Physics Core AHL and Option

Physics
Core(Topic 1-8)
AHL(Topic 9-14)
Option E,F
Contents
Topic 1: Physics and physical measurement..................................................................................................................... 3
Topic 2: Mechanics ......................................................................................................................................................... 13
Topic 3: Thermal physics................................................................................................................................................ 35
Topic 4: Oscillations and waves ..................................................................................................................................... 46
Topic 5: Electric currents ................................................................................................................................................ 61
Topic 6: Fields and forces ............................................................................................................................................... 72
Topic 7: Atomic and nuclear physics .............................................................................................................................. 87
Topic 8: Energy, power and climate change ................................................................................................................. 101
Topic 9: Motion in fields .............................................................................................................................................. 118
Topic 10: Thermal physics............................................................................................................................................ 132
Topic 11: Wave phenomena ......................................................................................................................................... 141
Topic 12: Electromagnetic induction ............................................................................................................................ 157
Topic 13: Quantum physics and nuclear physics .......................................................................................................... 168
Topic 14: Digital technology ........................................................................................................................................ 181
Option E: Astrophysics ................................................................................................................................................. 184
Option F: Communications ........................................................................................................................................... 215
Topic 1: Physics and physical measurement

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The order of magnitude of the weight of an apple is

A.
104 N.
B.
102 N.
C.
1 N.
D.
102 N.
The number of heartbeats of a person at rest in one hour, to the nearest order of magnitude is
A.
101.
B.
102.
C.
103.
D.
105.
The ratio
diameter of a nucleus
is approximately equal to
diameter of an atom
A.
1015.
B.
108.
C.
105.
D.
102.
The volume of the Earth is approximately 1012 km3 and the volume of a grain of sand is approximately 1
mm3. The order of magnitude of the number of grains of sand that can fit in the volume of the Earth is
A.
1012.
B.
1018.
C.
1024.
D.
1030.
Which one of the following contains three fundamental units?

A.
Metre
Kilogram
Coulomb
B.
Second
Ampere
Newton
C.
Kilogram
Ampere
Kelvin
D.
Kelvin
Coulomb
Second
6.
7.
8.
Which one of the following lists a fundamental unit and a derived unit?
A.
ampere
second
B.
coulomb
kilogram
C.
coulomb
newton
D.
metre
kilogram
Sub-multiples of units may be expressed using a prefix. Which one of the following lists the prefixes in
decreasing order of magnitude?
A.
centi-
micro-
milli-
nano-
B.
milli-
centi-
nano-
micro-
C.
centi-
milli-
micro-
nano-
D.
milli-
micro-
centi-
nano-
The resistive force F acting on a sphere of radius r moving at speed v through a liquid is given by
F = cvr
where c is a constant. Which of the following is a correct unit for c?
9.
10.
A.
B.
N s1
C.
N m2 s1
D.
N m2 s
Which one of the following measurements is stated correctly to two significant digits?
A.
0.006 m
B.
0.06 m
C.
600 m
D.
620 m
When a voltage V of 12.2 V is applied to a DC motor, the current I in the motor is 0.20 A. Which one of
the following is the output power VI of the motor given to the correct appropriate number of significant
digits?
A.
2W
B.
2.4 W
C.
2.40 W
D.
2.44 W
11.
An object has an acceleration of 2.0 m s 2. Which of the following gives the change in the speed of the
object after 7.00 s to the correct number of significant digits?
A.
12.
14 m s
B.
14.0 m s
C.
14.00 m s
D. 14.000 m s
The reading of a constant potential difference is made four times by a student. The readings are
1.176 V
1.178 V
1.177 V
1.176 V
The student averages these readings but does not take into account the zero error on the voltmeter. The
average measurement of the potential difference is
13.
14.
A.
precise and accurate.
B.
precise but not accurate.
C.
accurate but not precise.
D.
not accurate and not precise.
An ammeter has a zero offset error. This fault will affect

A.
neither the precision nor the accuracy of the readings.
B.
only the precision of the readings.
C.
only the accuracy of the readings.
D.
both the precision and the accuracy of the readings.
Both random and systematic errors are present in the measurement of a particular quantity. What changes,
if any, would repeated measurements of this quantity have on the random and systematic errors?
Random
15.
Systematic
A.
reduced
reduced
B.
reduced
unchanged
C.
unchanged
reduced
D.
unchanged
unchanged
A student measures a distance several times. The readings lie between 49.8 cm and 50.2 cm. This
measurement is best recorded as
A.
49.8
0.2 cm.
B.
49.8
0.4 cm.
C.
50.0
0.2 cm.
D.
50.0
0.4 cm.
5
16.
When a force F of (10.0 0.2) N is applied to a mass m of (2.0

attached to the value of the calculated acceleration is
A.
17.
B.
5%.
C.
7%.
D.
10%.
The radius of a loop is measured to be (10.0 0.5) cm. Which of the following is the best estimate of the
uncertainty in the calculated area of the loop?
A.
18.
2%.
0.1) kg, the percentage uncertainty
0.25%
B.
5%
C.
10%
D.
25%
M
where M is the mass and V is the volume
V
The density of a metal cube is given by the expression
of the cube. The percentage uncertainties in M and V are as shown below.

M
12
4.0
The percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of the density is

A.
19.
C. 16 .
D.
48 .
0.2
B. 5.0
C.
12
D.
and its volume with an uncertainty of 10 .
20
The sides of a cube are each of length 1.00 m. Each side is measured with an uncertainty of 2 . The
absolute uncertainty in the volume of the cube is
A.
21.
B. 8.0 .
The mass of a body is measured with an uncertainty of 2.0

What is the uncertainty in the density of the body?
A.
20.
3.0 .
0.02 m3.
B.
0.06 m3.
0.2 m3.
C.
D.
0.6 m3.
The volume V of a cylinder of height h and radius r is given by the expression

V
r2h.
In a particular experiment, r is to be determined from measurements of V and h. The uncertainties in V

and in h are as shown below.
V
7%
3%
The approximate uncertainty in r is

A.
10%.
B.
5%.
C.
4%.
D.
2%.
22.
An object falls from rest with an acceleration g. The variation with time t of the displacement s of the
object is given by
1 2
gt .
2
The uncertainty in the value of the time is 6 and the uncertainty in the value of g is 4 . The best
estimate for the uncertainty of the position of the object is
23.
A.
5 .
B.
8 .
C.
10 .
D.
16 .
Which of the following graphs shows the best-fit line for the plotted points?
A.
B.
C.
x
D.
24.
The time period T of oscillation of a mass m suspended from a vertical spring is given by the expression
T
m
k
where k is a constant.
Which one of the following plots will give rise to a straight-line graph?
A.
T2 against m
B.
T against
C.
D.
T against m
T against m
7
25.
The variation with time t of the speed v of an object is given by the expression
v = u + at
where u and a are constants.
A graph of the variation with time t of speed v is plotted. Which one of the following correctly shows
how the constants may be determined from this graph?
A.
B.
v
1
gradient =
a
gradient = a
u
C.
D.
v
gradient = a
26.
27.
1
gradient =
a
Which of the following contains three scalar quantities?

A.
mass
charge
speed
B.
density
weight
mass
C.
speed
weight
charge
D.
charge
weight
density
Which one of the following includes three vector quantities?

A.
velocity
weight
field strength
B.
weight
mass
field strength
C.
velocity
energy
weight
D.
mass
energy
field strength
28.
The diagram below shows two vectors, x and y.

y
x
Which of the vectors below best represents the vector c that would satisfy the relation
c = x + y?
29.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The diagram below shows two vectors X and Y.
X
Y
Which of the following best represents the vector Z = X Y.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Z
30.
Two objects X and Y are moving away from the point P. The diagram below shows the velocity vectors
of the two objects.
Velocity vector for object Y
Velocity vector for object X
Which of the following velocity vectors best represents the velocity of object X relative to object Y?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
The diagram below shows a boat that is about to cross a river in a direction perpendicular to the bank at a
speed of 0.8 m s1. The current flows at 0.6 m s1 in the direction shown.
Bank
0.6 ms
0.8 ms 1
Boat
Bank
The magnitude of the displacement of the boat 5 seconds after leaving the bank is
32.
A.
3 m.
B.
4 m.
C.
5 m.
D.
7 m.
Two forces of magnitudes 7 N and 5 N act at a point. Which one of the following is not a possible value
for the magnitude of the resultant force?
A.
1N
B.
3N
C.
5N
D.
7N
Short answer questions

1. Use the method of rectangular resolution to find the resultant of the following set of forces: 1) 200 N to
the right; 2) 300 N @ 600 above the horizontal to the right. 3) 100 N @ 450 above the horizontal to the left;
4) 200 N vertically downward.
y
F2
F3
45
60
F1
10
2. Data analysis question.

Gillian carried out an experiment to investigate the craters formed when steel balls are dropped into sand.
To try and find the relationship between the diameter of the crater and the energy of impact of steel balls
of the same diameter, she dropped a steel ball from different heights h into sand and measured the
resulting diameter d of the crater. The data are shown plotted below.
(a)
The uncertainty in the measurement of d is 0.40 cm; the uncertainty in h is too small to be shown.
Draw error bars for the data point (0.2, 0.047) and the data point (2.0, 0.10).
(2)
(b)
Draw a best-fit line for the data points.

(2)
(c)
The original hypothesis, made by Gillian, was that the diameter of the crater is directly
proportional to the energy of impact of the steel balls. Explain why the data does not support this
hypothesis.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(d)
Since Gillians data did not support her hypothesis, she researched to find alternative hypotheses.
She found that there are two theories used to predict a relationship between d and h. In order to
find which theory is best supported by the data, she processed the data in two separate ways. The
processed data are shown below.
11
(i)
Draw a line of best-fit on each graph.

(2)
(ii)
State and explain which theory is best supported by the students data.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
12
Topic 2: Mechanics
1.
2.
Which one of the following is a correct definition of displacement?

A.
Distance from a fixed point
B.
Distance moved from a fixed point
C.
Distance from a fixed point in a given direction
D.
Distance moved in a given direction
The minute hand of a clock hung on a vertical wall has length L.
The minute hand is observed at the time shown above and then again, 30 minutes later.
What is the displacement of, and the distance moved by, the end P of the minute hand during this time
interval?
displacement
3.
distance moved
A.
2L vertically downwards
B.
2L vertically upwards
C.
2L vertically downwards
2L
D.
2L vertically upwards
2L
A particle moves from a point P to a point Q in a time T. Which one of the following correctly defines
both the average velocity and average acceleration of the particle?
Average velocity
Average acceleration
A.
displacement of Q and P
T
change in speed from Q to P

T
B.
displacement of Q and P
T
change in velocity from Q to P

T
C.
distance between Q and P

T
change in speed from Q to P

T
D.
distance between Q and P

T
change in velocity from Q to P

T
13
4.
A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
vertical displacement d of the ball.
Which of the following gives the final displacement after time T and the average speed between time t =
0 m aand time t = T?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Displacement
Average speed
2D
T
2D
2D
T
2D
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of an object moving along a
straight-line.
s/m
20.0
0.0
0.0
2.0
4.0 t / s
The best estimate of the instantaneous speed of the object at t = 2.0 s is

A.
6.
0.0 ms1. B.
0.2 ms1.
C. 5.0 ms1.
D. 10.0 ms1.
Four cars W, X, Y and Z are on a straight road. The graph below shows the variation with time t of the
distance s of each car from a fixed point.
s
X
Which car has the greatest speed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
Z
t
14
7.
The diagram below shows the variation with time t of the velocity v of an object.
v
The area between the line of the graph and the time-axis represents
8.
A.
the average velocity of the object.
B.
the displacement of the object.
C.
the impulse acting on the object.
D.
the work done on the object.
An object has initial speed u and acceleration a. After travelling a distance s, its final speed is v. The
quantities u, v, a and s are related by the expression
v2 = u2 + 2as.
Which of the following includes the two conditions necessary for the equation to apply?
9.
A.
a has constant direction
u and v are in the same direction
B.
a, u and v are in the same direction
C.
a has constant magnitude
D.
a has constant magnitude
u and v are in the same direction
A stone X is thrown vertically upwards with speed v from the top of a building. At the same time, a
second stone Y is thrown vertically downwards with the same speed v as shown.
Air resistance is negligible. Which one of the following statements is true
about the speeds with which the stones hit the ground at the base of the
building?
A.
The speed of stone X is greater than that of stone Y.
B.
The speed of stone Y is greater than that of stone X.
C.
The speed of stone X is equal to that of stone Y.
D.
Any statement about the speeds depends on the height of the

building.
v
X
Y
v
Building
15
10. A body starting from rest moves along a straight-line under the action of a constant force. After travelling
a distance d the speed of the body is v.
initial position
v
The speed of the body when it has travelled a distance
d
from its initial
2
position is
v
.
4
A.
11.
v
. C.
2
B.
v
2
D.
2 2
The graph shows the variation with time t of the velocity v of an object.
t
Which one of the following graphs best represents the variation with time t of the acceleration a of the
object?
A.
C.
D.
12.
B.
The graph shows the variation with time t of the acceleration a of an object.
20
The object is at rest at time t = 0.

Which of the following is the
velocity of the object at time t = 6.0 s?
15
A.
0.50 m s1.
B.
2.0 m s1.
C.
36 m s1.
D.
72 m s1.
10
a a/ms
/ ms -2?
5
5
t/s
10
16
13.
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the acceleration a of a spaceship.
a
The spaceship is at rest at t = 0.

The shaded area represents
A.
the distance travelled by the spaceship between t = 0 and t = T.
B.
the speed of the spaceship at t = T.
C.
the rate at which the speed of the spaceship changes between t = 0 and t = T.
D.
the rate at which the acceleration changes between t = 0 and t = T.
14. A raindrop falling through air reaches a terminal velocity before hitting the ground. At terminal velocity,
the frictional force on the raindrop is
A.
zero.
B.
less than the weight of the raindrop.
C.
greater than the weight of the raindrop.
D.
equal to the weight of the raindrop.
15. A steel sphere is dropped from rest in oil. Which of the following graphs best represents the variation
with time of the speed of the sphere?
A.
speed
C.
B.
time
D.
speed
time
speed
time
time
speed
17
16. A boat is moving in the direction shown with a speed of 5 m s 1 as measured by Nico who is at rest on
the beach. Aziz walks along the deck of the boat in the direction shown with a speed of 2 m s 1 measured
relative to the boat.
positive direction
Aziz
5 m s 1
Nico
If velocity is measured as positive in the direction shown, the velocity of Nico relative to Aziz is
A.
17.
B.
C. + 3 m s 1. D. + 7 m s 1.
A car is heading due East at a speed of 10 m s 1. A bird is flying due North at a speed of 4 m s 1, as
shown below.
N
W
4ms
S
Car
Bird
10 m s 1
Which one of the following vectors represents the velocity of the bird relative to a person in the car?
18.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An object is moving at constant velocity. Which one of the following quantities must have zero
magnitude?
A.
Weight of object
B.
Momentum of object
C.
Kinetic energy of object
D.
Resultant force on object
18
19.
A horse pulls a boat along a canal at constant speed in a straight-line as shown below.
horse
direction of travel
boat
The horse exerts a constant force F on the boat. The water exerts a constant drag force L and a constant
force P on the boat. The directions of F, L and P are as shown. Which one of the following best
represents a free-body diagram for the boat?
A.
B.
F
L
C.
D.
F
L
P
P
20.
Three forces of magnitude F1 = 3.0 N, F2 = 4.0 N and F3 = 6.0 N act at a point. The point is in
equilibrium. The magnitude of the resultant of F1 and F2 is
A.
21.
1.0 N.
B.
5.0 N.
C.
6.0 N.
D. 7.0 N.
The graph below shows the variation with load F of the length L of a spring.
F
F2
F1
0
L1
L2
Which of the following expressions gives the force per unit extension (the spring constant) of the spring?
A.
F1
B.
L1
F2
L2
C.
F2 F1
L2
D.
F2 F1
L2 L1
19
22.
A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal, frictionless surface by a force of magnitude F. The force
makes an angle with the vertical.
F
block
The magnitude of the acceleration of the block in the horizontal direction produced by the force F is
A.
23.
F
.
m
B.
F sin
.
m
C.
F cos
.
m
D.
F tan
.
m
A trolley of mass 1.5 kg is pulled along a horizontal table by a force of 5.0N.
force 5.0N
The frictional force acting on the trolley is 0.50N.

The acceleration of the trolley is
A.
24.
0.30 m s2.
B.
0.33 m s2. C. 3.0 m s2. D. 3.3 m s2.
Two blocks having different masses slide down a frictionless slope.

Which of the following correctly compares the accelerating force acting on each block and also the
accelerations of the blocks down the slope?
Accelerating force
25.
Acceleration
A.
Equal
Equal
B.
Equal
Different
C.
Different
Equal
D.
Different
Different
A light inextensible string has a mass attached to each end and passes over a frictionless pulley as shown.
pulley
The masses are of magnitudes M and m, where m < M. The

acceleration of free fall is g. The downward acceleration of the mass M is
A.
M mg
.
M m
string
mass M
B.
mg
.
M
C.
M mg
.
M m
D.
Mg
.
M m
mass m
20
26.
A constant force of magnitude F acts on a body. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
momentum p of the body.
200
180
160
140
120
p/kg m s
100
80
60
40
20
0
0
10
t /s
The magnitude of the force F is

A.
1000 N. B.
200 N.
C.
20 N.
D.
0.05 N.
27. The velocity of a body of mass m changes by an amount v in a time t. The impulse given to the body is
equal to
A.
m t.
B.
v
.
t
C.
v
. D.
t
m v.
28. A net force of magnitude F acts on a body for a time t producing an impulse of magnitude Y. Which of
the following is the magnitude of the rate of change of momentum of the body?
A.
29.
B.
F t
C.
D. Y t
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the magnitude of the net force F acting on a body
moving along a straight-line.
F
The shaded area represents

A.
the total work done by F.
B.
the change in the kinetic energy of the body.
C.
the change in the momentum of the body.
D.
the change in the velocity of the body.

21
30. Which of the following quantities are conserved in an inelastic collision between two bodies?
31.
Total linear momentum of the bodies
Total kinetic energy of the bodies
A.
yes
yes
B.
yes
no
C.
no
yes
D.
no
no
A ball of mass 2.0 kg falls vertically and hits the ground with speed 7.0 ms1 as shown below.
7.0 ms1
3.0 ms 1
before
after
The ball leaves the ground with a vertical speed 3.0 ms1.
The magnitude of the change in momentum of the ball is
A.
zero.
B. 8.0 Ns.
C. 10 Ns.
D. 20 Ns.
32. A ball of mass m, travelling in a direction at right angles to a vertical wall, strikes the wall with a speed v1.
t. The
It rebounds at right angles to the wall with a speed v2
magnitude of the force that the ball exerts on the wall is
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
m v1
v2
t
m(v1 + v2 t.
m v1
v2
t
m(v1 v2 t.
The momentum of a system is conserved if

A.
no external forces act on the system.
B.
no friction forces act within the system.
C.
no kinetic energy is lost or gained by the system.
D.
the forces acting on the system are in equilibrium.
22
34. Two spheres X and Y are moving towards each other along the same straight line with momenta of
magnitude PX and PY respectively. The spheres collide and move off with momenta pX and pY
respectively, as illustrated below.
Px
PY
px
pY
Before collision
After collision
Which one of the following is a correct statement of the law of conservation of momentum for this
collision?
35.
A.
PX + PY = pX + pY
B.
PX PY = pX + pY
C.
PX PY = pX pY
D.
PX + PY = pX pY
Two spheres of masses m1 and m2 are moving towards each other along the same straight-line with
speeds v1 and v2 as shown.
positive direction
m1
v1
v2
m2
The spheres collide. Which of the following gives the total change in linear momentum of the spheres as
a result of the collision?
A.
36.
B. m1v1 + m2v2
C.
m1v1
m2v2
D.
m2v2
m1v1
The diagram below shows a trolley of mass 4.0 kg moving on a frictionless horizontal table with a speed
of 2.0 m s1. It collides with a stationary trolley also of mass 4.0 kg.
1
2.0ms
4.0kg
4.0kg
Which of the following diagrams shows a possible outcome?
23
37. A truck collides head on with a less massive car moving in the opposite direction to the truck. During the
collision, the average force exerted by the truck on the car is FT and the average force exerted by the car on the
truck is FC. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.
FT will always be greater in magnitude than FC.
B.
FT will always be equal in magnitude to FC.
C.
FT will be greater in magnitude than FC only when the speed of the car is less than the speed of the
truck.
D.
FT will be equal in magnitude to FC only when the speed of the truck is equal to the speed of the
car.
38. A box of mass m is moved horizontally against a constant frictional force f through a distance s at
constant speed v. The work done on the box is
A.
39.
0.
B.
mgs.
1 2
mv .
2
C.
D. fs.
The point of action of a constant force F is displaced a distance d. The angle between the force and the
direction of the displacement is , as shown below.
F
Which one of the following is the correct expression for the work done by the force?
A.
40.
Fd
B. Fd sin
C.
Fd cos
D.
Fd tan
The graph below shows the variation with displacement d of the force F applied by a spring on a cart.
5
4
3
FN
/
2
1
0
1
2
2
dm/ 10
The work done by the force in moving the cart through a distance of 2 cm is
A.
10 102J.
B.
7 102J.
C.
5 102J.
D.
2.5 102J.
24
41.
A body of mass m and speed v has kinetic energy EK. A second body of mass
m
moves at speed 2v.
2
The kinetic energy of this second body is

A.
42.
. B.
EK.
C. 2EK.
D.
4EK.
An object of mass m1 has a kinetic energy K1. Another object of mass m2 has a kinetic energy K2. If the
K
momentum of both objects is the same, the ratio 1 is equal to
K2
A.
43.
EK
m2
.
m1
B.
m1
.
m2
m2
.
m1
C.
m1
.
m2
D.
The variation with time of the vertical speed of a ball falling in air is shown below.
Speed
0
T
time
During the time from 0 to T

Which of the following statements is true?
44.
Ep.
A.
Ep is equal to the gain in kinetic energy.
B.
Ep is greater than the gain in kinetic energy.
C.
Ep is equal to the work done against air resistance.
D.
Ep is less than the work done against air resistance.
The diagram below represents energy transfers in an engine.

input energy
useful output energy
engine
EIN
EOUT
wasted energy
EW
The efficiency of the engine is given by the expression

A.
EW
E IN
B.
EW
E OUT
C.
E OUT
E IN
D.
E OUT
EW
25
45.
46.
An engine takes in an amount E of thermal energy and, as a result, does an amount W of useful work. An
amount H of thermal energy is ejected. The law of conservation of energy and the efficiency of the
engine are given by which of the following?
Law of conservation of energy
Efficiency
A.
E=W+H
B.
E=W+H
W
E
C.
E+H=W
W
H
D.
E+H=W
W
EH
An electric train develops a power of 1.0 MW when travelling at a constant speed of 50 ms1. The net
resistive force acting on the train is
A.
47.
50 MN.
B.
200 kN.
C.
20 kN.
D.
200 N.
Points P and Q are at distances R and 2R respectively from the centre X of a disc, as
shown below.
The disc is rotating about an axis through X, normal to the plane of the disc. Point P
has linear speed v and centripetal acceleration a. Which one of the following is
correct for point Q?
48.
Linear speed
Centripetal acceleration
A.
B.
2a
C.
2v
2a
D.
2v
4a
Q
P
2R
R
X
A particle P is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which one of the following diagrams correctly
shows the direction of the acceleration a and velocity v of the particle at one instant of time?
a
A.
B.
v
C.
D.
26
49. The centripetal force that causes a car to go round a bend in the road is provided by
A.
the force produced by the car engine acting on the wheels.
B.
the friction between the tyres and the road.
C.
the weight of the car.
D.
the force exerted by the driver on the steering wheel.
50. The centripetal force F acting on a particle of mass m that is travelling with linear speed v along the arc of
a circle of radius r is given by
51.
v2
A.
F=
B.
F = mv2r.
C.
F = mr2v.
D.
F=
mr
mv 2
r
A brick is placed on the surface of a flat horizontal disc as shown in the diagram below. The disc is
rotating at constant speed about a vertical axis through its centre. The brick does not move relative to the
disc.
Which of the diagrams below correctly represents the horizontal force or forces acting on the brick?
27

52. Linear motion
(a)
Define the term acceleration.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
An object has an initial speed u and an acceleration a. After time t, its speed is v and it has moved
through a distance s.
The motion of the object may be summarized by the equations
v = u + at,
s=
(i)
1
2
v u t.
State the assumption made in these equations about the acceleration a.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Derive, using these equations, an expression for v in terms of u, s and a.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
The shutter speed of a camera is the time that the film is exposed to light. In order to determine the
shutter speed of a camera, a metal ball is held at rest at the zero mark of a vertical scale, as shown
below. The ball is released. The shutter of a camera is opened as the ball falls.
0 cm
scale
camera
196 cm
208 cm
The photograph of the ball shows that the shutter opened as the ball reached the 196 cm mark on
the scale and closed as it reached the 208 cm mark. Air resistance is negligible and the acceleration
of free fall is 9.81 m s2.
(i)
Calculate the time for the ball to fall from rest to the 196 cm mark.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
28
(ii)
Determine the time for which the shutter was open. That is, the time for the ball to fall from
the 196 cm mark to the 208 cm mark.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)
53. This question is about throwing a stone from a cliff.

Antonia stands at the edge of a vertical cliff and throws a stone vertically
upwards.
The stone leaves Antonias hand with a speed v = 8.0ms1.
The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m s2 and all distance measurements are
taken from the point where the stone leaves Antonias hand.
(a)
Ignoring air resistance calculate

(i)
the maximum height reached by the stone.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
the time taken by the stone to reach its maximum height.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
The time between the stone leaving Antonias hand and hitting the sea is 3.0 s.
(b)
Determine the height of the cliff.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 6 marks)
29
54. This question is about a balloon used to carry scientific equipment.

balloon
The diagram below represents a balloon just before take-off. The balloons
basket is attached to the ground by two fixing ropes.
There is a force F vertically upwards of 2.15 103 N on the balloon. The
total mass of the balloon and its basket is 1.95 102 kg.
(a)
basket
State the magnitude of the resultant force on the balloon when it is

attached to the ground.
...............................................................................................................
....................
(1)
fixing rope
fixing rope
50
50
ground
(b)
Calculate the tension in either of the fixing ropes.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
The fixing ropes are released and the balloon accelerates upwards. Calculate the magnitude of this
initial acceleration.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
The balloon reaches a terminal speed 10 seconds after take-off. The upward force F remains
constant. Describe how the magnitude of air friction on the balloon varies during the first 10
seconds of its flight.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)
55.
This question is about the collision between two railway trucks (carts).
(a)
Define linear momentum.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
30
In the diagram below, railway truck A is moving along a horizontal track. It collides with a stationary truck B
and on collision, the two join together. Immediately before the collision, truck A is moving with speed 5.0 ms1.
Immediately after collision, the speed of the trucks is v.
5.0 ms 1
B
Immediately before collision
v
A
Immediately after collision
The mass of truck A is 800 kg and the mass of truck B is 1200 kg.
(b) (i)
Calculate the speed v immediately after the collision.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) Calculate the total kinetic energy lost during the collision.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
Suggest what has happened to the lost kinetic energy.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)
56. This question is about estimating energy changes for an escalator (moving staircase).
The diagram below represents an escalator. People step on to it at point A and step off at point B.
B
30m
31
40?
(a)
The escalator is 30 m long and makes an angle of 40 with the horizontal. At full capacity, 48
people step on at point A and step off at point B every minute.
(i)
Calculate the potential energy gained by a person of weight 7.0 102 N in moving from A to
B.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Estimate the energy supplied by the escalator motor to the people every minute when the
escalator is working at full capacity.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(iii) State one assumption that you have made to obtain your answer to (ii).
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
The escalator is driven by an electric motor that has an efficiency of 70%.
(b)
Using your answer to (a) (ii), calculate the minimum input power required by the motor to drive
the escalator.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
57.
This question is about driving a metal bar into the ground.

Large metal bars can be driven into the ground using a heavy falling object.
32
In the situation shown, the object has a mass 2.0 103 kg and the metal bar has a mass of 400 kg.
The object strikes the bar at a speed of 6.0 m s1. It comes to rest on the bar without bouncing. As a result
of the collision, the bar is driven into the ground to a depth of 0.75 m.
(a)
Determine the speed of the bar immediately after the object strikes it.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
(b)
Determine the average frictional force exerted by the ground on the bar.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
58.
This question is about the kinematics and dynamics of circular motion.

(a)
A car goes round a curve in a road at constant speed. Explain why, although its speed is constant, it
is accelerating.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
In the diagram below, a marble (small glass sphere) rolls down a track, the bottom part of which has been
bent into a loop. The end A of the track, from which the marble is released, is at a height of 0.80 m above
the ground. Point B is the lowest point and point C the highest point of the loop. The diameter of the loop
is 0.35 m.
A
marble
0.80 m
0.35 m
33
ground
The mass of the marble is 0.050 kg. Friction forces and any gain in kinetic energy due to the rotating of
the marble can be ignored. The acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms2.
Consider the marble when it is at point C.
(b) (i)
On the diagram opposite, draw an arrow to show the direction of the resultant force acting
on the marble.
(ii) State the names of the two forces acting on the marble.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii) Deduce that the speed of the marble is 3.0 ms1.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iv) Determine the resultant force acting on the marble and hence determine the reaction force of
the track on the marble.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 12 marks)
34
Topic 3: Thermal physics

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Two different objects are in thermal contact with one another. The objects are at different temperatures.
The temperatures of the two objects determine
A.
the process by which thermal energy is transferred.
B.
the heat capacity of each object.
C.
the direction of transfer of thermal energy between the objects.
D.
the amount of internal energy in each object.
The kelvin temperature of an object is a measure of

A.
the total energy of the molecules of the object.
B.
the total kinetic energy of the molecules of the object.
C.
the maximum energy of the molecules of the object.
D.
the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the object.
Two bodies are brought into thermal contact with each other. No thermal energy transfer takes place
between the bodies. It may be deduced therefore, that the bodies must have the same
A.
specific heat capacity. B. heat capacity.
C.
temperature.
D. internal energy.
Which two values of temperature are equivalent to the nearest degree when measured on the Kelvin and
on the Celsius scales of temperature?
Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
A.
40
313
B.
273
100
C.
313
40
D.
373
During an experiment, a solid is heated from 285 K to 298 K.

Which one of the following gives the rise in temperature, in deg C, and the final temperature, in C, of
the solid?
Rise in temperature in deg C
Final temperature in C
A.
13
571
B.
13
25
C.
286
571
D.
286
25
35
6.
7.
Which of the following is the internal energy of a system?

A.
The total thermal energy gained by the system during melting and boiling.
B.
The sum of the potential and the kinetic energies of the particles of the system.
C.
The total external work done on the system during melting and boiling.
D.
The change in the potential energy of the system that occurs during melting and boiling.
A container holds 20 g of neon (mass number 20) and also 8 g of helium (mass number 4).
What is the ratio
A.
8.
10.
11.
B. 0.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5
The molar mass of water is 18 g. The approximate number of water molecules in a glass of water is
A.
9.
0.4
number of atoms of neon

?
number of atoms of helium
1022.
B. 1025.
C.
1028.
D. 1031.
The heat capacity of a solid body is defined as

A.
the thermal energy required to increase the bodys temperature by one degree.
B.
the maximum thermal energy that must be supplied to melt the solid.
C.
the total kinetic energy of the solids molecules.
D.
the average kinetic energy of the solids molecules.
The specific heat capacity of an object is defined as the thermal energy required to raise the temperature
of
A.
the volume of the object by 1 K.
B.
unit volume of the object by 1 K.
C.
the mass of the object by 1 K.
D.
unit mass of the object by 1 K.
The specific heat capacity of a metal block of mass m is determined by placing a heating coil in its centre,
as shown in the diagram above.
The block is heated for time t
voltmeter readings during the heating are I and V respectively.
The ammeter and
The specific heat capacity is best calculated using which one of the following expressions?
A.
c=
VIt
m
C.
c=
m
VI
D.
c=
m
VIt
B.
c=
VI
m
thermometer
V
heater
metal block
36
12.
The specific heat capacity c of a solid block of mass m is determined by heating the block and measuring
its temperature. The graph below shows the variation of the temperature T of the block with the thermal
energy Q transferred to the block.
T
The gradient of the line is equal to

A.
c
. B.
m
m
1
. C. mc. D.
.
c
mc
13. Some liquid is contained in a shallow dish that is open to the

atmosphere. The rate of evaporation of the liquid does not
depend on
14.
A.
the temperature of the liquid.
B.
the temperature of the atmosphere.
C.
the depth of the liquid.
D.
the pressure of the atmosphere.
16.
Which of the following correctly shows the changes, if any, in the potential energy and in the kinetic
energy of the molecules of a solid as it melts?
Potential energy
15.
Kinetic energy
A.
Decreases
Increases
B.
Increases
Stays the same
C.
Stays the same
Decreases
D.
Stays the same
Stays the same
A substance changes from solid to liquid at its normal melting temperature. What change, if any, occurs
in the average kinetic energy and the average potential energy of its molecules?
Average kinetic energy
Average potential energy
A.
constant
constant
B.
increases
constant
C.
increases
decreases
D.
constant
increases
The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is greater than its specific latent heat of fusion
because
A.
boiling takes place at a higher temperature than melting.
B.
thermal energy is required to raise the temperature from the melting point to the boiling point.
C.
the volume of the substance decreases on freezing but increases when boiling.
D.
the increase in potential energy of the molecules is greater on boiling than on melting.
37
17.
18.
The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of energy required to
A.
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius.
B.
convert a unit mass of liquid to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.
C.
convert a unit mass of solid to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.
D.
convert a unit mass of liquid to vapour at a temperature of 100C and a pressure of one
atmosphere.
A substance is heated at a constant rate. The sketch graph shows the variation with time t of the
temperature of the substance.
In which region or regions of the graph must there be
more than one phase of the substance present?
Z
A.
WX and YZ
X
B.
WX only
C.
WX, XY and YZ
D.
19.
20.
W
t
XY only
Which of the following is not an assumption on which the kinetic model of an ideal gas is based?
A.
All molecules behave as if they are perfectly elastic spheres.
B.
The mean-square speed of the molecules is proportional to the kelvin temperature.
C.
Unless in contact, the forces between molecules are negligible.
D.
The molecules are in continuous random motion.
A gas is contained in a cylinder fitted with a piston as shown below.

When the gas is compressed rapidly by the piston its temperature rises because the molecules of the gas
21.
A.
are squeezed closer together.
B.
collide with each other more frequently.
C.
collide with the walls of the container more frequently.
D.
gain energy from the moving piston.
gas
piston
The temperature of an ideal gas is reduced. Which one of the following statements is true?
A.
The molecules collide with the walls of the container less frequently.
B.
The molecules collide with each other more frequently.
C.
The time of contact between the molecules and the wall is reduced.
D.
The time of contact between molecules is increased.
38
22. When a gas in a cylinder is compressed at constant temperature by a piston, the pressure of the gas
increases. Consider the following three statements.
I.
The rate at which the molecules collide with the piston increases.
II.
The average speed of the molecules increases.
III.
The molecules collide with each other more often.
Which statement(s) correctly explain the increase in pressure?

A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and II only
D.
I and III only

23.
This question is about an experiment to measure the temperature of a flame.

(a)
Define heat (thermal) capacity.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
A piece of metal is held in the flame of a Bunsen burner for several minutes. The metal is then quickly
transferred to a known mass of water contained in a calorimeter.
flame
water
calorimeter
container
Bunsen burner
lagging (insulation)
The water into which the metal has been placed is stirred until it reaches a steady temperature.
(b) Explain why
(i)
the metal is transferred as quickly as possible from the flame to the water;
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(ii) the water is stirred.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
39
The following data are available:

= 82.7 J K1
heat capacity of metal
heat capacity of the water in the calorimeter = 5.46 102 J K1
(c)
heat capacity of the calorimeter
= 54.6 J K1
initial temperature of the water
= 288 K
final temperature of the water
= 353 K
Assuming negligible energy losses in the processes involved, use the data to calculate the
temperature T of the Bunsen flame.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 7 marks)
24. This question is about the change of phase (state) of ice.

A quantity of crushed ice is removed from a freezer and placed in a calorimeter. Thermal energy is
supplied to the ice at a constant rate. To ensure that all the ice is at the same temperature, it is continually
stirred. The temperature of the contents of the calorimeter is recorded every 15 seconds.
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the temperature of the contents of the calorimeter.
(Uncertainties in the measured quantities are not shown.)
20
15
10
5
0
5
10
15
20
25
50
75
100
125
150
175
200
t /s
40
(a) On the graph above, mark with an X, the data point on the graph at which all the ice has just
melted.
(b)
Explain, with reference to the energy of the molecules, the constant temperature region of the
graph.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
The mass of the ice is 0.25 kg and the specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg1 K1.
(c)
Use these data and data from the graph to

(i)
deduce that energy is supplied to the ice at the rate of about 530 W.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
determine the specific heat capacity of ice.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii)
determine the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 12 marks)
41
25.
Gases and liquids

(a)
Describe two differences, in terms of molecular structure, between a gas and a liquid.
1.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
2.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The temperature of an ideal gas is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the
gas. Explain why the average kinetic energy is specified.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Define heat (thermal) capacity.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(d)
Water is heated at a constant rate in a container that has negligible heat capacity. The container is
thermally insulated from the surroundings.
The sketch-graph below shows the variation with time of the temperature of the water.
temperature / C
A
20
420
time / s

initial mass of water
initial temp of water
rate at which water is heated
specific heat capacity of water
(i)
= 0.40 kg
= 20 C
= 300 W
= 4.2 103 J kg1C
State the reason why the temperature is constant in the region AB.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
42
(ii)
Calculate the temperature at which the water starts to boil.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(5)
(e) All the water is boiled away 3.0 103 s after it first starts to boil. Determine a value for the specific
latent heat L of vaporization of water.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)
26.
This question is about modelling the thermal processes involved when a person is running.
When running, a person generates thermal energy but maintains approximately constant temperature.
(a)
Explain what thermal energy and temperature mean. Distinguish between the two concepts.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
The following simple model may be used to estimate the rise in temperature of a runner assuming no
thermal energy is lost.
A closed container holds 70 kg of water, representing the mass of the runner. The water is heated at a rate
of 1200 W for 30 minutes. This represents the energy generation in the runner.
(b)
(i)
Show that the thermal energy generated by the heater is 2.2 106 J.
...........................................................................................................................
43
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Calculate the temperature rise of the water, assuming no energy losses from the water. The
specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg 1 K 1.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c) The temperature rise calculated in (b) would be dangerous for the runner. Outline three
mechanisms, other than evaporation, by which the container in the model would transfer energy to
its surroundings.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(6)
A further process by which energy is lost from the runner is the evaporation of sweat.
(d)
(i)
Describe, in terms of molecular behaviour, why evaporation causes cooling.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
44
(ii)
Percentage of generated energy lost by sweating: 50%

Specific latent heat of vaporization of sweat: 2.26 106 J kg
Using the information above, and your answer to (b) (i), estimate the mass of sweat
evaporated from the runner.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii)
State and explain two factors that affect the rate of evaporation of sweat from the skin of the
runner.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 25 marks)
45
Topic 4: Oscillations and waves

1.
For a system executing simple harmonic motion, the restoring force acting on the system is proportional
to the
A.
displacement of the system from equilibrium.
B.
amplitude of oscillation.
C.
elastic potential energy.
D.
frequency of oscillation.
2.
The graphs show how the acceleration a of four different particles varies with their displacement x.
Which of the particles is executing simple harmonic motion?
3.
The graph shows how the displacement varies with time for an object
undergoing simple harmonic motion.
Which graph shows how the objects acceleration a varies with time t?
46
4.
An object at the end of a spring oscillates vertically with simple harmonic motion. The graph shows the
variation with time t of the displacement x. The amplitude is x0 and the period of oscillation is T.
Which of the following is the correct expression for the displacement x?

A.
x 0 cos
2
t
T
B. x 0 cos
2
t
T
C.
x 0 sin
2
t
T
D.
x 0 sin
2
t
T
5. Which of the following is the correct expression for the maximum acceleration of the object?
A.
6.
2
x0
T
B.
2
T2
x0
C.
T2
x0
D.
4 2
x0
T
The graph below shows how the displacement x of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion varies
with time t. The motion is undamped.
Which of the following graphs correctly shows how the velocity v of the particle varies with t?
47
7.
The graph shows measurements of the height h of sea level at different times t in the Bay of Fundy.
Which of the following gives the approximate amplitude and period of the tides?
8.
Amplitude
Period
A.
6.5 m
6 hours
B.
13 m
12 hours
C.
6.5 m
12 hours
D.
13 m
6 hours
A particle oscillates with simple harmonic motion with period T.

At time t = 0, the particle has its maximum displacement. Which graph shows the variation with time t of
the kinetic energy Ek of the particle?
9.
A mass on the end of a horizontal spring is displaced from its equilibrium position by a distance A and
released. Its subsequent oscillations have total energy E and time
period T.
An identical mass is attached to an identical spring. The maximum
displacement is 2A. Assuming this spring obeys Hookes law,
which of the following gives the correct time period and total
energy?
New time period
New energy
A.
4E
B.
2E
C.
2T
4E
D.
2T
2E
48
10.
The graph below represents the variation with time of the displacement of an oscillating particle.
The motion of the object is
11.
A.
over damped.
B.
critically damped.
C.
lightly damped.
D.
not damped.
The shock absorbers of a car, in good working condition, ensure that the vertical oscillations of the car
are
A.
12.
14.
B. lightly damped.
C. moderately damped.
D. critically damped.
During one complete oscillation, the amplitude of a damped harmonic motion changes from 1.5 cm to
0.30 cm. The total energy at the end of the oscillation is E2 and the total energy at the beginning of the
E
oscillation is E1. The ratio 2 is
E1
A.
13.
undamped.
1
.
5
1
.
25
B.
C. 5.
D.
25.
A force that varies sinusoidally is applied to a system that is lightly damped. Which of the following must
be true of the force for resonance to occur?
A.
It must always be in anti-phase with the oscillations of the system.
B.
Its direction must always be in the direction of motion of the oscillations of the system.
C.
Its frequency must be equal to the frequency of oscillation of the system.
D.
Its amplitude must be equal to the amplitude of oscillation of the system.
Light travels from air into glass as shown below.
The refractive index of the glass is

A.
15.
sin 30
sin 80
B.
sin 80
sin 30
C.
sin 60
sin 10
D.
sin 10
sin 60
What is the best estimate for the refractive index of a medium in which light travels at a speed of 2.7
108 m s1?
A.
0.9
B. 1.0
C.
1.1
D. 2.7
49
16.
Plane wavefronts are incident on a boundary between two media labelled 1 and 2 in the diagram.
The diagram of the wavefronts is drawn to scale.
The ratio of the refractive index of medium 2 to that of medium 1 is

A.
17.
18.
0.50.
B. 0.67.
C.
1.5 .
D. 2.0.
Which of the following correctly describes the change, if any, in the speed, wavelength and frequency of
a light wave as it passes from air into glass?
Speed
Wavelength
Frequency
A.
decreases
decreases
unchanged
B.
decreases
unchanged
decreases
C.
unchanged
increases
decreases
D.
increases
increases
unchanged
A transverse wave travels from left to right. The diagram below shows how, at a particular instant of time,
the displacement of particles in the medium varies with position. Which arrow represents the direction of
the velocity of the particle marked P?
50
19.
The diagram below is a snapshot of wave fronts of circular waves emitted by a point source S at the
surface of water. The source vibrates at a frequency f = 10.0 Hz.
The speed of the wave front is

A.
20.
1.5 cm s1.C.
15 cm s1.D.
30 cm s1.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has a frequency greater than that of visible light?
A.
21.
0.15 cm s1.B.
Ultraviolet
B. Radio
C. Microwaves
D. Infrared
Two waves meet at a point. The waves have a path difference of

waves is
A.
22.
rad.
B.
rad.
C.
rad.
. The phase difference between the
D.
Two waves meet at a point in space. Which of the following properties always add together?
A.
23.
Displacement
B. Amplitude
C.
Speed
D.
Frequency
The two graphs show the variation with time of the individual displacements of two waves as they pass
through the same point.
The displacement of the resultant wave at the point at

time T is equal to
A.
x1 + x2 .
B.
x1 x2 .
C.
A1 + A2.
D.
A1 A2.
51
24.
Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 emit spherical waves.
Which of the following best describes the intensity of the waves at P and Q?
25.
A.
maximum
minimum
B.
minimum
maximum
C.
maximum
maximum
D.
minimum
minimum
An orchestra playing on boat X can be heard by tourists on boat Y, which is situated out of sight of boat
X around a headland.
The sound from X can be heard on Y due to

A.
refraction.
B. reflection.
C.diffraction.
D. transmission.
26. A water surface wave (ripple) is travelling to the right on the surface of a lake. The wave has period T. The
diagram below shows the surface of the lake at a particular instant of time. A piece of cork is floating in
the water in the position shown.
Which is the correct position of the cork a time
T
later?
4
cork
A.
C.
B.
D.
52
27. Diagram 1 below shows the displacement of part of a medium through which a wave is travelling at time t =
0. Diagram 2 shows the displacement at a later time t = 4.0 s in which the wave has moved forward 10
cm. In this time, the point P on the wave has moved from a crest through zero displacement to a trough.
Diagram 1
Diagram 2
The wavelength of the wave is

A.
5.0 cm.
B.
10 cm.
C. 20 cm.
D. 40 cm.
28. A pulse is sent down a string fixed at one end.

Which one of the following diagrams best represents the reflected
pulse?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1. Simple harmonic motion
(a) A body is displaced from equilibrium. State the two conditions necessary for the body to execute
simple harmonic motion.
1.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
2. .........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) In a simple model of a methane molecule, a hydrogen atom and the carbon atom can be regarded as
two masses attached by a spring. A hydrogen atom is much less massive than the carbon atom such that any
displacement of the carbon atom may be ignored.
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the displacement x from its equilibrium
position of a hydrogen atom in a molecule of methane.
53
The mass of hydrogen atom is 1.7 1027 kg. Use data from the graph above
(i)
to determine its amplitude of oscillation.
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
to show that the frequency of its oscillation is 9.1 1013 Hz.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
to show that the maximum kinetic energy of the hydrogen atom is 6.2 1018 J.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
Assuming that the motion of the hydrogen atom is simple harmonic, its frequency of oscillation f is
given by the expression
f
1
2
k
,
mp
where k is the force per unit displacement between a hydrogen atom and the carbon atom and mp is
the mass of a proton.
(i)
Show that the value of k is approximately 560 N m1.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Estimate, using your answer to (c)(i), the maximum acceleration of the hydrogen atom.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
54
2. Travelling waves
(a)
Graph 1 below shows the variation with time t of the displacement d of a travelling (progressive)
wave. Graph 2 shows the variation with distance x along the same wave of its displacement d.
4
Graph 1
d / mm
2
0
0.0
0.1
0.2
0.3
0.4
0.5
0.6
t /s
0.0
0.4
0.8
1.2
1.6
2.0
2.4
x / cm
2
4
4
Graph 2
d / mm
2
0
2
4
(i)
State what is meant by a travelling wave.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Use the graphs to determine the amplitude, wavelength, frequency and speed of the wave.
Amplitude:
.................................................................................................
(1)
Wavelength: .................................................................................................
(1)
Frequency:
.................................................................................................
.................................................................................................
(1)
Speed:
.................................................................................................
.................................................................................................
(1)
Refraction of waves
(b)
The diagram below shows plane wavefronts incident on a boundary between two media A and B.
55
medium A
medium B
The ratio
refractive index of medium B

is 1.4.
refractive index of medium A
The angle between an incident wavefront and the normal to the boundary is 50 .
(i)
Calculate the angle between a refracted wavefront and the normal to the boundary.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
On the diagram above, construct three wavefronts to show the refraction of the wave at the
boundary.
(3)
(Total 11 marks)
3. This question is about waves.

(a)
With reference to the direction of energy transfer through a medium, distinguish between a
transverse wave and a longitudinal wave.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b)
A wave is travelling along the surface of some shallow water in the x-direction. The graph shows
the variation with time t of the displacement d of a particle of water.
56
d / mm 10
8
6
4
2
0
0.05
0.1
0.15
0.2
0.25
0.3
t/s
4
6
8
10
Use the graph to determine for the wave

(i)
the frequency,
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
the amplitude.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c)
The speed of the wave in (b) is 15 cm s1. Deduce that the wavelength of this wave is 2.0 cm.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
The graph in (b) shows the displacement of a particle at the position x = 0.

On the axes below, draw a graph to show the variation with distance x along the water surface of
the displacement d of the water surface at time t = 0.070 s.
(3)
57
(e)
The wave encounters a shelf that divides the water into two separate depths. The water to the right
of the shelf is deeper than that to the left of the shelf.
wave fronts
shelf
direction of
travel of wave
30
shallow water
deep water
The angle between the wavefronts in the shallow water and the shelf is 30. The speed of the wave
in the shallow water is 15 cm s1 and in the deeper water is 20 cm s1. For the wave in the deeper
water, determine the angle between the normal to the wavefronts and the shelf.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)
4. This question is about oscillations and waves.

(a)
A rectangular piece of wood of length l floats in water with its axis vertical as shown in diagram 1.
The length of wood below the surface is d. The wood is pushed vertically downwards a distance A
such that a length of wood is still above the water surface as shown in diagram 2. The wood is then
released and oscillates vertically. At the instant shown in diagram 3, the wood is moving
downwards and the length of wood beneath the surface is d + x.
(i)
On diagram 3, draw an arrow to show the direction of the acceleration of the wood.
(1)
58
(ii)
The acceleration a of the wood (in m s2) is related to x (in m) by the following equation.
a=
14
x
l
Explain why this equation shows that the wood is executing simple harmonic motion.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
The period of oscillation of the wood is 1.4 s. Show that the length l of the wood is 0.70 m.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(b)
The wood in (a), as shown in diagram 2, is released at time t = 0. On the axes below, sketch a
graph to show how the velocity v of the wood varies with time over one period of oscillation.
(1)
(c)
The distance A that the wood is initially pushed down is 0.12 m.

(i)
Calculate the magnitude of the maximum acceleration of the wood.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
59
(ii)
On your sketch graph in (b) label with the letter P one point where the magnitude of the
acceleration is a maximum.
(1)
(d)
The oscillations of the wood generate waves in the water of wavelength 0.45 m.
The graph shows how the displacement D, of the water surface at a particular distance from the
wood varies with time t.
Using the graph, calculate the

(i)
speed of the waves.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
ratio of the displacement at t = 1.75 s to the displacement at t = 0.35 s.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
ratio of the energy of the wave at t = 1.75 s to the energy at t = 0.35 s

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 15 marks)
60
Topic 5: Electric currents

1.
2.
Which one of the following is a correct definition of electric potential difference between two points?
A.
The power to move a small positive charge between the two points.
B.
The work done to move a small positive charge between the two points.
C.
The power per unit charge to move a small positive charge between the two points.
D.
The work done per unit charge to move a small positive charge between the two points.
The work done on a positive point charge of magnitude 3.0 nC as it is moved at constant speed from one
point to another is 12 nJ. The potential difference between the two points is
A.
3.
B.
0.25 V.
C. 4.0 V.
D.
36 V.
Which of the following is the correct value of the electronvolt, measured in SI Units?
A.
4.
0.0 V.
1.6 1019 N
B. 1.6 1019 J
C. 9.1 1031 N
D.
9.1 1031 J
In the circuit below, n charge carriers pass the point P in a time t. Each charge carrier has charge q.
The current in the circuit is given by the expression
A.
5.
q
.
t
B.
nq
.
t
C.
qt
.
n
D. nqt.
The variation with potential difference V of the current I in an electric

lamp is shown below.
I
P
Ip
0
0
Vp
At point P, the current is Ip, the potential difference is Vp and the gradient of the tangent to the curve is G.
What is the resistance of the lamp at point P?
A.
6.
1
G
B. G
C.
Ip
Vp
D.
Vp
Ip
The graph below shows the current/voltage characteristics of a filament lamp.

The resistance of the filament at 4.0 V is
A.
61
7.
8.
Which of the following is a correct statement of Ohms law?

A.
The resistance of a conductor is always constant.
B.
The current in a conductor is always proportional to the potential difference across the conductor.
C.
The resistance of a conductor increases with increasing temperature.
D.
The resistance of a conductor is constant only if the temperature of the conductor is constant.
The graph below shows the variation with voltage V of the current I in
three resistors X, Y and Z.
I
X
Which of the following corresponds to resistors for which the

resistance increases with increasing current?
9.
A.
X only
B.
Z only
C.
X and Z
D.
Y and Z
C.
B.
0
0
D.
0
0
0
0
0
0
10.
Which graph best represents the relationship between the current I and
the voltage V of a filament lamp.
A.
A battery is connected in series with a resistor R. The battery transfers 2 000 C of charge completely
round the circuit. During this process, 2 500 J of energy is dissipated in the resistor R and 1 500 J is
expended in the battery.
The emf of the battery is
A.
11.
2.00 V.
B.
1.25 V.
C. 0.75 V.
D. 0.50 V.
Which one of the following shows a correct circuit, using ideal voltmeters and ammeters, for measuring
the I-V characteristic of a filament lamp?
A.
B.
A
V
C.
D.
A
V
62
6.0 V
12.
the battery has an emf of 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance.
10 k
The reading on the voltmeter is
13.
A.
2.0 V. B. 3.0 V.
C.
4.0 V. D. 6.0 V.
20 k
V
20 k
In the circuits below, the cells each have the same emf and zero internal resistance. All the resistors have
the same resistance.
Circuit X
Circuit Y
Circuit Z
Which of the following gives the current through the cells in order of increasing magnitude?
Lowest current
14.
Highest current
A.
B.
C.
D.
In the two circuits X and Y below, each cell has an emf E and negligible internal resistance. Each resistor
has a resistance R.
circuit X
circuit Y
E
The power dissipated in circuit X is P.

The best estimate for the power dissipated in circuit Y is
A.
15.
P
.
4
B.
P
.
2
C.
2P.
D.
4P.
A conductor of constant resistance dissipates 6.0 W of power when the potential difference across it is 12
V. The power that will be dissipated in this conductor when the potential difference across it is 24 V is
A.
6.0 W.
B.
12 W.
C. 24 W.
D.
48 W.
63
16. In the circuit below, resistors X, Y and Z are connected in series with a 9.0 V supply.
+9.0 V
0
3000 W
3000 W
X
Resistors X and Z are fixed resistors of resistance 3000

between zero and 3000 .
. The resistance of resistor Y may be varied
Which of the following gives the maximum range of potential difference V across the resistors X and Y?
A.
17.
0 to 6.0 V
B.
3.0 V to 6.0 V
C.
4.5 V to 6.0 V
D. 4.5 V to 9.0 V
A resistor of resistance 1.0 is connected in series with a battery. The current in the circuit is 2.0 A.
The resistor is now replaced by a resistor of resistance of 4.0 . The current in this circuit is 1.0 A.
1.0 A
2.0 A
1.0 W
4.0 W
The best estimate for the internal resistance of the battery is

A.
18.
1.0
B. 2.0
C.
4.0
D.
5.0
In the circuit below, the battery has negligible internal resistance. Three identical lamps L, M and N of
constant resistance are connected as shown.
The filament of lamp N breaks. Which of the following shows the subsequent changes to the brightness
of lamp L and lamp M?
Lamp L
Lamp M
A.
stays the same
decreases
B.
increases
stays the same
C.
increases
decreases
D.
decreases
increases
64
19.
In the circuit below, which meter is not correctly connected?
A.
B. 2
C. 3
D.
20. A copper wire, of electric resistance R, has a length L and a

cross-section area S. Another copper wire has a length 2L and a
S
cross-section area of
. Which of the following is the resistance of
2
this wire?
A.
R
4
B.
R
2
C. 2R
D.
4R
21. Two resistors, made of the same material, are connected in series to a battery. The length of resistor X is
twice that of resistor Y, and X has twice the cross-sectional area of Y.
Which of the following gives
A.
1
4
B.
1
2
resistance of X
?
resistance of Y
C. 1
D. 4
22. The tungsten filament of a lamp has a cross-sectional area A and length L. For a potential difference V
across the filament, the current in the filament is I. The resistivity of the tungsten equals
A.
VA
.
IL
B.
IL
.
VA
C.
VL
.
IA
D.
IA
VL
23. In the circuit below, which of the following will cause the greatest increase in the reading of the voltmeter?
A.
An increase in temperature
B.
An increase in light intensity
C.
A decrease in temperature
D.
A decrease in light intensity
24. The circuit shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) in series with a resistor and a cell. The emf of the cell is
When light shines on the LDR, the potential difference across the resistor will
A.
stay the same.
B.
decrease.
C.
D.
65
25. Which of the following correctly gives the resistance of an ideal ammeter and resistance of an ideal
voltmeter?
Ammeter
Voltmeter
A.
infinite
infinite
B.
zero
zero
C.
zero
infinite
D.
infinite
zero
1. This question is about electrical resistance.

(a)
A heating coil is to be made of wire of diameter 3.5 104 m. The heater is to dissipate 980 W
when connected to a 230 V d.c. supply. The material of the wire has resistivity
1.3 106
(i)
Define electrical resistance.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Calculate the resistance of the heating coil at its normal working temperature.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
Show that the length of wire needed to make the heating coil is approximately 4 m.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
Three identical electrical heaters each provide power P when connected separately to a supply S
which has zero internal resistance. On the diagram below, complete the circuit by drawing two
switches so that the power provided by the heaters may be either P or 2P or 3P.
(2)
(Total 7 marks)
66
2. This question is about electric circuits.

(a)
(i)
Define emf and state Ohms law.

emf: ....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
Ohms law: ....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
The graph below shows the I-V characteristic of a particular electrical component.
V
State show the resistance of the component is determined from the graph.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
In the circuit below an electrical device (load) is connected in series with a cell of emf 2.5 V and
internal resistance r. The current I in the circuit is 0.10 A.
e.m.f. = 2.5V
r
I = 0.10A
load
The power dissipated in the load is 0.23 W.

Calculate
(i)
the total power of the cell;

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
67
(ii)
the resistance of the load;

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
the internal resistance r of the cell.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
A second identical cell is connected into the circuit in (b) as shown below.
I = 0.15A
load
The current in this circuit is 0.15 A. Deduce that the load is a non-ohmic device.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 12 marks)
3. This question is about electrical energy and associated phenomena.

Current electricity
A cell of electromotive force (emf) E and internal resistance r is connected in series with a resistor R, as
shown below.
E
68
The cell supplies 8.1 103 J of energy when 5.8 103 C of charge moves completely round the circuit. The
current in the circuit is constant.
(i)
Calculate the emf E of the cell.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
1.2 V. Determine the internal resistance r of the cell.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii)
Calculate the total energy transfer in the resistor R.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(iv)
Describe, in terms of a simple model of electrical conduction, the mechanism by which the energy
transfer in the resistor R takes place.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(5)
(Total 12 marks)
4. This question is about electric circuits.

Susan sets up the circuit below in order to
measure the current-voltage (I-V) characteristic
of a small filament lamp.
3.0 V
V
69
The supply is a battery that has an emf of 3.0 V and the ammeter and voltmeter are considered to be ideal. The
lamp is labelled by the manufacturer as 3 Volts, 0.6 Watts.
(a)
(i)
Explain what information this labelling provides about the normal operation of the lamp.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Calculate the current in the filament of the lamp when it is operating at normal brightness.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
Susan sets the variable resistor to its maximum value of resistance. She then closes the switch S and
records the following readings.
Ammeter reading = 0.18 A
Voltmeter reading = 0.60 V
She then sets the variable resistor to its zero value of resistance and records the following readings.
Ammeter reading = 0.20 A
(b)
(i)
Voltmeter reading = 2.6 V
Explain why, by changing the value of the resistance of the variable resistance, the potential
difference across the lamp cannot be reduced to zero or be increased to 3.0 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Determine the internal resistance of the battery.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
70
(c)
Calculate the resistance of the filament when the reading on the voltmeter is
(i)
0.60 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
2.6 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(d)
Explain why there is a difference between your answers to (c)(i) and (c)(ii).
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e)
Using the axes below, draw a sketch-graph of the I-V characteristic of the filament of the
lamp. (Note: this is a sketch-graph; you do not need to add any values to the axes.)
I
0
0
(1)
The diagram below shows an alternative circuit for varying the potential
difference across the lamp.
The potential divider XZ has a potential of 3.0 V across it. When the contact is
at the position Y, the resistance of XY equals the resistance of YZ which equals
(f)
3.0 V
Calculate the potential difference across the lamp.
Y
Z
.......................................................................................................................
..............
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 18 marks)
71
Topic 6: Fields and forces

1.
Newtons law of gravitation for the force F between two point objects of masses M and m, separated by a
distance d may be written as
Fd2
is proportional to Mm.
The expression may also be used for the force of attraction between the Sun and the Earth, although they
are not point masses. This is because
2.
A.
the gravitational constant G is not involved in the expression.
B.
the force between the Sun and the Earth is very large.
C.
the separation of the Sun and the Earth is much greater than their radii.
D.
the mass of the Earth is much less than the mass of the Sun.
In Newtons universal law of gravitation the masses are assumed to be

A.
3.
4.
B.
masses of planets. C. point masses.
D. spherical masses.
Gravitational field strength at a point may be defined as

A.
the force on a small mass placed at the point.
B.
the force per unit mass on a small mass placed at the point.
C.
the work done to move unit mass from infinity to the point.
D.
the work done per unit mass to move a small mass from infinity to the point.
The acceleration of free fall of a small sphere of mass 5.0 103 kg when close to the surface of Jupiter is
25 ms2. The gravitational field strength at the surface of Jupiter is
A.
5.
extended masses.
2.0 104 N kg1.B.
1.3 101 N kg1.C.
25 N kg1.D.
5.0 103 N kg1.
The mass of Mars is approximately 0.1 times the mass of Earth and its diameter is approximately 0.5
times that of Earth.
What is the approximate gravitational field strength on the surface of Mars?
A.
6.
2N kg1
B.
4N kg1
C. 25N kg1
D. 50N kg1
Planet X has radius R and mass M. Planet Y has radius 2R and mass 8M.
Which one of the following is the correct value of the ratio
gravitational field strength at surface of planet X
?
gravitational field strength at surface of planet Y
A.
B. 2
C.
1
2
D.
1
4
72
7.
Two identical spherical conductors X and Y are mounted on insulated stands. X carries a charge of +8.0
nC and Y carries a charge of 2.0 nC.
+8.0nC
2.0nC
conductor X
conductor Y
insulated stands
The two conductors are brought into contact and are then separated. Which of the following gives the
charge on each conductor?
8.
Charge on X
Charge on Y
A.
0.0 nC
0.0 nC
B.
+8.0 nC
2.0 nC
C.
+5.0 nC
+5.0 nC
D.
+3.0 nC
+3.0 nC
The diagram below shows a positively charged rod brought near an isolated uncharged metal plate.
As a result of bringing the rod near to the plate,
A.
9.
the metal plate will gain a charge dependent on the

separation of the rod and the plate.
B.
the metal plate will remain uncharged.
C.
the metal plate will gain a negative charge.
D.
the metal plate will gain a positive charge.
rod
+ + ++
+ + ++
plate
An isolated, uncharged metal conductor is brought close to a positively charged insulator.

++++
++++
insulating handle
insulator
conductor
The conductor is earthed (grounded) for a short time and then the insulator is removed.
Which of the following best represents the charge distribution on the surface of the conductor as a result
of these actions?
A.
C.
B.
D.
73
10.
X and Y are two identical conducting spheres separated by a distance d. X has a charge +6 C and Y has
a charge 2 C. The electric force between them is + F (ie attractive). The spheres are touched together
and are then returned to their original separation d. The force between them now is
A.
11.
+F.
B. F.
F
.
3
C.
D.
F
.
3
Three equal point charges X, Y and Z are fixed in the positions shown.
1.0 m
The distance between q1 and q2 and the distance between q2 and q3 is 1.0 m. The
electric force between the charges at X and Y is F. The electric force between the
charges at X and Z is
12.
13.
F
.
2
B.
F
2
C. F.
90
1.0 m
q1
A.
q3
q2
D. 2F.
The electric field strength at a point may be defined as

A.
the force exerted on unit positive charge placed at that point.
B.
the force per unit positive charge on a small test charge placed at that point.
C.
the work done on unit positive charge to move the charge to that point from infinity.
D.
the work done per unit positive charge to move a small test charge to that point from infinity.
Two positive point charges P and Q are held a certain distance apart.
X
At which point(s) could the electric field strength, due to the charges, be zero?
A.
14.
X only
B. Y only
D. X and Z only
Two point charges of magnitude +2Q

Q are fixed at the positions shown below. At which point is
the electric field due to the two charges most likely to be zero?
+2Q
Q
A.
15.
C. Z only
C.
B.
D.
The diagram below shows two parallel conducting plates that are oppositely
charged.
distance
C.
+
X
Which of the following diagrams

shows the variation along the line XY of
the magnitude E of the electric field
strength between the plates?
B.
E
The line XY is perpendicular to the plates.

A.
distance
distance
D.
E
distance
74
16.
The Earths magnetic field may be compared with that of a bar magnet.
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the orientation of the bar magnet in this model?
A.
B.
geographical north pole
C.
D.
17.
A current-carrying solenoid is placed with its axis pointing east-west as shown below. A small compass is
situated near one end of the solenoid.
N
W
axis of
solenoid
The axis of the needle of the compass is approximately 45 to the axis of the solenoid. The current in the
solenoid is then doubled. Which of the following diagrams best shows the new position of the compass
needle?
A.
B.
W
C.
D.
W
18.
A long, straight current-carrying wire is placed normal to the plane of the page. The current in the wire is
into the plane of the page.
Which of the following diagrams best represents the magnetic field around the wire?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75
19.
Two long, vertical wires X and Y carry currents in the same direction and pass through a horizontal sheet
of card.
X
Iron filings are scattered on the card. Which one of the following diagrams best shows the pattern formed
by the iron filings? (The dots show where the wires X and Y enter the card.)
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A strip of aluminium foil is held between the poles of a strong magnet, as shown below.
direction of current
magnet
aluminium foil
When a current is passed through the aluminium foil in the direction shown, the foil is deflected. In
which direction is this deflection?
A.
Vertically downwards
B.
Vertically upwards
C.
Towards the North pole of the magnet
D.
Towards the South pole of the magnet
76
21. A magnetic force acts on an electric charge in a magnetic field when
22.
A.
the charge is not moving.
B.
the charge moves in the direction of the magnetic field.
C.
the charge moves in the opposite direction to the magnetic field.
D.
the charge moves at right angles to the lines of the magnetic field.
The diagram below shows a charged particle about to enter a region of uniform magnetic field directed
into the page.
charged particle
magnetic field
Which of the following correctly describes the change, if any, in the kinetic energy and the momentum of
the particle in the magnetic field?
Kinetic energy
23.
Momentum
A.
Changed
Changed
B.
Changed
Unchanged
C.
Unchanged
Changed
D.
Unchanged
Unchanged
The currents in two parallel wires are I and 3I in the directions shown in the diagram below.
The magnetic force on wire 2 due to the current in wire 1 is F. The
magnitude of the force on wire 1 due to the current in wire 2 is
A.
24.
F
.
3
B.
F
.
2
C.
F.
D.
wire 1
wire 2
3I
3F.
The diagram below shows three parallel wires P, Q and R that are equally
spaced.
The currents in the wires are each of the same magnitude I and
are in the directions shown. The resultant force on wire Q due to the
current in wire P and in wire R is
wire P
wire Q
wire R
A.
perpendicular and into the plane of the paper.
B.
perpendicular and out of the plane of the paper.
C.
in the plane of the paper to the right.
D.
in the plane of the paper to the left.
77
25.
A straight conductor is in the plane of a uniform magnetic field as shown.

current I
magnetic field
The current in the conductor is I and the conductor is at an angle to the magnetic field.
The force per unit length on the conductor due to the current in the magnetic field is P.
Which is the correct expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field strength?
A.
26.
P sin
I
B.
P cos
I
C.
P
I sin
D.
P
I cos
A positively charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field. The direction of the particles
velocity is parallel to the direction of the magnetic field as shown in the diagram below.
region of uniform magnetic field
charged particle
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the path of the charged particle while in the region of
magnetic field?
27.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An electron is travelling in the direction shown and enters a region of uniform magnetic field.
direction of travel of
the electron
e
direction of
magnetic field
region of uniform
magnetic field
On entering the field the direction of the force acting on the electron is
A.
into the plane of the paper.
B.
out of the plane of the paper.
C.
towards the top of the page.
D.
towards the bottom of the page.

78
28. Three positive point charges of equal magnitude are held at the corners X, Y and Z of a right-angled triangle.
The point P is at the midpoint of XY. Which of the arrows shows the direction of the electric field at
point P?
29. The radius of a charged spherical conductor is R. Which of the following graphs best shows how the
magnitude of the electrical field strength E varies with distance r from the centre of the sphere?
30. Which of the following gives the acceleration of an electron of electric charge e and mass m in a uniform
electric field of strength E?
A.
B. Ee
C.
Ee
m
D.
m
Ee
31. Which diagram best represents the electric field due to a negatively charged conducting sphere?
79

1.
This question is about gravitational fields.

(a)
Define gravitational field strength.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The gravitational field strength at the surface of Jupiter is 25 N kg1 and the radius of Jupiter is 7.1
107 m.
(i)
Derive an expression for the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet in terms of
its mass M, its radius R and the gravitational constant G.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Use your expression in (b)(i) above to estimate the mass of Jupiter.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
2.
This question is about the electric field due to a charged sphere and the motion of electrons in that field.
The diagram below shows an isolated, metal sphere in a vacuum that carries a negative electric charge of
9.0 nC.
(a)
On the diagram draw arrows to represent the electric field pattern due to the charged sphere.
(3)
(b)
The electric field strength at the surface of the sphere and at points outside the sphere can be
determined by assuming that the sphere acts as though a point charge of magnitude 9.0 nC is
situated at its centre. The radius of the sphere is 4.5 102 m. Deduce that the magnitude of the
field strength at the surface of the sphere is 4.0 104 Vm1.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
80
An electron is initially at rest on the surface of the sphere.

(c)
(i)
Describe the path followed by the electron as it leaves the surface of the sphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Calculate the initial acceleration of the electron.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii)
State and explain whether the acceleration of the electron remains constant, increases or
decreases as it moves away from the sphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iv)
At a certain point P, the speed of the electron is 6.0 106 ms1. Determine the potential
difference between the point P and the surface of the sphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 13 marks)
3.
This question is about electric charge at rest.

(a)
Define electric field strength at a point in an electric field.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
81
Four point charges of equal magnitude, are held at the corners of a square as shown below.
+Q
2a
+Q
2a
The length of each side of the square is 2a and the sign of the charges is as shown. The point P is at the
centre of the square.
(b)
(i)
Deduce that the magnitude of the electric field strength at point P due to one of the point
kQ
charges is equal to
.
2a 2
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) On the diagram above, draw an arrow to represent the direction of the resultant electric field
at point P.
(1)
(iii) Determine, in terms of Q, a and k, the magnitude of the electric field strength at point P.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 8 marks)
4.
(a)
On the diagram below, draw the magnetic field pattern around a long straight current-carrying
conductor.
current-carrying wire
(3)
82
The diagram below shows a coil consisting of two loops of wire. The coil is suspended vertically.
0.20 cm
6.0 cm
Each loop has a diameter of 6.0 cm and the separation of the loops is 0.20 cm. The coil forms part of an
electrical circuit so that a current may be passed through the coil.
(b)
(i)
State and explain why, when the current is switched on in the coil, the distance between the
two loops changes.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
When there is a current I in the coil, a mass of 0.10 g hung from the free end of the coil returns the
separation of the loops to the original value of 0.20 cm.
The circumference C of a circle of radius r is given by the expression
C=2 .
(ii) Calculate the current I in the coil. You may assume that each loop behaves as a long straight
current-carrying wire.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(5)
(Total 11 marks)
5.
This question is about motion of a charged particle in a magnetic field.

A charged particle is projected from point X with speed v at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The
magnetic field is directed out of the plane of the page. The particle moves along a circle of radius R and
centre C as shown in the diagram below.
83
region of magnetic field

out of plane of page
(a)
X
charged particle
On the diagram above, draw arrows to represent the magnetic force on the particle at position X
and at position Y.
(1)
(b) State and explain whether

(i)
the charge is positive or negative;

.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
work is done by the magnetic force.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
A second identical charged particle is projected at position X with a speed
v
in a direction
2
opposite to that of the first particle. On the diagram above, draw the path followed by this particle.
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
6.
This question is about the force between current-carrying wires.

Diagram 1 below shows two long, parallel vertical wires each carrying equal currents in the same
direction. The wires pass through a horizontal sheet of card. Diagram 2 shows a plan view of the wires
looking down onto the card.
eye
sheet of card
84
diagram 1
diagram 2
(a)
(i)
Draw on diagram 1 the direction of the force acting on each wire.

(1)
(ii)
Draw on diagram 2 the magnetic field pattern due to the currents in the wire.
(3)
(b)
The card is removed and one of the two wires is free to move. Describe and explain the changes in
the velocity and in acceleration of the moveable wire.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
7. This question is about force fields.

(a)
Outline what is meant by a field of force.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
Five particles A to E are each placed in a different type of field. Complete the table to identify the
nature of the field in which each particle is situated.
Particle
Charge on
particle
Initial direction of
motion of particle
Direction of
force on particle
uncharged
stationary
in direction of
field
.....................................
negative
along direction of
field
opposite to
direction of field
.....................................
positive
normal to direction
of field
normal to
direction of field
.....................................
positive
normal to direction
of field
in direction of
field
.....................................
uncharged
opposite to direction
of field
in direction of
field
.....................................
Type of field
(5)
(Total 7 marks)
85
8. This question is about gravitational and electric fields.

(a)
The equation for the magnitude of the gravitational field strength due to a point mass may be
written as below.
Y=
KX
s2
The equation for the magnitude of the electric field strength can also be written in the same form.
In the table identify the symbols used in the equation.
Symbol
Gravitational field quantity
Electrical field quantity
Y
K
X
s
(4)
(b)
The magnitude of the electrostatic force between the proton and electron in a hydrogen atom is FE.
The magnitude of the gravitational force between them is FG.
Determine the ratio
FE
.
FG
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
86
Topic 7: Atomic and nuclear physics

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The Geiger-Marsden alpha particle scattering experiment provides evidence for the existence of
A.
atomic nuclei.
B.
neutrons.
C.
protons.
D.
nuclear energy levels.
In the Geiger-Marsden experiment,

indicate that most particles are
particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The experimental results
A.
scattered only at small angles.
B.
scattered only at large angles.
C.
absorbed in the target.
D.
scattered back along the original direction.
The atomic line spectra of elements provides evidence for the existence of
A.
photons.
B.
electrons.
C.
quantized energy states within nuclei.
D.
quantized energy states within atoms.
Which one of the following correctly gives the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in a neutral
atom of the nuclide 65
29 Cu ?
Number of electrons
Number of protons
Number of neutrons
A.
65
29
36
B.
36
36
29
C.
29
29
65
D.
29
29
36
The number of nucleons in a nucleus is the number of

A.
particles in the nucleus.
B.
neutrons in the nucleus.
C.
protons in the nucleus.
D.
protons plus neutrons in the nucleus.
Isotopes provide evidence for the existence of

A.
protons.
B.
electrons.
C. nuclei.
D. neutrons.
87
7.
Ag-102, Ag-103 and Ag-104 are three isotopes of the element silver.
Which one of the following is a true statement about the nuclei of these isotopes?
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
A.
All have the same mass.
B.
All have the same number of nucleons.
C.
All have the same number of neutrons.
D.
All have the same number of protons.
Which of the following identifies the significant interaction(s) between nucleons inside the nucleus?
A.
Nuclear only
B. Coulomb only
C.
Nuclear and Coulomb
D. Gravitational, nuclear and Coulomb
The nucleus of an atom contains protons. The protons are prevented from flying apart by
A.
the presence of orbiting electrons.
B.
the presence of gravitational forces.
C.
the presence of strong attractive nuclear forces.
D.
the absence of Coulomb repulsive forces at nuclear distances.
The unified mass unit is defined as

12
6 C.
A.
the mass of one neutral atom of
B.
1
of the mass of one neutral atom of
12
C.
1
of the mass of one neutral atom of
6
D.
the mass of the nucleus of
12
6 C.
12
6 C.
12
6 C.
Which of the following best describes why alpha-particles travel only a short distance in air?
A.
They undergo radioactive decay.
B.
They undergo elastic collisions with air molecules.
C.
They ionize air molecules.
D.
They are attracted by the nuclei of air molecules.
A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 40

decays to form a nucleus argon-40
19 K
the following correctly identifies the other two particles resulting from this decay?
and v
A.
C.
and v
Ar Which one of
and v
B.
D.
40
18
and v
88
13.
14.
The nucleus
are
30
P
15
undergoes radioactive decay to the nucleus
A.
a positron and an antineutrino.
B.
an electron and an antineutrino.
C.
a positron and a neutrino.
D.
an electron and a neutrino.
30
Si.
14
The particles emitted in the decay
In a laboratory when aluminium nuclei are bombarded with -particles, the following reaction may take
place.
4
2 He
27
13 Al
30
15 P
1
0n
This reaction is an example of
15.
A.
nuclear fission.
B. nuclear fusion.
C.
natural radioactive decay.
D. artificial transmutation.
K-capture is a process that occurs when a nucleus captures an electron from the innermost shell of
electrons surrounding the nucleus.
55
When K-capture occurs in iron-55 ( 26
Fe), the nucleus is changed into a manganese (Mn) nucleus. Which
equation represents this change?
16.
A.
55
Fe) +
( 26
B.
55
Fe) + 11
( 26
C.
55
Fe) + 01
( 26
55
25
Mn
D.
55
Fe) +
( 26
56
25
Mn
0
1
55
Mn
27
56
27 Mn
1
1
When the isotope aluminium-27 is bombarded with alpha particles, the following nuclear reaction can
take place.
4
2
He
27
13
Al
X neutron
Which of the following correctly gives the atomic (proton) number and mass (nucleon) number of the
nucleus X?
Proton number
Nucleon number
A.
15
30
B.
16
31
C.
30
15
D.
31
16
89
17.
18.
The binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus 73 Li is approximately 5 MeV. The total energy required
to completely separate the nucleons of this nucleus is approximately
A.
15 MeV.
B. 20 MeV.
C.
35 MeV.
D. 50 MeV.
The graph below illustrates the variation with nucleon number (mass number) N of the binding energy
per nucleon E of nuclei.
Which of the labelled nuclei is the most stable?
E
C
B
A
N
19.
64
A freshly-prepared sample of cobalt-64 ( 27
Co
be represented by the nuclear equation
64
27 Co
-ray photons. The decay may
64
27 Co
+ energy.
After this decay, the binding energy per nucleon has
20.
A.
increased in magnitude because energy has been emitted from the nucleus.
B.
decreased in magnitude because energy has been emitted from the nucleus.
C.
stayed constant because the number of nucleons in the nucleus is unchanged.
D.
stayed constant because the proton number is unchanged.
Two light nuclei of masses m1 and m2 fuse in a nuclear reaction to form a nucleus of mass M. Which of
the following expressions correctly relates the masses of the nuclei?
A.
m1 + m2
B.
m1 + m2
C.
M = m1 + m2
D.
M = m1
m2
90
21.
The equation of a nuclear reaction is shown below.

2
1
2
1
3
2
He
1
0
The reaction is an example of
22.
A.
artificial transmutation.
B.
fission.
C.
natural radioactivity.
D.
fusion.
The graph below shows the variation with mass (nucleon) number of the average binding energy per
nucleon.
mass number
average binding
energy per
nucleon
I
II
IV
III
Which direction indicates a fission reaction with a release of energy?
23.
A.
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
The rest-mass of a nucleus of lithium-7 73 Li is mL. The rest-mass of a proton is mP and the rest-mass of
a neutron is mN. The speed of light in free space is c.
Which of the following is a correct expression for the binding energy of a lithium-7 nucleus?
A.
(3mP + 4mN mL)c2
B.
(3mP + 4mN + mL)c2
C.
(4mP + 3mN mL)c2
D.
(3mP + 7mN mL)c2

91
24.
25.
26.
The source of the Suns energy is

A.
fission.
B.
radioactivity.
C.
fusion.
D.
ionization.
Radioactive decay is a random process. This means that

A.
a radioactive sample will decay continuously.
B.
some nuclei will decay faster than others.
C.
it cannot be predicted how much energy will be released.
D.
it cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay.
A sample of a radioactive isotope of half-life T 1 initially contains N atoms. Which one of the following
2
gives the number of atoms of this isotope that have decayed after a time 3T 1 ?
2
27.
A.
1
N
8
B.
1
N
3
C.
2
N
3
D.
7
N
8
The initial activity (rate of decay) of a sample of mass 25 g of a radioactive isotope is A0. The half-life
of the isotope is T 1 . Which of the following gives the initial activity and half-life of a sample of mass 50
2
g of this isotope?
Activity
Half-life
A.
A0
T1
B.
2A0
T1
C.
A0
2T 1
D.
2A0
2T 1
92
28.
A nuclide X has a half-life of 10 s. On decay the stable nuclide Y is formed. Initially a sample contains
only atoms of X.
After what time will 87.5% of the atoms in the sample have decayed into nuclide Y.
29.
A.
9.0 s
B.
30 s
C.
70 s
D.
80 s
A sample of material contains 64 g of a radioactive isotope. After sixty minutes 2.0 g of the isotope
remain. The half-life of this isotope is
A.
10 minutes.
B.
12 minutes.
C.
15 minutes.
D.
20 minutes.
30.
This question is about atomic spectra.

An electron undergoes a transition from an atomic energy level of 3.20 1015 J to an energy level of
0.32 1015 J. Determine the wavelength of the emitted photon.
..............................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................
(Total 3 marks)
31.
This question is about nuclear binding energy.

(a)
(i)
Define nucleon.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Define nuclear binding energy of a nucleus.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
93
The axes below show values of nucleon number A (horizontal axis) and average binding energy per
nucleon E (vertical axis). (Binding energy is taken to be a positive quantity).
E / MeV
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
25
50
75
100
125
150
175
200
225 250
A
(b) Mark on the E axis above, the approximate position of

(i)
the isotope
56
Fe
26
(label this F).

(1)
(ii) the isotope
2
H
1
(label this H).

(1)
(iii) the isotope
238
U
92
(label this U).

(1)
(c) Using the grid in part (a), draw a graph to show the variation with nucleon number A of the average
binding energy per nucleon E.
(2)
(d) Use the following data to deduce that the binding energy per nucleon of the isotope
MeV.
nuclear mass of
mass of proton
mass of neutron
3
He
2
3
He
2
is 2.2
= 3.01603 u
= 1.00728 u
= 1.00867 u
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
94
In the nuclear reaction

(e)
(i)
2
1H
2
1H
3
2 He
1
0n
energy is released.
State the name of this type of reaction.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Use your graph in (c) to explain why energy is released in this reaction.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)
32.
This question is about radioactivity and nuclear energy.

(a)
Define the following terms,

(i)
Isotope
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Radioactive half-life

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
Thorium-227 (Th-227) results from the decay of the isotope actinium-227.

(b)
(i)
Complete the following reaction equation.

227
89 Ac
227
90Th
(1)
Th-227 has a half-life of 18 days and undergoes -decay to the isotope Ra-223 (Ra-223). A sample of
Th-227 has an initial activity of 32 arbitrary units.
(ii)
Using the axes below, draw a graph to show the variation with time t (for t = 0 to t = 72 days)
of the activity A of Th-227.
32
(2)
24
16
activity /
arbitrary units
95
0
18
36
54
72
time / days
(iii) Determine from your graph, the activity of thorium after 50 days.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iv) Outline the experimental procedure to measure the activity of Th-227.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
In the decay of a Th-227 nucleus, a -ray photon is also emitted.

(c)
Use the following data to deduce that the energy of the -ray photon is 0.667 MeV.
mass of Th-227 nucleus
mass of Ra-223 nucleus
mass of helium nucleus
energy of -particle emitted
unified atomic mass unit (u)
= 227.0278 u
= 223.0186 u
= 4.0026 u
=5.481 MeV
= 931.5 MeV c2
You may assume that the Th-227 nucleus is stationary before decay and that the Ra-223 nucleus
has negligible kinetic energy.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 11 marks)
33. Radioactive decay

(a)
The nucleon number (mass number) of a stable isotope of argon is 36 and of a radioactive isotope
of argon is 39.
(i)
State what is meant by a nucleon.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Explain, in terms of the number of nucleons and the forces between them, why argon-36 is
stable and argon-39 is radioactive.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(4)
96
(b) A particular nucleus of argon-39 undergoes the decay shown by the nuclear reaction equation
below.
39
18
(i)
Ar
State the proton (atomic) number and the nucleon (mass) number of the potassium (K)
nucleus.
Proton number:
.........................................................................................
Nucleon number: .........................................................................................

(2)
(ii) Use the following data to determine the maximum energy, in J, of the
decay of a sample of argon-39.
Mass of argon-39 nucleus
= 38.96431 u
Mass of K nucleus
= 38.96370 u
particle in the
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the activity A of a sample of argon-39.
1750
1600
1450
1300
1150
1000
activity / Bq
850
700
550
400
250
100
10
11
12
time / 10 years
Use the graph to determine the half-life of argon-39. Explain your reasoning.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
97
(Total 12 marks)
34.
This question is about nuclear power production.

(a)
The purpose of a nuclear power station is to produce electrical energy from nuclear energy. The
diagram below is a representation of the principal components of a nuclear reactor pile used in a
certain type of nuclear power station that uses uranium as a fuel.
The function of the moderator is to slow down the neutrons produced in a reaction such as that
described above.
Explain,
(i)
why it is necessary to slow down the neutrons.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
the function of the control rods.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
With reference to the concept of fuel enrichment in a nuclear reactor explain,

(i)
the advantage of enriching the uranium used in a nuclear reactor.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
from an international point of view, a possible risk to which fuel enrichment could lead.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
98
(c)
A particular nuclear reactor uses uranium-235 as its fuel source. When a nucleus of uranium-235
absorbs a neutron, the following reaction can take place.
235
92
1
0
144
54
Xe
90
38
Sr 2 01 n
The following data are available.

5
2
rest mass of 235
92 U = 2.1895 10 MeV c
(i)
rest mass of
144
54
rest mass of
90
38
rest mass of
1
0
Xe = 1.3408 105 MeV c2
Sr = 8.3749 104 MeV c2
n = 939.56 MeV c2
Show that the energy released in the reaction is approximately 180 MeV.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
State the form in which the energy appears.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(d)
The energy released by 1 atom of carbon-12 during combustion is approximately 4 eV.

(i)
Using the answer to (c)(i), estimate the ratio

energy density of uranium - 235
.
energy density of carbon - 12
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
Suggest, with reference to your answer in (d)(i), one advantage of uranium-235 compared
with fossil fuels.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(e)
When a uranium-238 nucleus absorbs a neutron the following reaction can take place.
238
92
1
0
239
92
The isotope uranium-239 is radioactive and decays with a half-life of 23 minutes to form an
isotope of neptunium-239 (Np-239).
(i)
Define radioactive half-life and explain what is meant by an isotope.

Radioactive half-life:
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
99
Isotope:
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Complete the reaction equation for this decay.

239
92
U
(3)
(iii)
The isotope neptunium-239 undergoes radioactive decay to form an isotope of plutonium.

Outline one advantage and one disadvantage of this decay in relation to nuclear power
production.
Advantage:
.........................................................................................................................
Disadvantage:
.........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 25 marks)
100
Topic 8: Energy, power and climate change

1.
2.
Degraded energy is energy that is

A.
stored in the Earths atmosphere.
B.
available from non-renewable energy sources.
C.
converted into work in a cyclical process.
D.
no longer available for the performance of useful work.
The Sankey diagram of a fossil-fuelled power station is shown below.

Which of the following best identifies the thermal energy removed by water
and the useful electrical energy output of the station?
3.
4.
Thermal energy removed
Useful electrical energy output
A.
B.
C.
D.
World energy resources include coal, nuclear fuel and geothermal energy. Which of the following lists
these resources in order of primary energy use in the world?
A.
nuclear, geothermal, coal
B.
nuclear, coal, geothermal
C.
coal, geothermal, nuclear
D.
coal, nuclear, geothermal
Which of the following correctly shows a renewable and a non-renewable source of energy?
Renewable
5.
A.
oil
geothermal
B.
wind
biofuels
C.
ocean waves
nuclear
D.
natural gas
coal
Which of the following energy sources results from the solar energy incident on Earth?
A.
6.
Nuclear fission
B.
Wind energy
C. Nuclear fusion
A coal-fired power station has a power output of P

second. The best estimate of the energy density of the coal used is
A.
7.
Non-renewable
B.
M
P
C.
P
M
D.
D. Geothermal energy
M every
P
M
Which of the following fuels has the highest energy density?

A.
Coal
B. Gas
C.
Oil
D. Uranium
101
8.
Which of the following is the best estimate for the overall efficiency of a typical coal power station?
A.
5%
B. 30 %
C. 60 %
D. 90 %
9. The efficiency of a modern natural gas power station is approximately

A.
10 %.
B. 50 %.
C. 5 %.
D. 90 %.
10. The design of a nuclear power station includes an electrical generator. The function of the generator is to
convert
A.
nuclear energy to kinetic energy.
B.
kinetic energy to thermal energy.
C.
thermal energy to electrical energy.
D.
kinetic energy to electrical energy.
11. Which of the following correctly describes both the role of the moderator and of the control rods in a
nuclear reactor?
Moderator
12.
13.
14.
Control rods
A.
slows down the neutrons
maintain a constant rate of fission
B.
cools down the reactor
extract thermal energy
C.
cools down the reactor
maintain a constant rate of fission
D.
slows down the neutrons
extract thermal energy
Critical mass refers to the amount of fissile material that

A.
will allow fission to be sustained.
B.
is equivalent to 235 g of uranium.
C.
will produce a growing chain reaction.
D.
is the minimum mass necessary for fission to take place.
In a nuclear power station, uranium is used as the energy source and plutonium-239 is produced.
Which of the following is true?
A.
Plutonium-239 is produced by nuclear fusion.
B.
A moderator is used to absorb plutonium-239.
C.
Control rods are used to slow down plutonium-239.
D.
Plutonium-239 can be used as a fuel in another type of nuclear reactor.
Which of the following correctly shows the energy change in a photovoltaic cell and in a solar heating
panel?
Photovoltaic cell
Solar heating panel
A.
B.
C.
D.
102
15.
Water is contained in a tidal basin behind a dam. The water has a depth h at high tide and zero at low tide,
as shown in the diagram.
The gravitational potential energy of the water stored in the basin between a high tide and a low tide is
proportional to
A.
16.
h.
C. h2.
B. h.
D. h3.
The power per unit length P of an oscillating water column (OWC) is due to the action of a surface wave
of amplitude A. Which of the following correctly relates P and A, and correctly identifies the nature of the
energy of the water column?
Relation between P and A
17.
A.
kinetic
B.
kinetic and potential
C.
A2
kinetic
D.
A2
kinetic and potential
A wind turbine produces a power P when the wind speed is v. Assuming that the efficiency of the turbine
is constant, the best estimate for the power produced when the wind speed becomes 2v is
A.
18.
2P.
B. 4P.
C. 6P.
D.
8P.
Surface X has a temperature TX and emissivity x. Surface Y has a temperature TY and emissivity y. The
two surfaces emit radiation at the same rate.
What is the ratio
A.
TX
?
TY
1
4
19.
Nature of energy
B.
1
4
C.
y
x
D.
X
y
The diagram shows the variation with wavelength of the power per unit wavelength I radiated from an
area of 1 m2 of two different bodies.
Which of the following is a correct comparison of the temperature and of the emissivity of the two
bodies?
Temperature
Emissivity
A.
same
same
B.
same
different
C.
different
same
D.
different
different
103
20.
What is the phenomenon that best explains why greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation?
A.
21.
22.
Resonance
B. Interference
C.
Refraction
D.
Diffraction
Greenhouse gases
A.
reflect infrared radiation but absorb ultraviolet radiation.
B.
reflect ultraviolet radiation but absorb infrared radiation.
C.
transmit infrared radiation but absorb ultraviolet radiation.
D.
transmit ultraviolet radiation but absorb infrared radiation.
The diagram shows an energy balance climate model for a planet.
The intensities of the reflected and radiated radiation are given in terms of the incident intensity I. Which
of the following is the albedo of this planet?
A.
23.
B. 0.25
C. 0.40
D.
0.60
In which of the following places will the albedo be greatest?

A.
24.
0.15
A forest
B. A grassland
C. An ocean
D.
A polar ice cap
Large areas of rainforests are cut down and burned every year. The result of these actions is
A.
reduced albedo.
B.
reduced carbon fixation.
C.
increased evaporation rate.
D.
increased mass of atmospheric methane.
25. What is the unit of surface heat capacity?

A.
26.
J kg1 K1
B. J K1
C. J m2 K1
D.
J m3 K1
Most climate scientists agree that the enhanced greenhouse effect is due to
A.
cyclical changes of the Earths orbit.
B.
volcanic activity.
C.
the burning of fossil fuels.
D.
increased solar activity.

104
27. The volume of the Pacific Ocean is V

T, what would be the fractional increase in volume of the
Pacific Ocean?
A.
V T
B.
V
T
C.
D.

28.
This question is about fossil fuels.

(a)
A Sankey diagram for the generation of electrical energy using fossil fuel as the primary energy
source is shown.
(i)
State what is meant by a fuel.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) State two examples of fossil fuels.

1. .......................................................................................................................
2. .......................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
Explain why fossil fuels are said to be non-renewable.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iv) Use the Sankey diagram to estimate the efficiency of production of electrical energy and
explain your answer.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
105
(b) Despite the fact that fossil fuels are non-renewable and contribute to atmospheric pollution there is
widespread use of such fuels. Suggest three reasons for this widespread use.
1. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
2. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
3. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)
29.
This question is about fossil fuels and the greenhouse effect.

(a)
State two reasons why most of the worlds energy consumption is provided by fossil fuels.
1. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
2. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) A power station has an output power of 500 MW and an overall efficiency of 27 %.
It uses natural gas as a fuel that has an energy density of 56 MJ kg1.
(i)
Define energy density.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Determine the rate of consumption of natural gas in the power station.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
Outline why the enhanced greenhouse effect may result in an increase in the temperature of the
Earths surface.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
106
(d) (i)
The solar intensity at the position of the Earth is 1380 W m2. The average albedo of Earth is
0.300. State why an average value of albedo is quoted.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Show that the average reflected intensity from the Earth is about 100 W m2.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(e)
V
T
resulting rise in sea level is about 0.5 m.
V T. Show, using the following data, that the
Temperature increase = 2.0 C

Surface area of oceans on Earth = 3.6 108 km2
Average ocean depth = 3.0 km
= 8.8 105 K1
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 16 marks)
30. This question is about power production and global warming.

(a)
In any cyclical process designed to continuously convert thermal energy to work, some energy is
always degraded. Explain what is meant by degraded energy.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
107
(b)
A nuclear power station uses uranium-235 (U-235) as fuel. Outline the

(i)
processes and energy changes that occur through which thermal energy is produced.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(ii) role of the heat exchanger of the reactor and the turbine in the generation of electrical
energy.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c) Identify one process in the power station where energy is degraded.
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(d)
The maximum power output of the Drax coal-fired power station in the UK is 4.0 GW. Determine
the minimum mass of pure U-235 that would be required by a nuclear power station to provide the
same maximum annual energy output as the Drax power station.
Energy density of U-235 = 82 TJ kg1
1 year
= 3.2 107 s
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) The Drax power station produces an enormous amount of carbon dioxide, a gas classified as a
greenhouse gas. Outline, with reference to the vibrational behaviour of molecules of carbon
dioxide, what is meant by a greenhouse gas.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
108
(f)
It has been suggested that the production of greenhouse gases by coal-fired power stations has
increased global warming. One piece of evidence to support this suggestion is the increase in
sea-level due to an increase in temperature of the oceans. Over the past 100 years it is suggested
that sea-levels have risen by 6.4 102 m due to volume expansion.
Using the following data, determine the average rise in temperature in the top levels of the oceans
in the last 100 years.
Mean depth of oceans that is affected by global warming
Coefficient of volume expansion of sea water
= 4.0 102 m
= 5.1 105 K1
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 18 marks)
31.
This question is about solar heating panels.

(a)
A village consists of 120 houses. It is proposed that solar panels be used to provide hot water to the
houses.
The following data are available.
average power needed per house to heat water
= 3.0 kW
average surface solar intensity
= 650 W m2
efficiency of energy conversion of a solar panel = 18 %
Calculate the minimum surface area of the solar panels required to provide the total power for
water heating.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) Suggest two disadvantages of using solar power to provide energy for heating water.
1: ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
2: ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
109
32.
This question is about a pumped-storage power station.

(a)
The diagram, not to scale, shows a pumped-storage power station used for the generation of
electrical energy.
Water stored in the tank is allowed to fall through a pipe to a lake via a turbine. The turbine is
connected to an electrical generator. The pumped-storage ac generator system is reversible so that
water can be pumped from the lake to the tank.
The tank is 50 m deep and has a uniform area of 5.0 104 m2. The height from the bottom of the
tank to the turbine is 310 m. The density of water is 1.0 103 kg m3.
(i)
Show that the maximum energy that can be delivered to the turbine by the falling water is
about 8 1012 J.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) The flow rate of water in the pipe is 400 m3 s1. Calculate the power delivered by the falling
water.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The energy losses in the power station are shown in the following table.
Source of energy loss
Percentage loss of energy
friction and turbulence of water in pipe
27
friction in turbine and ac generator
15
electrical heating losses
(i)
Calculate the overall efficiency of the conversion of the gravitational potential energy of
water in the tank into electrical energy.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
110
(ii) Sketch a Sankey diagram to represent the energy conversion in the power station.
(2)
(c)
The electrical power produced at the power station is transmitted by cables to the consumer.
(i)
Outline how the energy losses in transmission are minimized.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
State one advantage and one disadvantage that a pumped-storage system has compared to a
tidal water storage system.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)
33.
This question is about wave power.

(a)
Outline how the energy of a wave can be converted to electrical energy.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) A wave on the surface of water is assumed to be a square-wave of height 2A, as shown.
The wave has waveleng
v and has a wavefront of length L. For this wave,

111
(i)
show that the gravitational potential energy EP stored in one wavelength of the wave is given
by
EP =
1 2
A
2
where is the density of the water and g is the acceleration of free fall.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) deduce that the gravitational wave power P per unit length of the wavefront is given by
P=
1 2
A
2
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) The density of sea-water is 1.2 103 kg m3. Using the expression in (b)(ii), estimate the
gravitational power per metre length available in a wave of height 0.60 m.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
In practice a water wave is approximately sinusoidal in cross-section. Outline whether a sine wave
of the same height as in (b) transfers a greater or a smaller amount of power than that derived in
(b)(ii).
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
34.
This question is about the energy balance of the Earth.

(a)
The intensity of the Suns radiation at the position of the Earth is approximately
1400 W m2.
Suggest why the average power received per unit area of the Earth is 350 W m2.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
112
(b)
The diagram shows a simplified model of the energy balance of the Earths surface.
The diagram shows radiation entering or leaving the Earths surface only.
The average equilibrium temperature of the Earths surface is TE and that of the atmosphere is TA =
242 K.
(i)
Using the data from the diagram, state the emissivity of the atmosphere.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Show that the intensity of the radiation radiated by the atmosphere towards the Earths
surface is 136 W m2.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii)
By reference to the energy balance of the Earths surface, calculate TE.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) (i)
Outline a mechanism by which part of the radiation radiated by the Earths surface is
absorbed by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
113
(ii) Suggest why the incoming solar radiation is not affected by the mechanism you outlined in
(c)(i).
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas. State one source and one sink (object that
removes CO2) of this gas.
Source: ..............................................................................................................
Sink: ..................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 13 marks)
35.
This question is about the greenhouse effect.

(a)
The graph shows part of the absorption spectrum of nitrogen oxide (N2O) in which the intensity of
absorbed radiation A is plotted against frequency f.
(i)
State the region of the electromagnetic spectrum to which the resonant frequency of nitrogen
oxide belongs.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Using your answer to (a)(i), explain why nitrogen oxide is classified as a greenhouse gas.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
114
(b) Define emissivity and albedo.

Emissivity: ...................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Albedo: ........................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
The diagram shows a simple energy balance climate model in which the atmosphere and the
surface of Earth are two bodies each at constant temperature. The surface of the Earth receives
both solar radiation and radiation emitted from the atmosphere. Assume that the Earths surface
behaves as a black body.
The following data are available for this model.

average temperature of the atmosphere of Earth
emissivity, e of the atmosphere of Earth
solar intensity at top of atmosphere
average temperature of the surface of Earth
= 242 K
= 0.720
= 0.280
= 344 W m2
= 288 K
Use the data to show that the

(i)
power radiated per unit area of the atmosphere is 140 W m2.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
solar power absorbed per unit area at the surface of the Earth is 248 W m2.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
115
(d) It is hypothesized that, if the production of greenhouse gases were to stay at its present level then
the temperature of the Earths atmosphere would eventually rise by 6.0 K.
Calculate the power per unit area that would then be
(i)
radiated by the atmosphere.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) absorbed by the Earths surface.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(e) Estimate, using your answer to (d)(ii), the increase in temperature of Earths surface.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)
36. This question is about wind power.

The maximum theoretical wind power P for air of speed v moving normally through area A
Where is the density of air is given by
Av 3
2
(a) (i) Air of density 1.3 kg m3 and speed of 9.0 m s1 is incident on a wind turbine having
blades of diameter 15 m. Calculate the maximum wind power incident on the turbine.
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(ii) State why it is impossible in practice to extract all of the power P in (i) from the air.
.................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [1]
116
(iii) State two reasons why wind turbines are not placed close to one another.
1. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.
...........................................................
2. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(b) A nuclear power station has an output power of 200 MW. It is proposed to replace the
power station with a series of wind turbines each with an energy output of 750 kW.
State and discuss one advantage and one disadvantage such a change might bring if this
proposal was to take place.
Advantage: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.........................................................
.........................................................
Disadvantage: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
.........................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [4]
117
Topic 9: Motion in fields

1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a cliff. Air resistance is negligible. Which of the following
diagrams best represents the subsequent path of the ball?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A stone is thrown at an angle to the horizontal. Ignoring air resistance, the horizontal component of the
initial velocity of the stone determines the value of
A.
range only.
B. maximum height only.
C.
range and maximum height.
D. range and time of flight.
A stone is projected horizontally from the top of a cliff. Neglecting air resistance, which one of the
following correctly describes what happens to the horizontal component of velocity and to the vertical
component of velocity?
Horizontal component of velocity
Vertical component of velocity
A.
Decreases
Increases
B.
Decreases
Constant
C.
Constant
Constant
D.
Constant
Increases
A ball rolls off a horizontal table with velocity v. It lands on the ground a time T later at a distance D
from the foot of the table as shown in the diagram below. Air resistance is negligible.
A second heavier ball rolls off the table with velocity v. Which one of the following is correct for the
heavier ball?
v
table
Time to land
Distance from table
A.
B.
less than D
C.
less than T
D.
less than T
less than D
118
5.
A projectile is fired from the ground at time t = 0. It lands back on the ground at time t = T. Which of the
following sketch graphs best shows the variation with time t of the vertical speed VV and horizontal speed
VH of the projectile? Air resistance is negligible.
A.
B.
VH
speed
VH
speed
VV
VV
D.
C.
speed
speed
VH
VV
VH
VV
0
0
ground
6.
Two identical metal spheres X and Y are released at the same time from
the same height above the horizontal ground. Sphere X falls vertically from rest. Sphere Y is projected
horizontally as shown below.
Air resistance is negligible.
Which of the following statements is correct?
7.
A.
Sphere X hits the ground before sphere Y because it travels a shorter distance.
B.
Sphere Y hits the ground before sphere X because its initial velocity is greater.
C.
The spheres hit the ground at the same time because horizontal motion does not affect vertical
motion.
D.
The spheres hit the ground at the same time because they have equal weights.
trajectory of ball
The diagram below shows the trajectory of a ball thrown

into the air. There is no air resistance.
B
C
Which arrow gives the direction of the resultant force on

the ball at the point X?
A.
8.
B. B
C. C
D.
A particle is projected horizontally with speed v from a height H. It lands a horizontal distance R from the
point of launch as shown in the diagram below.
A second particle is projected horizontally from the
same height with speed 2v. Neglecting air resistance the horizontal
distance travelled by this particle is
A.
R.
B.
2R.
C.
2R.
D.
4R.
119
9.
10.
Which one of the following statements correctly defines the gravitational potential at a point P in a
gravitational field?
A.
The work done per unit mass in moving a small mass from point P to infinity.
B.
The work done per unit mass in moving a small mass from infinity to point P.
C.
The work done in moving a small mass from infinity to point P.
D.
The work done in moving a small mass from point P to infinity.
An isolated point object has mass M. A second small point object of mass m is placed a distance x from
the larger mass.
Which one of the following is a correct expression for the gravitational potential energy of the mass m?
GM
x
A.
11.
B.
GMm
x
C.
GM
x2
D.
GMm
x2
The centres of two isolated spherical stars each of mass M and radius R are separated by a distance d as
shown in the diagram below.
M
M
d
X
The distance d is very large compared to R. Point X is mid-way between the stars. The gravitational
potential at point X due to the two stars is
A.
4GM
.
d
B.
2GM
.
R
C.
GM
.
d
D. zero.
12.
Which of the following diagrams best represents the gravitational equipotential surfaces due to two equal
spherical masses?
13.
The escape speed from a planet is defined as the speed at which an object must leave the planets surface
to
A.
escape completely from the gravitational field of the planet.
B.
enter a geostationary orbit about the planet.
C.
escape from the atmosphere of the planet.
D.
overcome the gravitational force of the planet.

120
14.
The escape speed of an object of mass m from a planet of mass M and radius r depends on the
gravitational constant and
A.
15.
M and r.
B. m and r.
C.M only.
D. M, m, and r.
A planet is in a circular orbit of radius r about a star. The period of the planet in its orbit is T. A second
planet orbits the same star in a circular orbit of radius rS.
Which of the following is a correct expression for the period of the second planet in its orbit about the
star?
rS
r
A.
16.
rS
r
B.
3
2
C.
rS
r
D.
rS
T2
r
Two satellites, X and Y, move in circular orbits about the Earth. The orbital period of satellite X is eight
times that of satellite Y.
The ratio
A.
17.
2.
orbital radius of satellite X

is
orbital radius of satellite Y
B. 4.
C. 8.
D.
16.
A.
At point P the motors of the spaceship are switched off

but the spaceship remains under the influence of the
planet. Which one of the following graphs best
represents the variation with time t of the velocity v of
the spaceship after it passes point P?
Which one of the following graphs best shows the

variation of the total energy E of a satellite orbiting
the Earth with distance r from the centre of the Earth?
(The radius of the Earth is R.)
A.
B.
D.
D.
r=R
r=R
C.
B.
C.
18.
Spaceship
planet
A powered spaceship is moving directly away from a

planet as shown below.
121
r=R
r=R
19.
20.
21.
22.
A satellite is in orbit about Earth. The satellite moves to an orbit closer to Earth. Which of the following
correctly gives the change in the potential energy and the kinetic energy of the satellite?
change in potential energy
change in kinetic energy
A.
Decreases
Increases
B.
Decreases
Decreases
C.
Increases
Increases
D.
Increases
Decreases
A spacecraft orbits Earth. An astronaut inside the spacecraft feels weightless because
A.
the gravitational field in the spacecraft is negligible.
B.
the Earth exerts equal forces on the spacecraft and the astronaut.
C.
the spacecraft and the astronaut have the same acceleration towards the Earth.
D.
the spacecraft and the astronaut exert equal and opposite forces on each other.
Which of the following correctly describes the nature of electric potential and electric field strength?
Potential
Field strength
A.
Scalar
Scalar
B.
Scalar
Vector
C.
Vector
Scalar
D.
Vector
Vector
The diagram shows the electric field lines produced by an electrostatic focussing device.
Which one of the following diagrams best shows the corresponding equipotential lines? The electric field
lines are shown as broken lines on each of the diagrams.
A.
B.
C.
D.
122
23. The diagram below shows two lines of equipotential in a region of a uniform electric field. Line X has a
potential of +50 V and line Y has a potential of +100V. The distance between X and Y is 2.0 cm.
X
Which one of the following correctly gives the direction of the electric field and its
strength?
Strength / V cm1
Direction
24.
A.
25
B.
100
C.
25
D.
100
+50 V
+100 V
2.0 cm
An isolated conducting sphere of radius r is positively charged.

Which one of the following graphs best shows the variation with distance x from the centre of the sphere
of the electric potential V?
A.
0
C.
26.
D.
25.
B.
Which one of the following statements about electric potential gradient is correct?
A.
Electric potential gradient is numerically equal to the gradient of the electric field.
B.
Electric potential gradient at a point is numerically equal to the electric field strength at that point.
C.
When one joule of work is done in moving one coulomb of charge between two points, the electric
potential gradient between the points is one volt per metre.
D.
When one joule of work is done in moving one coulomb of charge to a point, the electric potential
gradient at that point is one volt per metre.
The diagram below shows the electric field lines in a region of space. A
positively charged particle moves from P to Q.
Which of the following is correct?

Change in potential energy of particle
Change in potential between P and Q
A.
decreases
zero
B.
decreases
negative
C.
increases
zero
D.
increases
negative
123

27.
This question is about trajectory motion.

Antonia stands at the edge of a vertical cliff and throws a stone upwards at an angle of 60 to the
horizontal.
v = 8.0ms 1
60
Sea
The stone leaves Antonias hand with a speed v = 8.0 m s1. The time between the stone leaving
Antonias hand and hitting the sea is 3.0 s.
The acceleration of free fall g is 10 m s2 and all distance measurements are taken from the point where
the stone leaves Antonias hand.
Ignoring air resistance calculate
(a)
the maximum height reached by the stone.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) the horizontal distance travelled by the stone.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
124
28.
Linear motion
At a sports event, a skier descends a slope AB. At B there is a dip BC of width 12 m. The slope and dip
are shown in the diagram below. The vertical height of the slope is 41 m.
A
(not to scale)
slope
41m
D
1.8m
dip
12m
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the speed v down the slope of the skier.
25.0
20.0
15.0
v / ms1
10.0
5.0
0.0
0.0
1.0
2.0
3.0
4.0 5.0
t /s
6.0
7.0
8.0
The skier, of mass 72 kg, takes 8.0 s to ski, from rest, down the length AB of the slope.
(a)
Use the graph to

(i)
calculate the kinetic energy EK of the skier at point B.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
determine the length of the slope.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(4)
125
(b) (i)
Calculate the magnitude of the change EP in the gravitational potential energy of the skier
between point A and point B.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Use your anwers to (a)(i) and (b)(i) to determine the ratio
EP EK
.
EP
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
Suggest what this ratio represents.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c)
At point B of the slope, the skier leaves the ground. He flies across the dip and lands on the
lower side at point D. The lower side C of the dip is 1.8 m below the upper side B.
(i)
Calculate the time taken for an object to fall, from rest, through a vertical distance of 1.8 m.
Assume negligible air resistance.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
The time calculated in (c)(i) is the time of flight of the skier across the dip. Determine the
horizontal distance travelled by the skier during this time, assuming that the skier has the
constant speed at which he leaves the slope at B.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 15 marks)
126
29.
This question is about gravitation.

(a)
(i)
Define gravitational potential at a point in a gravitational field.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Explain why values of gravitational potential have negative values.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
The Earth and the Moon may be considered to be two isolated point masses. The masses of the Earth and
the Moon are 5.98 1024kg and 7.35 1022 kg respectively and their separation is 3.84 108 m, as
shown below. The diagram is not to scale.
Earth
mass
Moon
24
5.98 10 kg
mass
7.35 1022kg
3.84 108m
(b)
(i)
Deduce that, at point P, 3.46 108m from Earth, the gravitational field strength is
approximately zero.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
J kg1. Calculate the minimum speed of a

space probe at P so that it can escape from the attraction of the Earth and the Moon.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)
127
30.
Saturn
Gravitation
A ring
The diagram below illustrates the planet Saturn.

Saturn has several rings, each of which consists of many
small particles that orbit the planet. Saturn may be
considered to be a sphere with its mass M concentrated
at its centre.
(a)
2.72 10 8m
Deduce that, for a particle in one ring moving in a

circular orbit of radius R, the linear speed v of the particle in its orbit is given by the expression
GM = Rv2.
Explain your reasoning.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) One ring, the A ring, has an outer diameter of 2.72 108 m. The mass of Saturn is 5.69 1026 kg.
A particle orbits on the outer edge of this ring. Determine the time for the particle to complete one
orbit of Saturn.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
Another particle of mass m is orbiting at a distance r from the centre of Saturn.

(i)
State a formula, in terms of G, M, m and r for the gravitational potential energy EP of the
particle.
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
The gravitational potential energy of this particle decreases. Suggest and explain the change,
if any, in the linear speed of the particle.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
128
(d)
Explain the concept of escape speed.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) A planet has radius R and the acceleration of free fall at its surface is g. The planet may be
considered to be a sphere with its mass concentrated at its centre.
Deduce that the escape speed ves is given by the expression
ves
2 gR .
Explain your working and state one assumption that is made in the derivation.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(f)
Calculate the escape speed for a spherical planet of radius 1.7 103 km having an acceleration of
free fall at its surface of 1.6 m s2.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(g) The mean kinetic energy EK, in joule, of helium-4 atoms at thermodynamic temperature T is given
by the expression
EK = 2.1 1023 T.
Determine the surface temperature of the planet such that helium-4 atoms on the surface of the
planet have the escape speed calculated in (f).
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(h) Suggest one reason why, at temperatures below that calculated in (g), helium will escape from the
planet.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 19 marks)
129
31. This question is about the electric potential due to a charged sphere.
(a)
Define electric potential at a point in an electric field.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
The diagram below shows an isolated, metal sphere in a vacuum that carries a negative electric charge of
9.0 nC.
(b)
On the diagram above draw

(i)
arrows to represent the electric field pattern in the region outside the charged sphere.
(3)
(ii)
lines to represent three equipotential surfaces in the region outside the sphere. The potential
differences between the lines are to be equal in value.
(2)
(c) Explain how the lines representing the equipotential surfaces that you have sketched indicate that
the strength of the electric field is decreasing with distance from the centre of the sphere.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) The electric field strength at all points inside the conductor is zero. On the axes below, draw a
graph to show the variation with distance r from the centre of the sphere of the potential V. The
dotted line is drawn at r = a where a is the radius of the sphere. (Note: this is a sketch graph; you
do not need to add values to the axes.)
0
V
(2)
130
(e)
The electric field strength at the surface of the sphere and at points outside the sphere may be
determined by assuming that the sphere acts as though a point charge of magnitude 9.0 nC is
situated at its centre. The radius of the sphere is 4.5 102 m. Deduce that the potential at the
surface of the sphere is 1800 V.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
An electron is initially at rest at the surface of the sphere.

(f)
(i)
Describe the path followed by the electron as it leaves the surface of the sphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Determine the speed of the electron when it reaches a point a distance 0.30 m from the
centre of the sphere.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 18 marks)
131
Topic 10: Thermal physics

1.
Two identical boxes X and Y each contain an ideal gas.

Box X
Box Y
n moles
2n moles
temperature T
temperature
pressure PX
pressure PY
T
3
In box X there are n moles of the gas at temperature T and pressure PX. In box Y there are 2n moles of
T
the gas at temperature
and pressure PY.
3
The ratio
A.
2.
3.
2
.
3
PX
is
PY
B.
3
.
2
C. 2.
D.
3.
The equation of state for an ideal gas, pV = nRT, describes the behaviour of real gases
A.
only at low pressures and large volumes.
B.
only at high temperatures.
C.
only at large volumes and large pressures.
D.
at all pressures and volumes.
The equation of state of an ideal gas is

pV = nRT.
In this equation, the constant n is the number of
A.
4.
atoms in the gas.
B.molecules in the gas.
C.particles in the gas.
D.moles of the gas.
An ideal gas is kept in a container of fixed volume at a temperature of 30 C and a pressure of 6.0 atm.
The gas is heated at constant volume to a temperature of 330 C.
pressure 6.0 atm
new pressure
temperature 30 C
temperature 330 C
gas
gas
The new pressure of the gas is about

A.
0.60 atm.
B. 3.0 atm.
C. 12 atm.
D. 66 atm.
132
5.
The graph below shows the variation with absolute temperature T of the pressure p of one mole of an
ideal gas having a volume V. R is the molar gas constant.
p
Which of the following is the best interpretation of the intercept on the temperature axis and the gradient
of the graph?
Intercept on temperature axis / K
Gradient of graph
273
R
V
R
V
V
R
273
V
R
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
When a gas in a thermally insulated cylinder is suddenly compressed, the change of state is
A.
adiabatic.
B. isothermal.
C. isobaric.
D.
isochoric.
7. The diagram shows the variation with volume V of pressure p during one complete cycle of a heat engine.
1
The work done is represented by the area
A.
8.
A.
B. B.
C. (B + A).
D. (B A).
B
The first law of thermodynamics may be expressed in terms of the

quantities below.
U, the increase in the internal energy of the system
Q, the energy transferred to the system by heating
W, the work done on the system
Which one of the following is a correct statement of the law?

A.
W= U+Q
B.
C.
W= U
D.
Q
Q
U+Q
133
9.
The graph below shows the variation with volume of the pressure of a system.
5
Pressure / 10 Pa
5
Q
4
3
2
1
0
P
0
R
3
5
6
Volume / m3
The work done in compressing the gas from R to P is

A.
10.
5.0 105 J.
B.4.5 105 J.
C. 3.0 105 J.
D.
0.
A sample of an ideal gas is held in an insulated container and it undergoes an adiabatic change. The graph
below shows the change in pressure p with change in volume V as the gas changes from X to Y.
p
Which of the following describes correctly the work done and the change in the internal energy of the
gas?
11.
Work done
Internal energy
A.
on the gas
increases
B.
on the gas
decreases
C.
by the gas
decreases
D.
by the gas
increases
The graph below shows the variation with volume V of the pressure p of a gas during one cycle of an
engine.
During which operations, PQ, QR, RS and SP does the gas do
external work?
A.
PQ only
B.
RS only
C.
QR and RS only
D.
PQ and RS only
p
R
Q
S
P
V
134
12.
The entropy of a system is a measure of the systems

A.
13.
B. mean energy.
C. temperature.
D. total energy.
The second law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of the universe is
A.
14.
disorder.
increasing.
B. decreasing.
C. zero.
D. constant but not zero.
An operating refrigerator with its door open is placed in a thermally insulated room.
The refrigerator operates for a long period of time. Which of the following correctly gives the change in
temperature and the entropy of the air in the room?
15.
Temperature
Entropy
A.
Increases
Increases
B.
Increases
Decreases
C.
Decreases
Decreases
D.
Decreases
Increases
A well-insulated container is divided into two equal volumes by a wall. In one half there is an ideal gas
and the other is a vacuum as shown below.
gas
vacuum
gas
The wall is now removed. Which one of the following correctly gives the changes, if any, that take place
in the internal energy and entropy of the gas?
Internal energy
Entropy
A.
stays the same
stays the same
B.
stays the same
increases
C.
decreases
stays the same
D.
decreases
increases
135
16.
Boiling water in a beaker is heated continuously. Steam escapes into the surroundings.
Which of the following correctly lists the entropy changes of the boiling water and the surroundings?
boiling water
surroundings
A.
increases
constant
B.
increases
increases
C.
decreases
constant
D.
decreases
increases
17.
Expansion of a gas
An ideal gas at an initial pressure of 4.0 105 Pa is expanded isothermally from a volume of 3.0 m3 to a
volume of 5.0 m3.
(a)
Calculate the final pressure of the gas.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
On the axes below draw a sketch graph to show the variation with volume V of the pressure p
during this expansion.
p / 105 Pa
6
0
0
/ m3
(3)
(c) Use the sketch graph in (b) to

(i)
estimate the work done by the gas during this process;

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
136
(ii) explain why less work would be done if the gas were to expand adiabatically from the same
initial state to the same final volume.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 7 marks)
18. This question is about thermodynamic processes.

(a)
State what is meant by the concept of internal energy of an ideal gas.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) The diagram below shows the variation with volume of the pressure of a fixed mass of an ideal
gas.
B
pressure
volume
The change from B to C is an isothermal change at 546 K. At point A, the pressure of the gas is
1.01 105 Pa, the volume of the gas is 22.0 m3 and the temperature of the gas is 273 K.
(i)
State the temperature of the gas at point C;

.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Calculate the volume of the gas at point C.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
For the change from B to C, 31.5 105 J of thermal energy is transferred to the gas.
(i)
State the work done in the change from A to B.

.........................................................................................................................
(1)
137
(ii)
Determine the work done during the change C to A.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii) Explain whether the work in (ii) is done by the gas or on the gas.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iv)
Determine the work done by the gas during one cycle ABCA.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
19.
This question is about thermodynamic processes.

(a)
Distinguish between an isothermal process and an adiabatic process as applied to an ideal gas.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
An ideal gas is held in a container by a moveable piston and thermal energy is supplied to the gas such
that it expands at a constant pressure of 1.2 105 Pa.
thermal energy
piston
The initial volume of the container is 0.050 m3 and after expansion the volume is 0.10 m3. The total
energy supplied to the gas during the process is 8.0 103 J.
(b) (i)
State whether this process is either isothermal or adiabatic or neither.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
138
(ii) Determine the work done by the gas.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii)
Hence calculate the change in internal energy of the gas.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
20.
Thermodynamics
The graph below shows the variation with volume V of the pressure p for two isothermal changes of two
ideal gases X and Y. The gases have the same number of moles. The dots indicate two particular states of
the gases, (pX, VX) and (pY, VY).
pX
pY
VX
(a)
VY
State what is meant by an isothermal change.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
139
(b)
Explain whether gas X in the state (pX, VX) is at a higher or lower temperature than gas Y in the
state (pY, VY).
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Gas Y is compressed adiabatically from state (pY, VY) until it reaches the pressure pX.
(i)
Explain whether the temperature of gas Y will increase, decrease or stay the same during
this process.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
On the graph opposite, draw a line to represent this adiabatic compression of gas Y.
(3)
(d) On the graph opposite, shade the area that represents the work done when gas X is compressed
isothermally from volume VY to volume VX.
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
21.
This question is about entropy changes.

(a)
State what is meant by an increase in entropy of a system.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
State, in terms of entropy, the second law of thermodynamics.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) When a chicken develops inside an egg, the entropy of the egg and its contents decreases. Explain
how this observation is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
140
Topic 11: Wave phenomena

1.
2.
Standing waves in an open pipe come about as a result of

A.
reflection and superposition.
B. reflection and diffraction.
C.
superposition and diffraction.
D. reflection and refraction.
Which one of the following is correct for transfer of energy along a standing wave and for amplitude of
vibration of the standing wave?
Transfer of energy along
a standing wave
3.
Amplitude of vibration of
the standing wave
A.
None
Constant amplitude
B.
None
Variable amplitude
C.
Energy is transferred
Constant amplitude
D.
Energy is transferred
Variable amplitude
A string with both ends fixed is made to vibrate in the second harmonic mode as shown by the dashed
lines in the diagram below.
P
Q
The solid line shows a photograph of the string at a particular instant of time. Two points on the string
have been marked P and Q.
Which of the following correctly compares both the period of vibration of P and Q and the average speed
of P and Q?
4.
Period
Average speed
A.
same
same
B.
same
different
C.
different
same
D.
different
different
For a standing wave, all the particles between two successive nodes have the same
A. amplitude only.
B. frequency only. C. amplitude and frequency.
D. frequency and energy.
141
5.
The diagram below represents the fundamental (first harmonic) standing wave of sound inside a pipe.
Which of the following correctly represents the displacement of
the air at P and Q?
P
pipe
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
A pipe, open at both ends, has a length L. The speed of sound in the air in the pipe is v. The frequency of
vibration of the fundamental (first harmonic) standing wave that can be set up in the pipe is
A.
7.
v
.
2L
B.
L
.
2v
C.
4v
.
L
D.
L
.
4v
A tube is filled with water and a vibrating tuning fork is held above its open end.
tuning fork
x
The tap at the base of the tube is opened. As the water runs out, the sound is loudest
when the water level is a distance x below the top of the tube. A second loud
sound is heard when the water level is a distance y below the top. Which one of
the following is a correct expression for the wavelength of the sound produced
by the tuning fork?
A.
8.
= 2xC.
=y
xD.
= 2(y
water
tap
x)
The diagrams below show two standing wave patterns that are set up in a stretched string fixed at both
ends. The frequency of pattern 1 is f1 and that of pattern 2 is f2.
The ratio
f1
is
f2
1
.
3
B.
A.
9.
= yB.
2
.
3
pattern 1
frequency f1
pattern 2
frequency f2
C. 3.
D.
6.
A.
B.
D.
C.
A vibrating tuning fork is held above the top of a tube that is

filled with water. The water gradually runs out of the tube until
a maximum loudness of sound is heard.
Which of the following best shows the standing wave pattern
set up in the tube at this position?
142
10.
11.
Which of the following is a correct description of the Doppler effect?

A.
Change in frequency of light due to motion of the source of light.
B.
Change in frequency of light due to relative motion between the source of light and the observer.
C.
Change in observed frequency of light due to relative motion between the source of light and the
observer.
D.
Change in observed frequency of light due to change in velocity of the source of light.
Which one of the following diagrams best represents wavefronts produced by a source of sound of
constant frequency as it moves at constant speed towards a stationary observer at O?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
13.
A source of sound moves directly towards a stationary observer. The frequency of the sound detected by
the observer is different from the source frequency because
A.
the loudness of the sound increases as the source moves towards the observer.
B.
the apparent wavelength of the sound is longer.
C.
the speed of sound relative to the observer is increased.
D.
the apparent wavelength of the sound is shorter.
A source of sound emits waves of wavelength , period T and speed v when at rest. The source moves
away from a stationary observer at speed V, relative to the observer. The wavelength of the sound waves,
as measured by the observer is
A.
14.
+ vT.
B.
vT.
C.
+VT.
D.
VT.
A sound emitting source moves along a straight line with speed v relative to an observer at rest.
Observer
v
The speed of sound relative to the medium is c. The observer measures the speed of sound emitted by the
source as
A.
c.
B. c + v.
C.
c v.
D. v c.
143
15.
A stationary source emits sound of frequency f0. An observer is moving towards the source at constant
speed along the path indicated by the dotted line. The observer passes very close to the source at time T.
stationary source
observer
Which one of the following graphs best shows the variation with time t of the frequency f heard by the
observer?
A.
B.
f0
f0
T
C.
t
D.
The phenomenon of diffraction is associated with

A.
sound waves only.
B. light waves only.
C. water waves only.
D. all waves.
Two binary stars emit radio waves of wavelength 6.0 10 2 m. The waves are received by a radio
telescope whose collecting dish has a diameter of 120 m. The two stars are just resolved if their
minimum angular separation in radians is of the order of
A.
18.
f0
17.
f0
16.
2 104.
B. 2 102.
C. 5 102.
D. 5 104.
Unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident on a polarizer. The transmitted light is then incident on a
second polarizer. The axis of the second polarizer makes an angle of 60 to the axis of the first polarizer.
The cosine of 60 is
A.
I0.
B.
1
. The intensity of the light transmitted through the second polarizer is
2
I0
.
2
C.
I0
.
4
D.
I0
.
8
144
19. Light is diffracted at a single slit. Which of the following graphs best represents how the intensity I of the
diffracted light varies with the diffraction angle ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
b. After passing
through the slit the light is incident on a distant screen. The angular width of the central maximum is
A.
radians.
B.
radians.
C.
degrees.
D.
degrees.
145
21. A beam of coherent light is incident on a single slit of width b. After passing through the slit, the light is
incident on a screen at a distance D from the slit.
Which of the following changes, carried out separately, in respect of b
and D will result in an increase in width of the first diffraction
maximum formed on the screen?
b
A.
decrease
increase
B.
increase
increase
C.
decrease
decrease
D.
increase
decrease
22. The images of two sources are just resolved. Which of the following is a correct statement of the Rayleigh
criterion for this situation?
A.
The central maximum of the diffraction pattern of one source must coincide with the central
maximum of the diffraction pattern of the other source.
B.
Light from the sources must pass through a circular aperture.
C.
Light from the sources must be coherent.
D.
The first minimum of the diffraction pattern of one source must coincide with the central
maximum of the diffraction pattern of the other source.
23. The diagram below shows two identical filament lamps separated by a small distance. Light from the lamps
is incident on a narrow slit behind a green filter. The slit is parallel to the filament of each lamp.
A photograph is taken of the lamps through the slit. The images of the filaments on the photograph are
just resolved.
The green filter is replaced by a red filter and then by a violet filter.
For each filter a photograph is taken of the lamps through the slit.
Which of the following correctly describes the resolution of the
images using a red and using a violet filter?
Red filter
Violet filter
A.
resolved
resolved
B.
resolved
not resolved
C.
not resolved
resolved
D.
not resolved
not resolved
24. In an electron microscope, high energy electrons are used in order to increase the
A.
interference effects.
B. diffraction effects.
C.
resolving power of the microscope.
D. magnifying power of the microscope.
25. Two galaxies with an angular separation at the observer of 5.0 104 radians are observed with a radio
telescope. Both galaxies emit radio waves of wavelength 2.5 102 m.
The images of the galaxies are just resolved by the telescope. The diameter of the circular collecting dish
of the telescope is
A.
61 m. B. 50 m.
C. 30 m.
D. 25 m.
146
26. The diagram represents a beam of unpolarized light incident on a diamond.
The refractive index of the diamond is n.

At an angle
is
A.
p,
tan1 n.
the beam reflected from the diamond is plane polarized normal to the page. The angle
B. tan1
1
.
n
C.
sin1
1
.
n
D.
cos1
1
.
n
27. An optically active substance

A.
completely absorbs polarized light.
C.
polarizes unpolarized light.
D.
B. unpolarizes polarized light.

rotates the plane of polarization.
28. Horizontally polarized light is transmitted through a polarizer whose transmission axis is horizontal. The
light enters a container with a sugar solution and is then incident on a second polarizer whose
transmission axis is vertical.
When the second polarizer is rotated by a small angle, no light is transmitted through the second polarizer.
The explanation for this observation is that the sugar solution
A.
causes destructive interference.
B.
rotates the plane of polarization of light.
C.
can only transmit vertically polarized light.
D.
refracts light so no light is incident on the second polarizer.
29. In a monochromatic liquid crystal display (LCD), such as those used in calculators, the purpose of the liquid
crystal is to
A.
change colour from white to black when a segment is to be displayed.
B.
lubricate the small gap between the plates to prevent overheating.
C.
rotate the plane of polarization of the light passing through it.
D.
act as a conducting pathway between the segment electrodes.

147

1. This question is about some properties of waves associated with the principle of superposition.
Stationary (standing) waves and resonance
(a)
State two ways in which a standing wave differs from a continuous wave.
1.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
2.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
State the principle of superposition as applied to waves.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
A stretched string is fixed at one end. The other end is vibrated continuously to produce a wave
along the string. The wave is reflected at the fixed end and as a result a standing wave is set up in
the string.
The diagram below shows the displacement of the string at time t = 0. The dotted line shows the
equilibrium position of the string.
free end
fixed end
(i)
The period of oscillation of the string is T. On the diagrams below, draw sketches of the
T
T
.
displacement of the string at time t
and at time t
2
4
T
4
148
T
2
(2)
(ii)
Use your sketches in (i) to explain why the wave in the string appears to be stationary.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
Stationary waves are often associated with the phenomenon of resonance.

(i)
Describe what is meant by resonance.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
On 19 September 1985 an earthquake occurred in Mexico City. Many buildings that were
about 80 m tall collapsed whereas buildings that were taller or shorter than this remained
undamaged. Use the data below to suggest a reason for this.
period oscillation of an 80 m tall building = 2.0 s
speed of earthquake waves
= 6.0 103 m s1
average wavelength of the waves
= 1.2 104 m
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 13 marks)
2. This question is about standing waves.

(a)
State two properties of a standing (stationary) wave.

1. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
2. ..................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
149
(b)
The diagram shows an organ pipe that is open at one end.
The length of the pipe is l. The frequency of the fundamental (first harmonic) note emitted by the
pipe is 16 Hz.
(i)
On the diagram, label with the letter P the position along the pipe where the amplitude of
oscillation of the air molecules is the largest.
(1)
(ii)
The speed of sound in the air in the pipe is 330 m s1. Calculate the length l.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
Use your answer to (b)(ii) to suggest why it is better to use organ pipes that are closed at one end
for producing low frequency notes rather than pipes that are open at both ends.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)
3. This question is about the Doppler effect.

A stationary loudspeaker emits sound of frequency of 1000 Hz. Nadine attaches the loudspeaker to a string.
1
She moves the loudspeaker in a horizontal circle above her head at a speed of 30 m s . The speed of sound in
air is 330 m s1.
An observer is standing well away from Nadine.
(a) Explain why the sound heard by the observer changes regularly.
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .[3]
(b)
Determine the maximum frequency of the sound heard by the observer.
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .[3]
150
4. This question is about the Doppler effect.

At one point in an artery, blood cells flow along the axis of the artery with speed v, as shown.
ultrasound beam
frequency 4.5 MHz
blood cell
40
artery wall
A parallel beam of ultrasound of frequency 4.5 MHz is incident on the artery at an angle
of 400.
The speed of ultrasound in the body tissues is c = 1.5 103 m s 1.
The ultrasound detected after reflection from the blood cells is found to be Doppler-shifted in
frequency by 740 Hz.
f of the ultrasound of frequency f may be assumed
The expression for the Doppler shift
to be
(2 fv cos )
.
f =
c
(a) For this stated expression, explain the inclusion of
(i)
the factor of 2.
..................................................................
..................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(ii) the factor cos .

..................................................................
..................................................................
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [1]
(b)
Determine a value for the speed of the blood cells in the artery.
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
.......................................................................
151
5. This question is about diffraction and resolution.

(a)
After passing through the slit they are incident on a screen placed a large distance from the slit.
The width of the slit is b and the point X is at the centre of the slit. The point M on the screen is the
position of the first minimum of the diffraction pattern formed on the screen.
The path difference between light from the top edge of the slit and light from the bottom edge of
the slit is l.
Use the diagram to explain why the distance l is equal to .
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
The wavefronts in (a) are from a monochromatic point source S1. Diagram 1 is a sketch of how the
intensity of the diffraction pattern formed by the single slit varies with angle . The units on the vertical
axis are arbitary.
Diagram 1
152
Another identical point source S2 is placed close to S1 as shown in diagram 2.

Diagram 2
(b)
The diffraction patterns formed by each source are just resolved.

On diagram 1 sketch the intensity distribution of the light from source S2.
(2)
(c)
Outline how the Rayleigh criterion affects the design of radio telescopes.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
The dish of the Arecibo radio telescope has a diameter of 300 m. Two distant radio sources are 2.0
1012 m apart. The sources are 3.0 1016 m from Earth and they emit radio waves of wavelength
21 cm. Determine whether the radio telescope can resolve these sources.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)
6. This question is about polarization.

(a)
State what is meant by polarized light.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
153
(b)
Unpolarized light is incident on the surface of a plastic. The angle of incidence is .

The reflected light is viewed through an analyser whose transmission axis is vertical.
The variation with of the intensity I of the transmitted light is shown in the graph.
(i)
Explain why there is an angle of incidence, for which the intensity of the transmitted light is
zero.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Calculate the refractive index of the plastic.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
Unpolarized light from a source is split, so that there is a path difference of half a wavelength
between the two beams.
154
A lens brings the light to focus at point P on a screen. The lens does not introduce any additional path
difference.
State and explain whether any light would be observed at P, in the case in which the polarizers
have their transmission axes
(i)
parallel.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
at right angles to each other.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)
7. This question is about polarized light.

(a)
Distinguish between polarized and unpolarized light.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
A beam of plane polarized light of intensity I0 is incident on an analyser. The direction of the beam
is at right angles to the plane of the analyser.
The angle between the transmission axis of the analyser and the plane of polarization of the light is
. In the position shown the transmission axis of the analyser is parallel to the plane of polarization
of the light ( = 0).
On the axes, sketch a graph to show how the intensity I of the transmitted light varies with as the
155
analyser is rotated through 180.
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
8. (a) State what is meant by unpolarized light.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [1]
(b)
A beam of unpolarized light of intensity 1.0 Wm2 is incident on an ideal polarizing filter.
State the value of the intensity of the transmitted light.
Explain your answer.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [2]
(c)
Outline how polarized light may be used to measure the concentration of a sugar solution.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
156
Topic 12: Electromagnetic induction

1.
A conductor in the shape of a solid square is moving with constant velocity in a region of magnetic field
as shown in the diagram below.
velocity
magnetic field
into page
conductor
The direction of the field is into the plane of the page.

Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the separation of the induced charges?
B.
2.
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
D.
C.
+
+
+
A.
A uniform magnetic field of strength B completely links a coil of area S. The field makes an angle
the plane of the coil.
B
to
The magnetic flux linking the coil is
3.
4.
A.
BS.
B. BS cos .
C.
BS sin .
area S
D. BS tan .
Faradays law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced emf is

A.
proportional to the change in magnetic flux linkage.
B.
proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage.
C.
equal to the change in magnetic flux linkage.
D.
equal to the change of magnetic flux.
The magnetic flux
through a coil having 500 turns varies with time t as shown below.
The magnitude of the emf induced in the coil is

A.
0.25 V.
B.
0.50 V.
C.
250 V.
D.
1 000 V
157
5.
The variation with time t of the magnetic flux
through a coil is shown below.
Which of the following diagrams best shows the variation with time t of the emf E induced in the coil?
A.
E
0
t
C.
D.
E
0
6.
B.
E
0
A magnetic field links a closed loop of metal wire. The magnetic field strength B varies with time t as
shown.
t2
t1
t3
A current is induced in the loop during the time period

A.
7.
t1 only.
B. t2 only.
C. t2 and t3 only.
D. t1 and t3 only.
The north pole of a permanent bar magnet is pushed along the axis of a coil as shown below.
axis of coil
The pointer of the sensitive voltmeter connected to the coil moves to the right and gives a maximum
reading of 8 units. The experiment is repeated but on this occasion, the south pole of the magnet enters
the coil at twice the previous speed.
Which of the following gives the maximum deflection of the pointer of the voltmeter?
A.
8 units to the right
C.
16 units to the right
B.
8 units to the left
D. 16 units to the left

158
8.
The diagram below shows two concentric loops lying in the same plane.
The current in the inner loop is clockwise and increases with time as shown in the graph below.
current
inner loop
0
outer loop
time
The induced current in the outer loop is
9.
A.
constant in the clockwise direction.
B.
constant in the anticlockwise direction.
C.
variable in the clockwise direction.
D.
variable in the anticlockwise direction.
The diagram shows a coil of wire wound on an iron core.

When the switch is closed, the ammeter reading
gradually increases from zero to a maximum value.
What is the explanation for this gradual growth of
current?
10.
A.
An e.m.f. is induced in the coil.
B.
The e.m.f. of the battery is increasing.
C.
The iron core has a very low resistance.
D.
The battery has a large internal resistance.
A resistor is connected in series with an alternating current supply of negligible internal resistance. The
peak value of the supply voltage is Vo and the peak value of the current in the resistor is I0. The average
power dissipation in the resistor is
A.
11.
V0 I 0
2
B.
V0 I 0
2
C. V0 I 0 .
D. 2 V0 I 0 .
A lamp of resistance R is connected in series to a source of alternating voltage. The rms value of the
voltage is 20 V. The variation with time t of the power P dissipated in the light bulb is shown below.
100
The best estimate for the value of the resistance

of the filament of the lamp is
80
60
P/W
A.
4.0
B.
4.0 2 .
C.
8.0
D.
8.0 2 .
40
20
0
159
12.
The diagram below shows the variation with time t of the emf E generated in a coil rotating in a uniform
magnetic field.
E
e
0
0
T
2
3T
2
What is the root-mean-square value Erms of the emf and also the frequency f of rotation of the coil?
Erms
A.
2
T
B.
1
T
1
T
D.
13.
2
T
C.
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the current I in a resistor.
Which of the following is the root-mean-square value of the

current I?
+I0
A. 2I 0
B.I0
C. I 0
D.
I0
2
I0
14.
The rms voltages across the primary and secondary coils in an ideal transformer are Vp and Vs
respectively. The currents in the primary and secondary coils are Ip and Is respectively.
Which one of the following statements is always true?
A.
Vs = Vp
B. Is = Ip
C. VsIs = VpIp
D.
Vs
Vp
Is
.
Ip
160
15. The diagram below shows an ideal transformer.
input
output
primary coil
secondary coil
The transformer has n turns on the primary coil and 2n turns on the secondary coil. The waveform
produced on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope (cro), when the cro is connected to the primary coil,
is shown below.
Which of the following diagrams shows the waveform displayed on the cro when it is connected to the
secondary coil? The settings of the cro remain unchanged.
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The variation with time of the current in the primary coil of an ideal transformer is shown below.
current
B C
D
time
At which time will the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil be maximum?
A.
B. B
C. C
D. D
161
17.
A transformer has a primary coil with Np turns and a secondary coil with Ns turns. An alternating voltage
supply of frequency f and r.m.s. value Vp is connected to the primary coil.
Which of the following correctly gives the frequency and r.m.s. voltage in the secondary coil?
Frequency
A.
Ns
f
Np
B.
f
Np
C.
Ns
D.
18.
19.
Voltage
Np
Ns
Np
Ns
Vp
Vp
Ns
Vp
Np
Ns
Vp
Np
High voltages are used for the transmission of electric power over long distances because
A.
high voltages can be stepped down to any required value.
B.
larger currents can be used.
C.
power losses during transmission are minimized.
D.
transformers have a high efficiency.
A power station generates electrical energy at a potential difference V and current I. The resistance of the
transmission lines between the power station and the consumer is R.
The power lost in the transmission lines is

A.
0.
B.
V2
.
R
C. RI2.
D.
VI.

20.
Electrical conduction and induced currents

(a)
The diagram below shows a copper rod inside which an electric field of strength E is maintained
by connecting the copper rod in series with a cell. (Connections to the cell are not shown.)
copper rod
162
Describe how the electric field enables the conduction electrons to have a drift velocity in a direction
along the copper rod.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b)
A copper rod is placed on two parallel, horizontal conducting rails PQ and SR as shown below.
B
copper rod
P
conducting wire
S
Q
F
R
The rails and the copper rod are in a region of uniform magnetic field of strength B. The magnetic
field is normal to the plane of the conducting rods as shown in the diagram above.
A conducting wire is connected between the ends P and S of the rails. A constant force, parallel to
the rails, of magnitude F is applied to the copper rod in the direction shown. The copper rod moves
along the rails with a decreasing acceleration.
(i)
On the diagram, draw an arrow to show the direction of induced current in the copper rod.
Label this arrow with the letter I.
(1)
(ii)
Explain, by reference to Lenzs law, why the induced current is in the direction you have
shown in (i).
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
By considering the forces on the conduction electrons in the copper rod, explain why the
acceleration of the copper rod decreases as it moves along the rails.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
163
(c)
The copper rod in (b) eventually moves with constant speed v. The induced emf in the copper rod
is given by the expression
= Bvl
where l is the length of copper rod in the region of uniform magnetic field.
(i)
State Faradays law of electromagnetic induction.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Deduce that the expression is consistent with Faradays law.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii)

F = 0.32 N
l = 0.40 m
B = 0.26 T
resistance of copper rod = 0.15
Determine the induced current and the speed v of the copper rod.
Induced current: ...........................................................................................
...........................................................................................
Speed v:
...........................................................................................
...........................................................................................
(4)
(Total 17 marks)
21.
Electromagnetic induction
(a)
State Lenzs law.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
164
(b)
A long solenoid is connected in series with a battery and a switch S. Several loops of wire are
wrapped around the solenoid close to its midpoint as shown below.
The ends of the wire are connected to a high resistance voltmeter V that has a centre zero scale (as
shown in the inset diagram). The switch S is closed and it is observed that the needle on V moves
to the right and then drops back to zero.
Describe and explain, the deflection on the voltmeter when the switch S is re-opened.
Description:
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
Explanation:
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 5 marks)
22.
This question is about an ideal transformer.

(a)

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The diagram below shows an ideal transformer.

laminated core
primary coil
secondary coil
165
(i)
Use Faradays law to explain why, for normal operation of the transformer, the current in the
primary coil must vary continuously.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) Outline why the core is laminated.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
The primary coil of an ideal transformer is connected to an alternating supply rated at 230V.
The transformer is designed to provide power for a lamp rated as 12V, 42W and has 450
turns of wire on its secondary coil. Determine the number of turns of wire on the primary
coil and the current from the supply for the lamp to operate at normal brightness.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 9 marks)
23.
This question is about electromagnetic induction.

current-carrying wire
small coil
A small coil is placed with its plane parallel to a long straight

current-carrying wire, as shown below.
(a) (i)

.............................................................................................
.............................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Use the law to explain why, when the current in the wire changes, an emf is induced in the
coil.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
166
The diagram below shows the variation with time t of the current in the wire.
current
00
magnetic
flux
00
00
e.m.f
(b)
(i)
Draw, on the axes provided, a sketch-graph to show the variation with time t of the magnetic
flux in the coil.
(1)
(ii) Construct, on the axes provided, a sketch-graph to show the variation with time t of the emf
induced in the coil.
(2)
(iii) State and explain the effect on the maximum emf induced in the coil when the coil is further
away from the wire.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Such a coil may be used to measure large alternating currents in a high-voltage cable. Identify one
advantage and one disadvantage of this method.
Advantage:
............................................................
............................................................
Disadvantage: ............................................................
............................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
167
Topic 13: Quantum physics and nuclear physics

1.
The photoelectric effect involves the emission of electrons from
2.
A.
the surface of a metal when the metal is heated.
B.
the surface of a metal when it is illuminated with electromagnetic radiation.
C.
an atom of a material when the material is negatively charged.
D.
an atom of a material when the material is heated.
The work function of a metal may be defined as
3.
A.
the minimum frequency of the incident electromagnetic radiation required to cause photoelectric
emission.
B.
the minimum wavelength of the incident electromagnetic radiation required to cause photoelectric
emission.
C.
the minimum energy of photons incident on a surface required to cause photoelectric emission.
D.
the minimum energy required to take an electron from the interior to the surface to cause
photoelectric emission.
When light is incident on a metal surface, electrons may be ejected. The following graph shows the
variation with frequency f of the maximum kinetic energy Ek max of the ejected electrons.
Which one of the following graphs best shows the variation with frequency f
of the maximum kinetic energy Ek max of the ejected electrons if another metal
surface with a lower threshold frequency is used?
A.
B.
Ek max
00
C.
00
4.
00
D.
00
Ek max
Ek max
Ek max
Ek max
00
Light incident on a clean metal surface produces photoelectrons. The threshold frequency of the light is
determined by
A.
the intensity of the incident light.
B.
the wavelength of the incident light.
C.
the nature of the metal surface.
D.
the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.
168
5.
6.
In an experiment to investigate the photoelectric effect, monochromatic light is incident on a metal

surface. The photoelectric current and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons are measured.
Which one of the following correctly shows the change, if any, in the photoelectric current and in the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons when light of the same intensity but higher frequency is
incident on the same metal surface?
Photoelectric current
Maximum kinetic energy
A.
decreases
no change
B.
decreases
increases
C.
no change
decreases
D.
no change
increases
According to the de Broglie hypothesis, matter waves are associated with

A.
7.
C. neutral particles only.
Electron diffraction
B. X-ray production
Ek.
B.
1
.
Ek
C.
C. Line spectra
D. Nuclear energy levels
D. Ek2.
Ek
Which one of the following best shows the variation with kinetic energy E of the de Broglie wavelength
associated with a particle?
A.
B.
E
C.
E
D.
10.
D. all particles.
The de Broglie wavelength of a particle that has kinetic energy Ek is . The wavelength is proportional
to
A.
9.
B. charged particles only.
Which of the following phenomena provides evidence for de Broglies hypothesis?

A.
8.
electrons only.
An electron of mass me and a proton of mass mp are moving with the same speed. The de Broglie
wavelengths associated with the electron and with the proton are e and p respectively.
p
The ratio
A.
mp
me
e
.
is equal to
B.
me
.
mp
C.
mp
me
D.
me
.
mp
169
11.
12.
Which one of the following provides evidence for the existence of atomic energy levels?
A.
The photoelectric effect
C.
Matter waves
B. Characteristic X-ray spectra

D. Alpha particle scattering
Some of the energy levels of the hydrogen atom are shown below.
0.54 eV
0.85 eV
1.51 eV
3.39 eV
13.6 eV
Electrons are excited to the 0.85 eV level. How many different photon frequencies will be observed in the
emission spectrum of hydrogen?
A.
13.
B. 4
C.
D.
The diagram below shows some possible electron transitions between three principal energy levels in the
hydrogen atom. Which electron transition is associated with the absorption of a photon of the longest
wavelength?
B
0 eV
1.2 eV
C
energy
13.6 eV
14.
n= 3
n= 2
The diagram below shows the three lowest energy levels of an atom of an element.
n= 1
Which of the following diagrams best represents the emission spectrum that results
from electron transitions between these energy levels?
B.
A.
increasing wavelength
C.
D.
170
15.
A free electron is confined within a one dimensional region of fixed length. Which of the diagrams below
shows the four lowest energy levels of the electron?
16.
A beam of electrons of uniquely defined wavelength is incident on an aperture of height d. The beam is
traveling along the x direction. The height d is of the same order as .
After passing through the aperture, the component of momentum in the x direction is px and the
component in z the direction is pz. Which of the following shows the uncertainty in px and the uncertainty
in pz?
px
pz
A.
B.
h
4 d
C.
D.
h
4 d
h
4 d
h
4 d
171
17.
18.
The diameter of a nucleus may be estimated from

A.
determinations of half-life.
B. gamma-ray spectra.
C.
charged particle scattering experiments.
D. fusion and fission reactions.
The ratio of mass-to-charge was measured for a sample of a pure element in a mass spectrometer.
The values obtained were
17.5
m
q
18.5
m
q
35.0
m
q
37.0
m
q
m
is the mass-to-charge ratio for a hydrogen ( 11 H ) nucleus. The data suggest that two isotopes
q
are present with masses
where
A. 17.5u and 18.5u.

19.
B. 17.5u and 37.0u. C. 18.5u and 5.0u.
D. 35.0u and 37.0u.
The masses of nuclei in a sample of uranium are determined using a mass spectrometer. Measurements
suggest that some nuclei in the sample have double the mass of others.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this observation?
20.
A.
Uranium nuclei are decaying radioactively.
B.
Several uranium isotopes are present.
C.
The uranium ions have different speeds.
D.
The uranium ions have different charges.
Which one of the following gives evidence for the existence of nuclear energy levels?
A. Alpha particle scattering
21.
22.
B. Gamma ray spectra
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Matter waves
Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the energy spectra of alpha ( ), beta ( ) and
gamma ( ) radiation?
A.
discrete
continuous
discrete
B.
continuous
discrete
discrete
C.
discrete
discrete
continuous
D.
continuous
continuous
discrete
The spectrum of energy of
-particles emitted in radioactive decay is explained on the basis of
A.
the emission of neutrinos during the decay process.
B.
the emission of antineutrinos during the decay process.
C.
the absorption of neutrinos during the decay process.
D.
the absorption of antineutrinos during the decay process.

172
23.
A nucleus of potassium-40 undergoes + decay to an excited state of a nucleus of argon-39. The argon-39
then reaches its ground state by the emission of a -ray photon. The diagram represents the + and
energy level diagram for this decay process.
ground state energy
level of potassium40
X
excited energy level
of argon39
ground state energy
level of argon39
The particle represented by the letter X is
A.
24.
25.
B.
a neutrino.
C.
an electron.
D.
a photon.
Which one of the following is a correct definition of the decay constant of a radio-isotope?
A.
The constant of proportionality linking half-life to rate of decay of nuclei.
B.
The constant of proportionality linking decay rate to number of undecayed nuclei.
C.
The reciprocal of the half-life of the radio-isotope.
D.
The rate of decay of nuclei in a fresh sample of the radio-isotope.
The decay constant of two nuclei is . One nucleus decays within a time interval of one second. The
probability of decay of the other nucleus in the same time interval is
A.
26.
an antineutrino.
0.
B.
C.
D.
2 .
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 1103 s.

What is the probability of decay per second of a nucleus of the nuclide, quoted to one significant digit?
A.
27.
7104
The decay constant
B.
1103
C. 1103
D.
7103
of a nuclide with a long half-life may be determined using the equation

activity =
number of nuclei present.
Which of the following is the best explanation as to why this equation may be used?
A.
The decay constant
is very large.
B.
The number of nuclei in a sample decreases rapidly.
C.
The activity of the sample decreases slowly.
D.
The sample contains a large number of nuclei.
173

28.
This question is about the photoelectric effect.

(a)
State three pieces of evidence provided by the photoelectric effect that support the particle nature
of electromagnetic radiation.
1.
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
2.
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
3.
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(3)
The graph below shows the variation with frequency f of the stopping potential VS for photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface.
Vs / V 2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0.0
0.9
1.0
1.1
1.2
1.3
1.4
1.5
15
f /10
Hz
The photoelectric equation may be written in the form of the word equation
photon energy = work function + maximum kinetic energy of electron.
(b)
(i)
State this equation in terms of f and VS, explaining all other symbols you use.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
174
(ii) Use your equation to deduce that the gradient of the graph is
h
.
e
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii) Given that the Planck constant is 6.6 1034 J s, calculate a value for the work function of
the surface.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
29.
This question is about the wave nature of matter.

(a)
Describe the concept of matter waves and state the de Broglie hypothesis
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 850 V. For this electron
(i)
calculate the gain in kinetic energy.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) deduce that the final momentum is 1.6 1023 Ns.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii) determine the associated de Broglie wavelength. (Electron charge e = 1.6 1019 C, Planck
constant h = 6.6 1034 J s)
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)
175
30.
This question is about models of the hydrogen atom.

In 1913 Niels Bohr developed a model of the hydrogen atom which successfully explained many aspects
of the spectrum of atomic hydrogen.
(a)
State one aspect of the spectrum of atomic hydrogen that Bohrs model did not explain.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
Bohr proposed that the electron could have only certain stable orbits. These orbits are specified by the
relation
mvr =
nh
with n = 1, 2, 3..........
2
where m is the mass of the electron, v its speed, r the radius of the orbit and h the Planck constant. This is
sometimes known as Bohrs first postulate.
(b)
State the other postulate proposed by Bohr.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
By using Newtons second law and the Coulomb law in combination with the first postulate, it can be
shown that
n2h2
r=
4 2 mke 2
where k =
1
4
.
0
It can also be shown that the total energy En of the electron in a stable orbit is given by
En =
(c)
ke 2
.
2r
Using these two expressions, deduce that the total energy En may be given as
En =
K
n2
where K is a constant.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
176
(3)
(d) State and explain what physical quantity is represented by the constant K.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) Outline how the Schrdinger model of the hydrogen atom leads to the concept of energy levels.
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
31.
This question is about the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.

A beam of electrons is incident normally to the plane of a narrow slit as shown below.
slit
beam of electrons
Dx
The slit has width x equal to 0.01 mm.

As an electron passes through the slit, there is an uncertainty x in its position.
(a)
Calculate the minimum uncertainty p in the momentum of the electron.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Suggest, by reference to the original direction of the electron beam, the direction of the component
of the momentum that has the uncertainty p.
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)
177
32.
This question is about calculating the distance of closest a
-particle to a nucleus.
An -particle approaches a nucleus of palladium. The initial kinetic energy of the -particle is 3.8 MeV.
The particle is brought to rest at point P, a distance d from the centre of the palladium nucleus. It then
moves back along the path from which it came as shown in the diagram below.
palladium nucleus
-particle
(a)
-particle at point P. Explain

your working.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The atomic (proton) number of palladium is 46. Calculate the distance d.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c) Gold has an atomic (proton) number of 79.

Explain whether the distance of closest approach of this -particle to a gold nucleus would be
greater or smaller than your answer in (b).
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(d)
The radius R of a nucleus of mass (nucleon) number A is given by
R 1.2 10
(i)
15
1
A3
m.
State in terms of the unified atomic mass unit u, the approximate mass of a nucleus of mass
number A.
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
178
(ii)
The volume of a sphere of radius R is given by V

nuclei is approximately 2 1017 kg m3.
4 R3
. Deduce that the density of all
3
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 8 marks)
33.
This question is in about radioactivity and nuclear energy levels.

(a)
Define the following terms.

(i)
Radioactive half-life ( T 1 )
2
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Decay constant ( )

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
Deduce that the relationship between T 1 and is

2
T 1 = ln2.
2
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
Thorium-227 (Th-227) undergoes -decay with a half-life of 18 days to form radium-223 (Ra-223). A
sample of Th-227 has an initial activity of 3.2 105 Bq.
(c)
Determine the activity of the remaining thorium after 50 days.

.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(2)
179
In the decay of a Th-227 nucleus, a -ray photon is also emitted.

(d)
(i)
Use the following data to deduce that the energy of the -ray photon is 0.667 MeV.
mass of Th-227 nucleus
mass of Ra-223 nucleus
mass of helium nucleus
energy of -particle emitted
unified atomic mass unit (u)
= 227.0278 u
= 223.0186 u
= 4.0026 u
= 5.481 MeV
= 931.5 MeVc2
You may assume that the Th-227 nucleus is stationary before decay and that the Ra-223
nucleus has negligible kinetic energy.
(3)
........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the -ray photon.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
Although in the decay of a Th-227 nucleus, an -particle and a -ray photon are emitted, they may have
different energies to those in (d)(i). However, all the -particles emitted in the decay of Th-227 have
discrete energies as do the associated -ray photons. This provides evidence for the existence of nuclear
energy levels. The diagram below represents some of the energy levels of a nucleus of Ra-223 relative to
Th-227.
Th227
energy
energy levels of Ra223
(e) On the diagram above label

(i)
the arrows associated with -particles (with the letter A).
(1)
(ii) the arrows associated with -ray photons (with the letter G).
(1)
(iii) the ground state energy level of Ra-223 (with the letter R).
(1)
(f)
Use data from (d), to suggest a value for the energy difference between the ground states of a
nucleus of Th-227 and the ground state of a nucleus of Ra-223.
.....................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 16 marks)
180
Topic 14: Digital technology

1.
2.
3.
The binary equivalent of the number 12 is

A.
1010.
B.
1100.
C.
0011.
D.
0101.
The depth of a pit on a CD is 150 nm. The wavelength of the laser used to read the information on the
CD must be
A.
600 nm.
B.
450 nm.
C.
300 nm.
D.
150 nm.
The amount of charge that builds on a pixel in a charged coupled device (CCD) is proportional to which
property of the incident light?
A.
Intensity
B. Wavelength
C.
Frequency
D. Amplitude
4.
In a computer code, text (letters, spaces and punctuation marks) is represented by binary numbers. The
letter E is represented by the two four bit binary numbers below.
0100 and 0101
(a)
Define least significant bit.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) Calculate the decimal equivalent for the two four bit binary numbers.
0100 .........................................................................................................................
0101 .........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) Using this computer code state how many separate bits would be needed to represent the following
phrase.
IBO Physics is easy!
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
181
(d)
Discuss, in terms of reproducibility and portability, the disadvantages of storing text in analogue
rather than digital form.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(5)
(e)
State one environmental implication of storing text in analogue form.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 9 marks)
5.
Charge coupled device (CCD)

(a)
A digital camera is used to take a photograph of a plant. The CCD in the camera has 1.6 107
square pixels. Each pixel has an area of 2.3 1010 m2. A particular leaf of the plant has an area of
2.5 102 m2. The image of the leaf formed on the CCD is 1.0 103 m2. Two indentations on the
leaf are separated by 0.50 mm. Deduce that it is unlikely that the images of the two indentations
will be resolved.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(b)
Light is incident on the image collection area for a time of 100 ms. The number of photons incident
on one pixel is 5.5 104. Each pixel has a quantum efficiency of 80 and a capacitance 40 pF.
(i)
State what is meant by quantum efficiency.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
182
(ii)
Estimate the change in potential difference across each pixel.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(4)
(c)
Outline how the variation in potential difference across individual pixels enables a black and white
image to be produced by a digital camera.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
6.
A digital camera is used to photograph an object. Two points on the object are separated by 0.0020 cm.
The charged coupled device (CCD) in the camera has a collecting area of 16 cm2 and contains 4.0
megapixels. The magnification of the camera is 1.5.
(a)
Define magnification.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
Deduce that the images of the points can be resolved.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 5 marks)
183
Option E: Astrophysics
1.
This question is about some of the planets in the solar system.

Four of the planets in the solar system are Mars, Venus, Jupiter and Neptune.
(a)
List these planets in order of increasing distance from the Sun.
(2)
(b) List these planets in order of decreasing diameter.
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
2.
This question is about the relative population density of stars and galaxies.
The number of stars around the Sun, within a distance of 17 ly, is 75. The number of galaxies in the local
group, within a distance of 4.0 106 ly from the Sun, is 26.
(a)
Calculate the average population density, per ly3, of stars and galaxies.
Stars: ...........................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Galaxies: ......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
Use your answer to (a) to determine the ratio
average population density of stars

average population density of galaxies
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)
184
3.
This question is about the star Antares.

The star Antares is a red supergiant star in the constellation Scorpius.
(a)
Describe three characteristics of a red supergiant star and state what is meant by a constellation.
Red supergiant star:
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Constellation:
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(b) The apparent magnitude of Antares is + 1.1 and its absolute magnitude is 5.3.
(i)
Distinguish between apparent magnitude and absolute magnitude.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Show that the distance of Antares from Earth is 3.9 107 AU.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii) State the name of the method that is used to measure the distance of Antares from Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) The apparent brightness of Antares is 4.3 1011 times the apparent brightness of the Sun.
(i)
Define apparent brightness.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
185
(ii) Using the answer to (b)(ii), show that Antares is 6.5 104 times more luminous than the
Sun.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(d) Alnitak is a main sequence star with a luminosity similar to that of Antares. Use the value quoted
in (c)(ii) to deduce that the mass of Alnitak is in the range 16 MS to 40 MS, where MS is the mass of
the Sun.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) Explain, in terms of the Chandrasekhar limit, why it unlikely that Alnitak will develop into a white
dwarf.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(f)
State the probable final evolutionary state of Alnitak

......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 20 marks)
4.
This question is about the star Becrux and Cepheid variables.

(a)
Describe what is meant by

(i)
the apparent magnitude scale.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
186
(ii) absolute magnitude.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) Becrux is a main sequence star and is one of the stars that make up the Southern Cross.
The following data are available for Becrux.
Apparent magnitude
Absolute magnitude
Apparent brightness
= 1.25
= 3.92
= 7.00 1012 bSun
bSun is the apparent brightness of the Sun. Use the data to deduce that the
(i)
distance of Becrux from Earth is 108 pc.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) luminosity of Becrux is 3.43 103 LSun where LSun is the luminosity of the Sun.
(1 pc = 2.05 105 AU)
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
Given that the power in the massluminosity relationship is 3.5, show that the mass of Becruz is
about 10MSun where MSun is the mass of the Sun.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) State the differences between the eventual fate of the Sun and Becrux after they leave the main
sequence.
Sun: .............................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
187
Becrux: ........................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) Becrux is a spectral class B star. On the axes of the HertzsprungRussell diagram
(i)
label, with the letter B, the approximate position of Becrux.

(1)
(ii)
draw the evolutionary path of Becrux after it leaves the main sequence.
(1)
(f)
On the axes of the HertzsprungRussell diagram above, draw the approximate region in which
Cepheid variable stars are located.
(1)
(g) State the reason for the periodic variation in luminosity of a Cepheid variable.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(h) State the two quantities that need to be measured in order to use a Cepheid variable as a standard
candle to determine the distance to the galaxy in which the Cepheid is located.
1. ..................................................................................................................................
2. ..................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 19 marks)
188
5.
This question is about stars.

Betelgeuse and Rigel are two super giants in the constellation of Orion.
(a)
Distinguish between a constellation and a stellar cluster.

Constellation: ..........................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................
Stellar cluster: ..........................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The star Betelgeuse has a parallax of 0.0077 arc second. Deduce that its distance from Earth is
approximately 130 pc.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) State why the Hipparcos satellite which orbits Earth is able to measure stellar parallaxes for stars at
considerably greater distances than 130 pc.
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(d) The table below gives some information about the types and magnitudes of Betelgeuse and Rigel.
(i)
Star
Type
Apparent
magnitude
Betelgeuse
0.04
2.0 10
Wm
Rigel
0.12
3.4 10
Wm
Colour
Apparent
brightness
Complete the above table for the colours of the stars.

(2)
(ii)
State why Betelgeuse has a lower apparent magnitude than Rigel.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) Given that the distance of Betelgeuse from Earth is 130 pc, calculate the luminosity of
Betelgeuse.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(4)
189
(iv) The luminosity of Rigel is 2.3 1031 W. Without any further calculation, explain whether
Rigel is closer or further than Betelgeuse from Earth.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)
6.
This question is about the properties of a star.

(a)
Describe what is meant by a

(i)
constellation.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) stellar cluster.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) Some data for the variable star Betelgeuse are given below.
Average absolute magnitude
Average apparent magnitude
Average apparent brightness
Radius
= 5.1
= + 0.60
= 1.6 107 W m2
= 790 solar radii
The luminosity of the Sun is 3.8 1026 W and it has a surface temperature of 5700 K.
(i)
Show that the distance from Earth to Betelgeuse is about 4.0 1018 m.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) Determine, in terms of the luminosity of the Sun, the luminosity of Betelgeuse.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
190
(iii) Calculate the surface temperature of Betelgeuse.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
On the HertzsprungRussell diagram above,

(i)
label the position of Betelgeuse with the letter B.

(1)
(ii)
sketch Betelgeuses likely evolutionary path.

(1)
(d)
Some stars, such as Betelgeuse, are in combination with a companion star forming a spectroscopic
binary system. Describe and explain the characteristics of a spectroscopic binary system.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 15 marks)
191
7.
This question is about the luminosity, size and distance of stars.

The HertzsprungRussell (HR) diagram shows the variation with spectral class of the absolute magnitude
of stars.
The star Capella and the Sun are in the same spectral class (G). Using the HR diagram,
(a)
(i)
suggest why Capella has a greater surface area than the Sun.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) estimate the luminosity of Capella in terms of that of the Sun.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) calculate the radius of Capella in terms of that of the Sun.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
192
(b) The spectroscopic parallax method can be used to measure the distance of star Vega.
(i)
Using the HR diagram, state the absolute magnitude of Vega.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
The apparent magnitude of Vega is 0.0. Determine (in parsec) the distance of Vega from
Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii) Light from Vega is absorbed by a dust cloud between Vega and Earth. Suggest the effect, if
any, this will have on determining the distance of Vega from Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Vega is a very massive star. State why Vega does not undergo gravitational collapse.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 12 marks)
8.
This question is about the characteristics of the stars Procyon A and Procyon B.
(a)
The stars Procyon A and Procyon B are both located in the same stellar cluster in the constellation
Canis Minor. Distinguish between a constellation and a stellar cluster.
Constellation: ..............................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Stellar cluster: ..............................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The table shows some data for Procyon A and Procyon B.
Apparent
magnitude
Procyon A (PA)
Procyon B (PB)
+0.400
+10.7
Absolute
magnitude
+2.68
+13.0
Apparent brightness
/ W m2
2.06 108
1.46 1012
193
Explain, using data from the table, why

(i)
as viewed from Earth, PA is much brighter than PB.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) the luminosity of PA is much greater than that of PB.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(c) Deduce, using data from the table in (b), that PA and PB are approximately the same distance from
Earth.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) State, using your answers to (a) and (c), why PA and PB might be binary stars.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(e) Calculate, using data from the table in (b), the ratio
LA
LB
where LA is the luminosity of PA and LB
is the luminosity of PB.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
194
(f)
The surface temperature of both PA and PB is of the order of 104 K. The luminosity of PA is of the
order of 10LS, where LS is the luminosity of the Sun. The diagram shows the grid of a
HertzsprungRussell diagram.
Label, on the grid above, the approximate position of

(i)
star PA with the letter A.

(1)
(ii) star PB with the letter B.

(1)
(g) Identify the nature of star PB.

......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(h) On the grid provided in (f), draw the evolutionary path of the star PA.
(2)
(i)
The luminosity of the main sequence star Regulus is 150 LS. Assuming that, in the mass
luminosity relationship, n = 3.5 show that the mass of Regulus is 4.2 MS where MS is the mass of
the Sun.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(j)
The star Betelgeuse is about five times the mass of Regulus. One possible outcome of the final
stage of the evolution of Betelgeuse is for it to become a black hole. State the
(i)
other possible outcome of the final stage of the evolution of Betelgeuse.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
195
(ii)
reason why the final stage in (j)(i) is stable.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 21 marks)
9.

(a)
Distinguish between apparent magnitude and absolute magnitude.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The table gives information on three stars, Achernar, EG 129 and Mira.
Absolute magnitude
Apparent magnitude
Spectral class
Achernar
3.0
+0.50
EG 129
+13.0
+14.0
Mira
3.0
+5.0
(i)
State which one of the three stars appears brightest from Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Estimate the ratio
LA
where LA is the luminosity of Achernar and LE is the luminosity of
LE
EG 129.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(iii) Show that the distance of the star Achernar from Earth is approximately 50 pc.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
196
(c)
The surface temperature of Mira is 5 times lower than that of Achernar. Estimate the ratio
RM
RA
where RM is the radius of Mira and RA is the radius of Achernar.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(d)
State and explain which of the stars in the table in (b) is a white dwarf.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 14 marks)
10.
This question is about determining some properties of the star Wolf 359.
(a)
The star Wolf 359 has a parallax angle of 0.419 arcseconds.

(i)
Describe how this parallax angle is measured.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(ii)
Calculate the distance in light-years from Earth to Wolf 359.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
197
(iii) State why the method of parallax can only be used for stars at a distance of less than a few
hundred parsecs from Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) The ratio
apparent brightness of Wolf 359

is 3.7 1015.
apparent brightness of the Sun
Show that the ratio
luminosity of Wolf 359

is 8.9 104. (1ly = 6.3 104 AU)
luminosity of the Sun
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(c)
The surface temperature of Wolf 359 is 2800 K and its luminosity is 3.5 1023 W.
Calculate the radius of Wolf 359.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) By reference to the data in (c), suggest why Wolf 359 is neither a white dwarf nor a red giant.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 15 marks)
198
11.
This question is about the HertzsprungRussell (HR) diagram and using it to determine some properties
of stars.
The diagram below shows the grid of an HR diagram, on which the positions of selected stars are shown.
(LS = luminosity of the Sun.)
(a) (i)
Draw a circle around the stars that are red giants. Label this circle R.
(1)
(ii) Draw a circle around the stars that are white dwarfs. Label this circle W.
(1)
(iii) Draw a line through the stars that are main sequence stars.
(1)
(b)
Explain, without doing any calculation, how astronomers can deduce that star B has a larger
diameter than star A.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
199
(c)
Using the following data and information from the HR diagram, show that star A is at a distance of
about 800 pc from Earth.
Apparent brightness of the Sun
Apparent brightness of star A
Mean distance of Sun from Earth
1 pc
= 1.4 103 W m2
= 4.9 109 W m2
= 1.0 AU
= 2.1 105 AU
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(d) Explain why the distance of star A from Earth cannot be determined by the method of stellar
parallax.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 11 marks)
12.
This question is about the massluminosity relation and also the evolution of stars.
The massluminosity relation for main sequence stars is assumed to be L
M3.5, where L is the
luminosity and M is the mass. Star X is 8 104 times more luminous than the Sun and 25 times more
massive than the Sun.
(a)
Deduce that star X is a main sequence star.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Outline with reference to the OppenheimerVolkoff limit, the evolutionary steps and the fate of
star X after it leaves the main sequence.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 5 marks)
200
13.
This question is about cosmic microwave background radiation.

The graph shows the spectrum of the cosmic microwave background radiation.
The shape of the graph suggests a black body spectrum i.e. a spectrum to which the Wien displacement
law applies.
(a) Use the graph to estimate the black body temperature.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Explain how your answer to (a) is evidence in support of the Big Bang model.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
State and explain another piece of experimental evidence in support of the Big Bang model.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
14.
This question is about stellar evolution.

(a)
Outline what is meant by the Oppenheimer-Volkoff limit.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
201
(b) Eta Carinae is a main sequence star whose mass is about 100 times larger than that of the Sun. The
star will evolve to become a neutron star.
(i)
By reference to the Oppenheimer-Volkoff limit, outline the evolution of Eta Carinae from
when it leaves the main sequence until the neutron star stage.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) State the reason why Eta Carinae will not undergo further collapse when it becomes a
neutron star.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c)
The mass-luminosity relationship for stars such as Eta Carinae and the Sun is given by the
expression L = kM3.5 where k is a constant and M is the mass of the star. The mass of Eta Carinae is
100 times larger than that of the Sun.
(i)
Calculate the ratio
L
l Eta Carinae
, where l =
is the luminosity per unit mass.
M
l Sun
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) A star will leave the main sequence after it has converted 12 % of its mass into energy. By
reference to your answer to (i) suggest why Eta Carinae will spend less time on the main
sequence than the Sun.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 7 marks)
15.
This question is about Olbers paradox.

(a)
Newton assumed that the universe is static and that the stars are uniformly distributed. State one
further assumption of the Newtonian universe.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
Explain how Newtons assumptions led to Olbers paradox.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
202
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(5)
(Total 6 marks)
16.
This question is about cosmology.

(a)
The diagram below represents a spherical region of space based on Newtons model of the
universe. Earth is at the centre of the region. The dark line represents a very thin spherical shell of
space distance R from Earth.
With reference to the diagram and Newtons model of the universe explain quantitatively Olbers
paradox.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(b)
The Big Bang theory provides a resolution to Olbers paradox. Two pieces of evidence to support
the theory are the existence of cosmic microwave background radiation (CMB) and the red-shifted
light from distant galaxies.
(i)
Outline how CMB is consistent with the Big Bang theory.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
203
(ii) The following data are available for the red-shift of light from a distant galaxy.
Wavelength of light from galaxy
Wavelength measured in laboratory
Hubble constant
= 130 nm
= 120 nm
= 74 km s1 Mpc1
Use the data to determine the distance of the galaxy from Earth.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 11 marks)
17.
This question is about models of the universe.

Observations of the night sky indicate that there are many regions of the universe that do not contain any
stars.
(a)
Explain why this observation contradicts Newtons model of the universe.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) Outline how the Big Bang model of the universe is consistent with this observation.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 6 marks)
204
18.
This question is about cosmic microwave background radiation (CMB) and the density of the universe.
The graph shows the relative intensity of the CMB as a function of wavelength.
(a) Explain how this graph is consistent with the Big Bang model of the universe.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) The density of the universe will determine its ultimate fate. Outline the problems associated with
determining the density of the universe.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
Outline how the expansion of the universe ultimately made it possible for stable nuclei and atoms
to exist.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 6 marks)
19.
This question is about the Big Bang model and red-shift.

(a)
Describe what is meant by the Big Bang model.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
205
(b) In the 1960s, Penzias and Wilson discovered a uniform cosmic background radiation (CMB) in the
microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(i)
Explain how the CMB is consistent with the Big Bang model.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii) State why the red-shift of light from galaxies supports the Big Bang model.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c)
Many galaxies are a great distance from Earth. Explain, with reference to Hubbles law, how the
measurement of the red-shift of light from such galaxies enables their distance from Earth to be
determined.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(d) State one problem associated with using Hubbles law to determine the distance of a galaxy a great
distance from Earth.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 9 marks)
20.
This question is about stellar evolution.

(a)
Describe how a large cloud of hydrogen gas can lead to conditions that initiate a fusion reaction.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
206
(b)
State the property of a main sequence star that determines for how long hydrogen in its core fuses
into helium.
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) State the end product of nuclear fusion processes in the core of
(i)
a red giant.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) the largest red super giants.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 6 marks)
21.
This question is about galactic motion.

(a)
The wavelength of the Lyman-alpha line in the hydrogen spectrum is measured in the laboratory to
be 122 nm. In the hydrogen spectrum of a galaxy, the Lyman-alpha line is measured to be 147 nm.
Determine the distance of this galaxy from the Earth.
Assume that the Hubble constant H0 is 75km s1 M pc1.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b)
Suggest one reason why there is uncertainty in the value of the Hubble constant.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)
22. This question is about Hubbles law and the expansion of the universe.
(a)
The spectrum of the cluster of galaxies Pegasus I shows a shift of 5.04 nm in the wavelength of the
K-line. The wavelength of this line from a laboratory source is measured as 396.8 nm. Calculate
the velocity of recession of the cluster.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
207
(b) The graph shows the recession velocities of a number of clusters of galaxies as a function of their
approximate distances.
(i)
State one method by which the distances shown on the graph could have been determined.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Use the graph to show that the age of the universe is about 1017 s.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
23.
This question is about the density of the universe.

(a)
Explain, with reference to the possible fate of the universe, the significance of the critical density
of matter in the universe.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
208
(b)
Suggest one reason why it is difficult to estimate the density of matter in the universe.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
24.
This question is about the evolution of stars.

(a)
State what is meant by the

(i)
Chandrasekhar limit.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) OppenheimerVolkoff limit.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
Suggest how your answers in (a) can be used to predict the fate of a main sequence star.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 5 marks)
25.
This question is about the Hubble constant.

(a)
Outline the measurements that must be taken in order to determine a value for the Hubble constant.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
209
(b)
One estimate of the Hubble constant is 60 km s1 Mpc1. Cygnus A is a radio galaxy at a distance
of 6.0 108 ly from Earth. Calculate, in km s1, the recessional speed of Cygnus A relative to the
Earth.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
26.
This question is about the Big Bang model and red-shift.

(a)
Describe what is meant by the Big Bang model.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) In the 1960s, Penzias and Wilson discovered a uniform cosmic background radiation (CMB) in the
microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(i)
Explain how the CMB is consistent with the Big Bang model.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(ii)
State why the red-shift of light from galaxies supports the Big Bang model.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 5 marks)
27.
This question is about cosmology.

(a)
State how the observed red-shift of many galaxies is explained.

......................................................................................................................................
(1)
210
(b) Explain how the cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is consistent with the Big Bang
model.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Calculate the temperature of the universe when the peak wavelength of the CMB was equal to the
wavelength of red light (7.0 107 m).
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
28.
This question is about the main sequence star Khad (Phi Orionis).
The luminosity of Khad is 2.0 104 LS, where LS is the luminosity of the Sun.
(a)
Assuming that the exponent n in the massluminosity relation is 3.5, show that the mass of Khad is
about 17 solar masses.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Outline the likely evolution of the star Khad after it leaves the main sequence.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 5 marks)
211
29.
This question is about Hubbles law and the age of the universe.
(a)
(i)
State Hubbles law.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
State why Hubbles law cannot be used to determine the distance from Earth to nearby
galaxies, such as Andromeda.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) (i)
Show that
1
is an estimate of the age of the universe, where H0 is the Hubble constant.
H0
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) Assuming H0 = 80 km s1 M pc1, estimate the age of the universe in seconds.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 5 marks)
30.
This question is about Hubbles law.

Hubbles law states that
v =H0d
where v is the relative recessional speed between galaxies, d is their separation and H0 is the Hubble
constant. Recent measurements place the value of H0 in the range 60 to
90 km s1 Mpc1.
(a)
Suggest why a precise value of H0 is not known.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
212
(b) Estimate, in seconds, the maximum known age of the universe.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
31.
This question is about Hubbles law.

(a)
State Hubbles law.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Suggest why, in verifying Hubbles law, data from nearby galaxies cannot be used.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 3 marks)
32.

Describe the final nuclear reaction in the core, and the final evolutionary state, of
(a)
a low-mass star (of the order of 1 solar mass).

nuclear reaction:
....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
evolutionary state:
....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
(2)
(b) a high-mass star (of approximately 15 solar masses).

nuclear reaction:
....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
evolutionary state:
....................................................................................................
....................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
213
33.
This question is about extragalactic astrophysics.

(a)
In an observation of a distant galaxy, spectral lines are recorded. Spectral lines at these
wavelengths cannot be produced in the laboratory. Explain this phenomenon.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Describe how Hubbles law is used to determine the distance from the Earth to distant galaxies.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) Explain why Hubbles law is not used to measure distances to nearby stars or nearby galaxies (such
as Andromeda).
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
214
Option F: Communications
1.
This question is about modulation.

In order to test a temporary radio communication link, an audio signal is broadcast using amplitude
modulation (AM). The power spectrum of the resulting carrier wave is shown below.
(a) Use the information in the power spectrum to determine the

(i)
frequency of the carrier wave.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) frequency of the audio signal.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) bandwidth of this signal.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) (i)
Distinguish between AM and frequency modulation (FM).

AM: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
FM: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Outline one advantage and one disadvantage of using FM as opposed to AM for the
transmission.
Advantage: ........................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 7 marks)
215
2.
This question is about amplitude modulation (AM).

The graph shows the power spectrum of an AM carrier wave.
(a) Use the graph to determine the

(i)

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
frequency of the signal wave.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii)
bandwidth of the transmitted signal.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) A broadcasting company has been given permission to broadcast in a frequency range of 320 kHz.
The transmissions have the bandwidth found in (a)(iii).
Determine how many radio stations the company can operate in this frequency range.
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)
3.

(a)
Outline what is meant by the modulation of a wave.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The frequency spectrum of the signal from a radio transmitter is shown below.
216
(i)
State the name of this form of radio transmission.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) State the frequency of the carrier wave.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) Determine the bandwidth of this signal.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 5 marks)
4.

(a)
A carrier wave may be amplitude modulated or frequency modulated.

State
(i)
what is meant by modulation.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) why carrier waves are modulated.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
A sinusoidal carrier wave has a frequency of 500 kHz and an amplitude of 8.0 V.
The carrier wave is frequency modulated by a sinusoidal information signal of frequency 2.5 kHz
and amplitude 1.2 V. The frequency deviation of the carrier wave is 15 kHz V1. Describe
quantitatively the variation with time of the carrier wave.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 6 marks)
217
5.

(a)
The diagram shows how the voltage signal of a frequency modulated (FM) carrier wave varies
with time.
The carrier wave is modulated by a single frequency signal.

On the above axes sketch the information signal.
(1)
(b)
State and explain one advantage of using FM modulation rather than amplitude modulation (AM).
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 3 marks)
6.

(a)
State what is meant by the modulation of a carrier wave.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) The graph shows how the voltage signal strength V of an amplitude modulated (AM) carrier wave
varies with time t.
Use
the
218
graph to determine the

(i)

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) frequency of the signal wave.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) amplitude of the signal wave.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iv) bandwidth.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) A carrier wave may also be frequency modulated (FM). State and explain one advantage of FM
compared to AM.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 8 marks)
7.
This question is about amplitude-modulated radio waves.

The diagram below shows a sketch graph of signal voltage against time for an amplitude-modulated radio
wave.
(a)
The information signal consists of a continuous single frequency sine wave. The frequency of the
carrier wave is 18 kHz.
(i)
Determine the frequency of the information signal.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(3)
219
(ii)
On the axes below, draw the power spectrum for the amplitude-modulated wave.
(Numerical values are not required on the power axis.)
(3)
(b)
The block diagram below shows the principal systems in a radio that receives an
amplitude-modulated signal. The unlabelled boxes represent amplifiers.
(i)
Label the blank boxes with the type of amplifier used.

(1)
(ii)
State the function of the demodulator.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 8 marks)
8.
This question is about radio communication.

(a)
State the difference between

(i)
a signal wave and a carrier wave.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) amplitude modulation and frequency modulation.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
Graph A shows a sketch of how the signal strength of a certain radio carrier wave varies with time
220
at a particular point in space.
Graph B shows how the signal strength of the wave is amplitude modulated by a signal wave.
The time scale for both graphs is the same.

The frequency of the carrier wave is fc and that of the signal wave fs. Use both graphs to estimate
f
the ratio c and explain how you arrived at your answer.
fs
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) On graph B sketch the wave form of the signal wave.

(1)
(d)
Describe one advantage and state one disadvantage of using amplitude modulation in radio
transmission as compared to the use of frequency modulation.
Advantage: ..................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ..............................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)
221
9.
This question is about sampling.

A telephone call is sampled with a sampling frequency of 8.0 kHz. Each sample is stored as a four bit
binary number. The duration of each bit in the sample is 4.0 s.
(a)
Calculate the time interval between the end of one sample and the beginning of the next.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b)
Outline, with reference to your answer in (a), what is meant by time-division multiplexing.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 5 marks)
10.
The graph below shows the variation with time t of the voltage V of an analogue signal.
The signal is sampled at a frequency of 200 Hz and digitized using a three-bit analogue to digital
converter (ADC). The first sample is taken at t = 0.
The possible outputs of the ADC are given below.
222
(a)
Calculate the time at which the fourth sample is taken.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Determine the binary output of the fourth sample.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) The ADC output is fed into a three-bit digital to analogue converter (DAC). State, and explain,
whether the output of the DAC will be a faithful reproduction of the original analogue signal.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
11. This question is about data transmission systems.

The block diagram below represents an electronic system, S1, which converts an analogue input signal
into a serial digital output signal ready for transmission. It involves three separate system blocks labelled
A, B and C.
(a)
State whether the signal between block A and block B is analogue, digital or multiplexed.
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) State the function of system block A.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
223
(c)
A similar system, S2, is based on the same system blocks as S1, but has fewer signal lines between
block B and block C, as shown below.
Explain what differences, if any, there are between S1 and S2 with respect to the maximum quality
of the reproduction of the analogue signal after transmission.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) The serial digital output signal is transmitted using an optical fibre link. The attenuation per unit
length of the optical fibre is 4 dB km1.
(i)
Define attenuation.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) The input power to the fibre optic cable is 100 mW and the output power at the end of the
cable is 1 mW. Determine the length of the cable.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(iii)
State two processes that must take place in order for this digital signal to be transmitted over
a very long distance.
1. .......................................................................................................................
2. .......................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)
224
12.
This question is about transmission and sampling of signals.

(a)
The block diagram illustrates the principles of the transmission and reception of digital signals.
Describe the function of each of the blocks labelled P, Q, R and S.

P: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Q: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
R: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
S: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(4)
(b) The graph shows thirteen sampled values of an analogue signal as a function of the time at which
the sampling took place.
225
Each sample is converted into a 4-bit binary number, according to the encoding scheme:
Signal / mV
Sample / mV
4-bit binary
number
2.0002.999
0010
3.0003.999
0011
4.0004.999
0100
Determine the
(i)
4-bit binary number corresponding to the sample at t = 0.07 ms.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
bit-rate of the digital transmission.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) State one advantage and one disadvantage of increasing the sampling frequency used to sample an
analogue signal.
Advantage: ..................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ..............................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 9 marks)
13.
This question is about transmission of signals.

In a particular transmission system a single piece of analogue information is converted into a 4-bit binary
word represented by the letters ABCD. The word is transmitted along an optic fibre to the receiver. The
block diagram shows the principle components for the transmission and reception of this word.
226
(a)
On the diagram label the components X and Y and outline the function of each component.
X: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Y: .................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(b) The diagram is a representation of a two-input time division multiplexer.
Outline, with reference to the diagram, how this device enables two sets of digital data to be
transmitted apparently simultaneously along the same optic fibre.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) As a signal is transmitted along an optic fibre its signal strength is attenuated. For this reason
amplifiers have to be placed at points along the fibre.
(i)
Explain what is meant by attenuation.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) In a particular fibre, the signal needs to be amplified when the signal power is
8.2 1019 W. The fibre has an attenuation loss of 2.0 dB km1. Determine, for an input
signal of power 5.0 mW, the separation of the amplifiers along the fibre.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 10 marks)
227
14.
This question is about the transmission of signals.

The signal from a microphone is amplified and then transmitted to a distant receiver.
The variation with time t of the amplified signal before transmission is shown below.
(a)
The amplified signal is transmitted using a coaxial cable as illustrated.
On the axes below, sketch the waveform of the signal at point X after transmission along the
coaxial cable.
(3)
(b) A second transmission system, as shown below, uses a cable containing many separate fibres
(multi-core optic cable).
228
(i)
Suggest why a multi-core optic cable is required rather than a single-core optic fibre.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
State what circuits should be included in the transmission system so that a single-core optic
fibre may be used.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) The received signal of the second transmission system is shown below.
Calculate the
(i)
minimum number of output bits of the ADC.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) sampling frequency of the ADC.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
State one advantage and one disadvantage of the coaxial cable transmission as compared with the
fibre optic cable.
Advantage: ..................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ..............................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 11 marks)
229
15.
This question is about digital signals.

(a)
The graph shows the variation with time of an analogue signal.
In order to convert the analogue signal into a 3-bit digital signal it is sampled every 100 s. The
possible output voltages of the analogue to digital converter that is used are shown below.
Analogue signal / V
Binary output
0 < 0.5
000
0.5 < 1.0
001
1.0 < 1.5
010
1.5 < 2.0
011
2.0 < 2.5
100
2.5 < 3.0
101
3.0 < 3.5
110
3.5 < 4.0
111
Determine, explaining your answer, the

(i)
bit-rate (data transfer rate).

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) digital output of the signal for the sixth sample starting from t = 0 s.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
230
(b) Explain the effects that increasing the sampling frequency and number of bits will have on the
quality of the representation of the analogue signal.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)The digital signal in (a) is to be transmitted along an optic fibre that has a power loss of 2.0 dB km1.
(i)
State, in watts, how power loss is defined on the decibel scale.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
Calculate the distance travelled by the signal that will result in a power loss of 75 %.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) As a result of noise in electric circuits, digital pulses can often lose their shape and hence distort
the information that they carry. The pulses can be re-shaped using a circuit called a Schmitt trigger.
The diagram shows a Schmitt trigger that incorporates an operational amplifier.
(i)
State two essential properties of an operational amplifier.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
In the situation shown the output voltage V0 of the amplifier is at its minimum value of 6.0
V. The voltage at the non-inverting input to the amplifier is equal to 1.0 V and at the
inverting input it is VX. The output voltage will switch to its maximum value + 6.0 V if the
voltage VX just exceeds +1.0 V. Determine the minimum voltage Vin that will result in an
output voltage of + 6.0 V.
231
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 16 marks)
16.
This question is about the transmission of signals along an optic fibre.

(a)
A ray of light enters an optic fibre from air. The ray makes an angle with the normal.
The ray undergoes total internal reflection at point P.
The refractive index of the core is 1.56 and that of the cladding is 1.38.
(i)
Calculate the critical angle of the cladding-core boundary.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) Show that the largest angle of incidence in air, at which total internal reflection at the
cladding-core boundary takes place, is 46.7.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
232
(b) Distinguish between modal dispersion and material dispersion in an optic fibre.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) The signal shown is fed into a monomode optic fibre.
(i)
State what the shaded area represents.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Use the axes above to draw the shape of the signal after it has travelled a large distance in
the fibre.
(2)
(iii) The input signal power in a monomode fibre is 15.0 mW. The attenuation per unit length for
this fibre is 1.24 dB km1. Determine the power of the output signal after the signal has
travelled a distance of 3.40 km in the fibre.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 12 marks)
17.
This question is about optical fibres.

(a)
Outline what is meant by material dispersion.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
233
(b) Suggest why material dispersion sets a limit on the bit-rate of transmission.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) (i)
The signal shown below is fed into a monomode optical fibre.
On the diagram above, show the effects of material dispersion on the input signal by
drawing the shape of the signal after it has travelled a long distance in the optical fibre.
(1)
(ii) State and explain how the effects on the signal drawn in (c)(i) may be reduced.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(d) Digital data are transmitted in an optical fibre with a glass core which has a refractive index of 1.5.
The duration of one bit in the transmission is 0.50 ns and each sample in the signal consists of 32
bits.
(i)
Calculate the time required for the signal to travel a distance of 500 km.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
Determine the sampling frequency.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(e) The data in (d) are confidential and must be protected. Without taking financial costs into account,
outline whether a direct optical fibre connection or a transmission through a geosynchronous
satellite would be more suitable for the transfer of these data.
......................................................................................................................................
234
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 12 marks)
18.
This question is about optical fibres.

(a)
State one cause of attenuation and one cause of dispersion in an optical fibre.
Attenuation: .................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
Dispersion: ..................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
An optical fibre of length 5.4 km has an attenuation per unit length of 2.8 dB km1.
The signal power input is 80 mW.
(i)
Calculate the output power of the signal.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) In order for the power of the output signal to be equal to the input power an amplifier is
installed at the end of the fibre.
State the gain, in decibels (dB), of the amplifier at the end of the fibre.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) The signal to noise ratio (SNR), in dB, is defined as SNR = 10log
Psignal
Pnoise
where Psignal and Pnoise
are the powers of the signal and noise respectively.

The SNR of the signal in (b) before amplification was 20 dB. Calculate the SNR after
amplification.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 7 marks)
235
19.
This question is about optic fibre transmission.

The variation with time t of the input power to an optic fibre is shown in Diagram 1.
The variation with time t of the output power from the optic fibre is shown in Diagram 2.
The scales are the same on both diagrams.
(a)
State and explain the feature of the graphs that shows that there is
(i)
attenuation of the signal.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) signal noise.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
The duration (time width) of the signal increases as it travels along the optic fibre.
(i)
State two reasons for this increased time duration.

1:........................................................................................................................
2:........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) Suggest why this increase in the width of the pulse sets a limit on the frequency of pulses
that can be transmitted along an uninterrupted length of optic fibre.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 7 marks)
236
20.
This question is about satellites.

A geostationary satellite is used by one country to broadcast information to a different country.
(a)
State which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for this type of communication.
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) Explain two disadvantages of using a polar satellite for this type of communication, when
compared with using a geostationary satellite.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(c)
Outline one possible ethical issue associated with this broadcast.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)
21.
This question is about signal power and attenuation.

An optic fibre in a telephone system has length 48 km. The noise power in the optic fibre is
2.5 1018 W.
(a)
The signal-to-noise ratio is not to fall below 25 dB. Show that the minimum signal power in the
fibre is 7.9 1016 W.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The attenuation per unit length of the signal in the fibre is 2.7 dB km1. Use the data in (a) to
determine the power of the input signal to the fibre so that the signal-to-noise ratio does not fall
below 25 dB.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
237
22.
This question is about communication channels.

(a)
State the order of magnitude of the frequencies used for communication with geostationary
satellites.
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) A voice communication channel is to be established between a scientific base in the northern
hemisphere and its headquarters in the southern hemisphere.
For this communication channel, state and explain one advantage of using
(i)
a geostationary satellite.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
a polar orbiting satellite.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(c) State one reason why the up-link frequency and the down-link frequency for communication
satellites are different.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 6 marks)
23.
This question is about the use of satellites for communication.

(a)
(i)
State what is meant by a geostationary satellite.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) Explain the advantages of the use of geostationary satellites for communication.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
238
(b) Explain the advantages of the use of polar-orbiting satellites for communication.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
24.
This question is about an amplifier circuit.

The diagram below shows an amplifier circuit incorporating an ideal operational amplifier (op-amp).
The operational amplifier uses a +9 V / 0 / 9 V supply.

(a) Calculate the gain of the amplifier circuit.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b)
Determine the output potential Vout for values of input potential Vin equal to
(i)
0.9 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
+2.0 V.
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
239
(Total 5 marks)
25.
This question is about the operational amplifier.

(a)
On the axes below draw a sketch graph to show the variation with input voltage Vin of the output
voltage Vout of a non-inverting operational amplifier.
(2)
(b)
A temperature warning device makes use of a buzzer that sounds when the potential difference
across it is 24 V. The circuit in the warning device is shown.
It is required that the buzzer should sound when the temperature of the thermistor rises above
50 C.
(i)
State the voltage at point Q.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) At a temperature of 50 C the resistance of the thermistor is R. Explain why the buzzer will
sound when the temperature rises above 50 C.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 6 marks)
240
26.
This question is about operational amplifiers.

(a)
The diagram shows a circuit that uses an operational amplifier as an inverting amplifier.
The point P is a virtual earth, that is at the same potential (0 V) as the earth line.
(i)
State the two properties of the operational amplifier which make P a virtual earth.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) In the circuit Rf
Rin
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(b)
The diagram shows a circuit that uses an operational amplifier as a non-inverting Schmitt trigger.
In the situation shown, the potential at point X is 2.0 V and the output potential Vout is at its
minimum value of 10 V. Show that for the output potential to switch to its maximum value of +10
V
(i)
the current in the resistors R1 and R2 is 0.08 mA.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii) Vin must rise to 5.8 V.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
241
(Total 6 marks)
27.
This question is about the operational amplifier.

Diagram 1 shows a non-inverting amplifier circuit.
Diagram 1
(a) Suggest why the amplifier is referred to as non-inverting.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) The input voltage for the amplifier in (a) is Vin = 2.0 mV.
Calculate the
(i)
gain G of the amplifier.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
output voltage Vout.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c)
Diagram 2 shows a particular non-inverting amplifier.

Diagram 2
Explain, in terms of the properties of an op-amp, why the gain of this non-inverting amplifier is
equal to 1.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
242
(d) Diagram 3 shows a circuit in which the battery has an emf of 6.0 V and negligible internal
Diagram 3
(i)
State the value of the potential difference between points A and B.

...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(ii)
is used to measure the potential difference across points A

and B.
State why the reading on the voltmeter is not equal to the value stated in (d)(i).
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
(iii) The circuit in diagram 3 is modified to include the circuit shown in diagram 2.
Diagram 4
Explain why the voltmeter reads the value of the potential difference as stated in (d)(i).
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
243
28.
The diagram below shows an inverting amplifier circuit.
(a)
State what is meant by an inverting amplifier circuit.

...................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) The input voltage is 12 mV. Calculate

(i)
the current in the 150 k
resistor.
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
the potential difference between A and B.

.........................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................
(1)
(c) Outline any assumptions that you have made in (b).

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 6 marks)
29.
This question is about a Schmitt trigger.

The diagram below shows a Schmitt trigger circuit based on an operational amplifier (op-amp).
244
The output of this Schmitt trigger is positive saturation (+13 V) or negative saturation (13 V).
(a) State two properties of an ideal op-amp.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Determine the input value that will cause the output to switch from 13 V to +13 V.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)
Explain how a Schmitt trigger can be used to reshape a digital pulse.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(Total 8 marks)
30.
This question is about digital signals.

(a)
The graph shows the variation with time of an analogue signal.
245
In order to convert the analogue signal into a 3-bit digital signal it is sampled every 100 s. The possible
output voltages of the analogue to digital converter that is used are shown below.
Analogue signal / V
Binary output
0 < 0.5
000
0.5 < 1.0
001
1.0 < 1.5
010
1.5 < 2.0
011
2.0 < 2.5
100
2.5 < 3.0
101
3.0 < 3.5
110
3.5 < 4.0
111
Determine, explaining your answer, the

(i)
bit-rate (data transfer rate).

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii)
digital output of the signal for the sixth sample starting from t = 0 s.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Explain the effects that increasing the sampling frequency and number of bits will have on the
quality of the representation of the analogue signal.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(3)
(c)The digital signal in (a) is to be transmitted along an optic fibre that has a power loss of 2.0 dB km1.
(i)
State, in watts, how power loss is defined on the decibel scale.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(1)
246
(ii) Calculate the distance travelled by the signal that will result in a power loss of 75 %.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(d)
As a result of noise in electric circuits, digital pulses can often lose their shape and hence distort
the information that they carry. The pulses can be re-shaped using a circuit called a Schmitt trigger.
The diagram shows a Schmitt trigger that incorporates an operational amplifier.
(i)
State two essential properties of an operational amplifier.

...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(ii) In the situation shown the output voltage V0 of the amplifier is at its minimum value of 6.0
V. The voltage at the non-inverting input to the amplifier is equal to 1.0 V and at the
inverting input it is VX. The output voltage will switch to its maximum value + 6.0 V if the
voltage VX just exceeds +1.0 V. Determine the minimum voltage Vin that will result in an
output voltage of + 6.0 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(4)
(Total 16 marks)
247
31.
This question is about an operational amplifier used in a Schmitt trigger circuit.

(a)
An operational amplifier uses a 6.0 V supply. The operational amplifier operates in the
non-inverting mode.
(i)
On the axes below, sketch a graph to show how the output voltage VOUT of the amplifier
varies with the potential difference V between the two inputs of the amplifier.
(2)
(ii) With reference to the graph sketched in (a)(i), explain why the operational amplifier is said
to act as a comparator.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) The diagram shows an operational amplifier connected as a Schmitt trigger. The output of the
amplifier is 6.0 V.
(i)
Show that the upper switching voltage of the trigger, i.e. the input voltage VIN for which the
output voltage VOUT switches from 6.0 V to +6.0 V, is 2.0 V.
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................
(2)
248
(ii) The input signal VIN to the trigger is shown in the graph.
The switching voltages of the trigger are 2.0 V.

On the axes above, sketch a graph to show how the output voltage VOUT varies with time t.
(2)
(c)
Explain the use of a Schmitt trigger in the transmission of digital signals.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 10 marks)
32.
This question is about a mobile phone network.

Erin is a passenger on a train making a call to a standard fixed telephone line (landline) from her
mobile phone. The train moves Erin between adjacent communication cells. Outline the changes, if any,
that take place in the
(a)
cellular exchange.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) public switched telephone network (PSTN).

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 2 marks)
249
33.
This question is about a mobile phone network.

A passenger in a car is using a mobile phone.
State and explain the role of the base stations and the cellular exchange as the car moves from one cell to
another.
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................
(Total 5 marks)
34.
This question is about the mobile phone system.

In the mobile phone system, a particular geographic area is divided into a number of cells with a base
station in each cell, each connected to a cellular exchange.
Describe the function of the base stations and the cellular exchange.
Base stations: .........................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
Cellular exchange: .................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
(Total 4 marks)
35.
This question is about the mobile phone system.

(a)
Suggest why mobile phones are sometimes referred to as cell phones.

......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(b) Explain, based on your answer to (a), why mobile phones can be made small in size.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(2)
250
(c) State a moral or ethical issue that you consider to arise from the use of mobile phones.
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
(1)
(Total 4 marks)
36.
In a mobile phone system an area is divided into a large number of cells.

(a)
State what is meant by a cell.

...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(b) Suggest two advantages of organizing the mobile phone system in this way.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
(2)
(Total 4 marks)
37.
Outline one moral or ethical issue and one environmental issue that arise from the use of mobile phones.
Moral or ethical issue: ..........................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
Environmental issue: .............................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
(Total 4 marks)
251

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Physics

Topic 1: Physics and physical measurement

The order of magnitude of the weight of an apple is

Which one of the following contains three fundamental units?

precise and accurate.

precise but not accurate.

accurate but not precise.

not accurate and not precise.

An ammeter has a zero offset error. This fault will affect

neither the precision nor the accuracy of the readings.

only the precision of the readings.

only the accuracy of the readings.

both the precision and the accuracy of the readings.

When a force F of (10.0 0.2) N is applied to a mass m of (2.0

0.1) kg, the percentage uncertainty

The density of a metal cube is given by the expression

of the cube. The percentage uncertainties in M and V are as shown below.

The percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of the density is

and its volume with an uncertainty of 10 .

The mass of a body is measured with an uncertainty of 2.0

The volume V of a cylinder of height h and radius r is given by the expression

In a particular experiment, r is to be determined from measurements of V and h. The uncertainties in V

The approximate uncertainty in r is

Which of the following contains three scalar quantities?

Which one of the following includes three vector quantities?

The diagram below shows two vectors, x and y.

The diagram below shows two vectors X and Y.

Which of the following best represents the vector Z = X Y.

Velocity vector for object Y

Velocity vector for object X

Short answer questions

2. Data analysis question.

Draw a best-fit line for the data points.

Draw a line of best-fit on each graph.

Which one of the following is a correct definition of displacement?

Distance from a fixed point

Distance moved from a fixed point

Distance from a fixed point in a given direction

Distance moved in a given direction

The minute hand of a clock hung on a vertical wall has length L.

change in speed from Q to P

change in velocity from Q to P

distance between Q and P

change in speed from Q to P

distance between Q and P

change in velocity from Q to P

The best estimate of the instantaneous speed of the object at t = 2.0 s is

the average velocity of the object.

the displacement of the object.

the impulse acting on the object.

the work done on the object.

a has constant direction

u and v are in the same direction

a has constant direction

a, u and v are in the same direction

a has constant magnitude

a has constant direction

a has constant magnitude

u and v are in the same direction

The speed of stone X is greater than that of stone Y.

The speed of stone Y is greater than that of stone X.

The speed of stone X is equal to that of stone Y.

Any statement about the speeds depends on the height of the