NBDE -1 MOCK EXAM TEST 1

TIME 9.00 AM TILL 12.00 PM INDIAN TIME 2706-2014

CONTAINS 200 QUESTIONS
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS Dr. ARAVINDHAN KARUNAKARAN
READER AND HEAD OF THE DEPARTMENT
ASAN MEMORIAL DENTAL COLLEGE AND HOSPITAL
BEST OF LUCK
______________________________________________________________________________

1, Optic nerve is considered to be a part of the central nervous system because,
A, It is derived from out-pouching of the Diencephalon during embryogenesis.
B, Its fibers are covered with Oligo-dendrocytes rather than Schwann cells.
C, They are encased with in the meninges.
D, Guillain-Barr syndrome do not affect the optic nerve.
E, All of the above

2, Damage to the optic tract posterior to the chiasm causes loss of vision in the visual field
A, on the side opposite to the damage
B, on the same side of the damage
C, does not have any effect upon vision
D, on both sides
E, none of the above

3, the most common injuries to the optic nerve is/are from
A, Glaucoma
B, optic neuritis
C, anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
D, all of the above
E, none of the above

4, The motor division of the trigeminal nerve is derived from
A, the basal plate of the embryonic pons
B, the cranial neural crest
C, both of the above
D, none of the above
E, rathkes pouch

5, In Wallenberg syndrome, a stroke causes
A, loss of pain/temperature sensation from one side of the face and the same side of the body
B, loss of pain/temperature sensation from one side of the face and the other side of the body
C, loss of pain/temperature sensation from both sides of the face
D, loss of pain/temperature sensation from both sides of the body
E, loss of motor innervation from both sides of the face

6, 95% of the brains blood supply goes to the
A, grey matter
B, white matter
C, A and B together
D, pons
E, cerebellum

7, tidal volume in a normal healthy adult
A, 500 ml
B, 750 ml
C, 1500 ml
D, 250 ml
E, 150 ml

8, Vibrio cholerae is a
A, Gram positive facultative anaerobic organism
B, Gram-negative facultative anaerobic organism
C, Gram negative aerobic organism
D, Gram positive obligatory anaerobic organism
E, Gram positive diplo-cocci organism

9, the type of flagellum shown in the picture marked B and C below are

A, monotrichous and peritrichous respectively
B, lophotrichous and peritrichous respectively
C, amphitrichous and peritrichous respectively
D, lophotrichous and amphitrichous respectively
E, monotrichous and phimotrichous respectively

10, The sternocleidomastoid muscle is supplied by
A, Occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery
B, Occipital artery and the middle thyroid artery
C, Occipital artery and the inferior thyroid artery
D, sternocleidoid artery and the superior thyroid artery
E, none of the above



11, The accessory nerve is a cranial nerve that controls
A, platysma and sternocleidomastoid muscles
B, sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
C, platysma and trapezius muscles
D, platysma, trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
E, inferior belly of digastric and trapezius muscles

12, The abducens nerve
A, is a somatic afferent nerve
B, is a somatic efferent nerve
C, is a visceral efferent nerve
D, is a visceral afferent nerve
E, is a somatic and visceral efferent nerve

13, The hypoglossal canal is located in
A, sphenoid bone
B, temporal bone
C, junction of temporal and occipital bone
D, occipital bone
E, ethmoid bone

14, the foramen magnum transmits all of the below except
A, vertebral arteries
B, anterior spinal artery
C, middle spinal artery
D, superior spinal artery
E, membrana tectoria

15, Which is also known as the "check ligament of the odontoid."
A, The alar ligaments
B, The occipital ligaments
C, The odontoid ligaments
D, The check ligament of atlas
E, Planar bi-occipital ligaments

16, Sharpey's fibers
A, are part of the outer fibrous layer of periosteum
B, are part of the inner cellular layer of periosteum
C, are part of both the inner and outer layers of periosteum
D, are part of the attaching muscles
E, are mainly composed of elastic fibers


17, A large cell with multiple nuclei, a "foamy" cytosol and associated with Howships lacuna
shown in the picture below is a

A, osteoblast
B, macrophage
C, osteoclast
D, fibroblast
E, giant cell seen in tuberculous granuloma

18, Regarding hepatitis D virus
1. RNA virus
2. it can propagate only in the presence of the hepatitis B virus
3. The vaccine for hepatitis B will not give protection against hepatitis D virus
4. DNA virus
5. It can replicate independently inside the host cell
A, all the above statements are true
B, the first 3 statements are true
C, the first 2 statements are true
D, only statements 4 and 5 are true
E, the last 4 statements are true


19, Regarding the following statements about interferon,
1. The interferon- proteins are produced by leukocytes
2. The interferon- proteins are produced in large quantities by fibroblasts
3. Limitin is a type of interferon
4. The IFN- proteins are involved in immunity against viral infections
5. The interferon- proteins have anti-viral property
A, all the above statements are true
B, the first 3 statements are true
C, the first 2 statements are true
D, only statements 4 and 5 are true
E, the first 4 statements are true






20, the lesions in the below picture are characteristic of

A, lichen planus
B, erythema multiformae
C, epidermolysis bullosa
D, psoriasis
E, pemphigoid

21, Gelatin is a derivative of
A, keratin
B, vimentin
C, collagen
D, vitamin K
E, glycogen

22, Proline
1. is an -amino acid
2. It is not an essential amino acid
3. the amine nitrogen is bound to one alkyl group
4. is biosynthetically derived from the amino acid L-glutamate
5. it is a secondary amine

A, all the above statements are true
B, the first 3 statements are true
C, the first 2 statements are true
D, only statement 3 is false
E, the last 4 statements are true

23, Which of these amino acids is not aliphatic
A, Alanine
B, Valine
C, Leucine
D, Isoleucine
E, Tyrosine


24, which is a precursor of the neurotransmitter serotonin
A, Alanine
B, Valine
C, Leucine
D, Tryptophan
E, Tyrosine

25, Mastocytosis indicates
A, increase in the number of mast cells
B, increase in the size of breasts
C, acute infection and abcess formation of breasts
D, abnormal enlargement of mastoid process
E, pathological apoptosis of mast cells

26, The mast cell is very similar in both appearance and function to the
A, basophil
B, neutrophil
C, monocyte
D, T- lymphocyte
E, osteoclast

27, This Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear shows blue colored ________ surrounded by red
blood cells


A, mast cells
B, platelets
C, basophils
D, monocytes
E, neutrophils




28, which muscle is shown in this picture with a pointer?



A, lateral pterygoid
B, medial pterygoid
C, masseter
D, superior belly of the digastric
E, buccinators

29, the features shown in the picture is that of

A, maxillary right first premolar
B, maxillary left first premolar
C, maxillary right second premolar
D, maxillary left secondpremolar
E, mandibular right first premolar

30, which of the following symptoms are associated with thrombophlebitis
A, pain in the part of the body affected
B, skin redness or inflammation
C, palpable cord-like veins
D, all of the above
E, none of the above


31, regarding Pannus
1. is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue
2. In people suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, pannus tissue eventually forms in the joint affected
by the disease
3. Common sites for pannus formation include over the cornea, over a joint surface or on
a prosthetic heart valve.
4. It can induce normal bone formation
A, all the above statements are true
B, only the first statement is true
C, the first 2 statements are true
D, only statement 3 is false
E, the last statement is false

32, the Hyoid bone
A, lies at the level of the base of the mandible in the front and the second cervical vertebra behind.
B, lies at the level of the base of the mandible in the front and the third cervical vertebra behind.
C, lies at the level of the base of the mandible in the front and the second and third cervical
vertebra behind.
D, lies at the level of the mid-ramus of the mandible in the front and the third cervical vertebra behind.
E, lies at the level of the base of the mandible in the front and the third and fourth cervical
vertebra behind.

33, the Hyoglossus muscle
A, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and depresses and retracts the tongue
B, origins from hyoid, inserts to the floor of the tongue and depresses the tongue
C, origins from hyoid, inserts to the tip and base of the tongue and depresses and retracts the tongue
D, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and elevates and retracts the tongue
E, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and protrudes the tongue

34, The sublingual salivary glands appear first
A, in the sixth week of prenatal development
B, in the eighth week of prenatal development
C, in the seventh week of prenatal development
D, in the tenth week of prenatal development
E, in the third month of prenatal development

35, Crescents of Gianuzzi are related to
A, lacrimal glands
B, salivary glands
C, Brunner glands
D, pancreas
E, islets of Langerhans


36, The ABO blood group system is determined by
A, what type of glucuronyltransferases are expressed in the body
B, what type of aminotransferases are expressed in the body
C, what type of glucosyltransferases are expressed in the body
D, what type of carboxytransferases are expressed in the body
E, what type of aldotransferases are expressed in the body

37, the methyl donor used by the DNA methyltransferases
A, ALPHA-adenosyl methionine
B, S-phosphatyll methionine
C, C-adenosyl methionine
D, S-adenosyl methionine
E, S-adenosyl cystine

38, Intercalated discs are microscopic identifying features of
A, cardiac muscle
B, skeletal muscle
C, cortical bone
D, liver
E, gall bladder

39, The most common type of melanin is
A, yucromelanin
B, phytomelanin
C, neuromelanin
D, pheomelanin
E, eumelanin

40, first branch of Aorta
A, posterior coronary artery
B, anterior coronary artery
C, right and left coronary arteries
D, carotid artery
E, middle coronary artery










41, Regarding coronary sinus
1, is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel
2, collects blood from the heart muscle
3, It delivers oxygenated blood to the right atrium
4, The anterior cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus
5, The coronary sinus orifice is guarded by the Thebesian valve.
A, all statements are true
B, 3 and 4 are false
C, 3, 4 and 5 are false
D, only 2 is true
E, only 3 is false

42, The normal tricuspid valve usually has
A, three leaflets and three papillary muscles
B, three leaflets and two papillary muscles
C, three leaflets and four papillary muscles
D, two leaflets and three papillary muscles
E, three leaflets and five papillary muscles

43, Destruction to the olfactory bulb
A, results in bilateral anosmia.
B, results in ipsilateral anosmia.
C, results in contralateral anosmia.
D, results in destruction of olfactory cortex
E, A and D

44, neurogenesis has been found to occur in the adult mammalian brain in
A, subventricular zone
B, dentate gyrus of the hippocampus
C, amygdala
D, all of the above
E, A and B

45, regarding Rhodopsin
1. also known as visual purple
2. belong to the G-protein-coupled receptor family
3. Rhodopsin of the rods most strongly absorbs green-blue light
4. It is responsible for monochromatic vision in the dark
5. Rhodopsin consists of opsin and retinal
A, all statements are true
B, 3 and 4 are false
C, 3, 4 and 5 are false
D, only 2 is true
E, only 3 is false

46, Each transferrin molecule has the ability to carry
A, three iron ions in the ferric form
B, two iron ions in the ferrous form
C, two iron ions in the ferric form
D, four iron ions in the ferric form
E, three iron ions in the ferrous form

47, majority of thiamine in blood is in the
A, erythrocytes
B, leukocytes
C, plasma
D, platelets
E, A and D

48, Left atrial enlargement is suggested by an electrocardiogram (ECG) that has a pronounced
notch in the
A, R wave
B, T wave
C, Q wave
D, P wave
E, L wave

49, In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale
A, allows blood to enter the right atrium from the left atrium
B, allows blood to enter the left atrium from the left ventricle
C, allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium
D, allows blood to enter the right ventricle from the right atrium
E, allows blood to enter the left atrium from the aorta

50, the only human internal organ capable of natural regeneration of lost tissue
A, kidneys
B, pancreas
C, liver
D, adrenal glands
E, ovary

51, in NiemannPick disease
A, uric acid accumulates in lysosomes
B, plasmalogens accumulates in lysosomes
C, sphingomyelin accumulates in lysosomes
D, glucocerebroside accumulates in lysosomes
E, cholesterol accumulates in lysosomes

52, Major factor in renal stone formation
A, Crohn's disease
B, hyperparathyroidism
C, High dietary intake of animal protein
D, Dehydration from low fluid intake
E, distal renal tubular acidosis

53, fructose is metabolized primarily in the
A, pancreas
B, liver
C, kidneys
D, small intestine
E, brain cells

54, which of the following is not related to middle cranial fossa
A, foramen ovale
B, foramen lacerum
C, foramen spinosum
D, jugular foramen
E, foramen rotundum

55, the first branch of the internal carotid artery
A, ophthalmic artery
B, anterior cerebral artery
C, lacrimal artery
D, choroidal artery
E, posterior communicating artery

56, The internal carotid plexus communicates with all of the below except
A, trigeminal ganglion
B, hypoglossal nerve
C, glossopharyngeal nerve.
D, pterygopalatine ganglion
E, abducent nerve


57, Meckel's cave contains
A, carotid plexus
B, otic ganglion
C, pterygopalatine ganglion
D, trigeminal ganglion
E, A and C


58, The cerebellopontine angle contains
A, facial N
B, vestibulocochlear N
C, abducent N
D, all of the above
E, A and B

59, largest neurons in the human brain are
A, Lugaro cells
B, Purkinje cells
C, Betz cells
D, Marr cells
E, Megaloneurons

60, The platysma is supplied by
A, sub-mental and supra-scapular arteries
B, sub-mental and infra-scapular arteries
C, occipital and supra-scapular arteries
D, occipital and infra-scapular arteries
E, posterior auricular and supra-scapular arteries

61, In which syndrome pectoralis major on one side of the body will be absent
A, Scotlands syndrome
B, Midlands syndrome
C, Jutlands syndrome
D, Englands syndrome
E, Polands Syndrome

62, Supporting cusps
A, are the maxillary buccal cusps and the mandibular buccal cusps
B, are the maxillary lingual cusps and the mandibular lingual cusps
C, are the maxillary lingual cusps and the mandibular buccal cusps
D, are the maxillary buccal cusps and the mandibular lingual cusps
E, none of the above

63, The right and left temporomandibular joints and their suspensory ligaments as well as the right
and left condyles of the mandible.
A, are the posterior determinants of occlusion and are variable.
B, are the posterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.
C, are the anterior and posterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.
D, are the anterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.
E, are the anterior determinants of occlusion and are variable.


64, Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson form a plane termed as the
A, Jackson curve
B, Hutchinson curve
C, wilkinson curve
D, robinson curve
E, Monson Curve

65, The length of the junctional epithelium ranges from
A, 1.25 to 1.35 mm
B, 0.25 to 3.35 mm
C, 0.25 to 1.35 mm
D, 0.75 to 1.35 mm
E, 0.55 to 1.35 mm

66, In the periodontal ligament, Ruffini like mechano-receptors are primarily seen in
A, cervical region
B, Apical region
C, Midroot region
D, near the junctional epithelium
E, B and C

67, primary role of Glycolipids is as
A, cell membrane receptors
B, enzymes
C, hormones
D, transport molecules
E, cell cytoskeleton molecules

68, Each maxilla articulates with
A, eight bones
B, nine bones
C, ten bones
D, seven bones
E, eleven bones

69, The sphenopalatine foramen contains all of the below except
A, The sphenopalatine vein
B, The sphenopalatine artery
C, superior nasal nerve
D, middle nasal nerve
E, nasopalatine nerve



70, which is commonly known as the artery of epistaxis
A, sphenopalatine artery
B, nasopalatine artery
C, superficial nasal artery
D, superior nasal artery
E, A and B

71, Pancreatic secretion per day is
A, 1.5 litres
B, 2.5 litres
C, 0.5 litres
D, 4.5 litres
E, 3.5 litres

72, Streptococcus mitis is mainly implicated in
A, Dental caries
B, endocarditis
C, pharyngitis
D, meningitis
E, urinary tract infections

73, group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is involved in all of the below except
A, impetigo
B, scarlet fever
C, toxic shock syndrome
D, necrotizing fascitis
E, strangles

74, What is shown in this photomicrograph ?

A, cap stage of tooth development
B, early bell stage of tooth development
C, late bell stage of tooth development
D, early thickening of oral ectomesenchyme
E, thickened dental lamina

75, What is shown in this photomicrograph ?

A, pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B, staratified squamous epithelium
C, transitional epithelium
D, serous salivary gland acini
E, esophageal lining epithelium

76, which enzyme plays a role in the first step in the decomposition of starches
A, pancreatic amylase
B, salivary beta-amylase
C, salivary alpha-amylase
D, pro-starchylase in saliva
E, alpha glucosidase

77, Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is caused by
A, endotoxins produced by Treponema pallidum
B, activation of eosinophils in response to lipoproteins released from rupturing syphilis bacteria
C, abnormal activation of the coagulation cascade with in the vessels
D, cytokines released by the immune system in response to lipoproteins released from rupturing syphilis
bacteria
E, A and C

78, plasmacytoma can be differentiated clinically from multiple myeloma by looking for
A, increased blood calcium
B, renal insufficiency
C, multiple bone lesions
D, Bence Jones proteins
E, none of the above





79, Facial nerve gives _____ innervation to the ethmoid air cells
A, preganglionic ympathetic nerve fibers
B, preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers
C, postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
D, postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers
E, sensory nerve fibers

80, Vidian nerve is formed by the
A, junction of the lesser petrosal nerve and the deep petrosal nerve within the pterygoid canal
B, junction of the greater petrosal nerve and the deep petrosal nerve within the pterygoid canal
C, junction of the greater petrosal nerve and the superficial petrosal nerve within the pterygoid canal
D, junction of the posterior auricular nerve and the deep petrosal nerve within the pterygoid canal
E, junction of the greater petrosal nerve and the emissary nerve within the pterygoid canal

81, cavernous sinus drains to
A, superior petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinus
B, superior petrosal sinus and middle petrosal sinus
C, anterior petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinus
D, superior petrosal sinus and posterior petrosal sinus
E, middle petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinus

82, syphilitic Gummas are most commonly found in the
A, heart
B, spleen
C, palate
D, liver
E, kidneys

83, coenzyme R is
A, Biotin
B, thiamine
C, niacin
D, folic acid
E, uracil

84, which is a key element of the lymphatic system
A, Thymus
B, red bone marrow
C, lymph vessels
D, lymph nodes
E, spleen



85, normal blood pH is
A, 7.347.45
B, 7
C, 6.45 7.85
D, 7 - 10
E, 5.5 6.5

86, which of the following regarding Erythropoietin is false
A, it enhances the hormone hepcidin
B, it is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney
C, Also called hematopoietin
D, is a glycoprotein hormone
E, It is a cytokine

87, Biliverdin is
A, yellow
B, green
C, blue
D, red
E, purple

88, Hofbauer cell is a tissue macrophage located in
A, bone
B, liver
C, kidneys
D, medulla oblongata
E, placenta

89, which statement is true
A, Indirect bilirubin is fat-soluble
B, Indirect bilirubin is water-soluble
C, direct bilirubin is fat-soluble
D, direct bilirubin is water-soluble
E, A and D

90, Each transferrin molecule has the ability to carry
A, two iron ions in the ferrous form
B, two iron ions in the ferric form
C, three iron ions in the ferrous form
D, five iron ions in the ferric form
E, four iron ions in the ferric form



91, this peripheral blood smear is characteristic of

A, hemolytic anemia
B, normoblastic anemia
C, sickle cell disease
D, megaloblastic anemia
E, sickle cell disease

92, palatine aponeurosis
1. serves as the insertion for the Tensor veli palatini
2. serves as the origin for the Levator veli palatini
3. serves as the origin for the Musculus uvulae
4. serves as the insertion for the Palatopharyngeus, and Palatoglossus

A, all statements are true
B, 1 and 4 are true
C, 1 and 3 are true
D, 3 and 4 are true
E, 2 and 4 are true

93, Histidine
A, is an -amino acid with an imidazole functional group.
B, is an essential amino acid in humans
C, is a precursor for histamine
D, all are true
E, only A and B are true

94, most abundant protein in human blood plasma
A, fibrinogen
B, albumin
C, globulin
D, plasmin
E, IgG

95, fetal production of thyroxine (T
4
) reaches a clinically significant level at
A, 810 weeks
B, 2830 weeks
C, 3540 weeks
D, 1820 weeks
E, 1113 weeks

96, which virus crosses the placenta
1. herpes
2. HIV
3. Rubella
4. cytomegalovirus
A, all of the above
B, the first 3
C, the last 3
D, the first 2
E, the last 2

97, Somatostatin
A, is produced by the hypothalamus
B, reduces the pituitary production of TSH
C, enhances the pituitary production of TSH
D, A and B
E, A and C

98, What is the function of ATP, adenosine triphosphate?
A, message carrier
B, make proteins
C, store and transport energy
D, breakdown sugars
E, A and C

99, In humans, the Barr body is an
(A) active X chromosome in females
(B) active X chromosome in males
(C) inactive Y chromosome in males
(D) inactive Y chromosome in females
(E) inactive X chromosome in females






100, Which of the following types of molecules is always found in virions?
(A) Lipid
(B) Protein
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) DNA
(E) RNA

101, Which enzyme is activated by phosphorylation?
(A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
(B) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
(C) Glycogen synthase
(D) Pyruvate kinase
(E) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase

102, The karyotype of a triploid plant contains 72 chromosomes. How many chromosomes
would the karyotype of a diploid plant of the same species contain?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 49
(D) 71
(E) 96

103, The principal site of peptide neurohormone biosynthesis is the
(A) nucleus
(B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(C) dendrite
(D) postsynaptic density
(E) synaptic vesicle

104, Proline disrupts -helical structure in proteins because it is
(A) an acidic amino acid
(B) an aromatic amino acid
(C) an imino acid
(D) a basic amino acid
(E) a sulfur-containing amino acid









105, which is false regarding the predisposing factors for intravascular thrombosis
1. myocardial infarction
2. factor VIII deficiency
3. bed rest
4. thrombophilia
5. heart failure
A, all
B, only 2
C, 1 and 3
D, none
E, only 5

106, The following may cause right heart failure
1. essential hypertension
2. chronic lung disease
3. left heart failure
4. atherosclerosis
5. ventricular septal defect
A, all except 5
B, all
C, all except 4
D, none
E, 2 and 3

107, Which of the following are benign neoplasms?
1. hepatoma
2. melanoma
3. sarcoma
4. adenoma
5. papilloma
A, the last two
B, the first three
C, all of the above
D, 2 and 3
E, 1, 4 and 5









108, The following are tumour suppressor genes
1. Rb
2. ras
3. myc
4. BRCA1
5. APC
A, all
B, 2 and 5
C, 1, 4 and 5
D, 3 and 5
E, 2 and 3

109, A family history of colon carcinoma is elicited from a 32 year old man. He has three colonic
polyps, one of which is found tohave a focus of adenocarcinoma. Inheritance of which genes is likely
to be involved?
1. growth factor receptors
2. growth factors
3. DNA mismatch repair
4. cyclins
5. inhibitors of apoptosis
A, all
B, none
C, only 3
D, 4 and 5
E, 3 and 5

110, regarding human carcinogenesis
1. translocations involving c-myc are common in Burkitts lymphoma
2. Ki-ras activation is usually effected by point mutation
3. p53 inactivation is frequently associated with aneuploidy
4. errors in mismatch repair are characteristic of aneuploid tumours
5. both alleles of p53 must be altered to produce a phenotype
A, only 4 is false
B, 4 and 5 are true
C, all are true
D, all are false
E, 2 and 4 are false







111, Which of the following is true of p53?
1. an inherited mutation is the basis of Li Fraumeni syndrome
2. an inherited mutation is the basis of retinoblastoma
3. is the site of the commonest mutation in human cancers
4. is activated by binding to Mdm2
5. binds to and is inactivated by the early gene product E7 in HPV infection
A, all are true
B, 4 and 5 true
C, 1 and 3 true
D, all are false
E, only 3 is true

112, which of the following are true
1. activation of ras oncogene usually occurs by point mutation
2. myc oncogene products are located predominantly in the cell membrane
3. many proto-oncogenes code for tyrosine kinases
4. all known cellular proto-oncogenes have retroviral homologues
5. some oncogenes encode cell cycle regulatory proteins such as cyclins
A, 1, 3 and 5
B, 3 and 5
C, 2 and 5
D, all
E, 4 and 5

113, The following mechanisms may cause a qualitative change in the expression of a gene
1. gene amplification
2. chromosomal rearrangement
3. point mutation
4. promotional insertion
5. gene deletion
A, all
B, 3 and 4
C, 2 and 3
D, 4 and 5
E, 2 and 5









114, regarding Antibiotic resistance in bacteria
1. Is always caused by degradation of the drug by bacteria
2. Is found only in Gram positive bacteria
3. Can be transferred between bacteria by conjugation
4. Is only encoded by plasmids
5. Is not transferred between bacterial species
A, only 3 is true
B, all are false
C, 3 and 5 are true
D, 3 and 4 are true
E, 1 and 3 are true

115, Virulence factors in Neisseria gonorrhoeae
1. IgA protease
2. Polysaccharide capsule
3. Highly variable cell surface proteins
4. Adhesion pili
5. Prone to transformation
A, all except 2
B, all
C, only 4 and 5
D, only 2 and 4
E, none

116, Virulence factors in Streptococcus pyogenes
1. Hylauronic acid capsule
2. Superantigen
3. C5a peptidase
4. M protein
5. Lipotechoic acid
A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 4 and 5
D, only 2 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5









117, Travellers diarrhoea what is true
1. Is usually accompanied by marked mucosal inflammation and ulceration of the intestine
2. Is caused by infection with Salmonella typhimurium
3. Is usually transmitted by contaminated water supplies
4. May cause death from electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
5. Is caused by a toxin which reduces adenylate cyclase activity
A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 2 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

118, Which bacteria can survive inside phagocytes?
1. Strep. pneumoniae
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Yersinia enterocolitica
4. Salmonella typhi
5. Shigella flexneri
A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

119, The following are cytolysins
1. Cholera toxin
2. Clostridial toxin
3. Strep. pneumoniae pneumolysin
4. Strep. pyogenes streptolysin O
5. E. coli enterotoxin

A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5








120, The following are Gram negative rods
1. Escherichia coli
2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Pseudomonas vulgaris
4. Bordetella pertussis
5. Neisseria meningitides
A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 1, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

121, The following diseases are caused by prions
1. Alzheimers disease
2. Kuru
3. Creuzfeld Jacob disease
4. Familial fatal insomnia
5. Aleutian disease of Mink

A, all except 4
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

122, The following viruses are acquired by the respiratory route
1. Rhinovirus
2. Respiratory syncytial virus
3. Poliomyelitis
4. Measles
5. Varicella Zoster
A, all except 3
B, all
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5








123, which of the following viruses have a helical capsid
1. Rabies virus
2. Rous sarcoma virus
3. Rubella
4. Poliovirus
5. Foot and mouth disease virus

A, all except 3
B, none
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

124, Which viruses cause hepatitis?
1. Hepatitis C
2. Epstein Barr virus
3. Yellow fever
4. Cytomegalovirus
5. Coxsackie virus
A, all of the above except 5
B, none
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

125, The following are enveloped viruses
1. Rubella
2. Human papilloma virus
3. Feline leukaemia virus
4. Mumps
5. Influenza virus


A, all of the above except 2
B, none
C, only 3
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5






126, problems in bile secretion may lead to
A, steatorrhea
B, deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins
C, deficiencies in essential fatty acids
D, only A and C
E, A, B, and C

127, Pathology of malaria may include
1. anaemia due to red cell destruction
2. red blood cell sequestration
3. fever correlated with synchronous parasite release
4. recurrent disease due to cryptic infections in the liver
5. cerebral inflammation due to over production of TNF
A, all of the above except 2
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 1, 3 and 5

128, Macrophages have Fc receptors for which of the following antibodies?
1. IgM
2. IgG1
3. IgA
4. IgD
5. IgE
A, all of the above except 2
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5

129, Which of the following cells originate in the bone marrow?
1. T lymphocytes
2. B lymphocytes
3. Macrophages
4. follicular dendritic cells
5. interdigitating dendritic cells
A, all of the above except 4
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5


130, Which of the following conditions represents a type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction?
1. haemolytic anaemia
2. myasthenia gravis
3. transfusion reaction
4. Graves disease
5. extrinsic allergic alveolitis
A, all of the above except 5
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5


131, In response to infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a granuloma forms in the lung.
Within the granuloma are cells expressing class II MHC antigens. These cells elaborate cytokines
that promote fibroblastic proliferation. From which of the following peripheral blood cells are these
cells derived?
A, Neutrophil
B, Monocyte
C, B Cell
D, NK cell
E, Basophil

132, During the induction of type I (immediate) hypersensitivity response, which of the following
cells secrete cytokines that stimulate IgE production by B cells, promotes mast cell growth, recruits
and activates mast cells.
A, CD4+ lymphocytes
B, Natural killer (NK) cells
C, Macrophages
D, Dendritic cells
E, Neutrophils

133, Factors that influence the induction of tolerance include
1. the solubility of the antigen
2. the route of administration of antigen
3. the dose of antigen
4. maturity of immune system
5. chimerism

A, all of the above except 5
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5

134, Central tolerance takes place in
A, thymus
B, lymph nodes
C, spleen
D, liver
E, pancreas

`135, A patient with congenital heart disease with a ventricular septal defect presents with fever
and headache. CT head scan showed a parietal lobe abscess in the brain. Which of the following
accounts for abscess formation?
A, Formation of nitric oxide by macrophages
B, Production of interferon by T lymphocytes
C, Formation of TGF by macrophages
D, Generation of prostaglandins by endothelium
E, Release of lysosomal enzymes by neutrophils

136, The following are oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms in neutrophils
1. Lysozyme
2. Lactoferrin
3. Myeloperoxidase
4. Cationic proteins
5. Hydrogen peroxidase
A, all of the above except 5
B, all of the above
C, only 3 and 5
D, only 2, 3 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5

137, The anti-inflammatory properties of aspirin affects
A, Vasodilatation
B, Chemotaxis
C, Phagocytosis
D, Leucocyte emigration
E, Release of leukocytes from the bone marrow

138, Complement products are involved in all of the following except
A, Chemotaxis
B, Increased vascular permeability
C, Neutrophil activation
D, Phagocytosis
E, Killing of bacteria in the phagocytic vacuole


139, The mylohyoid muscle is derived from
A, third pharyngeal arch.
B, first pharyngeal arch.
C, second pharyngeal arch.
D, A and B
E, A and C

140, The nasal septum comprises
A, four bones and one cartilage
B, five bones and one cartilage
C, three bones and one cartilage
D, five bones and two cartilages
E, six bones and one cartilage

141 regarding the location of drainage of the ethmoid sinuses , which is a wrong match
1. Anterior - Hiatus semilunaris
2. !Middle - Ethmoidal bullae
3. !Posterior - Superior meatus
4. Middle superior meatus
5. Posterior hiatus semilunaris
A, the first 3 are correct
B, the last 3 are correct
C, only 1 and 2 are corrrect
D, all are true
E, all are false

142, This is the space entered with a lumbar puncture (spinal tap).
A, sub-dural space
B, epi-dural space
C, sub-arachnoid space
D, sub-piamater space
E, B and C

143, which contains the occipital sinus
A, Tentorium ceribri
B, Diaphragma sella
C, Falx cerebri
D, Falx cerebelli
E, Tentorium cerebelli






144, CIRCLE OF WILLIS is composed of
1. Posterior cerebral artery
2. Middle cerebral artery
3. ! Posterior communicating artery
4. ! Internal carotid artery
5. ! Anterior cerebral artery
6. Middle communicating artery
7. ! Anterior communicating artery
A, all of the above except 2 and 6
B, all of the above
C, the first 5 arteries
D, the last 5 arteries
E, the middle 5 arteries

145, which of the following cranial nerves participate in the taste sensation of the tongue
1. 5
th
cranial nerve
2. 6
th
cranial nerve
3. 7
th
cranial nerve
4. 8
th
cranial nerve
5. 9
th
cranial nerve
6. 10
th
cranial nerve
A, 1, 3 and 6
B, 3, 5 and 6
C, 4, 5 and 6
D, 3 and 5
E, 3 and 6

146, von Ebners glands are
A, fully serous
B, fully mucous
C, partially serous and partially mucous
D, predominantly serous
E, drain near the foliate papillae

147, Which of the following among the tongue muscles is unique regarding nerve supply
A, styloglossus
B, genioglossus
C, palatoglossus
D, hypglossus
E, C and D




148, the sensory and motor innervation of the constrictor muscles of the pharynx are supplied by
cranial nerves
A, 9 and 10 respectively
B, 11 and 10 respectively
C, 10 and 11 respectively
D, 8 and 9 respectively
E, 9 and 11 respectively

149, Nasolacrimal duct empty underneath the
A, superior nasal concha
B, middle nasal concha
C, posterior nasal concha
D, inferior nasal concha
E, anterior nasal concha

150, postganglionic parasympathetic supply to the lacrimal gland is from ____ of ______ which is
regulated at _________
A, lacrimal nerve, 6
th
cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleus
B, lacrimal nerve, 5
th
cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleus
C, lacrimal nerve, 6
th
cranial nerve, inferior salivatory nucleus
D, lacrimal nerve, 7
th
cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleus
E, lacrimal nerve, 4
th
cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleus

151, Temporomandibular ligament
A, also called as posterior ligament
B, the outer oblique portion prevents posterior and inferior displacement
C, the inner horizontal portion prevents lateral and posterior displacement
D, the outer oblique portion prevents lateral or mesial displacement
E, the inner horizontal portion prevents posterior and inferior displacement

152, Relaxation of inspiratory muscles causes
1. Increased intrapleural pressure
2. Decreased alveolar pressure
3. Pressure gradient from alveoli to mouth
4. Gas flow down pressure gradient
A, only 2 is false
B, 2 and 3 are false
C, all are true
D, 1 and 4 are false
E, only 1 is false




153, Dead space of lungs usually is
A, 500 ml
B, 150 ml
C, 350 ml
D, 250 ml
E, 400 ml

154, during embryogenesis the BI LAMI NAR DI SC
A, Occurs in the second week
B, Occurs in the first week
C, Occurs in the third week
D, Occurs in the fourth week
E, none of the above

155, what is false about features of Nephrotic syndrome
1. Proteinuria
2. Hypoalbuminemia
3. Generalized edema
4. Hypolipidemia
5. Hypercholesterolemia
A, only 5 is false
B, only 4 is false
C, all are true
D, 4 and 5 are false
E, only the first 3 statements are true

156, In ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS
A, Occurs in cases where Mother = Rh negative and fetus = Rh negative
B, Mother produces antibodies against fetal RBCs
C, Occurs in cases where Mother = Rh positive and fetus = Rh negative
D, Destruction of fetal RBCs will not happen because of protection conferred by placental barrier.
E, mother becomes anemic

157, which is false about FOLATE DEFI CI ENCY
A, Hypersegmented neutrophils.
B, Lack of folate results in delayed DNA replication
C, Folate deficiency has no neurologic abnormalities
D, Dilantin will not induce folate deficiency
E, Pregnancy may induce folate deficiency






158, in Myeloproliferative disorders
1. Myeloid stem cells develop and reproduce abnormally in bone marrow
2. Peak incidence in middle age
3. Reduced blood basophils
4. Increased serum uric acid
5. Splenomegaly
A, all statements are true
B, 4 is false
C, 3 is false
D, 3 and 4 are false
E, 2 and 4 are false

159, If Sebasteyn's Canal is present then
A, the facial nerve courses through this
B, the maxillaryl nerve courses through this
C, the ophthalmic nerve courses through this
D, the hypoglossal nerve courses through this
E, the lacrimal nerve courses through this

160, DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION is featured by
1. Reduced platelet count.
2. Increased PT.
3. Increased PTT.
4. Hypofibrinogenemia
5. Reduced levels of all clotting factors.
6. Reduced levels of fibrinolytic proteins.
A, all statements are true
B, 4 is false
C, 3 is false
D, 3 and 4 are false
E, 2 and 4 are false

161, which clotting factors are affected by vitamin K deficiency
A, 3, 7, 9, 10
B, 4, 7, 8, 10
C, 2, 6, 7, 9, 10
D, 2, 7, 9, 10
E, 2, 8, 9, 11

162, Bainbridge Reflex
A, may lead to pulmonary edema.
B, Mediated by stretch receptors in ventricle
C, Mediated by stretch receptors in atria
D, Mediated by vagal (CN X) efferents to the pons
E, leads to the Pumping of less blood out of pulmonary system to the systemic system


163, clinically cyanosis will be appreciated only when there is more than
A, 0.5 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood
B, 10 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood
C, 2 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood
D, 15 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood
E, 5 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood

164, The spinal trigeminal nucleus is a nucleus in the medulla that receives information from
A, the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V); the facial (CN VII),glossopharyngeal (CN IX), and vagus nerves (CN
X)
B, the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V); the facial (CN VII),glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX),
C, the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V); the facial (CN VII), and vagus nerves (CN X)
D, the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V); and the facial nerves(CN VII
E, the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

165, Following emigration from blood vessels, leucocyte migration to the site of infection or injury
is mediated by
1. Bradykinin
2. Chemokines
3. Complement C5a
4. Histamine
5. Prostaglandins
A, all of the above
B, 4 and 5
C, 2 and 5
D, 2 and 3
E, 2, 3 and 5

166, Leucocyte emigration from venules is influenced by
1. Selectins
2. Integrins
3. Chemokines
4. Complement C3a
5. Prostaglandins

A, all of the above
B, 4 and 5
C, 2 and 5
D, 2 and 1
E, 2, 3 and 5




167, Which cause pain in acute inflammation?
1. C3a
2. C5a
3. LTB4
4. PGE
5. Bradykinin
A, all of the above
B, 4 and 5
C, 2 and 5
D, 3 and 5
E, 2, 3 and 5

168, Epstein Barr virus is associated with
1. glandular fever
2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3. gastric carcinoma
4. Burkitts lymphoma
5. the common cold
A, all of the above
B, 1, 2 and 4
C, 2 and 5
D, 1 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5

169, Which of the following viruses are associated with tumours?
1. cytomegalovirus
2. rubella
3. human papilloma virus
4. Mareks disease virus
5. hepatitis C
A, all of the above
B, 3, 5 and 4
C, 2 and 5
D, 1, 2 and 4
E, 2, 3 and 5

170, vagus nerve is mainly composed of
A, afferent fibers
B, efferent fibers
C, equally afferent and efferent
D, sympathetic nerves
E, motor fibers



171, The thoracic duct drains into
A, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the right internal jugular vein
B, right subclavian vein, near its junction with the right internal jugular vein
C, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the posterior internal jugular vein
D, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the left internal jugular vein
E, left brachiocephalic vein, near its junction with the left internal jugular vein

172, Cerebral infarction may follow all of the following except
A, pulmonary embolism
B, internal carotid artery thrombosis
C, myocardial infarction
D, left ventricular failure
E, protein C deficiency

173, if we Match the antibiotics with their target which of the following is correct
1. Cephalosporins
2. Chloramphenicol
3. Rifampicin
4. Trimethoprim
5. Aminoglycoside
Peptidoglycan crosslinking
mRNA/ribosome interaction
Peptidyl transferase
DNA dependent RNAp
Dihydrofolate reductase

A, all are false
B, 1 is correct
C, 1 and 2 correct
D, 1 and 3 correct
E, all are correct

174, Lobar pneumonia
1. Resolves by crisis after six or seven days
2. Is usually caused by Haemophilus influenzae
3. Is the result of blood borne infection
4. May be associated with alcoholism
5. Is a common complication of chronic bronchitis (smoking related)
A, all are false
B, 1 is correct
C, 1 and 4 correct
D, 1 and 5 correct
E, all are correct








175, The following bacteria regularly cause meningitis
1. Staph. aureus
2. E. coli
3. Strep. pneumoniae
4. Bordetella pertussis
5. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A, all are false
B, 1 and 2 is correct
C, 2 and 3 correct
D, 2 and 5 correct
E, all are correct

176, if we Match the following organisms with their vaccine, which is true
1. Pseudorabies virus (pig herpes)
2. Hepatitis B
3. Canine distemper
4. Mareks disease
5. Influenza A

killed virus
live attenuated virus
genetically engineered subunit
related live virus
engineered deletion mutant

A, all are false
B, 4 is correct
C, 4 and 3 correct
D, 4 and 5 correct
E, all are correct

177, if we Match the following pairs which is/are correct ?
1. Adenoviruses
2. Hepadnaviruses
3. Paramyxoviruses
4. Poxviruses
5. Retroviruses
circular double stranded DNA genome
genomes transcribed by cellular RNA polymerase
helical capsid symmetry
downregulation of MHC class I
replicate in the cytoplasm of infected cells
A, all are false
B, 3 is correct
C, 3 and 5 correct
D, 3 and 4 correct
E, all are correct









178, if we Match the following viruses with their mode of transmission
1. Myxoma virus
2. Cytomegalovirus
3. Hepatitis B
4. Mareks disease
5. Hepatitis A
sexual
faecal-oral
insect vector
salivary transfer
dust inhalation
A, all are false
B, 3 is correct
C, 3 and 5 correct
D, 3 and 4 correct
E, all are correct

179, Prions are inactivated by the following
1. heating to 90 C for 30 minutes
2. heating to 145 C for 18 minutes
3. DNAse treatment
4. RNAse treatment
5. phenol
A, all are false
B, 5 is correct
C, 2 and 5 correct
D, 2 and 3 correct
E, all are correct

180, If we Match the following pairs which is/are correct
1. Helical capsid
2. Latent virus
3. Human herpes virus 8
4. Double-stranded DNA virus with RNA
intermediate
5. Down-regulation of Class I MHC
expression
Kaposis sarcoma
Measles virus
Hepatitis B
Varicella Zoster virus
Adenovirus
A, all are false
B, 5 is correct
C, 3 and 5 correct
D, 2 and 5 correct
E, all are correct

181, The trace element that is an integral component of carbonic anhydrase, lactic dehydrogenase,
and several other peptidases
A. Magnesium
B. Manganese
C. Zinc
D. Cobalt
E. Copper

182, The ion necessary in Na-K ATPase
A. Fe
3+

B. Ca
2+

C. Mg
+2

D. PO4
E. SO4
-2


183, which is/are the correct match ?
1. Myxoma virus
2. Parvovirus
3. Poliovirus
4. Rotavirus
5. Influenza virus
Double-stranded DNA
Negative single-stranded RNA
Double-stranded RNA
Positive single-stranded RNA
Single-stranded DNA
A, all are false
B, 1 is correct
C, 1 and 5 correct
D, 2 and 1 correct
E, all are correct

184, Which is correct about Live attenuated virus vaccines
A, are produced by inactivating virus particles using chemical or physical treatments
B, are used to immunise against measles
C, are used to immunise against hepatitis B
D, are used solely to protect the vaccinee from infection
E, do not induce a cytotoxic T-cell response

185, if we Match the statements
1. Schistosoma haematobium
2. Entamoeba histolytica
3. Plasmodium vivax
4. Toxoplasma gondii
5. Echinococcus granularis
immune complex mediated glomerulonephritis
causes bladder cancer
definitive life cycle in the cat
infects the large intestine
hydatid cysts
A, all are false
B, 5 is correct
C, 1 and 5 correct
D, 4 and 5 correct
E, all are correct

186, Relative resistance to malaria is conferred by all of the following except?
A, Duffy blood group antigen negative
B, heterozygous beta thalassaemia
C, G6PD deficiency
D, HLA - B53
E, HLA - DR

187, Which of the following molecules are present on the membrane of T helper cells and are
involved in their co-stimulation?
A, CD28
B, B7
C, LFA1
D, ICAM1
E, CD40

188, T helper cells secrete ALL THE FOLLOWING cytokines EXCEPT?
A, IL2
B, IL4
C, IL10
D, IL12
E, IFN- Gamma

189, ALL of the following membrane proteins belong to the Ig superfamily EXCEPT
A, IgM
B, ICAM 1
C, LFA1
D, Fc receptor
E, MHC Class I

190, Type III (immune complex mediated) hypersensitivity reactions cause the tissue lesions In all
of the following EXCEPT
A, polyarteritis nodes
B, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
C, serum sickness
D, systemic lupus erythematosus
E, pemphigus

191, The following LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASES are autosomal recessive except
1. Hunters
2. TaySachs
3. Gaucher
4. NeimannPick
5. Fabry
A, 1 and 5
B, 2 and 5
C, 1 and 3
D, 1 and 4
E, 1






192, The underlying defect in MARFANS SYNDROME
A, fibrillin
B, collagen -5
C, laminin
D, vimentin
E, keratin

193, There are approximately __________ skeletal muscles in the human body
A, 650
B, 450
C, 500
D, 850
E, 580

194, Ruffini corpuscle
A, is a slowly adapting mechanoreceptor
B, are enlarged dendritic endings with elongated capsules.
C, respond to sustained pressure

and show very little adaptation.
D, are located in the deep layers of the skin
E, all of the above

195, Which of the following inhibits thrombin activity?
A. Heparin cofactor II
B. Alpha 2 antitrypsin
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
E, B and D

196, A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/excess for blood in a
given patient. An experienced senior resident advised a quick method to determine acid base
composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following is the likely method he suggested to
predict acid base composition of blood?
A. Red ford nonuogram
B. DuBios normogram
C. Goldman constant Field equation
D. Siggard Andersen normogram
E, none of the above

197, The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except :
A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
B. Increasing the number of motor units activated
C. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons
D. Recruiting larger motor units
D, none of the above

198, The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
A. Glycine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamate
E, B and D

199, In which of the following form the Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma :
A. Bound to neurophysin-I
B. Bound to neurophysin-II
C. Bound to plasma albumin
D. Free form
E, none of the above

200, Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are under the inhibitory control of :
A. Glycine
B. Glutamate
C. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
D. Betaendorphin
E, none of the above


____________________________NBDE-1 TEST-1 ENDS HERE______________________________

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