum exhibit adaptations to widely varied environmental
Conditions (2003)
1)Porifera 2) Coelenterata 3) Echinodermata 4) Mollusca

21. The animal with 19 body segments, 6 pairs of appendages and respires through
the trachea is (2003)
1) Spider 2) prawn 3) Scorpion 4) Head louse

3. ANIMAL ORGANISATION (24 MARKS)
Prepare the types of epithelial tissue, cartilage and bone.
Concentrate on types of blood cells.
Comparison of types of muscles is also needed.
Prepare the types of symmetry, coelom also.
Basic level of preparation is sufficient to get full marks in this topic.

Previous questions:
1. Identify the holocrine gland from the following (2011)
1) Mammary gland 2)Sebaceous glands* 3)Liver 4)Pancreas

2. Symmetry in Ctenophores is (2011)
1) Spherical 2)Pentaradial 3)Biradial 4)Radial


3. Dense irregular connective tissue is present in (2011)
1) periosteum & pericardium 2)Vocal cords & trachea
3) Bone marrow & lymph nodes 4)Tendons & ligaments

4. The plane that divides the body into right and left halves (2010)
1) Transverse 2) Frontal
3) Sagittal 4) Radial

5. Match the following (2010)
LIST I LIST II
A) Squamous epithelium I)walls of nose
B) Hyaline cartilage II)Bowmans capsule
C) Adipose tissue III)Iris
D) Smooth muscles IV)Yellow bone marrow
V) Ear pinna

6. Note the following (2009)
a) It forms the lining of cavities of alveoli of lungs
b) It occurs in the ducts of sweat glands
c) It forms the lining of wet surfaces like buccal cavity and oesophagus
d) It forms the lining of salivary glands and sweat glands
e) It is a loose connective tissue
Which of the above are associated with simple epithelia tissue ?
1) a & d 2) b & c 3) c & a 4) d & e

7. In coelomates, the problem of diffusion of food from gut to tissues is solved by
(2009)
1) the presence of coelomic fluid 2) churning of the food within the body cavity

3) developing circulatory system 4) developing gut associated glands

8. The proteins involved in the movement of chromosomes towards the poles during
cell division (2008)
1)Actin 2)Myosin
3)Tubulin 4)Elastin

9. The animal in which the space between the gut and the body wall is filled with
mesenchyme is
1) Echinodiscus 2) Enterobius
3) Eunice 4) Echinococcus (2008)

10. Principal axis means (2007)
1) An imaginary straight line joining two opposite points at the ends
2) An imaginary straight line joining the mid point at one end and the mid point of
opposite End
3) A flat area that runs through any axis.
4) An animal having its body parts arranged in such a manner to exhibit symmetry.

LIST I LIST II
a) Astrocytes 1)Resting macrophages
b) Mircoglia 2)Precursors of myelin sheath
c) Oligodendrocytes 3) set up currents of cerebrospinal fluid
d) Ependymal cells 4) protects brain cells from toxins

12. The animal as an adult secondarily acquires radial symmetry when its bilaterally
symmetrical larva metamorphoses is (2006)
1) Polygordius 2) Gorgonia

3) Gorgonocephalus 4)Pila

13. The coelom of the animals which are known as tooth shells originates (2005)
1) by enterocoelic method
2)by schizocoelic method and filled with coelomic fluid
3)by splitting of embryonic mesoderm and filled with blood
4)From blastocoels

14. Blubber is formed by (2004)
1) Elastic tissue 2) Reticular tissue
3) Adipose tissue 4) Fibrous tissue

15. Coelom arises from primitive gut is seen in(2004)
1)Echinoideris 2)Gorgonia 3)Gorgonocephalus 4)Nyctotherus

16. The formation of mesoderm as evaginated sacs from the archenteron is the
character of (2003)
1) Palamnaeu s 2)Pila 3)Physalia 4)Pentaceros

17. The response to external stimuli is quicker and more precise in this symmetry
(2003)
1) Radial 2)Bilateral 3)Spherical 4)Biradial

4. LOCOMOTION & REPRODUCTION IN PROTOZOA (2 marks)
One of the important and easiest topic.
Prepare the types of pseudopodia, flagella, sol-gel theory properly.
Concentrate on the events occur during binary fission in both Euglena and
Paramecium.

Basic information about conjugation is also needed.
Previous EAMCET questions are given below.

1. Conjugation in ciliate protozoans is essential for(2011)
1) Gemmation 2)Regeneration
3) Permanent pairing 4)Nuclear reorganisation*

2. Sites of ATPase activity in flagellum/cilium are (2011)
1) Dynein arms of outer doublets of microtubules
2) outer protoplasmic sheath
3) Inner sheath
4) Central tubules of axoneme

3. The fusion of pronuclei of dissimilar gametes is (2010)
1. Syngamy 2)Anisogamy 3)Isogamy 4)Hologamy

4. Identify the type of flagellum in Monas, Urceolus and Polytoma in their sequence
from the following (2008)
A) The flagellum is stichonematic
B) Two or more rows of lateral appendages on axonemes
C) The flagellum is pantacronematic
D) lateral appendages are absent and axoneme ends as naked axial filament
1) A, B, D 2) A, C, D 3) B, A, C 4) B, C, D

5. Sites of ATPase activity in the cilia and flagella (2011) (2007)
1)Base 2)Doublets 3)Basal granules 4) Dynein arms

6. Assertion: Conjugation is a temporary union between two ciliates of different mating
types for the exchange and reconstitution of nuclear materials. (2007)

Reason: Conjugation occurs between two inactive members which have gained their
vigour and vitality due to chromosomal imbalance in their macronuclei .

7. Identify the correct statements related to nuclei of Vorticella (2006)
a) both macro and micro nuclei are diploid
b) macro nucleus is diploid and micro is haploid
c) male and female pronuclei are haploid
d) both pronuclei are diploid
e) zygote is diploid
1) a, b, c 2) b, c, e 3) a, d, e 4) a, c, e

8. The number of daughter Vorticella formed after the second series of post
conjugation fissions (2005)
1) 7 2)6 3) 4** 4) 2

9. Folding and unfolding of actin and myosin leads to amoeboid movement. It is
explained by (2005)
1) Allen 2)Goldacre & Lorsch 3)Berthold 4)Jennings

10. During fusion of gamonts in conjugation in vorticella, the male gamont attaches
with female at (2004)
1) Stalk 2)Oral end 3)Aboral end 4)Macronucleus

11. Flagellum without mastigonemes is present in (2004)
1) Astasia 2)Monas 3)Polytoma 4)Urcellum

12. Type of pseudopodia in Lecithium is (2003)
1)Axopodia 2)Reticulopodia 3)Filopodia 4)Lobopodia


13. The number of divisions that the synkaryon of post zygotic vorticella undergoes
is(2003)
1)1 2)2 3)3 4)4

5. ANIMAL ASSOCIATIONS (2 3 MARKS)
Very important chapter
Types of symbiosis, examples, types of parasites are some of the important topics in
introduction part.
Infective stages, pathogenicity of four parasites given syllabus are most important.
Thorough wih structure, & life cycles of parasites is compulsory.
Previous questions:
1. In the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax, some stages may survive fro long periods in
liver as dormant stages known as (2011)
1) Merozoites 2)Hypnozoites 3)Cryptozoites 4)Sporozoites

2. The type of association between Hydractinia and Pagurus is(2011)
1) Ecto parasitism 2)Ecto commensalism
3) Hyperparasitism 4)Endocommensalism

3. The process by which a new structure is formed in tissue of the host during
parasitic Infection (2010)
1) Hyperplasia 2)Neoplasia
3)Hypertrophy 4)Gigantism

Parasite Infective stage Disease caused
A)Plasmodium vivax I)3
rd
stage larva a)Filariasis
B)Taenia solium II)Cystic stage b)Benign tertian malaria

C)Entamoeba III)Sporozoites c)Amoebic dysentery
D)Wuchereria IV)Cysticercus d)Taeniasis

5. Infective stage of Taenia solium to intermediate host is (2009)
1)Hexacanth 2)Onchosphere** 3)cysticercus 4)Miracidium

6. Assertion: Predation is an inter specific interaction with feeding strategy. (2009)
Reason: Predation and their prey maintain faily stable population through time and
rarely one population become abundant of scare.

7. Certain stages of Plasmodium vivax may survive for a long period in the liver of
man as dormant stages and on reactivation enter into one of the following cycles
(2008)
1)Erythrocytic schizogony** 2)Exoerythrocytic schizogony
3)Cycle of Ross 4)Gametogony

8. Which of the following abnormalities in the host is associated to Wuchereria,
Plasmodium and Fasciola respectively ? (2008)
A)Parasitic castration B)Hyperplasia C)Febrile paroxysm D)Peritonitis
E) Lymphangitis
1)E, C & B** 2) E, C & A 3) B, D & E 4) C, D & B

9. Digenetic parasite among the following is (2008)
1)Taenia solium 2)Wuchereria 3)Fasciola hepatica** 4)Plasmodium vivax

10. Fasciola hepatica is a digeneic parasite with sheep and snail as hosts. Snail is (2007)
1) intermediate host* 2)Paratenic host 3)Vector host 4)Reservoir host

11. Read the following (2007)

I) During gametogenesis reduction occurs and gametes formed are haploid
II) Erythrocytic cycle begins with the entry of either cryptozoites of
micrometcryptozoites
III) Maturation of gametocytes generally take place in spleen and bone marrow
IV) the prepatent time period is more than 8 days.
Which of them are true for Plasmodium vivax
1)I, II & III 2)II, III & IV** 3) I, III & IV 4) I, II & IV

12. Which of the following require an invertebrate intermediate host ? (2005)
I) Dugesia II) Schistosoma III) Echinococcus
IV) Ancylostoma V) Wuchereria
1) III & IV 2) II & V 3) III & V 4) I & IV

13. Haemozoin is released into blood during the infection of Plasmodium vivax for
every
1) 24 hrs 2)48 hrs 3)72 hrs 4)12 hrs (2005)

6. ANNELIDA (2 marks)
Another major topic in junior inter zoology.
External openings, septa, cells in coelomic fluid, body wall are some of the contents
to concentrate more.
Process of circulatioin, components of circulatory system, types of nephridia,
reproductive organs are the other major points to remember.
Majority of students always worry about circulatory system in Pheretima.
By preparing the flow charts to show the supply of blood to various systems one gets
grip over the topics.

Previous questions:
1. Vermicompost produced by earthworm contains Nitrogen(N) and Phosphorous (P)
in this ratio (2011)
1) 60% N & 5.04% P 2)30% N & 2.04% P
3)20% N & 1.04% P 4)10% N & 3.04%P

2. In the blood circulation of Pheretima, the blood collected by lateral oesophageal
Blood vessels flows into supra oesophageal blood vessel through (2011)
1)Lateral hearts & anterior loops 2)Lateral oesophageal hearts & ring vessels
3)Anterior loops & ring vessels 4)Lateral hearts & commissural blood vessels

3. In Pheretima, septa are absent between some of the segments. They are (2010)
1) 1/2,2/3,9/10,10/11 2)1/2,2/3,3/4,9/10
3)4/5,9/10,10/11,14/15 4)1/2,2/3,8/9,10/11

4. The segments with open type of nephridia in pheretima are (2010)
1)4
th
,5
th
& 6
th
2)2
nd
to last
3)16
th
to lst 4)7
th
, 9
th
& 13
th

5. location of lymph glands in Pheretima is (2009)
1)4
th
,5
th
& 6
th
segments 2)10
th
to 20
th
segments
3)26
th
to last 4)13
th
segment

6. In Pheretima gizzard, buccal cavity, phrynx, oesophagus, pharyngeal nephridia
receive the blood from this blood vessel (2009)
1)Supra oesophageal 2)Lateral oesophageal
3)Dorsal 4)Subneural


7. A transverse section of Pheretima taken through the 10
th
segment is observed in
microscope Which of the following structures can be observed in the section ?
(2007)
1) Stomach, DBV, VBV, Supra oesophageal vessel, Anterior loops, Ring vessels,
Micronephridia
2) Stomach, DBV,VBV,Lateral hearts, Ring vessels, Pharyngeal nephridia
3) Intestine, DBV,VBV, Supra oesophageal vessel, Septal nephridia
4) Stomach, DBV,Subneural vessel, Supra-oesophageal vessel, Lateral hearts.

8. During development of zygote in Pheretima, macromeres develop into (2007)
1) Mesoderm 2)Endoderm 3)Ectoderm 4)All the three layers

a) Nephrostome b) Terminal nephridial duct
c) Septal excretory canal d) Supra-intestinal excretory canal
e) Long thick walled excretory canal
Which of the above belong to enteronephric nephridia in Pheretima ?
1) b, e 2) a,c,d,e 3)c,d,e 4)a,c,d

10. The segments with lymph glands in Pheretima (2004)
1)1-10 2)15-26 3)27
th
last 4)13

11. In Pheretima, spermathecae are located in (2004)
1) Dorso lateral sides of 6,7,8 & 9 segments
2) ventro lateral sides of 6,7,8 & 9 segments
3) Ventral surface of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 & 8/9 segmental grooves
4) Dorsal surface of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 & 8/9 segmental grooves


12. The glands that help in binding the worms during copulation in Pheretima are
(2003)
1)Prostate glands 2)Albumin glands 3)ccessory glands 4)Mucous

13. The cells of Pheretima which are analogous to hepatic cells of vertebrates are(2003)
1)Amoeboid cells 2)Chlorogogen cells
3) Mucous cells 4)Circular cells

14. The number of ring vessels per segment in 12
th
& 13
th
segments is (2003)
1)10 2)10 pairs 3)12 pairs 4)24 pairs

7. ARTHROPODA (35 marks)
One of the heterogenous topic in zoology.
Prepare various systems in cockroach like digestive, respiratory and nervous systems
through outlines.
Concentrate over the topics like mouthparts of insects by comparative study.
Prepare the economic importance of insects by concentrating on diseases, useful
products of different insects.
Previous questions:
1. Tassar silk is produced by (2011)
1. Antherae paphia 2.Antheraea assamensis
3. Bomby mori 4. Philosamia recini

2. Choose the type of mouth parts of insects in which the two labella are
interconnected by Duttons membrane (2011)
1.Biting & chewing 2)Piercing & sucking
3) Sponging 4)Siphoning


LIST I LIST II
a) Aedes I)Dermatobiasis
b) Cimex II)Typhoid
c) Psorophora III)encephalitis
d) Musca IV)Bubonic plague
V)Break bone fever
4. Identify the following structures which are present in dioptrical region of
Ommatidium (2011)
1. Lenticular cells, vitrellae, crystalline cone
2. Vitrelae, retinulae, rhabdome
3. Crystalline cone, retinulae, rhabdome
4. Lenticular cells, rhabdome, rhabdomeres

5. The cells present in the fat bodies of cockroach, which contain symbiotic bacteria
that synthesize amino acids are (2010)
1)Trophocytes 2)Mycetocytes 3)Oenocytes 4)Urate cells

6. Thermoreceptor sensillae in cockroach are present on (2010)
1)Antenna, maxillary and labial palps 2)Labrum, maxillary and labial palps
3)1
st
, 2
nd
& 3
rd
tarsomeres of tarsus 4)Anal cerci & pedicel of antennae

7. Statement (S): Biting and chewing type of mouth parts are the most primitive type of
Mouth parts in insects. (2010)
Reason (R): Holometabolus insects have biting chewing type of mouth parts in larvae.

a) Fenestra b) Pedicel c) Lacinia d)flagellum e) galea f)Mentum
g) Palpifer h) cardo i)glossa

Which of the above found in the first pair of maxillae in the case of cockroach ?
1) c,e,g & h 2) a,c,e & i 3) amfmg & i 4)b,e,g & I

9. Note the following
An insect whose mouthparts are biting and chewing type in the larval condition, while
they are siphoning type in the adult and this insect gives an economically important
substances during yet another stage of its development. (2009) the insect is
1)Anopheles 2)Laccifer 3)Bombyx 4)Apis

a)Monocytes b)Trophocytes c)Lymphocytes
d)Mycetocytes e)Leucocytes f)Oenocytes g)Urate cells
Which of the above are fat cells in Periplanata ?
1)a,c,e & h 2)b,d,f & g c)c,e,f & g 4) a, c, e & f

11. In cockroach which of the following is the principal motor centre ? (2009)
1)Supraoesophageal ganglia 2) Suboesophageal ganglia
3)Metathoracic ganglia 4) Abdominal ganglia

12. The larval stage of a harmful insect causing a cavity like pathological condition in
human beings known as Myiasis is (2008)
1)Nymph 2)Naiad 3)Maggot 4)Wriggler

13. Statement: Arthropoda is the most successful group among animal groups.
Reason: Arthropoda exhibit the greatest adaptive radiation and have adapted to diverse
conditions. (2008)

14. Statement: Super position images are formed in the nocturnl insects. (2008)

Reason: The retinulae lie immediately below the vitrellae and crystalline cone, These
are surrounded by retinal sheath which absorb the light rays, hence, super position
images are formed in nocturnal insects

15. Which of the following have biting and chewing type of mouth parts ? (2007)
a) Cimex b)Larva of silk moth c)Tse-tse fly
d)Larva of butter fly e)grass hopper
1) b,d,e 2)b,c,d 3)a,b,d 4)c,d,e

16. In Periplanat americana , the location of thermo receptor sensillae (2007)
1)1,2,3 segments of tarsus of legs 2)3,4,5 segments of tarsus of legs
3)Pedicel of antenn 4)15
th
segment of anal cerci

17. The sclerite that covers the top of the head and the space between the two
Compound eyes in Periplanata is (2006)
1)Clypeus 2)Labrum 3)Vertex 4)Genae

18. The type of mouth parts present in the insect that spreads Myiasis is (2006)
1) Sponging & sucking 2)Piercing & sucking
3)Biting & chewing 4)Siphoning

SET I SET II
a) Olfactory sensillae 1.Ommatidium
b) Peritrophic membrane 2.diurnal insects
c) Cibarium 3.food bolus
d) Rhabdome 4.Hypopharynx
e) Apposition image 5.maxillary palp


20. Proboscis in the insect which feeds on nectar is formed by (2005)
1) Hypopharynx 2.Mandibles 3)Galea 4)Labium

21. The labrofrontal nerve in cockroach originates from (2005)
1)Sub oesophageal ganglion 2)Supra oesophageal ganglion
3)Antennary nerves 4)Frontal ganglia

22. Lateral sclerite in cockroach is known as (2004)
1)Palpiger 2)arthrodial membrane 3)Pleuron 4)pellicle

1)coxa 2)Femur 3)Tarsus 4)Tibia 5)Trochanter
Arrange the above parts from proximal end to distal end in the leg of cockroach

24. Abdominal segment without ganglia in cockroach is (2004)
1)1
st
2)5
th
3)6
th
4)7
th

25. Stink glands are present between the following segments in cockroach (2003)
1)4
th
& 5
th
2)5
th
& 6
th
3)6
th
& 7
th
4)7
th
& 8
th

26. The segments with abdominal ganglia in cockroach (2003)
1) 1,2,3,4,6 & 7 2)1 6 3)38 4)7
th
& 8
th
only

27. Herbivorous insect with piercing and sucking type of mouth parts is (2003)
1) Cimex 2)Culex 3)Apis 4)Tachardia

28. Temporary, ectoparasitic nocturnal insect with piercing & sucking type of mouth
parts is
1) Pediculus 2)Cimex 3)Apis 4)Tachardia (2003)


8. MAN & BIOSPHERE (3 marks)
One question should be given from Biodiversity.
Topics like national parks, sanctuaries, IUCN categories and examples, scientific
names, general names are important.
Abiotic factors like light, temperature and water are also important.
Concentration on Population growth curves, age pyramids etc.
Topics like lake ecosystem, flow of energy ,food chains are also important.
Previous questions:
1. The animal that mostly depends on metabolic water to survive for long periods
without Drinking water (2011)
1. Dipodomys 2.Didelphis
3.Ornythorhuynchus 4.Macropus

2. Identify the correct combination (2011)
NATIONAL PARK PLACE ANIMAL PROTECTED
A) Jim Corbett Rajasthan Tigers
B) Gir Gujarat Lions
C) Kaziranga Assam One-horned rhinoceros
D) Periyar Uttaranchal Tigers & elephant
1) A & B 2) B & C
3) C & D 4) A & D

LIST - I LIST II
A) Zoo planktons I)Chironomid larva
B) Neustons II)Daphnia
C) Nekton III)Water spiders

D) Benthos IV)Ranatra
V) Hydra

4. Scientific name of Kashmiri stag is (2010)
1 )Sus salvanius 2)Grus leucogenranus
3)Cervus elaphus hanglu 4)Ailurus ocjaraceus

5. The growth of a population without limit at its maximal rate and also the rates of
immigration and emigration are equal, then it is called (2009)
1) carrying capacity 2)Biotic potential
3) Positive growth 4)Negative growth

6. The state of Gujarat has river, desert, forest and lake ecosystems, thus exhibiting a
diversity of life. Which measure do you use to denote total diversity in such a case ?
1)Alpha 2)Beta 3)Gamma 4)Delta (2009)

7. The average trophic efficiency of transfer of energy from one trophic level to the
higher trophic level is known as (2008)
1.Assimilation efficiency 2.Exploitatiion efficiency
3.Lindemans trophic efficiency rule 4.Gross primary production

8. Identify the fish among the following with a aglomerular kidney (2008)
1.Sphyrna 2.Tilapia 3)Cirrhinus 4)Exocoetus

9. Wildlife conservation aims at (2008)
a) maintaining the ecological process
b) To enrich the wildlife diversity with exotic species
c) preventing migration of species

d) maintaining the diversity of life
correct among the above are
1)a, b 2) b, c 3) c, d 4) a, d

SET I SET-II
A)Allens rule 1)Fishes of cooler water have more vertebrae
B)Bergmans rule 2)Temperature influences pigmentation in animals
C)Jordans rule 3)Temperature affects various organs of animals.
D)Glogers rule 4)Body size of homeotherms in cold region is large .

11. Assertion: Daphnia shows marked variations in their body morphology at different
Seasons.
Reason: Cyclomorphosis in some planktonic organisms is influenced by variations in
temperature prevailing in their water bodies at different seasons. (2007)

SET-I SET-II
a) Vant Hoffs rule 1.Body size
b) Bergmans rule 2.Metabolic rate
c) Allens rule 3.Development
d) Jordans rule 4.Organ size


13. The type of population where pre-reproductive animals occur in large number is
(2005)
1)Declining 2)Fluctuating 3)Stable 4)Growing

14. Ear lobes of arctic fox are smaller than that of tropical fox. This is (2003) &
(2005)
1) Jordons rule 2)Bergmans rule 3)Glogers rule 4)Allens rule

15. Solar radiation of wave length less than 360 nm is (2004)
1.Uv radiation 2)Infra red radiation 3)Radio waves 4)visible light

16. Environmental protection act of Govt. of India was brought out in the year (2004)
1)1976 2)1977 3)1981 4)1986

17. The growth rate of a population stabilizes after (2003)
1) Logarithmic phase 2)Stationary phase
3) Carrying capacity 4)Negative phase


Chapter Wise Preparation Methods-SENIOR INTER
In EAMCET ZOOLOGY papers, generally more number of questions ask from
Senior Inter.
Senior Inter zoology has interesting topics like Functional Anatomy of Rabbit,
Genetics, Applied Biology and Evolution.
Students should prepare the syllabus from Senior Inter zoology with concentration
and interest.

1.CHORDATA ( 1 mark)
Rememer the animals in the classes like cyclostomata, amphibia, chondrichtyes, and
osteichthyes.
Prepare tabular forms for examples of different classes.
Important characters in pisces, amphibians are also important.
Concentrate on types of caudal fins, scales in fishes.
Prepare the characters first appeared in amphibians, modifications of various parts
compulsory.
Previou questions:
1. Three-lobed diphycercal tail is the feature of this fish (2011)
1. Latimeria 2.Protopterus 3.Neoceratodus 4.Polypterus

2. Select the animal from the following that exhibits neoteny in its larval stage (2010)
1.Amphiuma 2.Typhlonectes 3.Ambystoma 4.Necturu

3. The pair of amphibians found in Indian peninsula is (2009)
1.Amphiuma 2.Hyla and Ambystoma
3.Tylotriton & Ichthyophis 4.Psittacus & Apteryx

4. Caecilian that shows ovoviviparity is (2009)
1.Wuchereria 2.Typhlonectes 3.Ichthyophis 4.Uraeotyphlus


5. Study the following features of a fish (2008)
a) It is a crossopterygian fish b) It is found in the river chalumnae
c) It does not exhibit aestivatioin d) It is an ureotelic animal
Which of the above are true about Neoceratodus ?
1.a & b 2.b & d 3. a & c 4. a & d

6. Which of the following vertebrates show the formation of middle ear (Eustachian recess) for the
first time ? (2007)
1.Exocoetus 2.Rana 3.Echis 4.Hippocampus

7. Auricularia larva 8. A sanguivorous, ectoparasitic anadromous animal is (2006)
1.Eel 2.Salmon 3.Slime eel 4.Lamprey

8. Pelagic tunicate which exhibits neoteny is (2005)
1.Amblystoma 2.Salpa 3.Oikopleura 4.Botryllus

9. The salientia member with digits of fore and hind limbs webbed is (2004)
1.Rana 2.Rhacophorous 3.Proteus 4.Hyla

10. Hemicyclapsis belongs to the class (2003)
1.Cyclostomata 2.Ostracodermi 3,Gnathostomata 4.Pisces

2. REPTILIA, AVES & MAMMALIA (3 marks)
Prepare the types of skulls in reptiles compulsory in this topic.
Examples in reptilia, aves and mammalia are also important.
Types of feathers, modifications in endoskeleton of birds are also important.
Comparison of various groups in Mammalia is also important.
Take more care about the examples of Aves, Mammalia and Reptiles.
Previous questions:
1. In diapsid skull of reptiles, the two temporal fossae are separated by these bones to form the
upper temporal bar (2011)
1.Post-fortal & squamosal 2.Post-orbital & squamosal

3.Squamosal & jugal 4.Post-orbital & jugal

2. Flight less bird with preen gland is (2011)
1.Tinamus 2.Apteryx 3.Rhea 4.Dromaius

3. In which of the following characters prototherians resemble metatherians ? (2011)
1.Presence of abdominal testis & chorio-vitelline placenta
2.Presence of single headed ribs, megalecithal eggs & smallest gestation period
3. Presence of degenerate corpus callosum, simple cochlea & absence of ear pinnae
4.Presence of epipubic bones, two uteri and penis in male.

4. Which of the following exhibit discontinuous distribution ? (2010)
1.Ratitae & Osteichthyes 2.Metatheria & Carinatae
3.Dipnoe & Ratitae 4.Prototheria & Urodela

5. The animal with epipubic bones and chorioallantoic placenta is (2010)
1.Opossum rat 2.Koala bear 3.Marsupial bandicoot 4.Opossum

6. Ductus botalii connects (2010)
1.Two systemic arches 2.Pulmonary and systemic arches
3.Systemic & carotid arteries 4.Carotid & pulmonary arteries

7. The extinct reptiles without temporal fossae belong to (2009)
1.Chelonia 2.Synaptosauria 3.ichthyopterygia 4.Cotylosauria

8. In mammals, the secondary palate is formed by the union of (2008)
1. Premaxilla, Pterygoid & suqamosal 2.Maxilla, quadrate and palatine
3.Premaxilla, maxilla & palatine 4.Premaxilla, quadrate & squamosal

9. Which of the following are true to the prototherians ? (2008)
A)Pectoral girdle is associated with T shaped interclavicles
B)Mammary glands are modified as sebaceous glands
C)Pelvic girdle hs epipubic bones
D)Vertebrae are with epiphyses

1.A&C 2. A & B 3.C & D 4. B & C

10. Study the following table ... (2008)
SUBCLASS SKULL EXAMPLE
A)Anapsida Anapsid Hatteria
B)Icthyopterigia Syapsid Pelycosaurus
C)Synaptosauria Euryapsid Plesiosaurus
D)Lepidosauria Diapsid Cotylosauria
Which is the correct combination ?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D

11. Mammals evolved from therapsid reptiles in Triassic period. The type of skull in these reptiles is
(2007)
1.Anapsid 2.parapsid 3.Synapsid 4.Diapsid

SET I SET II
a) Ductus botalli 1.Oikopleura
b) Ductus caroticus 2.Lepidosiren
c) Neoteny 3.Lamprey
d) Anadromous 4.Lacertilia
e) Amazon 5.Uraeotyphlus

13. A snake is identified to be having hexagonal vertebrals and the dorsal surface is bluish with
narrow white streaks, it is (2006)
1.Echis carinata 2.Bungarus coeruleus 3.Vipera russelli 4.Hemibungarus

14. Identify the correct pair of birds with raft-like keel and lacking preen gland and syrinx (2006)
1.Tinamus and Apteryx 2.Rhea & Dromeous
3.Casuarius & Struthio 4.Kiwi & Rhea

LIST I LIST II
A) Echidna 1.Ophidia

B) Echinus 2.Teleostei
C) Echeneis 3.Platyhelminthes
D) Echis 4.Echinoidea
E) Echinococcus 5.Prototheria

16. The following are endothermic vertebrates (2005)
I) Didelphis II) Delphinus III) Tachyglassus IV) Pteropus
Amongst them, which pair, the broad transverse band of nerve tissue connecting internally the two
cerebral hemispheres is either poorly developed or absent

17. Which of the below given has a raft like keel, preen gland and a penis ? (2005)
1.Dromaius 2.Passer 3.Struthio 4.Tinamus

18. The bird without pectin is (2004)
1.Pteropus 2.Apteryx 3.Eryx 4.Galus

19. The animal unique to the country where the members of ophidian are absent is
1.Hatteria 2.Lepidosiren 3.Latimeria 4.Tylatotrition (2003)

3.RABBIT I (DIGESTIVE, RESPIRATORYCIRCULATORY SYSTEMS)(3
marks)
Every year, they ask one question from each one of the systems like digestive system, respiratory
system and circulatory systems.
Prepare the various parts of alimentary canal like teeth, tongue,stomach, intestine, liver, pancreas
etc. thoroughly.
Take care about the vitamins and minerals also.
Structure of respiratory tract, transportation of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide are also important.
Prepare the events occur during breathing .
Concentrate on the structure and functioning of heart which includes various valves, events during
cardiac cycle.
Prepare the events occur during blood clotting also.

Previous questions:
1. In rabbit, fungiform papillae that contain taste buds are distributed (2011)
1. In the margin of tongue 2.On the upper surface of tongue
3. At the base of tongue 4.At the sides of the base of tongue

2. Identify the sequence of steps involved during inspiration in rabbit (2011)
A) Volume of thoracic cavity increases
B) Contraction of external intercostals muscles moves the rib cage forward
C) Diaphragm becomes flat
D) Thoracic cavity expands drawing air into lungs
1.A D B C 2. C B A D 3. C A B D 4. A B C D

3. The opening of coronary sinus into left precaval vein is bound by a fold in rabbit is (2011)
1.Valve of Eustachian 2.Valve of Thebesius
3.Mitral valve 4.Tricuspid valve

4. Arrange the correct sequence of enzymes which act on food in different regions of alimentary
canal (2010)
a)Pepsin b)Ptyalin c)Dipeptidase d)Carboxypeptidase

5. Number of O
2
molecules bound in a saturated haemoglobin molecule (2010)
1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.Four

6. Mitral valve is (2010)
1.Right atrio venricular valve 2.Left atrio ventricular valve
3.Eustachian valve 4.Spiral valve

7. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia and leucopenia are caused by the deficiency of the following
respectively (2009)
1.Pyridoxine & riboflavin 2.Pyridoxine & Folacin
3.Biotin & folacin ` 4.Biotin & cyanocobalamin

8. Left shift of oxyhaemoglobin curve is noticed under (2009)
1.Normal temperature and pH 2.Low temperature and high pH

3.Low pH and high temperature 4.Low pH and low temperature

9. The macromineral essential for the formation of insulin is (2008)
1.Magnesium 2.Chlorine 3.Sulphur 4.Iodine

10. In rabbit, the two fibro-elastic strands of the larynx extend between the (2008)
1.Thyroid and arytenoids cartilages 2)Thyroid and cricoid cartilages
3.Santorini and thyroid cartilages 4.Cricoid and tracheal cartilaginous rings

11. The artery which supplies blood to pericardium is (2008)
1.Brachial artery 2.Coronary artery 3.Vertebral artery 4.Internal mammary

12. Identify the correct sequence of classification of the following (2007)
I)Eutheria II)Mammalia III)Leporidae IV)Lagomorpha V)Oryctolagus

13. In rabbit foliate papillae are (2007)
1.present on the margin of tongue 2.present on the upper surface of tongue
3.prresent at the base of tongue 4.present at the sides of bases of tongue

14. Nasal chamber of rabbit has three thin twisted bony plates known as conchae.
They are lined by(2007)
1.Striated cuboidal epithelium 2.Simple cuboidal epithelium
3.Simple squamous epithelium 4.Simple ciliated columnar epithelium

15. Identify the correct set of arteries formed from each common iliac artery in Rabbit
1. Internal iliac, external iliac, vesicular, lumbar, posterior epigastric (2007)
2. Internal iliac, external iliac, vesicular, lumbar, posterior mesenteric arteries
3. Internal iliac, external iliac, vesicular, uterine, posterior epigastric arteries
4. Internal iliac, external iliac, uterine, lumbar, posterior epigastric arteries

SET I SET II
A) Naphthoquinone 1.Aminoacid metabolism
B) Niacin 2.Osteomalacia

C) Ascorbic acid 3.matrix of cartilage
D) Calciferol 4.NAD
E) Thiamine 5.Prothrombin

17. The juice with sodium glycocholate is released under the influence of (2006)
1.Secretin 2.Cholecystokinin 3.Enterogastrone 4.Enterokinin

18. Identify the branches of dorsal aorta (2006)
I.Intercostal II.Phrenic III.Coeliac IV.Anterior mesenteric V.Posterior mesenteric

19. Reverse flow of food in stomach of rabbit is prevented by (2005)
1.Pyloric sphincter 2.Ileo-caecal valve
3.Cardiac sphincter 4.Oesophageal sphincter

20. The vein that does not directly open into the heart is (2005)
1.Pre caval 2.Post caval 3.Pulmonary 4.Posterior mesenteric

21. The deficiency of this vitamin causes abortion in early pregnancy (2005)
1.Retinol 2.Calciferol 3.tocopherol 4.Napthoquinone

22. Opening of common bile duct is guarded by this sphincter (2004)
1.Pyloric 2.Ileocaecal 3.Oddi 4.Muscularis mucosa

23. Second step in the coagulation of blood is catalysed by (2004)
1.Thrombin 2.Fctor XIII 3.Factor XII 4.Heparin

24. The number of valves that guard the opening at the origin of carotid & systemic aorta is (2004)
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1

25. The percent concentration of carbondioxide in alveolar air is (2004)
1) 0.04 2) 4.10 3) 5.5 4) 0.055

26. Submaxillary glands ;of rabbit pour their secretions through (2003)
1. Stensons duct 2.Ducts cholidocus

3. Whartons duct 4.Naso palatine duct

27. During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates O
2
to the cells due to
(2003)
1. High O
2
concentration, Low CO
2
concentration
2. Low O
2
concentration, High CO
2
concentration
3. Low O
2
tension, high CO
2
tension
4. High O
2
tension, Low CO
2
tension
5.
28. In the heart of rabbit, the mitral valve is attached to the papillary muscles by (2003)
1. Chordae tendinae 2.Purkinje fibres 3.Columnae carneae 4.Bundle of His

4. RABBIT II (3 MARKS) (MUSCULOSKELETAL, EXCRETORY,
REPRODUCTIVE)
Prepare the events occur during muscle contraction.
Prepare the names of bones of skull, girdles, limbs of rabbit.
Concentrate on joints and their locations and formation.
Other important topics to concentrate are kidney, formation of urine etc.
Take care about the parts in male and female reproductive systems thoroughly.
Various events occur during development also important in this topic.
Previous questions:
1. Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb in primate mammals is (2011)
1.Saddle joint 2.Pivot joint 3.Hinge joint 4.Ball & socket joint

LIST I LIST II
A)Ascending limb of Henles loop I)Concentration of glomerular filtrate is high
B)Proximal convoluted tubule II)Facultative water reabsorption
C)Collecting tubule III)Impermeable to water
D) Distal convoluted tubule IV)Obligatory water reabsorption


3. The following are the parts of male reproductive system in rabbit. Arange them in sequence
showing the passage of sperms from the place of their formation (2011) & (2004)
A)Epididymis B)Vasa efferentia C)Vas deferentia D)Seminiferous tubules
E)Urethra F)Rete testis

4. During the muscle contraction which zone decreases (2009)
1. I 2. Z 3. H 4. M

5. The glycoprotein layer between oocytes and cuboidal cells in ovary of rabbit is (2009)
1.Membrana granulose 2.Zona pellucid 3.Corpus luteum 4.Zon reticularis

6. The bone that divides olfactory capsules of rabbit into left and right halves is (2009)
1.Nasals 2.Premaxillae 3.Maxilae 4.Mesethmoid

7. Urine is (2009)
1.Hypotonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
2.Hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
3.Isotonic to blood and hypertonic to medullary fluid
4.Isotonic to blood and hypertonic to medullary fluid.

8. The renal fluid isotonic to the cortical fluid and blood is present in (2008)
1.Collecting duct and ascending limb 2.DCT and ascending limb
3.PCT and DCT 4.Ascending limb & descending limb=

A) The accumulation of pyruvic acid in muscle causes fatigue
B)ATP is resynthesized in muscle by phosphoryation of ADP by phosphagen
C)Cori and Cori cycle occurs in muscle
D)Phosphagens in vertebrate muscles is arginine phosphate.
Correct combination among the above related to muscle contraction is
1.A & D 2. B & D 3. C & D 4. B & C


A. Testosterone influences the male secondary sexual characters
B. Gestation period in rabbit is about 276 days.
C. Bulbourethral glands secrete a vaginal lubricant.
D. Placenta secretes oestrogen
Correct answer is ...
1. A & D 2. B & C 3. C & D 4. A & B

11. When does glomerular filtration occurs in Bowmans capsule ? (2007)
1. When hydrostatic pressure of blood in the glomerulus is 70 mm Hg and net filtrate pressure is
25mm Hg.
35mm Hg
10mm Hg
70mm Hg

12. The joint that allows restricted movements in different planes is (2007)
1.Arthrodial 2.Enarthroses 3.Ginglymi 4.Rotatoria

13. In rabbit placenta is formed by (2007)
1.Chorio allantoic membrane and yolk sac 2.Amnion, chorion & yolk sac
3.Chorio allantoic membrane & endometrium 4.Allantoids and endometrium

SET -- I SETII
A) Inguinal canal 1)Net work of semeniferous tubules
B) Rete testis 2)Secondary sexual characters
C) Leydig cells 3)For descending testis
D) Prepuce 4)Dorsal bundles of muscles
E) Corpora cavernosa 5)Terminal skin of penis

15. The joint where synovial capsule and synovial fluid are lacking is (2005)
1. Carpals 2.Pubic symphysis in females

3. Finger and Toes in males 4.Femur and pelvis in females

16. The lactic acid formed during muscle contraction is converted to glycogen in (2005)
1.Muscle 2.Kidney 3.Pancreas 4.Liver

19. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary bladder is (2005)
1.Polyurea 2.Micturition 3.Mallitus 4.Menstruation

17. The dorsal diverticulum of urethra in male rabbit is (2005)
1.Uterus 2.Uterus masculinus 3.Prepuce 4.Vasa deferens

18. The formation of essential protein in a myofibril during muscle contraction was discovered by
(2004)
1. Hanson 2.Cori & cori 3.Szent 4.Huxley

19. The movement shown in the trichoid joint is (old syllabus) (2004)
1.decreases in angle 2.restricted in different planes
3.free in more than one plane 4.rotatory around a central axis

20. In the nehron of rabbit, re absorption of glucose occurs in (2003)
1.Descending limb of Henles loop 2.PCT 3.DCT 4.Ascending of LOH

21. In Rabbit, the acidity in the urethra is neutralized by the secretions of (2003)
1.Perinel glands 2.Rectal glands 3.Gall bladder 4.Cowpers glands

22. Gestation period of cow is 2003)
1.30 days 2.270 days 3.280 days 4.300 days

5.RABBIT III (3 MARKS) (NERVOUS, ENDOCRINE & IMMUNOLOGY)
Prepare the structure and functions of brain, spinal cord.
Concentrate about the cranial nerves.
Learn about the hormones and their effects, irregularities occur due to hypo and hypersecretion of
hormones.

Mechanism of immunity, cells of immunity are the other topics.
Take care abut immunological disorders like AIDS and Hepatitis.
Previous questions:
1. Which of the following statements are correct ? (2011)
A) Diencephalon regulates posture and balance
B) cerebral hemispheres control voluntary movements
C) Medulla oblongata regulates involuntary activities
D) Cerebellum regulates temperature
1. A & D 2.A & C 3. C & D 4. B & C

2. One of the following hepatitis is not transmitted parenterally (2011)
1.Hepatitis A 2.Heptitis B 3.Hepatitis C 4.Hepatitis D

3. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder ? (2010)
1.Hypothryroidism 2.Acromegaly 3.Gigantism 4.Graves disease

4. The inability to regulate the concentration of sodium ions in the blood could be due to the
improper functioning of one of the following (2010)
1. Adenohypophysis: It produces ACTH
2. Adrenal cortex: It produces aldosterone
3. Adrenal medulla : It produces epinephrine
4. Pars nervosa : It produces ADH

5. Macrophages present in liver are (2010)
1.Microglial cells 2.Histiocytes 3.Lymphocytes 4.Kupffer cells

6. A hormone secreted by the endocrinal cells of duodenal mucosa which influences the release of
pancreatic juice is (2009)
1. Relaxin 2.Cholecystokinin 3.Secretin 4.Progesterone

a) Skin b)Phagocytes c) B cells d)Inflammation e)Antibodies
f)T-cells g)fever h)Antimicrobial proteins i)NK cells

Identify the factors involved in 2
nd
line of defence
1.b,d,g & i 2. b,c,e & i 3.d, f, h & i 4.c, e, g & h

8. Read the statements ... (2008)
A. Preganglionic nerve fibres of III, VII, IX & X cranial nerves are a part of the parasympathetic
nervous system.
B. V, VII, IX & X cranial nerves are mixed nerves.
C. Trochlear nerves are the largest cranial nerves.
D. Abducens nerves are motor and originate from the gasserian ganglia.
Which of them are correct ?
1. A & d 2. A & B 3.B & C 4. A & C

ENDOCRINE GLAND HORMONE DEFICIENCY DISORDER
A)Neurohypophysis Vasopressin Diabetes insipidus
B)Adrenal cortex Corticosteroids Addisons disease
C)Parathyroid glands Parathormone Myxoedema
D)Thyroid gland Calcitonin Acromegaly
Correct set is
1. B & C 2. A & B 3. C & D 4. A & D

10. The complexes formed during immune complex mediated hypersensitivity are removed by (2008)
1.Eosinophils & Tc cells 2.Monocytes & B lymphocytes
3.Eosinophils & monocytes 4.Eosinophils & basophils

11. hyposecretion of which hormone leads to loss of sodium and water through urine, low blood
pressure and hypotension ? (2007)
1.Thyrotropic hormones 2.Hormones of Adrenal cortex
3.Hormones of Adrenal medulla 4.Luteotrophic hormones

12. Identify the hepatitis virus, which can not survive independently and it requires another
hepatitis virus for its multiplication (2007)
1. Hepatitis A 2.Hepatitis B 3.Hepatitis C 4.Hepatitis D


13. The cranial nerve that goes to the external rectus muscle of eye ball is (2006)
1. II 2.III 3.VII 4.VI

14. Hormones have the following features (2006)
I. Adenohypophysis produces gonadotropins
II. Besides sex cells, hormones are also produced by testis and ovary.
III. Testosterone is produced by leydig cells IV. Estrogen is produced by ovary
Which of the above factors influence secondary sexual characters.

15. Brachial plexus is formed by these spinal nerves (2005)
1. IV, V & VI Cervical 2.V,VI,VII, VIII Cervical & 1
ST
thoracic
3. IV to VII lumbar 4.First three sacral

16. Acromegaly is due to hyper secretion of a hormone from (2005)
1.Neurohypophysis 2.Adenohypophysis 3.Leydig cells 4.pars intermedia

17. The hormone that prepare & maintains the uterus during pregnancy is secreted by
1.Corpora cardiac 2.Coprpus leuteum 3.Corpus albicans 4.Graffian follicle(2005)

18. The cranial nerve in rabbit that is connected to superior oblique muscles of eye
1.II 2.IV 3.V 4.VII (2004)

19. Incubation period for hepatitis B is (2004)
1.15-20 days 2.30 180 days 3.42-56 days 4.one week

6. GENETICS (3 marks)
Learn blood groups and their inheritance, different combinations and practice different types of
problems.
Prepare the methods of sex determination in different animals especially in Drosophila (genic
balance theory)
Practice the problems related to sex linked inheritance.
One question generally ask from Animal breeding.
Prepare gene expression, gene regulation,

Practice the methods of DNA fingerprinting, gene therapy.
Previous questions:
1. The blood group of a woman is O. She has two brothers; one with A and the other is with B
group. The genotypes of her parents are (2011)
1.I
0
I
0
-- I
A
I
0
2. I
A
I
0
-- I
A
I
0
3. I
A
I
0
-- I
B
I
0
4. I
A
I
B
-- I
0
I
0

2. Pick up the statements that are true about Klinefelter syndrome (2011)
A) Feminine sexual development is not completely suppressed
B) Karyotype is 44 XXY C) Male negative for Barr body
D) Secondary sexual characters are well developed
1.A & B 2. B & C 3. C & D 4. B & D

3. Statement (S): Sex-influenced genes are autosomal genes in both males and females. (2011)
Reason (R): The phenotypic expression of sex-influenced genes is different in different sexes,
dominant in one sex and recessive in the other.

4. A mother with blood type B has a child with blood group type O. What is the possibility of
the genotypes of that mother and father ? (2010)
1.I
A
I
A
(father) and I
B
I
O
(mother) 2. I
A
I
B
(father) and I
B
I
O
(mother)
3. I
A
I
O
(father) and I
B
I
O
(mother) 4. I
B
I
O
(father) and I
A
I
O
(mother)

5. Drumstick Barr bodies are present in (2010)
1.All RBC of females 2.All RBC of males
3.Some neutrophils of female 4.Some neutrophils of males

6. Match the following related to Drosophila (2010)
LIST I LIST II
(Ratio of X to Autosome) (sex)
A) 0.5 1)Metafemale
B) 1.0 2)Metamale
C) 1.5 3)Male
D) 0.33 4)intersex
E) 0.67 5)Female


7. woman with blood group O0 has a child with blood group O. She claims that a man with blood
group A as the father of her child. What would be the genotype of the father, if her claim is
right? (2009)
1. I
0
I
0
2.I
A
I
B
3. I
A
I
0
4. I
B
I
0

8. A specific nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase ataches to initiate transcription of m
RNA from a gene (2009)
1.Promotor gene 2.Structural gene 3.Operon 4.Regulator gene

9. The sequence of Nitrogen bases 9triplet) on t-RNA is (2009)
1.Anticodon 2.Terminating codon 3.Degenerate codon 4.Initiating codon

10. In heterozygous condition, the individual expression of both the alleles in the phenotype is
examplied by (2008)
1.Color blindness 2.AB blood type 3.Rh factor 4. A & B blood types

11. Crossing of unrelated pure breeding animals of different traits within the same breed is known
As (2008)
1.Cross breeding 2.Out crossing 3.Close breeding 4.Species hybridisation

12. Crossing of unrelated pure breeding animals of different traits within the same breed is known
as (2008)
1.Cross breeding 2.Out crossing
3.Close breeding 4.Species hybridisation

13. The strand of DNA acting as template for m-RNA transcription is (2008)
A. Coding strand B. Non-coding strand C. Sense strand D. Antisense strand
1. A & C 2.A & D 3.B & D 4.B & C

14. In man Four phenotypes of blood groups are due to the presence of antigen A and antigen B
on RBC. The chromosome that has the genes to control these antigens present on (2007)

1) X chromosome 2) 21st chromosome
3) 9th chromosome 4) 7th chromosome

15. When a cow is crossed to a bull and the female progeny is yielding more milk than Its mother.
From this it is inferred (2007)
1. More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited only from female parent
2. More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited only from male parent
3. More number of genes for high yielding milk are inherited from both the parents
4. Progeny through mutation achieved more number of genes for high yielding milk

16. Intron transcripts in heterogenous nuclear RNA (hn RNA) are removed and exon transcripts are
joined together under the direction of protein complexes. These complexes are (2007)
1. Polysomes 2.cdk complexes 3.Spliceosomes 4.Endopeptidases

17. A bald headed (Bb) man marries a non-bald woman (Bb), their progeny if all are females., the
probable bald to non-bald ratio in their progeny would be (2006)
1) 1: 1 2. 3: 1 3. 1: 3 4. 2: 1

18. If the blood group of a child is A and that its mother is B, then the genotype of mother and
father may be (2006)
1. BB X AA 2. AB X AB 3.BO X OO 4.BO X AO

19. The total number of progeny obtained from a dihybrid cross is 1280 in F
2
generation. How many
of them are recombinants? (2005) (2006)

20. In a skip generation inheritance of color blindness, the trait from a color blind man is passed
onto (2005)
1. Daughter 2.Son 3.Grand daughter 4.Grand son

21. In a medico legal case of accidental interchange between two babies in a hospital the baby of the
blood group A cound not be right given to a couple with (2005)
1.Husband of O and wife of AB 2.Husband of A and wife of B
3. Husband of B and wife of O 4.Husband of AB and wife of A


22. The genotype of blood type A can be (2004)
1.AB or BO 2.AA or AO 3.AB 4.OO

23. mRNA codon which stands for Serine is (2004)
1. AGC 2.AAA 3.UGA 4.UUU

24. Hypertrichosis is an example for this inheritance (2004)
1.Holandric 2.Incomplete sex linked 3.Sex influenced 4.Sex limited

25. What percentage of homozygous Rh
+ve
will be born amongst 4 children of a couple where the
husband is heterozygous for Rh
+ve
and wife is homozygous for Rh
+Ve
(2003)
1./25 % 2.50 % 3.75 % 4.100 %

26. In protein synthesis, the initiator codon is (2003)
1.AAA 2.AGC 3.AAT 4. AUG

27. A couple whose sons are color blind with Ab blood group, identify the parents
1.Mother color blind with A blood group & father normal with blood group B
2. Mother normal with A blood group & father color blind with blood group B
3. Mother color blind with B blood group & father normal with blood group B
4. Mother normal with A blood group & father color blind with blood group B

7. EVOLUTION ( 2-3 marks)
Practice different types of problems in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Prepare various theories of evolution.
Learn the contents given in the forces of evolution thoroughly.
Mutation theory, lamarkism , germplasm theory are the other topics to concentrate more.
Previous questions:
LIST I LIST II
A)Cosmozoic theory I)Louis Pasteur
B)Biogenesis theory II)Thales

C)Theory of Spontaneous generation III)Cuvier
D)Theory of catastrophism IV)Arrhenius
V)Haldane
2. In a population of 5000, 200 members exhibit a trait for recessive allele a. Find out the
frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles in the population (2011)
1) 0.6 and 0.4 2) 0.8 and 0.2 3) 0.96 and 0.04 4) 0.68 and 0.32

3. Statement (S): The concept of survival of the fittest is central to natural selection.
Reason (R): Individuals who posses advantageous characters to adapt to the environment have better
potential for survival (2010)

4. Find the frequency of heterozygotes in a population which exhibits the Hardy --Weinberg
equilibrium, if the frequencies of the two alleles in the population are 0.6 and 0.4 (2010)
1) 0.80 2) 0.64 3) 0.48 4) 0.32

5. A selection that acts to eleiminate one extreme from an aray of phenotypes (2009)
1.Disruptive 2.Directional 3.Stabilizing 4.Coevolution

6. Assertion (A): The theory of Survival of the Fittest is widely misunderstood.(2009)
Reason (R): Evolution does not always increase the chances of a species survival and species do not
survive when such chances happen rapidly.

7. A brief reduction in size of a population due to natural calamities usually leads to random
genetic drift. For this statement, identify the correct example (2008)
1. Human population of pitcarian island 2.Polydactylic dwarfs in Amish population
3. Long necked giraffe 4.Industrial melanism

8. Match the following(2007)
SET I SET II
a) T.R.Malthus 1.On the tendency of varieties to depart from Original types
b) Sir Charles Lyell 2.Pilosophie zoologique
c) Weismann 3.On the principles of populations

d) Lamarck 4.principles of Geology
e) Alfred Russel Wallace 5.Germinal selection

9. Myrmecobius and Myrmecophaga are closely related and have similar adaptations for the same
habitat. This phenomenon is (2007)
1.Divergent evolution 2.Homoplasy 3.Convergent evolution 4.Parallelism

10. The natural selection that acts against change in the form and keeps the Population constant
through the time is (2006)
1.Directional 2.Disruptive 3.Not acting 4.Stabilizing

11. In a population of 278, the number of MM, MN & NN blood groups is 78,138 and 62
respectively. What would be the frequency of M ? (2006)
1) 0.532 2) 0.499 3) 0.468 4) 0.283

12. Assertion: The long neck of Giraffe is due to centripetal selection. (2005)
Reason: during directional selection, when the men value of phenotype
coincides with new optimum environmental condition, centripetal selection takes over.

13. The force responsible for fixing in population of neutral characteristics is (2004)
1. Genetic drift 2.Mutation
3. Reproductive isolation 4.genetic recombination

14. A lineage giving rise to two or more lineages due to branching is (2004)
1.Phyletic change 2.Anagenesis 3.Cladogenesis 4.paedogenesisAsdf

15. adaptive radiation is an example for(2003)
1.Directional selection 2.Diversifying selection
3.Stabilizing selection 4.Sympatric speciation

16. Creation of new taxa is focussed in (2003)
1. Macro evolution 2.Theory of special creation
3. Sympatric speciation 4.theory of pangenesis


17. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles.
If the gene frequency of allele A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is (2003)
1.0.21 2.0.42 3.0.36 4.0.7
8. APPLIED BIOLOGY ( 24 marks)
Prepare aquaculture and poultry .
Concentrate on applications of Biotechnology.
Prepare the events occur in cell cycle and its regulation.
Cancer biology, stem cells are the other topics to concentrate.
We expect one question compulsory from Biomedical technology.
Previous questions:
1. DNA polymerase for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is produced by
1. Streptococcus pyogenes 2.Trichoderma reesi (2006) & (2011)
3. Bacillus licheniformis 4. Thermus aquaticus

LIST I LIST II
A)Cancer cells I)DNA replication
B)Transcriptional factors II)Saccharomyces
C)Cyclins III)Telomerase
D)Zygote IV)Totipotent cell

3. Haemopoietic stem cells are (2010)
1. Totipotent cells 2.Pleuripotent & multipotent cells
3. Unipotent cells 4.Differentiated cells

4. Match the following
LIST I LIST II
I) Cat fish A)Clarias batrachus
II) Milk fish B)Chanos chanos
III) White shrimp C)Heteropneustes fossilis
IV) Grey mullet D)Mugil cephalus
E)Penaeus monodon

F)Penaeus indicus (2010)

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of cell cycle ? (2010)
1.G
1
G
2
S M 2. SM G
2
G
1
3. G
1
S G
2
M 4. MS G
2
G
1

6. In poultry deworming is usually done around this age (2009)
1.4 weeks 2. 8 weeks 3.12 weeks 4.16 weeks

LIST I LIST II
A) Sandwich ELISA I)Three dimensional image
B) QRS complex II)Substrate linked antibody
C) Allograft III)Ventricular depolarisation
D) CT scan IV)Transplantation between genetically non Identical members

A) The cells of malignant tumours divide erratically.
B)They are malignant tumours of epithelial cells.
C)They are malignant tumours of organs that originate from mesoderm
D)These tumours are present in organs like spleen and lymph nodes
Which of them are true from angiosarcoma ?
1. A & B 2.b & D 3. A & C 4.B & C

9. Study the following pathogens (2008)
A)Yersinia pestis B)Borrilia spp C)Oidium albicans
D)Micobacterium leprae E)Haemophilus gallinarum
Which of them cause damage to poultry industry ?
1.A & D 2. C & E 3. B & D 4. D & E

10. In poultry birds nasal and eye discharges with foul smell, acute respiratory problem and
inflamed and swollen eyes are symptoms of (2007)
1.Chronic respiratory disease 2.Infectuous coryza disease
3.Brooder pneumonia disease 4.Mareks disease


11. Statement (S): The phenomenon where tumour cells detach and migrate to other parts of the body
where they give rise to secondary tumour is known as metastasis (2007)
Reason (R): Abnormal antigens on the surface of cell and unusual number of chromosomes cause
metastasis.

12. The anaphase promoting complex is activated by (2006)
1.M cdk cyclin 2.G
1
cdk cyclin complex 3. S cdk cyclin 4.Transcription factor

13. The progenitors that are formed in bone marrow and differentiated else where are
1.Pre-NK cell 2.Pre-erythroblast 3.Pre- T cell 4.Myeloblast (2005)

14. The giant freshwater prawn is (2005)
1.White shrimp 2.Tiger shrimp 3.Scampy 4.Sardine

15. Chicks of the first two weeks in the brooding hover are usually susceptible to one of the
following (2005)
1.Mareks disease 2.Fowl pox 3.Ranikhet 4.Gumboro

16. The discovery of one of the following is instrument in the advancement of r DNA
1.Genetic code 2.t RNA 3.Endonucleases 4.Antibodies (2004)

17. The disease in poultry which reduces immunity and spreads through contaminate food is (2004)
1.Raniket 2.Aflotoxicosis 3.Thrush 4.Mareks disease

18. The Mediterranean type of popular fowls are known as (2003)
1.White leghorn 2.New Hampshire 3.Plymouth rock 4.Rhode Island Red

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