Gujarat PGCET Question Bank Mech

A active force B reactive force
C torque D work done

A Avoid interruption in the flow B Increase discharge
C
Increase velocity
D
Maintain pressure difference
A
wH
B
wH/2
C
wH
2
/2
D
wH
2
/3
A Equal to B Double
C Three to four times D Five to six times
A velocity of liquid B pressure of liquid
C area of mouthpiece D length of mouthpiece
A
4.5 kN/m
3
B
6 kN/m
3
C
7.5 kN/m
3
D
10 kN/m
3
A
velocity of flow in an open
channel
B depth of flow in an open channel
C hydraulic jump D depth of channel
A 10.55 bars B 7.33 bars
C 5.5 bars D 4.7 bars
A 1% B 1.50%
1
The rate of change of linear momentum is equal to
2
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphon to
5
The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon
6
A vessel of 4 m
3
contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
3 A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight
of liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
4 The length of the divergent cone in a venturimeter is __________ that of the
convergent cone.
9
An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an
error of __________ in discharge over a triangular notch
7
The critical depth meter is used to measure
8 A two -stage compressor takes in air at 1.1bars and discharges at 20 bars. For
maximum efficiency, the intermediate pressure is
SUJJECT CODE: 1/20 PGCET
C 2% D 2.50%
A
directly proportional to density of
fluid
B
inversely proportional to density
of fluid
C
directly proportional to
(density)
1/2
of fluid
D
inversely proportional to
(density)
1/2
of fluid
A coincides with its centre of gravity B lies above its centre of gravity
C lies below its centre of gravity D
lies between the centre of
buoyancy and centre of gravity
A steady uniform flow B steady non-uniform flow
C unsteady uniform flow D unsteady non-uniform flow
A
An equivalent pipe is treated as an
ordinary pipe for all calculations
B
The length of an equivalent pipe is
equal to that of a compound pipe
C
The discharge through an
equivalent pipe is equal to that of
a compound pipe
D
The diameter of an equivalent
pipe is equal to that of a
compound pipe
A 0.34 times B 0.67 times
C 0.81 times D 0.95 times
A
to control the pressure variations
due to rapid changes in the pipe
line flow
B
to eliminate water hammer
possibilities
C
to regulate flow of water to
turbines by providing necessary
retarding head of water
D all of the above
A Reynold's number B Froude's number
12
A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
13
Select the wrong statement
10
The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is
11
A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre
16
The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
14
The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the
depth of water is __________ the diameter of the circular channel.
15
The purpose of a surge tank is
C Mach number D Euler's number
A narrow crested weir B broad crested weir
C Ogee weir D submerged weir
A
directly proportional to (radius)
2
B
inversely proportional to (radius)
2
C
directly proportional to (radius)
4
D
inversely proportional to (radius)
4
A sub-sonic flow B sonic flow
C super-sonic flow D hyper-sonic flow
A equal to B one-half
C three fourth D double
A 1/16 to 1/8 B 1/8 to 1/4
C 1/4 to 1/3 D 1/3 to 1/2
A
it gives maximum discharge for a
given cross-sectional area and bed
slope
B it has minimum wetted perimeter
C
it involves lesser excavation for
the designed amount of discharge
D all of the above
A 0.001 B 0.01
C
0.1
D
1
22
A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if
23
The specific gravity of water is taken as
19
When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
20
The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge
through an internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
21
In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of
the diameter at throat to the diameter of pipe should be
18
The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel competely filled up
with a liquid is
17
A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
A
elastic properties of the pipe
material
B
elastic properties of the liquid
flowing through the pipe
C speed at which the valve is closed D all of the above
A inertia force B viscous force
C gravity force D all of these
A P/sin B 2P/sin
C 2P/2sin D P/sin/2
A one stoke B one centistroke
C one poise D one centipoise
A its depth is twice the breadth B its breadth is twice the depth
C its depth is thrice the breadth D its breadth is thrice the depth
A
The pressure on the wall at the
liquid level is minimum.
B
The pressure on the bottom of the
wall is maximum.
C
The pressure on the wall at the
liquid level is zero, and on the
bottom of the wall is maximum
D
The pressure on the bottom of the
wall is zero.
A remains constant B increases
C decreases D depends upon mass of liquid
31
A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
28
The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be maximum, if
29
A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. Which of the following statement is correct?
30 The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a
venturimeter
25
The force present in a moving liquid is
26 In a lock gate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure
on the lock gate, and = Inclination of the gate with the normal to the side of
the lock)
27
The viscosity of water at 20C is
24
The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the
A critical point B vena contracta
C stagnation point D none of these
A
the head loss for all the pipes is
same
B
the total discharge is equal to the
sum of discharges in the various
pipes
C
the total head loss is the sum of
head losses in the various pipes
D Both (A) and (B)
A 10.4 s B 4.1 s
C 5.2 s D 14.1 s
A path line B stream line
C streak line D potential line
A
gravitational force is equal to the
upthrust of the liquid
B
gravitational force is less than the
upthrust of the liquid
C
gravitational force is more than
the upthrust of the liquid
D none of the above
A one-dimensional flow B two-dimensional flow
C three-dimensional flow D four-dimensional flow
A one B two
C three D four
A pressure of liquid B discharge of liquid
C
pressure difference between two
points in a channel
D
pressure difference between two
points in a pipe
A same as B less than
C more than D
none of these
37
A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________
dimensional flow.
38
A venturiflume is used to measure
39
The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
34
The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point
gives the direction of motion at that point, is known as
35
When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
36
A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
32
In case of flow through parallel pipes,
33 The metacentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The
time of rolling of a ship is
A a triangle B a paraboloid
C an ellipse D
none of these
A
the pressure below the nappe is
atmospheric
B
negative
C
the pressure above the nappe is
atmospheric
D
negative
A Under ground flow B Flow past tiny bodies
C
Flow of oil in measuring
instruments
D all of these
A tension at the base B overturning of the wall or dam
C sliding of the wall or dam D all of these
A equal to B less than
C more than D none of the above
A
Both A and R are individually true
and R is the correct explanation of
A
B
Both A and R are individually true
but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true
A 20 N/m
2
B 196.2 N/m
2
C 29.62 N/m
2
D 40 N/m
2
46 The shear stress developed in lubricating oil, of viscosity 9.81 poise, filled
between two parallel plates 1 cm apart and moving with relative velocity of 2
m/s is:
47 The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as
43
The stability of a dam is checked for
44
The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the
liquid displaced.
45 Assertion (A): In general, viscosity in liquids increases and in gases it decreases
with rise in temperature.
Reason (R): Viscosity is caused by intermolecular forces of cohesion and due to
transfer of molecular momentum between fluid layers; of which in liquids the
former and in gases the later contribute the major part towards viscosity.
40 When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved, the surface of the liquid
takes the shape of
41
In a depressed nappe
42
Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
A sill or crest B nappe or vein
C orifice D none of these
A 700 MPa B 600MPa
C 500MPa D 250MPa
A Constant over the cross-section B
Maximum at the mid-plane and
varies linearly with distance from
mid-plane
C
Zero at the mid-point and varies
linearly with distance from mid-
plane
D
Zero at the plates and varies
exponentially to mid-point
A Flow-contour B Line of flow
C Path line D Streamline
A Laminar flow B Turbulent flow
C Critical flow D Transition flow
A Is steady B Is one dimensional
C
Velocity is uniform at all the cross
sections
D All of the above
A
Product of pressure at its centre
and area
B
Weight of liquid retained by the
curved area
C
Force on a vertical projection of
the curved surface
D
Weight of liquid vertically above
the curved surface
A 0C B 0K
C 4C D 100C
52
The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
53
The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the
54
Density of water is maximum at
49 The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates,
both at rest, is
50 An imaginary curve drawn through a flowing fluid in such a way that the tangent
to it at any point gives the direction of velocity of flow at that point, is known
as
51
The losses are maximum in
48
When the pressure on a given mass of liquid is increased from 3.0 MPa to 3.5
MPa, the density of the liquid increases from 500 kg/m
3
to 501 kg/m
3
What is
the average value of bulk modulus of the liquid over the given pressure range?
A remains same B Increases
C Decreases D Shows erratic behaviour
A
400 kg/cm
2 B
4000 kg/cm
2
C
40 x 10
5
kg/cm
2
D
40 x 10
6
kg/cm
2
A
Dissolved air
B
Dissolved salt
C
Suspended matter
D
all of the above
A higher than the surface of liquid B the same as the surface of liquid
C lower than the surface of liquid D unpredictable
A Gas law B
Boyle's law
C Charless law D McLeod's law.
A
Absolute temperature,
B Temperature
C Density D Modulus of elasticity
A U-tube with water B Inclined U-tube
C U-tube with mercury D micro-manometer with water
A 1 B 5
C 7 D 6
61
Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity
62
A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in
water. Its specific gravity is
63
A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
58
If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid
and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
59
Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the
principle of
60
The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its
55
For very great pressures, viscosity of most gases and liquids
56
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m
3
at 50kg/cm
2
and a
volume of 0.039 m
3
at 150 kg/cm
2
. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
57
Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A 10 m/sec B 25 m/sec
C 2 m/sec D 50 m/sec
A Vertical line B Horizontal line
C Inclined line with flow downward D
In any direction and in any
location.
A Maximum B Minimum
C Zero D
Unpredictable.
A Wake B Drag
C Lift D Boundary layer
A
comparing two identical
equipments
B
designing models so that the
result can be converted to
prototypes
C
comparing similarity between
design and actual equipment
D
performing acceptance tests.
A
ratio of inertial force to force due
to viscosity
B
to gravitation
C
to surface tension
D
all the four ratios of inertial force
to force due to viscosity,
gravitation, sur-face tension, and
elasticity
A
The pressure at any location
reaches an absolute pressure
equal to the saturated vapour
pressure of the liquid
B
pressure becomes more than
critical pressure
C Flow is increased D Pressure is increased
A 10 kg B 100 kg
C 1000 kg D 1 kg
70
A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is
required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
67
Principle of similitude forms the basis of
68
For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the
following in both cases should also be equal
69
Cavitation will begin when
64
For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in
65
In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
66 The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the
solid body is known as
A Mass B Momentum
C Energy D
Work
A friction loss and flow B length and diameter
C flow and length D friction factor and diameter
A gravity, pressure and viscous B gravity, pressure and turbulent
C pressure, viscous and turbulent D gravity, viscous and turbulent
A
supersonics, as with projectile and
jet propulsion
B
full immersion or completely
enclosed flow, as with pipes,
aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C
simultaneous motion through two
fluids where there is a surface of
D all of the above
A
supersonics, as with projectile and
jet propulsion
B
full immersion or completely
enclosed flow, as with pipes,
aircraft wings, nozzles
C
simultaneous motion through two
fluids where there is a surface of
dis-continuity, gravity forces, and
wave making effect, as with ship's
hulls
D all of the above
A is steady B is one dimensional
C
velocity is uniform at all the cross
sections
D all of the above
A
principle of conservation of mass
holds
B
velocity and pressure are inversely
proportional
C
total energy is constant
throughout
D
the energy is constant along a
stream-line but may vary across
streamlines
76
The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
77
According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
78
The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect
incompressible fluid flowing in continuous stream
73
The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
74
Reynolds number is significant in
75
Froude number is significant in
71
Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
72 Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities
are same
A Keeps on increasing B Keeps on decreasing
C remains constant D may increase/decrease
A specific gravity of liquids B specific gravity of solids
C specific gravity of gases D relative humidity
A non-zero finite B minimum
C zero D maximum
A 0.5 B 0.4
C 0.515 D 0.65
A steady B unsteady
C
laminar
D rotational
A Pascal law B Newton's law of viscosity
C boundary layer theory D continuity equation
A orifice plate B venturimeter
C rotameter D pitot tube
A 1000 kg B 4000 kg
C 2000 kg D 8000 kg
A
Local atmospheric pressure
depends upon elevation of locality
only
B
Standard atmospheric pressure is
the mean local atmospheric
pressure at sea level
C
Local atmospheric pressure is
always below standard
atmospheric pressure
D
A barometer reads the difference
between local and standard
atmospheric pressure
85 Total pressure on a 1mx1m gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the
free water surface will be
86
Select the correct statement
82
Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
83
An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
84
Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
79
Hydrometer is used to determine
80
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
81
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6.
What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct B 1 and 2 are correct
C 2 and 3 are correct D 1 and 3 are correct
A 4.42m/s, 62.8Kg/s B 4.42m/s, 52.8 Kg/s
C 62.8m/s, 4.42Kg/s D 42m/s, 52.8Kg/s
A 1.8 bar B 18000bar
C 18 bar D 1800 bar
A Surface tension of water B Capillarity of water
C Incompressibility of water D None of the above
A 440 bar B 480 bar
C 380 bar D 280 bar
A Exact analysis of boundary layers B Parabolic velocity distribution
C Logarithmic velocity distribution D 1/7 power of velocity distribution
A
Remains constant and has same
value as that at the edge of the
boundary
B Is atmospheric
C
Varies linearly with the thickness
of the boundary layer
D Is same as approaching flow
91 what is the pressure increase required to reduce the volume of water by 2%.
Assume modulus of elasticity for water 2.2 X 10
6
KPa
92
The analysis of laminar boundary layer by Blasius is based on
93
Within boundary layer the pressure
88
The convergent divergent pipe with inlet outlet diameters of 20cm and 15cm
carries oil whose specific gravity is 0.8. if the velocity of oil at entry is 2.5m/s, the
velocity of oil at exit and flow rates are
89
A dirty sample of water when tested was found that the volume is decreased by
1% with an increase in pressure of 180 bar. The bulk modulus of this sample is
90
The rain drops are spherical because of
87 Consider the following statements pertaining to a centrifugal pump: 1.The
manometric head is the head is developed by the pump 2.The
suction pipe has, generally, a larger diameter as compared to the discharge pipe.
3. The suction pipe is provided with a foot valve and a strainer. 4.The
delivery pipe is provided with a foot valve and a strainer.
A Decreases absolute roughness B Increases absolute roughness
C Increases discharge for same head D
Decreases discharge for same
head
A 0.2 B 0.225
C 0.15 D 0.1
A 0.025 B 0.032
C 0.05 D 0.064
A 3 times of original B 9 times of original
C d/ 3 of original D Increases by 100%
A 0.2 B 2
C 4 D 6
A Top of pipe B Centre of the pipe
C Bottom of the pipe D
Somewhere at the section except
at the centre
A 11.35m B 5.85m
C 8.6m D 6.8m
A 5 cm B 5.4 cm
C 2.6 cm D 4.7cm
100
A 20 cm diameter pipe carries an oil of density 900Kg/m
3
. If the shear stress at
the pipe wall is 0.5 N/ m
2
, the head loss in 100m length of pipe is
101
A nozzle of 5 cm diameter emits liquid at a velocity 20m/s making an angle 30
to the horizontal at the point of maximum height the jet is assumed to be
unbroken, then the diameter of jet is
97 A circular pipe carrying oil at Reynolds number 100. If the discharge is tripled ,
the power input will be
98
The pressure drop in 8 cm diameter and 15cm length of pipe is 75 KN/m
2
. The
shear stress at the pipe in KN/m
2
99
The maximum velocity in a pipe when flow is laminar occurs at
94
Aging of pipes causes
95
In a laminar flow of liquid down an inclined plane , the surface velocity is
0.3m/s. the average velocity of flow in m/s is
96
The minimum value of friction factor f in a laminar flow through a circular pipe
is
A
Flow is in compressible or in
compressible
B
The fluid is real or ideal
C The energy losses are unknown D All the above
A Friction loss B Loss due to change of friction
C All type of losses D None of the above
A Pressure, inertia, and gravity B Pressure shear and gravity
C
Pressure, gravity and
compressibility
D None of these
A It is cheap B It is more convenient
C Energy loss is less D Energy loss is less
A U B 0
C U/2 D 2U
A 113 B 120
C 90 D 60
A Conservation of mass B Conservation of momentum
C Conservation of energy D All of the above
A 22 B 2
C 4 D 8
A 2h/3 B h/3
C h/2 D None of these
109
A two dimensional flow field is represented by y=x
2
-y
2
, the velocity at point
P(1,1) is
110 The depth of the centre of pressure from free surface of water in a vertical wall
is
106
The velocity at highest point on the cylinder due to uniform flow U is
107
The pressure on the half body is the same as the static pressure of uniform
stream approaching at a location 0 whose value is
108
The continuity equation is mathematical representation of the principle of
103
Bernoullis equation takes into account
104
The forces considered in the derivation of Eulers equation of motion are
105
A venture meter is preferable to orifice meter because
102
The general impulse-momentum principle can be applied if
A Failure due to sliding B
Failure due to tension or
compression
C Failure due to overturning D All of the above
A 0.3m B 0.75m
C 0.375m D
0.5
A equal to B one-third
C two-third D three-fourth
A
atmospheric
B
negative
C
atmospheric
D
negative
A 7.5 kW B 15 kW
C 22.5 kW D 37.5 Kw
A 2.34 B
4.68
C
9.38
D 18.75
A 1.8 B 17.4
C 20.5 D 41
115
1. In a pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral speed is 10m/s, the water jet velocity
is 25m/s and volumetric flow rate of jet is 0.1m/s. If the jet deflection is 120
and flow is ideal , the power developed is
116
A Large hydraulic turbine is to generate 300 kW at 1000 rpm under a head of
40m. For initial testing a 1:4 scale model of the turbine operates under a head
of 10 m. The power generated by model in KW will be
117
Water at 25C is flowing through a 1.0 km long G.I pipe of 200mm diameter at
the rate of 0.07m
3
/s. If value of Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02 and
density of water is 1000kg/m
3
, the pumping power (in kW) required to maintain
the flow is
112
A wooden platform 2m X 2m and 1 m height having sp.gr. =0.5 floats in water.
When a load of 9.81 KN is kept non platform centrally, it will be submerged to a
depth of
113
In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of water on the
downstream side of weir is __________ the head of water on the upstream side
of weir.
114
In a free nappe,
111
Which of the following is a possibility of dam failure?
A
Shear stress is proportional to
shear strain.
B
Rate of shear stress is
proportional to shear strain.
C
Shear stress is proportional to rate
of shear strain
D
Rate of shear stress is
proportional to rate of shear
strain
A F<1/2 B F=1/2
C F=1 D F>1
A P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 B P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
C P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 D P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
A A high head mixed flow turbine B A low axial flow turbine
C An outward flow reaction turbine D An impulse inward flow turbine
A 30 to 60 B 60 to 300
C 3 to 6 D 600 to 1000
A 15.62m B 18.62m
C 20.12m D 25.12m
A D
2
/D
1
=1.4 B D
2
/D
1
=1.6
C D
2
/D
1
=1.9 D D
2
/D
1
=2.4
124 A water turbine develops 130 KW at 230rpm under a head of 16m. The scale
ratio of similar machine which will generate 660 KW when working under a head
of 25 m will be
121
Kaplan turbine is
122
Specific speed of Kaplan turbine ranges between
123
A multistage pump is to lift 4200 liters/min against a total head of 185m at a
speed of 750 rpm. The specific speed is not exceed 700, the manometric head
required per stage will be
118
For a Newtonian fluid
119
Consider an incompressible laminar boundary layer over a flat plate of length L,
aligned with the direction of an oncoming uniform free stream. If F is the ratio of
drag force on front of the plane to the drag force on rear half then
120 Match the following
Column I Column II
P: Centrifugal compressor 1: Axial flow
Q: Centrifugal pump 2: Surging
R: Pelton Wheel 3: Priming
S: Kaplan turbine 4: Pure impulse
A 40% B 50%
C 60% D 100%
A Where low speed are required B
Small power purpose and low
speed
C
Small power purpose and high
speed
D Large power purpose
A 1Kg/kWhr B 2 Kg/kWhr
C 4 Kg/kWhr D 8 Kg/kWhr
A
310 N/m
2
B
250 N/m
2
C
300 N/m
2
D
305 N/m
2
A 50 B 40
C 60 D 75
A 2 TO 4 B 8 TO 16
C
4 TO 8
D 16 TO 24
A 15.62m B 18.62m
C 20.12m D 25.12m
A Load curve B Load duration curve
C Load factor D Demand curve
A Greater than 15 B Greater than 8
133
The angle of taper on draft tube is
130
In Kaplan turbine runner the number of blades is generally
131 A multi stage pump is to lift 4200 litre/min against a total head of 185m at speed
of 750rpm. The specific speed is not to exceed 700, the manometric head
required per stage will be
132
A plot between power generated in MW and time is known as
127
In modern steam turbine the steam rate is nearly
128
Forced draught fan delivers air at 10 m/s against a draught of 25mm water
across the fuel bed on grate. The total draught developed by force fan will be
129
isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with nozzle
efficiency 0.9, blade velocity rati0o 0.5 and mean velocity 150m/s in KJ/Kg is
125
Degree of reaction in for Parson s turbine is equal to
126
De-Laval turbines are mostly used
C Greater than 5 D Less than 8
A The beginning of the stroke B end of the stroke
C middle of the stroke D Both (A) and (B)
A 32.90% B 50%
C 65% D 84.80%
A 2Q against a head of 2H B Q against a head of 2H
C 2Q against a head of H D 2Q against a head of H/2
A 10 B 41
C 20 D 82
A
relative velocity vector in radial
directioin
B
absolute velocity vector in radial
directioin
C velocity of flow to be zero D
peripheral velocity of flow to be
zero
A greater than actual speed B less than actual speed
C equal ro actual speed D None of the above
A
unit power, unit discharge, and
unit speed
B
unit power, unit discharge, and
unit head
C
power developed, flow rate, and
head
D None of the above
A unit speed B unit discharge
C unit power D all of the above
140
139
Specific speed of a turbine is
Three main characteristics of of water turbine are
141
For a model and prototype turbine, the following parameters are common
136
Two identical pumps in all respects and each is capable to deliver Q m
3
/s against
the head of H are connected in parallel , the resultant discharge is
137
A Pump delivers 100 lt/s at a head of 25 m when running at 1500 rpm. A
homologous pump delivers 100 lt/s at 12.5m will have a specific speed of
138
Inlet angle of centrifugal pump is designed to get
134
In reciprocating pump cavitation occurs during delivery stroke at
135
In a single acting reciprocating pump the work saved in friction due to fitting of
air vessel is
A Propeller, Francis, Pelton B Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
C Kaplan, Pelton, Francis D Francis, Kaplan, Pelton
A an impulse turbine B a radial flow impulse turbine
C an axial flow turbine D a radial flow reaction turbine
A
the velocity of swirl at entry must
be zero
B
the velocity of swirl at outlet must
be zero
C
the velocity of flow at entry must
be zero
D
the velocity of flow at exit must be
zero
A U=2V B U=V/2
C 3V/2 D 4V/3
A
cannot be subjected to shear
forces
B
always expands until it fills any
conitainer
C
has the same shear stress.at a
point regardless of its motion
D
cannot remain at rest under
action of any shear force
A inviscous and incompressible. B incompressible
C inviscous D inviscous and compressible
A fluid B ideal fluid
C gas D perfect solid
A compressibility B cohesion
C surface tension D adhesion
143
Francis turbine is a
142 The water turbines may be arranged in following decreasing order of sepecific
speed as
146
Fluid is a substance that
147
A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
144
In all reaction turbines, for maximum efficiency
145
The efficiency of a jet of water having a velocity V striking a series of vertical
plates moving with velocity U is maximum when
150 When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every
point, then flow is said to be
148 If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is
known as
149
The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress
is known as
A quasi static B steady state
C laminar D uniform
1. A Plate having 10 cm
2
area each side is hanging in the middle of a room of 100m
2
total surface
area. The plate temperature and emissivity are respectively 800 K and 0.6. The temperature and
emissivity values for the surfaces of the room are 300 K and 0.3 respectively. Boltzmanns
constant = 5.67 10
-8
W/ m
2
K
4
. The total heat loss from the two surfaces of the plate is
A 13.66 W B 27.32 W
C 27.87 W D 13.66 MW
2. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate =
5 kg /s, inlet temperature = 150C, outlet temperature = 100C. For the cold fluid, heat capacity
= 4 kJ/ kg K, mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature = 20C. Neglecting heat transfer to the
surroundings, the outlet temperature of the cold fluid is C is
A 7.5 B 32.5
C 45.5 D 70.0
3. Consider a laminar boundary layer over a heated flat plate. The free stream velocity is U
. At
some distance x from the leading edge the velocity boundary layer thickness is d
V
and the
thermal boundary layer thickness is d
T
. If the prandtl number is greater than 1, then
A d
V
> d
T
B d
T
> d
V

C
V

T
~(U
X)
-1/2
D
V

T
~X
-1/2

A 0.0 B 4.8
C 6 D 750
4. One dimensional unsteady state heat transfer equation for a sphere with heat generation at the
rate of q can be written
A
(rT) +

5. A stainless steel tube (k
s
= 19 W/m K) of 2 cm ID and 5 cm OD in insulated with 3 cm thick
asbestos (k
a
= 0.2 W/m K). If the temperature difference between the inner most and outermost
surfaces is 600C, the heat transfer rate per unit length is
A 0.94 W/m B 9.44 W/m
C 944.72 W/m D 9447.21 W/m
6. A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement of
temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-coefficient on bend surface is 400
W/m
2
K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/m
2
K, C = 400J/kg K
and = 8500 kg/m
3
. If the thermocouple initially at 30C is placed in a hot stream of 300C, the
time taken by the bead to reach 298C , is
A 2.35 s B 4.9 s
C 14.7 s D 29.4 s
7. In a condenser, water enters at 30C and flows at the rate 1500 kg/hr. The condensing steam is
at a temperature of 120C and cooling water leaves the condenser at 80C. Specific heat of
water is 1.187 kJ/ kg K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2000 W/m
2
K, the heat transfer
area is
A 0.707 m
2
C 7.07 m
2

B 70.7 m
2
D 141.4 m
2

8. In a case of one dimensional heat conduction in a medium with constant properties, T is the
temperature at position x, at time t. Then
is proportional to
A
T
x

B
T
x

C
T
x t

D
T
x

9. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at 500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose temperature is
300K. The thermal conductivity of copper is 400W/m K, its density 9000 kg/m
3
and its specific heat
385 J/kg K. If the heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m
2
K and lumped analysis is assumed to be
valid, the rate of fall of the temperature of the ball at the beginning of cooling will be, in K/s,
A 8.7 B 13.9
C 17.3 D 27.7
10. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter
of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5m each. The radiation
configuration factor F
11
is
A 0.375 B 0.625
C 0.75 D 1
11. Hot oil is cooled from 80 to 50C in an oil cooler which uses air as the coolant. The air
temperature rises from 30 to 40C. The designer uses a LMTD value of 26C. The type of heat
exchanger is
A Parallel flow B Double pipe
C Counter flow D Cross flow
A 3.8 B 5.3
C 89 D 769
12. In a composite slab, the temperature at the interface (T
inter
) between two materials is equal to
the average of the temperature at the two ends. Thickness of slab 1 is twice of that of slab 2.
Assuming steady one dimensional heat conduction, which of the following statements is true
about the respective thermal conductivities?
A 2 k
1
= k
2
B k
1
= k
2

C 2 k
1
= 3 k
2
D k
1
= 2 k
2

13. A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in a 2.5 m 3 m 3 m size thermally insulated room
having a temperature of 20C. The room temperature at the end of 24 hours will be
A 321C B 341C
C 450C D 470C
14. A thin layer of water in a field is formed after a farmer has watered it. The ambient air
conditions are: temp. 20C and relative humidity 5%. An extract of steam tables is given below.

Temperature (C) -15 -10 -05 0.01 5 10 15 20
Saturation
Pressure (kPa)
0.10 0.26 0.40 0.61 0.87 1.23 1.71 2.34
Neglecting the heat transfer between the water and the ground, the water temperature in the
field after phase equilibrium is reached equals
A 10.3C B -10.3C
C -14.5C D 14.5C
15. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to surroundings
due to
A Convection increases, while that due
to conduction decreases
B Convection decreases, while that due to
conduction increases
C Convection and conduction
decreases
D Convection and conduction increases
16. The temperature distribution within the thermal boundary layer over a heated isothermal flat
plate is given by

, where T
W
and T
are the temperature of plate and

free stream respectively, and y is the normal distance measured from the plate. The local
Nusselt number base on the thermal boundary layer thickness
is given by

A 1.33 B 1.50
C 2.0 D 4.64
17. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 60C and cold fluid leaves at 30C. Mass
flow rate of the hot fluid is 1kg/s and that the cold fluid is 2 kg/s. Specific heat of the hot fluid is
10 kJ/kgK and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ/kgK. The Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD)
for the heat exchanger in C is
A 15 B 30
C 35 D 45
18. The average heat transfer coefficient on a thin hot vertical plate suspended in still air can be
determined from observations of the change in plate temperature with time as it cools. Assume
the plate temperature to be uniform at any instant of time and radiation heat exchange with the
surroundings negligible. The ambient temperature is 25C, the plate has a total surface area of
0.1 m2 and a mass of 4kg. The specific heat of the plate material is 2.5 kJ/kg K. The convective
heat transfer coefficient in W/m2K, at the instant when the plate temperature is 225C and the
change in plate temperature with time dT/dt = -0.02 K/s, is
A 200 B 20
C 15 D 10
A 160 B 165
C 200 D 250
19. For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the following fluid properties are known: viscosity = 0.001
Pa.s; specific heat at constant pressure = 1 KJ/Kg.K; thermal conductivity = 1 W/m.K.
The hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness at a specified location on the plate is 1 mm. The
thermal boundary layer thickness at the same location is
A 0.001 mm B 0.01 mm
C 1 mm D 1000 mm
20. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of a counter flow heat exchanger is 20C.
The cold fluid enters at 20C and the hot fluid enters at 100C. Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is
twice that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice that of the
cold fluid. The exit temperature of the cold fluid is
A 40C B 60C
C 80C D Cannot be determined
21. A hollow enclosure is formed between two infinitely long concentric cylinders of radii 1 m and 2
m, respectively. Radiative heat exchange takes place between the inner surface of the larger
cylinder (surface-2) and the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (surface-1). The radiating
surface are diffuse and the medium in the enclosure is non-participating. The fraction of the
thermal radiation leaving the larger surface and striking itself is
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.75 D 1
22. A coolant fluid at 30C flows over a heated flat plate maintained at a constant temperature of
100C. The boundary layer temperature distribution at a given location on the plate may be
approximated as T = 30 + 70 exp (-y) where y (in m) is the distance normal to the plate and T is in
C. If thermal conductivity of the fluid is 1.0 W/m K, the local convective heat transfer coefficient
(in W/m
2
K) at that location will be
A 0.2 B 1
C 5 D 10
23. In a parallel flow that exchanger operating under steady state, the heat capacity rates (product
of specific heat at constant pressure and mass flow rate) of the hot and cold fluid are equal. The
hot fluid, flowing at 1 kg/s with Cp = 4 kJ/kg K, enters the heat exchanger at 102C while the cold
fluid has an inlet temperature of 15C. The overall heat transfer coefficient for the heat
exchanger is estimated to be 1 kW/m2K and the corresponding heat transfer surface area is
5m2. Neglect heat transfer between the heat exchanger and the ambient. The heat exchanger is
characterized by the following relation: 2 = 1 expt (-2NTU). The exit temperature (in C) for
the cold fluid is
A 45 B 55
C 65 D 75
24. A fin has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm length. The thermal conductivity of fin material is 400 Wm-1 K-
1. One end of the fin is maintained at 130C and its remaining surface is exposed to ambient air at
30C. If the convective heat transfer coefficient is 40 Wm-2 K-1, the heat loss (in W) from the fin is
A 0.08 B 5.0
C 7.0 D 7.8
25. Heat transfer takes place according to law of thermodynamics
A Zeroth B First
C Second D Third
26. Heat transmission is directly linked with the transport of medium itself,. i.e. there is actual
motion of heated particles during
A Conduction only B Convection only
C Radiation only D Conduction as well as radiation
27. The material medium between the heat source and receiver is not affected during the process of
heat transmission by
A Conduction B Convection
C Radiation D Conduction as well as convection
28. Heat transfer in liquids and gases is essentially due to
C Radiation D Conduction and convection put together
29. A satellite in space exchanges heat with the surroundings essentially by
30. A pipe carrying steam at 215C traverses a room and heat is lost to the surrounding air at 27C.
The major fraction of heat loss to the surroundings will be essentially due to
31. All the three modes of heat transmission are involved in
A
Melting of ice
B Cooling of a small metal casting in a
quenching bath
C Heat flow through the walls of a
refrigerator
D Automobile engine equipped with a
thermosyphon cooling system
32. Steady state heat flow implies
A
Negligible flow of heat
B No difference of temperature between the
bodies
C Constant heat flow rate, i.e. heat flow
rate independent of time
D
Uniform rate in temperature rise of a body
33.
The Fourier heat conduction equation
dx
dt
kA Q =

Presumes
1. Steady state conditions
2. Constant value of thermal conductivity
3. Uniform temperature at the wall surfaces
4. One-dimensional heat flow
Which of these statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4 D 1, 3 and 4
34. In M-L-T- system (T begin time and temperature), what is the dimension of thermal
conductivity?
A ML
-1
T
-1

-3
B MLT
-1

-1
C ML
-1
T
-3
D ML S
-1
T
-2
35. In which of the following materials, the heat energy propagation due to conduction heat
transfer will be minimum?
A Lead B Copper
C Water D Air
36. A wall of thickness 0.6m has normal area 1.5 m
2
and is made up of a material of thermal
conductivity 0.4 W/m K. If the temperatures on the two sides are 800C and 100C, the thermal
resistance of the wall material could be?
A 1 W/K B 1.8 W/K
C 1 K/W D 1.8 K/W
37. Heat is conducted through a 10 cm thick wall at the rate of 30 W/m
2
when the temperature
difference across the wall is 10C. What is the thermal inductivity of the wall material?
A 0.03 W/m K B 0.3 W/m K
C 3.0 W/m K D 30.0 W/m K
38. A steel plate of thermal conductivity 50 W/m K and thickness 10 cm passes a heat flux by
conduction of 25 kW/m
2
. If the temperature of hot surface of the plate is 100C, then what is the
temperature of cooler surface of the plate?
A 30C B 40C
C 50C D 60C
39. 6 kJ of conduction heat transfer has to take place in 10 minutes from one end to other end of a
metallic cylinder of 10 cm
2
cross-sectional area, length 1 meter and thermal conductivity as 100
W/m K. what is the temperature difference between the two ends of the bar?
A 80
0
C B 100
0
C
C 120
0
C D 160
0
C
40. Two walls of same thickness and cross-sectional area have thermal conductivities in the ratio
1:2. If same temperature difference is maintain across the wall faces, the ratio of heat flow
Q
1
/Q
2
will be
A 1/2 B 1
C 2 D 4
41. A composite wall of a furnace has two layers of equal thickness having thermal conductivities in
the ratio 3 : 2. What is the ratio of temperature drop across the two layers?
A 2 : 3 B 3 : 2
C 1 : 2 D Log
e
2

:

log
e
3
42. A composite wall is made of two layers of thickness
1
and
2
having thermal conductivities k
and 2k and equal surface area normal to the direction of heat flow. The outer surfaces of the
composite wall are at 100
0
C and 200
0
C respectively. The heat transfer takes place only by
conduction and the required surface temperature at the junction is 150
0
C. What will be ratio of
wall thickness
1
:
2
?
A 1 : 1 B 2 : 1
C 1 : 2 D 2 : 3
43. Which one of the following expresses the thermal diffusivity of a substance in terms of thermal
conductivity k, mass density and specific heat c?
A

2
k c
B
kc
1

C
c
k

D
2
k
c

44. Thu unit of thermal diffusivity is
A m
2
/hr
0
C B kcal /m
2
-hr
C m /hr
0
C D m
2
/hr
45. A cube at high temperature is immersed in a constant temperature bath. It loses heat from its
top, bottom and side surfaces with heat transfer coefficients of h
1
, h
2
and h3 respectively. The
average heat transfer coefficient for the cube is
A
3 2 1
h h h h + + =

B
3 / 1
3 2 1
) ( h h h h + + =

C
3 2 1
1 1 1 1
h h h
h
+ + =

D
None of the above
46. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity k and 2k are available for lagging a pipe carrying a
hot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material is the same, then for minimum heat loss
A Material with higher thermal
conductivity should be used for the
inner layer and one with lower
thermal conductivity for the outer
B Material with lower thermal conductivity
should be used for the inner layer and one
with higher thermal conductivity for the
inner
C It is immaterial in which sequence
the insulting materials are used
D It is not possible to judge unless numerical
values of dimensions are given
47. Up to the critical radius of insulation
A Added insulation increases heat loss B Added insulation decreases heat loss
C Convection heat loss is less than
conduction heat loss
D
Heat flux decreases
48. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to surroundings
due to
A Convection increases while that due
to conduction decreases
B Convection decreases while that due to
conduction increases
C Convection and conduction
decreases
D
Convection and conduction increases2
49. A copper wire radius 0.5 mm is insulated with a sheathing of thickness 1 mm having a thermal
conductivity 0.5 W / mK. The outside surface convective heat transfer coefficient is 10 W / m
2
K.
If the thickness of insulation sheating is raised by 10 mm, then the electrical current carrying
capacity of the wire will
A Increase B Decrease
C
Remain the same
D Vary depending upon the electrical
conductivity of the wire
50. On a heat transfer surface, fins are provided to
A Increase temperature gradient so as
to enhance heat transfer
B Increase turbulence in flow for enhancing
heat transfer
C Increase surface area to promote the
rate of heat transfer
D
Decrease the pressure drop of the fluid
51. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation the fin should be designed in such a way that it
has
A Maximum lateral surface at the root
side of fin
B Maximum lateral surface towards the tip
side of fin
C Maximum lateral surface near the
centre of fin
D Minimum lateral surface near the centre of
fin
52. Fins are made as thin as possible to
A Reduce the total weight B Accommodate more number of fins
C Increase the width for the same
profile area
D
Improve flow of coolant around the fin
53. A finned surface consists of root or base area of 1 m
2
and fin surface area of 2 m
2
. The average
heat transfer coefficient for fined surface is 20 W/m
2
K, and effectiveness of fins provided is
0.75. If the finned surface with root or base temperature of 50
0
C is transferring heat to a fluid at
30
0
C, then rate of heat transfer is
A 400 W B 800 W
C 1000 W D 1200 W
54. Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins and identify the
correct statements.
1. Fins must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of the working fluid
2. The temperature along the fin is variable and accordingly the heat transfer rate varies along
the fin elements
3. Fins are equally effective irrespective whether they are on the hot side or cold side of the fluid
4. Fins are made of materials that have thermal conductivity higher than that of the wall
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4
55. Consider convection heat flow to water at 75
0
C from a cylindrical nuclear reactor fuel rod of 50
mm diameter. Under steady state condition, the rate of heat generation within the fuel element
is 5 x 10
7
W /m
3
and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 1 kW / m
2
K. The outer surface
temperature of the fuel element would be
A 700
0
C B 625
0
C
C 550
0
C D 400
0
C
56. Which of the following statements is not correct?
In a transient flow process
A The rates of inflow and the outflow
of mass are different
B The state of matter inside the control
volume varies with time
C There can be work and heat
interactions across the control
volume
D
There is no accumulation of energy inside
the control volume
57. The curve for unsteady state cooling or heating of bodies is
A Parabolic curve asymptotic to time
axis
B
Exponential curve asymptotic to time axis
C Exponential curve asymptotic both to
time and temperature axes
D Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time
and temperature axes
58. The time constant of a thermocouple is the time taken to
A Attain the final value to the
measured
B Attain 63.2% of the value of initial
temperature difference
C Attain 50% of initial temperature D Minimum time taken to record a
difference temperature reading
59. Heisler charts are used to determine the transient heat flow rate and temperature distribution
when
A Solids possess infinitely large thermal
conductivity
B Internal conduction resistance is small and
the convective resistance is large
C Internal conduction resistance is
large and the convective resistance is
small
D
Both conduction and convection resistance
are almost of equal importance
60. A large concrete slab 1 m thick has one dimensional temperature distribution prescribed as
T = 4 10x
2
+ 20 x
2
+ 10x
3
Where T is temperature and x is distance from one face towards other face of the wall. If the
slab material has thermal diffusity of 2 x 10
-3
m
2
/hr, what is the rate of change of temperature
at the other face of the wall?
A 0.1C/hr B 0.2C/hr
C 0.3C/hr D 0.4C/hr
61. The sun with an effective surface temperature of 5600 K emits most of its radiations in the
spectrum of frequency range
A 0.1 to 4 micron B 1 to 10 micron
C 0.01 to 0.1 micron D At all the wavelengths
62. A body which partly absorbs and partly reflects but does not allow any radiation to pass through
it ( + = 1 and = 0) is called
A Diathermanous B Opaque
C Grey D Specular
63. A surface for which emissivity is constant at all temperatures and throughout the range of
wavelength is called
A Opaque B Grey
C Specular D Diathermanous
64. The roof of a house has been given a coating of shining metallic paint. Consequently the
temperature inside the room will
A Fall B Rise
C
Remain unaffected
D Cannot be decided as it depends on factors
other than the type of paint
65. The emissivity is likely to be higher in case of
A Rubber B Paper
C Carbon D Iron oxide
66. A thermally transparent surface of transmissivity 0.15 receives 2000 kj/min of radiation and
reflects back 800 kJ/min out of it. The emissivity of the surface is then
A 0.15 B 0.4
C 0.45 D 0.55
67. The temperature of a solid surface changes from 27
0
C to 627
0
C. The emissive power changes
would than confirm to the ratio
A 6 : 1 B 9 : 1
C 27 : 1 D 81 : 1
68. A body at 500 K cools by radiating heat to ambient atmosphere maintained at 300 K. When the
body has cooled to 400 K, the cooling rate as a percentage of original rate is about
A 31.1 B 41.5
C 50.3 D 80.4
69. The radiation intensity in a particular direction is the radiant energy per unit time
A
Per unit area of radiating surface
B Per unit solid angle per unit area of
radiating surface
C Per unit solid angle per unit projected
area of the radiating surface in the
given direction
D
Per unit projected area of the radiating
surface in the given
70. Two spheres A and B of same material have radii 1m and 4m, and temperature 4000 K and 2000
K respectively. Then the energy radiated by sphere A is
A Greater than that of sphere B B Equal to that of sphere B
C Less than that of sphere B D Two times that of sphere B
71. The earth receives at its surface radiation from the sun at the rate of 1400 W/m
2
. The distance
of the centre of sun from the surface of earth is 1.5 x 10
11
m and the radius of the sun is 7.0 x
10
8
m. Treating the sun as black body, it follows from the above data that suns surface
temperature is about
A 3650 K B 4520 K
C 5800 K D 6150 K
72. What is the value of shape factor for two infinite parallel surfaces separated by a distance x
A 0 B
C 1 D x
73. What is the equivalent emissivity for radiant heat exchange between a small body (emissivity =
0.4) in a very large enclosure (emissivity = 0.5)?
A 0.5 B 0.4
C 0.2 D 0.1
74. A radiation shield should
A Have high transmissivity B Absorb all the radiation
C
Have high reflective power
D Partly absorb and partly transmit the
incident radiation
75. Two long parallel plates of same emissivity 0.5 are maintained at different temperatures and
have radiation heat exchange between them. A radiation shield of emissivity 0.25 placed in the
middle will reduce radiation heat exchange to
A
2
1

B
4
1
C
10
3
D
5
3

76. Two long parallel surfaces, each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different temperatures and
accordingly have radiation exchange between them. It is desired to reduce 75% of this radiant
heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of equal emissivity 0.7 on both sides. What should
be the number of shields?
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
77. An enclosure consists of four surfaces 1, 2, 3 and 4. The view factors for radiation heat transfer
are:
F
11
= 0.1; F
12
= 0.4 and F
13
= 0.25
The surface areas A
1
, A
4
are 4 m
2
and 2 m
2
respectively. The view factor F
41

A 0.75 B 0.50
C 0.25 D 0.1
78. For an opaque plane surface, the irradiation, radiosity and emissive power are 20, 12 and 10
W/m
2
respectively. Then emissivity of the surface is
A 0.2 B 0.4
C 0.8 D 1.0
79. Solar radiation of 1200 W/m
2
falls perpendicularly on a grey opaque surface of emissivity 0.5. If
the surface temperature is 50
0
C and surface emissive power is 600 W/m
2
, the radiosity of that
surface will be
A 600 W/m
2
B 1000 W/m
2

C 1200 W/m
2
D 1800 W/m
2

80. Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused by
A Density difference brought about by
temperature gradients
B
Molecular energy interaction
C Flow of electrons in a random fashion D Intense stirring by an external agency
81. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same material and having the same
mass are initially heated to a temperature of 250
0
C. When left in air at room temperature, what
will be their response to cooling?
A They will cool at the same rate B Circular plate will cool at slowest rate
C Sphere will cool faster D Cube will cool faster than sphere but
slower than the circular plate
82. A steel plate of thickness 5 cm and thermal conductivity 20 W/mK is subjected to a uniform heat
flux of 800 W/m
2
on one surface A and transfer heat by convection with a heat transfer
coefficient of 80 W/m
2
K from the surface B into the ambient air at 25
0
C temperature. The
temperature of the surface B transferring heat by convection is
A 25
0
C B 35
0
C
C 45
0
C D 55
0
C
83. On a summer day, a scooter rider feels more comfortable while on the move than while at a
stop light because
A An object in motion captures less
radiation
B Air is transparent and hence it is cooler
than the body
C Air has a low specific heat and hence
it is cooler
D More heat is lost by convection and
radiation while in motion
84. Heat is low from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30
0
C. If
the Nusselt number is 25 W/m
2
k and thermal conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mK, then the heat
transfer coefficient will be
A 7.5 W/m
2
K B 16.5 W/m
2
K
C 25 W/m
2
K D 30 W/m
2
K
85. Which one of the following numbers represents the ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal
diffusivity?
A Grashoff number B Prandtl number
C Mach number D Nusselt number
86. The non-dimensional parameter known as Stanton number is used in
A Forced convection heat transfer in
flow over flat plate
B Condensation heat transfer with laminar
film layer
C
Natural convection heat transfer over
flat plate
D Unsteady heat transfer from bodies in
which internal temperature gradient
cannot be neglected
87. Which one of the following non-dimensional numbers is used to determine the transaction from
laminar to turbulent flow in free convection?
A Reynolds number B Grashoff number
C Peclet number D Rayleigh number
88. The convective heat transfer coefficient from a hot cylindrical surface exposed to still air varies
in accordance with
Where T is the temperature difference between the hot surface and the surrounding ambient
air
A (T)
0.25
B (T)
0.5

C (T)
0.75
D (T)
1.25

89. For laminar flow over a flat plate, the local heat transfer coefficient h
x
, varies is x
-1/2
where x is the
distance from the leading edge (x = 0) of the plate. The ratio of the average coefficient h
av
between
the leading edge and some location A at x = x on the plate to the local heat transfer coefficient is
A 1 B 2
C 4 D 8
90. Thermal boundary layer is a region where
A
Heat dissipation is negligible
B Inertia and convection terms are of the
same order of magnitude
C Convection and dissipation terms are
of the same order of magnitude
D Convection and conduction terms are of
the same order of magnitude
91. For a fluid having Prandtl number equal to unity, the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness
and thermal boundary layer thickness
t
are related as
A =
t
B >
t

C <
t
D
t
=
1/3
92. In a convective heat transfer situation, Reynolds number is very large but the Prandtl number is
so small that the product (Re*Pr) is less than one. In such a condition
A Thermal boundary layer does not B Viscous boundary layer thickness equals the
exist thermal boundary layer thickness
C Viscous boundary layer thickness is
less than the thermal boundary layer
thickness
D
Viscous boundary layer thickness is greater
than the thermal boundary layer thickness
93. The convective coefficients for boiling and condensation usually lie in the range
A 30-300 B 60-3000
C 300-10,000 D 2500-10,000 W/m
2
K
94. Dropwise condensation usually occurs on
A Galzed surface B Smooth surface
C Oily surface D Coated surface
95. Saturated steam is allowed to condense over a vertical flat surface and the condensate film
flows down the surface. The local coefficient of heat transfer for condensation.
A Remains constant at all heights of the
surface
B Decreases with increasing distance from the
top of the surface
C Increases with increasing thickness of
condensate film
D Increase with increase temperature
differential between the surface and vapour
96. For filmwise condensation on a vertical plane, the film thickness and heat transfer coefficient h
vary with distance x from the leading edge as
A distance, h increases B Both distance and h increases
C distance, h decreases D Both and h increases
97. The overall heat transfer coefficient for a shell and tube heat exchanger for clean surfaces is u
0
=
400 W /m
2
K. The fouling factor after one year of operation is found to be h
0
= 2000 W /m
2
K.
The overall heat transfer coefficient at this time is
A 1200 W /m
2
k B 894 W /m
2
k
C 333 W /m
2
k D 287 W /m
2
k
98. In a counter flow heat exchange, cold fluid enters at 30
0
C and leaves at 50
0
C, wheras the hot
fluid enters at 150
0
C and leaves at 130
0
C. The mean temperature difference for this case is
A 20
0
C B 80
0
C
C 100
0
C D Indeterminate
99. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 180
0
C and leaves at 160
0
C. The
cooling fluid enters at 30
0
C and leaves at 110
0
C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is
A 0.25 B 1.5
C 0.33 D 0.2
100. A cross flow type air heater has an area of 50 cm
2
. The overall transfer coefficient is 200 W /m
2
K
and heat capacity of both hot and cold stream is 1000 W / K. The value of NTU is
A 1000 B 500
C 5 D 0.2
101. In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger with m
h
, C
h
= m
c
, c
c
, the NTU is equal to unity. What is
the effectiveness of heat exchanger?
A 0.5 B 1.5
C 0.33 D 0.2

1 Which of the following statements is correct?
A Extensive properties are independent of
the mass of the system
B Potential energy is an extensive
property
C Intensive properties depend on the mass
of the system
D
Density is an extensive property
2 Choose the correct system
A A gas turbine is a closed system B Automobile battery along with leads is
an open system
C A pressure cooker is a closed system D A mixture of water and steam in a vessel
is an isolated system
3 A closed system traces a cycle of operations. Which of the following is the correct statement?
A
0 =
dp
B
0 =
dW
C
0 =
dQ
D
all of above
4 Zeroth law of thermodynamics is the basis of
A Temperature measurement B Pressure measurement
C Heat transfer measurement D Internal energy measurement
5 Which one of the following is not the intensive property of the system?
A Composition B Density
C Volume D Velocity
6 dq = du + p dv is true for
A any process and any system B any process and closed system
C reversible process and closed system D any process and open system
7 dq dw = 0 holds for
A any cycle B any process
C reversible process only D none of the above
8 dq dw = du is true for
A any process and open system B any process and any system
C reversible process and closed system D any process and closed system
9 Choose the wrong statement
A Internal energy is a property of the
system
B
Velocity is an intensive property
C Stored energy is an intensive property D Kinetic energy is an extensive property
10 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A C
v
is a function of temperature for an
ideal gas
B Heat transfer is equal to change in
internal energy in the case of non-flow
constant pressure process
C C
v
is a path function D Work transfer is equal to heat transfer
in the case o non-flow constant volume
pressure
A Specific heat of a gas at constant
pressure is three times the specific heat
at constant volume
B Heat transfer is equal to change in
enthalpy in the case of non-flow
constant pressure process
C C
p
is a function of pressure for ideal gas D Work transfer is equal to heat transfer
in the case of non-flow constant
volume process
12 Heat transferred is equal to work done in the case of
A non-flow constant pressure process B non-flow constant volume process
C non-flow adiabatic process D non-flow isothermal process
13 Change of internal energy is equal to work transfer in the case of
A non-flow adiabatic process B non-flow isothermal process
C non-flow constant volume process D non-flow constant pressure process
14 dq = dw + dh is true for
A any process any system B steady flow process
C any process and closed system D none of the above
15 Choose the correct statement
A Energy is non-conservative B Energy is conservative
C First law of thermodynamics deals with
conservation of mass
D Open system permits the passage of
energy only across the control surface
16 During a throttling process, which of the following property remains constant?
A Internal energy B Pressure
C Pressure and temperature D Enthalpy
17 A perpetual motion machine of 1
st
kind is
A impossible according to first law of
thermodynamics
B possible according to first law of
thermodynamics
C impossible according to zeroth law of
thermodynamics
D possible according to zeroth law of
thermodynamics
A the net work can be produced during a
cycle with some supply of heat
B heat and work are mutually convertible
C a process in which temperature remains
constant is called an adiabatic process
D unit of Power in S.I. system is Joule
19 When the gas undergoes free expansion, the change of internal energy during the process is
A Positive B Negative
C Zero D Positive or Negative
20 When a gas expands in an adiabatic manner the work done by the gas is
A Zero B Positive
C Negative D Positive or Negative
21 If a thermos bottle containing tea is shaken vigorously, the temperature of the tea
C Decreases D Cant be predicted
22 If a gas is compressed in an adiabatic manner, its internal energy will
A Increase B Decrease
C remain constant D Increase or decrease
23 A tank of compressed air develops a small leak. The process is
A isobaric B adiabatic
C isothermal D Isochoric
24 If the air in the cylinder with a frictionless piston held by a constant weight on it is heated,
then the process is
A adiabatic B isothermal
C Isochoric D isobaric
A Energy change of thermodynamics system
can proceed in either direction
B A block slides down a rough plane and
becomes warmer
C A block slides up a rough plane and
becomes cooler
D Completer conversion of heat into work
is possible.
26 Which one of the following statement is correct?
A It is impossible to construct a perpetual
motion machine of second kind
B It is possible to construct a perpetual
motion machine of second kind
C It is possible to construct a perpetual
motion machine of first kind
D It is possible to build an engine which
has 100 percent thermal efficiency
27 If thermal efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% the coefficient of performance of a Carnot
refrigerator working between same temperature limit is
A 3 B 2
C 1 D 4
A
Second law of thermodynamics defines
entropy as the property of the system
B Second law of thermodynamics defines
internal energy as property of the
system
C
The reversible engines have the same
efficiency as the irreversible engines
D A perpetual motion machines of second
kind is impossible according to first law
of thermodynamics
29 Which one of the following is a correct statement?
A Thermodynamic temperature scale
depends upon the nature of the working
substance
B Thermodynamic temperature scale is
independent of the nature of working
substance
C Thermal efficiency of reversible engines
depends upon the nature of the working
substance
D
Negative temperatures can be attained
on the absolute temperature scale.
30 A process will be irreversible if it involves.
A friction only B unrestrained expansion
C heat transfer with a finite temperature
difference
D
all of the above
31 Which of the following processes can approach reversibility?
A Mixing of different substances B Expansion of gas in a cylinder
C Diffusion D Chemical reactions
A Entropy is an intensive property of the
system
B (a) Entropy is conservative

C Entropy is a measure of the level of
irreversibility associated with a process
D Entropy of the universe is always
decreasing.
33 During a reversible process, the total entropy of the interacting bodies.
A remains constant B Decreases
C Increases D none of the above
34 During an irreversible process, the total entropy of interacting bodies
A Decreases B remains constant
C Increases D none of the above
35 Entropy change for all naturally occurring processes will be
A unpredictable B less than zero
C zero D greater than zero
A a positive value for change in entropy
indicates a decrease in the amount of
disorder of system
B a positive value for change in entropy
indicates an increase in the amount of
disorder of a system
C a negative value for change in entropy
indicates increase in the amount of
disorder of a system
D
the freezing of water is accompanied
by increase in entropy.
37
If cycle,
> 0
T
dQ
the cycle is
A irreversible B Impossible
C Reversible D none of the above
38 The condition for a cycle to be reversible is
A
cyclic
= 0
T
dQ

B
cyclic
> 0
T
dQ

C
cyclic
< 0
T
dQ

D
none of the above
39 The condition for a cycle to be irreversible is
A
cyclic
= 0
T
dQ

B
cyclic
> 0
T
dQ

C
cyclic
< 0
T
dQ

D
none of the above
40 A heat engine is supplied with 100 kJ/s of heat at a fixed temperature of 250C. If 50 kJ/s are
rejected at 10C, the cycle is
A Reversible B Irreversible
C impossible D none of the above
A Both internal energy and entropy are
state functions
B Both internal energy and enthalpy are
path functions
C Internal energy is a state function
whereas entropy is a path function.
D Entropy is a state function whereas
internal energy is path function
42 T ds = du + p dv is true for
A any system, reversible process B closed system, any process
C closed system and reversible process only D any system, any process
43 The amount of heat transfer is represented by the area under
A an irreversible process on a T-S diagram B a reversible process on p-v diagram
C a reversible process on T-S diagram D none of the above
44 A reversible isothermal process on a T-S diagram is represented by a
A straight line B vertical line
C Curve D horizontal line
45 A reversible adiabatic process on a T-S diagram is represented by
A horizontal line B vertical line
C straight line D none of the above
46 Choose the correct answer
A An irreversible adiabatic process is
constant entropy process
B A reversible adiabatic process is an
isentropic process
C An isentropic process is an adiabatic
process
D Entropy decreases during an
irreversible adiabatic process
47 The entropy change for a system may be
A Positive B Negative
C Zero D all the above
48 The net entropy change for the universe during a reversible process is
A Zero B greater than zero
C less than zero D none of the above
49 Which one of the following is the property of the system
A actual work output B Heat transfer
C Irreversibility D none of the above
50 A portion of the heat which is rejected to the cold reservoir is called by
A ) available energy B work output
C unavailable energy D none of the above
51 When a system is in a dead state, its available energy is
A Unpredictable B greater than zero
C less than zero D equal to zero
A
Efficiency is the term used to measure the
performance of refrigerators
B Coefficient of performance is the term
used to measure the performance of
cyclic engines
C Coefficient of performance is the term
used to measure the performance of heat
pumps
D
Efficiency is the term used to measure
the performance of heat pumps.
A In a reversible process, degradation will
be greater than zero
B Entropy increase is proportional to
exergy degradation
C In an irreversible process degradation will
be less than zero
D Availability is not a property of the
system
54 Which one of the following statement is correct?
A Critical point involves equilibrium of solid,
liquid and vapour phases
B Triple point involves equilibrium of
solid, liquid and vapour phases
C Critical point involves equilibrium of solid D Critical point involves equilibrium of
and vapour phases solid and liquid phases
A Freezing temperature of water decreases
with increasing pressure
B Boiling point of water decreases with
increasing pressure
C Specific volume of carbon dioxide
decreases on freezing
D Specific volume of water decreases on
freezing
56 Which of the following is correct statement
A The slope of sublimation curve is negative
for all pure substances
B The slope of fusion curve is positive for
all pure substances
C The slope of vaporization curve is always
negative
D The slope of vaporization curve is
always positive
57 The temperature and pressure at critical state for water are
A 374.15C and 22.12 MPa B 405.5 K and 11.28 MPa
C 0.01C and 0.6113 kPa D none of the above
A Pressure and temperature are
independent during phase change
B An isothermal line is also constant
pressure line during wet region
C The term dryness fraction is used to
describe the fraction by mass of liquid in
the mixture of liquid water and water
vapour
D
The process of passing from liquid to
vapour is condensation
59 The dryness fraction is to be measured with the help of a combined separating and throttling
calorimeter. If x
1
is the theoretical dryness fraction of the same of steam measured by the
separating calorimeter and x
2
is the dryness fraction of steam leaving the separating
calorimeter then x, the actual dryness fraction of sample of steam is given by
A
2
1
x
x

B
1
2
x
x

C x
2
D x
1
x
2

A If the temperature of the liquid is below
the saturation temperature for the same
value of pressure, such a state is called
the state of compressed liquid
B If the pressure of the state of the liquid
is below the saturation pressure for the
same temperature, such a state is called
the state of compressed liquid
C
If the pressure of the state of the liquid is
below the saturation pressure for the
same temperature, such a state is called
the state of a subcooled liquid
D If the temperature of the liquid is
above the saturation temperature for
the same value of pressure, such a
state is called the state of a subcooled
liquid
61 Constant enthalpy line a on a Moliers Chart is represented by a
A vertical line B straight line
C horizontal line D curve
A
Constant process lines are curved lines in
the wet region but straight lines in the
surperheat region in a h-s diagram
B Constant pressure lines are straight lines
in the wet region but bend slightly
upwards in the superheat region in h-s
diagram
C Constant pressure lines are parallel in the
wet region in a h-s diagram
D Constant pressure lines are horizontal
in the superheat region in h-s diagram
63 At critical point, latent heat of vaporization of steam is
A Zero B less than zero
C greater than zero D none of the above
64 The Gibbs function in a two phase liquid vapour mixture
A Increases B remains constant
C decreases D none of the above
65 In a reversible isothermal constant volume process, Helmholtz function
C decreases D may increase or decrease
66 Maxwells relations give us the relationship between
A enthalpy, p, v and T B ternal energy, p, v and T
C entropy, p, v and T D none of the above
67 T ds equation holds true for
A any system any process B open system any process
C closed system and reversible process D open system and reversible process
68 dh = C
p
dT holds true for
A an ideal gas and constant pressure only B an ideal gas and all processes
C vapour and all processes D gas and vapour and all processes
69 du = C
v
dT holds true for
A any gas and constant volume process only B any gas and all processes
C an ideal gas and all processes D gas, vapour and all processes
70 For an ideal gas obeying pv = RT, C
v
is function of
A pressure only B temperature only
C both pressure and temperature D volume and temperature
71 For an ideal gas obeying pv =RT, C
v
is function of
A volume only B pressure only
C both volume and temperature D temperature only
72 Internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of
A pressure only B temperature alone
C pressure and temperature D volume and temperature
73 The relationship between entropy, internal energy and work is given by
A T ds = du pdv B du = pdv Tds
C
Tds = du + pdv
D
Tds
du
pdv =
74 The coefficient of expansion is defined by
A
T
p
p
1

B
v
p
v
v

1

C
v
T
v
v
1

D
T
v
p
v
1

75 The compressibility k, is defined as
A
T
p
v
v
k
=
1

B
T
v
p
v
k

=
1

C
v
T
p
v
k

=
1

D
v
T
v
v
k

=
1

76 The coefficient of expansion is a function of
A volume only B temperature only
C pressure only D all the above
77 The compressibility is a function of
A temperature only B volume only
C pressure only D all the above
78 The slope of a constant pressure line on Molliers chart in the wet region
A increases B decreases
C may increases or decrease D remains constant
79 The Clapeyron equation expresses on a p-T plot the slope of
A vaporization curve only B fusion curve only
C sublimation curve only D all the above
80 At a triple point, the slope of sublimation line is
A greater than that of the vaporization line B less than that of the vaporization line
C equal to that of the vaporization line D zero
81 When a real gas is throttled, the temperature of the gas
C may increase or decrease D remains constant
82 When a perfect gas is throttled, the temperature of the gas
A increases B remains constant
C decreases D none of the above
A the left of the inversion curve on the T-p
diagram is the heating region whereas
the right is the cooling region
B the left of the inversion curve of the T-p
diagram is the cooling regions whereas
the right is the heating region
C the left as well as the right of the
inversion curve on T-p diagram are
heating region
D the left as well as the right of the
inversion curve on T-p diagram are
cooling region
84 If the Joule-Thomson coefficient of the real gas approaching a valve is negative as it passes
through the valve, the temperature will
A Fall B remains constant
C Rise D fall or rise
85 The simple Rankine cycle consists of
A two adiabatic and two constant volume
processes
B two isothermal and two constant
pressure processes
C two adiabatic and two constant pressure
processes
D two isothermal and two constant
volume processes
86 Efficiency of the Rankine cycle can be increased by
A decreasing the maximum pressure of the
cycle
B increasing the temperature of which
heat is rejected
C increasing the exhaust pressure D lowering the exhaust pressure
87 In an steam power plant, the effect of lowering the exhaust pressure is
A to increase the thermal efficiency but to
decrease the moisture content of steam
leaving the turbine
B to decrease the thermal efficiency but
to increase moisture content of steam
leaving the turbine
C to increase the thermal efficiency as also
the moisture content of steam leaving the
turbine
D to decrease thermal efficiency as also
the moisture content of steam leaving
the turbine
88 The effect of superheating the steam at turbine inlet without increase in maximum pressure
in steam power plant, on thermal efficiency and the quality of steam leaving the turbine is
A to increase thermal efficiency but to
decrease quality
B to increase both thermal efficiency and
quality
C to decrease thermal efficiency but to
increase quality
D to decrease both thermal efficiency and
quality
89 The effect of maximum pressure in a Rankine cycle, by keeping the maximum temperature as
well as the exhaust pressure constant, on thermal efficiency and quality of steam leaving the
turbine is
A to decrease the quality but to increase
the efficiency
B to increase both the quality and the
efficiency
C to increase quality but to decrease
efficiency
D to decrease both the quality and the
efficiency
A
Both steam power plants and internal
combustion engines are closed systems
B Steam power plant is a closed system
whereas internal combustion engine is
an open system
C
Both steam power plant and internal
combustion engines are open systems
D Steam power plant is an open systems
whereas internal combustion engine is
an closed system
91 Air standard efficiency is defined as
A
supplied
supplied
Heat
rejected heat Heat

B
supplied
supplied
Heat
rejected heat Heat +

C
rejected
supplied
Heat
rejected heat Heat

D
rejected - supplied
supplied
Heat Heat
Heat

92 Otto Cycle consists of
A two constant pressure and two adiabatic
processes
B one constant pressure, one constant
volume and two isothermal processes
C two constant volume and two isothermal
processes
D two constant volume and two adiabatic
processes
93 Air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is equal to supplied
A
1
1
1
r
r

B
1
1
1
1
r

C
1
1
1
r

D
none of the above
94 Compression ratio is defined as the ratio of
A
volume clearance volume Swept
volume Swept
+

B
volume Clearance
volume clearance volume Swept +

C
volume Swept
volume clearance volume Swept +

D
Volume Clearance
Volume Swept

95 Air standard efficiency of the Otto cycle depends upon
A compression ratio (r) only B ratio of specific heats ( ) only
C both (a) and (b) D none of the above
96 Diesel cycle consist of
A one constant pressure, one constant
volume and two adiabatic processes
B two constant volume and two adiabatic
processes
C two constant pressure and two
isothermal processes
D two isothermal and two adiabatic
processes
97 Air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon
A compression ratio (r) only B cut off ratio () only
C ratio of specific heats ()only D all the above
98 With increasing cut off ratios, the efficiency of diesel cycle
A Decreases B increases
C remains constant D can either increase or decrease
99 For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle
A is equal to that of Otto cycle B is more that of Otto cycle
C is less than that of Otto cycle D cannot be predicted
A Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel
cycle for the same compression ratio
B Diesel cycle is more efficient than Dual
cycle for the same compression ratio
C The efficiency of diesel cycle decreases
with decrease in cut off ratio
D Diesel cycle consists of two constant
volume and two adiabatic processes
101 Dual cycle consist of
A two adiabatic, one constant volume and
two constant pressure processes
B two isothermals, one constant pressure
and two constant volume processes
C two adiabatic, one isothermal, one
constant volume and one constant
pressure process
D
two adiabatic, one constant pressure
and two constant volume processes
102 The compression ratio of diesel engines normally falls in the range of
A 30 to 40 B 4 to 7
C 15 to 20 D 2 to 5
103 Mean effective pressure is defined as work done per cycle divided by
A clearance volume B swept volume
C total volume D none of the above
104 For the same maximum pressure and maximum temperature, thermal efficiency of Diesel
cycle is
A higher than that of Otto cycle B less than that of Otto cycle
C equal to Otto cycle D none of the above
105 The efficiency of dual cycle as compared to the efficiency of the Diesel cycle for the same
compression ratio is
A less B more
C equal D may be less or more
106 Brayton cycle consists of
A two constant volume and two constant
pressure processes
B two constant volume and two
isothermal processes
C two constant pressure and two adiabatic
processes
D two isothermal and two adiabatic
processes
107 For the same compression ratio, the Brayton cycle efficiency is
A equal to Otto cycle efficiency B equal to Diesel cycle efficiency
C more to Otto cycle efficiency D less than Otto cycle efficiency
108 Thermal efficiency of Brayton cycle depends upon
A pressure ratio (rp) only B adiabatic index ( ) only
109 For the same pressure ratio, with increase in turbine inlet temperature the thermal efficiency
of gas turbine plant.
A decreases B increases
C may increase or decrease D none of the above
110 The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be increased by
A reheating only B regeneration only
C intercooling only D none of the above
111 In gas turbine power plant the regenerative heat exchangers are of
A parallel flow type B counter flow type
C cross flow type D none of the above

1.
An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures of 27C and -13C. The rates of
heat addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W, respectively. The COP for the heat
pump is
A 7.5 B 6.5
C 4.0 D 3.0
2.
For air with a relative humidity of 80%
A The dry bulb temperature is less than the
wet bulb temperature
B The dew point temperature is less than
wet bulb temperature
C The dew point and web bulb temperature
are equal
D The dry bulb and dew point temperature
are equal
3.
A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the temperature
limits of -20C and 40C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated vapour and leaves as
saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid and vapour at these
temperatures are given in the table below.
TC h
f
(kJ/kg) h
g
(kJ/kg) S
f
(kJ/kg K) S
g
(kJ/kg K)
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
If refrigerant circulation rate is 0.025 kg/s, the refrigeration effect is
A 2.1 kW B 2.5 kW
C 3.0 kW D 4.0 kW
4.
A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the temperature
limits of -20C and 40C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated vapour and leaves as
saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid and vapour at these
temperatures are given in the table below.
TC h
f
(kJ/kg) h
g
(kJ/kg) S
f
(kJ/kg K) S
g
(kJ/kg K)
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
The COP of the refrigerator is
A 2.0 B 2.33
C 5.0 D 6.0
5.
In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
A Capillary tube B Thermostatic expansion valve
C Automatic expansion valve D Float valve
6.
During the chemical dehumidification process of air
A Dry bulb temperature and specific
humidity decrease
B Dry bulb temperature increases and
specific humidity decreases
C Dry bulb temperature decreases and
specific humidity increases
D Dry bulb temperature and specific
humidity increases
7.
Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its
chemical formula is
A CH CI F
2
B C
2
CI
3
F
3

C C
2
CI
2
F
4
D C
2
H
2
F
4

8.
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator having a coefficient of
performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for
each kJ of energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine is
A 0.14 kJ B 0.71 kJ
C 3.5 kJ D 7.1 kJ
9.
Dew point temperature of air at one atmospheric pressure (1.013 bar) is 18C. The air dry bulb
temperature is 30C. The saturation pressure of water at 18C and 30C are 0.02062 bar and
0.04241 bar respectively. The specific heat of air and water vapour respectively are 1.005 and
1.88 kJ/kg K and the latent heat of vaporization water of 0C is 2500 kJ/kg. The specific humidity
(kg/kg of dry air) and enthalpy (kJ/kg of dry air) of this moist air respectively, are
A 0.01051, 52.64 B 0.01291, 63.15
C 0.01481, 78.60 D 0.01532, 81.40
10.
For a typical sample of ambient air (at 30C, 75% relative humidity and standard atmospheric
pressure), the amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be approximately
A 0.002 B 0.027
C 0.25 D 0.75
11.
Water at 42C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of
40C and a wet bulb temperature of 20C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated.
Which of the following statements is true?
A Air gets cooled and humidified B Air gets heated and humidified
C Air gets heated and dehumidified D Air gets cooled and dehumidified
12.
Dew point temperature is the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled
at constant
A Volume B Entropy
C Pressure D enthalpy
13.
Which of the following statements concern to Psychrometric chart are correct?
1. Constant relative humidity lines are uphill straight lines to the right
2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill straight lines to the right
3. Constant specific volume lines are downhill straight lines to the right
4. Constant enthalpy lines are coincident with constant web bulb temperature line
A 2 and 3 B 1 and 2
C 1 and 3 D 2 and 4
14.
A building has to be maintained at 21C (dry bulb) and 14.5C (wet bulb). The dew point
temperature under these conditions is 10.17C. The outside temperature is -23C (dry bulb) and
the internal and external surface heat transfer coefficients are 8 W/m
2
K and 23 W/m
2
K
respectively. If the building wall has a thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK, the minimum
thickness (in m) of the wall required to prevent condensation is
A 0.471 B 0.407
C 0.321 D 0.125
15.
Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s (on dry basis) enters a cooling and dehumidifying coil
with an enthalpy of 85 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of 19 grams/kg of dry air. The air
leaves the coil with an enthalpy of 43 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of 8 grams/kg of dry
air. If the condensate water leaves the coil with an enthalpy of 67 kJ/kg, the required cooling
capacity of the coil in kW is
A 75.0 B 123.8
C 128.2 D 159.0
16.
Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled to 35C in an after
cooler. The air at the entry to the after cooler is unsaturated and becomes just saturated at the
exit of the after cooler. The saturation pressure of water at 35C is 5.628 kPa. The partial
pressure of water vapour (in kPa) in the moist air entering the compressor is closest to
A 0.57 B 1.13
C 2.26 D 4.52
17.
Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry bulb temperature of 40C and web bulb temperature of
20C is humidified in an air washer operating with continuous water recirculation. The wet bulb
depression (i.e. the difference between the dry and wet bulb temperature) at the exit is 25% of
that at the inlet. The dry bulb temperature at the exit of the air washer is closest to
A 10C B 20C
C 25C D 30C
18.
In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy of refrigerant (in kJ/kg)
at the following states is given as:
Inlet of condenser: 283
Exit of condenser: 116
Exit of evaporator: 232
The COP of this cycle is
A 2.27 B 2.75
C 3.27 D 3.75
19.
A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30C and specific humidity of 11.5 g water
vapour per kg dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93. If saturation vapour pressure of
water at 30C is 4.24 kPa and the total pressure is 90 kPa, then the relative humidity (in %) of air
sample is
A 50.5 B 38.5
C 56.5 D 68.5
20.
The cooling effect in refrigeration is obtained by
1. Mechanical refrigeration technique
2. Passing direct current through junction of two dissimilar metals
3. Sublimation of carbon dioxide
4. Throttling of a real gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 2 B 1, 3 and 4
C 1, 2 and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4
21.
The throttling of certain gases may be used for getting the refrigerant effects. For such a
throttling process, the value of joule-Thomson coefficient () is
A () = 0 B () = 1
C () < 1 D () > 1
22.
Thermoelectric refrigeration system is based on
A Peltier effect B Joule effect
C Joule-Thomson throttling D Adiabatic demagnetization
23.
The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working on Carnot cycle is
Where T
1
and T
2
are the highest and lowest operating temperature in the cycle
A
T

T

B
T

T

C
T
T

T

D
T
T

T

24.
The COP of a Carnot refrigeration cycle decreases on
A Decreasing the difference in operating
temperature
B Keeping the upper temperature constant
and increasing the lower temperature
C Increasing the upper temperature and
keeping the lower temperature constant
D Increasing the upper temperature and
decreasing the lower temperature
25.
For the same operating temperature limits, the coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat
pump equals
A COP of refrigerator B 1 + (COP of refrigerator)
C
(COP of refrigerator) - 1
D
1
(COP of refrigerator)

26.
The capacity of refrigerating machine is expressed as
A Inside volume of cabinet B Lowest temperature attained
C
Gross weight of machine in tons
D Rate of abstraction of heat from the space
being cooled
27.
One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to
A 1 kW B 2.5 kW
C 3.5 kW D 5 kW
28.
The domestic refrigerator has a refrigerating load of the order of
A Less than 0.25 ton B Between 0.5 to 1 ton
C More than 1 ton D More than 5 ton
29.
Round the clock cooling of an apartment having a load of 300 MJ/ day requires an air-
conditioning plant of capacity about
A 1 ton B 5 tons
C 10 tons D 25 tons
30.
In a one ton capacity water cooler, water enters at 30C at the rate of 200 liters per hour.
Taking specific heat of water as 4.16 kJ/kg K, the outlet temperature of water will be
A 3.5C B 6.3C
C 23.7C D 15C
31.
An ideal refrigerator is operating between a condenser temperature of 37C and an evaporator
temperature of -3C. If the machine is functioning as a heat pump, its coefficient of
performance will be
A 6.00 B 6.75
C 7.00 D 7.75
32.
A refrigerator based on reversed Carnot cycle works between two such temperatures that the
ratio between the lowest and highest temperature is 0.8. If a heat pump is operated between
same temperature range, then what would be its COP?
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
33.
A refrigerator operates between the temperatures of - 23C and 27C. If one TR = 3.5 kW, the
minimum power required per TR to operate the refrigerator is
A 0.5 kW B 0.7 kW
C 0.9 kW D 1.0 kW
34.
A Carnot refrigerator rejects 3000 kJ of heat at 400 K while using 1000 kJ of work. The lowest
operating temperature in the cycle should be about
A 15C B 27C
C -6C D 0C
35.
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator having a coefficient of
performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for
each kJ of energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine is
A 0.14 kJ B 0.71 kJ
C 3.5 kJ D 7.1 kJ
36.
A heat pump is used to heat a house in winter and then reversed to cool the house in summer.
The inside temperature of the house is to be maintained 20C. The heat transfer through the
house wall is 7.9 kJ/s and the temperature in winter is 5C. What is the minimum power
(approximate) required to drive the pump?
A 40.5 W B 405 W
C 42.5 W D 425 W
37.
The operating temperature of a cold storage is -2C. From the surroundings at ambient
temperature of 40C, the heat leakage into the cold storage is 30 kW. If the actual COP of the
plant is 1/10 th of the maximum possible COP, then what will be the power required to pump
out the heat to maintain the cold storage at -2C
A 1.90 kW B 3.70 kW
C 20.28 kW D 46.50 kW
38.
A reversible heat engine operates between temperature limits of T
1
and T
2
where T
1
> T
2
. The
work output from this engine is utilized to operate a reversible refrigerator that absorbs heat
from a system at T
3
and rejects the heat to the system at temperature T
2
. The coefficient of
performance of this combined system would be
A
T

B
T

C
T

D
T

39.
The refrigerating system of passenger aircraft works on reversed
A Brayton cycle B Atkinson cycle
C Ericsson cycle D Carnot cycle
40.
Air refrigeration cycle is generally employed in
A Domestic refrigerators B Commercial refrigerators
C Air-conditioning D Gas liquefaction
41.
Which aspect is not true in the context of a refrigerating machine working on Bell-Coleman
cycle?
A Low coefficient of performance B Simplicity of design and operation
C High power consumption per ton of
refrigeration
D
Large amount of air circulation per minute
42. The primary purpose of Boot-strap system is to
A Improve coefficient of performance B Reduce the weight of the machine
C Reduce power required to run the
machine
D
Provide additional cooling
43.
Which is the most suitable type of air-refrigeration system for supersonic planes with Mach
number 3 or above?
A Boot-strap B Simple evaporative
C Regenerative D Boot-strap evaporative
44.
The flash chamber in a single stage simple vapour compression cycle serves to
A Increase the refrigerating effect B Decrease the refrigerating effect
C Increase the compressor pressure ratio D Reduce the size of evaporator
45.
In a refrigeration system, expansion valve is incorporated between
A Evaporator and compressor B Condenser and evaporator
C Compressor and condenser D Superheater and subcooler
46.
A capillary tube is used in a small refrigerator to serve the purpose of
A Thermostat B Expansion valve
C Drier D Evaporator
47.
The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is carried out in
A Evaporator B Discharge valve
C Capillary tube D Condenser
48.
During which component of vapour compression refrigeration system, the enthalpy remains
constant?
A Condenser B Throttle valve
C evaporator D Compressor
49.
The pressure in a capillary tube decreases due to which of the followings:
1. Frictional resistance offered by the tube wall
2. Acceleration of refrigerant in the tube
3. Heat transfer from the tube
4. Decrease in potential energy
Select your answer from the following code:
A 1 and 2 B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4 D 1 and 4
50.
In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to which component the working fluid
is superheated vapour?
A Evaporator B Condenser
C Compressor D Expansion valve
51.
For small installation of refrigeration systems (up to 35 kW), which type of condenser is used?
A Shell and tube type B Shell and coil type
C Double tube type D Air cooled type
52.
Which of the following type of compressor is generally used in domestic refrigerator
A Axial B Centrifugal
C Reciprocating D Rotating screw
53.
In a hermetically sealed compressor unit,
A Both the motor and compressor are
sealed
B
Only compressor is sealed
C Only motor is sealed D Either motor or compressor is sealed
54.
In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the refrigerant before entering the expansion
device or throttle valve is in the form of
A Wet vapour at low pressure B Wet vapour at high pressure
C High pressure saturated liquid D Low pressure saturated liquid
55.
What is the state of refrigerant before and after the expansion valve in a vapour compression
system?
A Saturated liquid; very wet vapour B Very wet vapour; fairly dry vapour
C Superheated vapour; saturated liquid D Fairly dry vapour; superheated vapour
56.
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of vapour compresson refrigeration
cycle?
A The refrigerant occurs as high pressure
saturated liquid between the condenser
and expansion valve
B
The refrigerant is generally in the form of
wet vapour in the evaporator
C
The refrigerant occurs as high pressure
liquid in the condenser
D The high temperature of refrigerant
occurs when the vapour leaves the
throttle valve
57.
In a domestic refrigerator, periodic defrosting required because frosting
A Causes corrosion of materials B Reduces heat extraction
C Overcools food stuff D Partially blocks refrigerant flow
58.
In a vapour compression refrigeration system, liquid to suction heat exchanger is used to
A
Keep the COP constant
B Prevent the liquid refrigerant from
entering the compressor
C Subcool the liquid refrigerant leaving
condenser
D Subcool the vapour refrigerant from the
evaporator
59.
Subcooling in the condenser of a refrigeration system is advisable when
1. Expansion valve is at a higher elevation than condenser
2. There is large pressure drop in the line connecting condenser to the expansion valve
3. The refrigeration effect is to increased
4. The compressor work is to be reduced
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2 B 1, 3 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4 D 1, 2 and 3
60.
In a vapour compression refrigeration plant, the enthalpy values at different points are:
1. At exit of evaporator = 350 kJ/kg
2. At exit from compressor = 375 kJ/kg
3. At exit from condenser = 225 kJ/kg
The refrigerating efficiency of the plant is 0.8. What is the power required per kW of cooling to
be produced?
A 0.25 kW B 4.0 kW
C 12.5 kW D 11 kW
61.
In a vapour absorption refrigerator, heat is rejected in
A Condenser only B Generator only
C Absorber only D Condenser and absorber
62.
The most common type of absorption system in use in industrial applications is based on the
refrigerant absorbent combination of
A Air-water B Lithium bromide-air
C Carbon dioxide-water D Ammonia-water
63.
Solar energy can be directly used in
A Air refrigeration system B Jet refrigeration system
C Vapour compression refrigeration system D Vapour absorption refrigeration system
64.
Consider the following statements in respect of absorption refrigeration and vapour
compression refrigeration systems:
1. The former runs on low grade energy
2. The pumping work in the former is negligible since specific volume of strong liquid
solution in small
3. The latter uses an absorber while the former uses a generator
4. The liquid pump alone replaces compressor of the latter
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4
65.
Maximum possible COP of a solar absorption refrigeration system with a generator
temperature of 360 K, condenser and absorber temperature of 300 K each and evaporator
temperature of 270 K is
A 9 B 6
C 3 D 1.5
66. Global warming is caused by
A Ozone B Carbon dioxide
C nitrogen D Carbon monoxide
67.
Environmental protection agencies advise against the use of chloro-fluro carbon refrigerants
because these react with
A Water vapour and cause acid rain B Plants and cause green house effect
C Oxygen and cause its depletion D Ozone layer and cause its depletion
68.
In conventional refrigerants, what is the element responsible for ozone depletion?
A Chlorine B Fluorine
C Carbon D Hydrogen
69.
Ozone depletion by CFC occurs by break down of
A Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
radiation and reaction with ozone into
troposphere
B Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
radiation and reaction with ozone in
troposphere
C Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
stratosphere
D Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
stratosphere
70.
Which is an azeotrope?
A A non-halogenic refrigerant B A refrigerant dissolved in alcohol
C A mixture of refrigerants without phase
separation
D
An eco-friendly refrigerant
71.
Environment friendly refrigerant R22 is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its
chemical formula is
A CHCIF
2
B C
2
CI
3
F
3

C C
2
CI
2
F
4
D C
2
H
2
F
4

72.
The leaks in refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
A A halide torch which on detection
produces greenish flame lighting
B Suphur sticks which on detection given
white smoke
C Using reagents D Sensing reduction in pressure
73. Heat is picked up by the refrigerant during a refrigeration cycle in the
A evaporator B condenser
C compressor D none of the above
74. The device which operates on reversed heat engine cycle is called
A heat pump only B refrigeration only
75. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A Subcooling of the liquid refrigerant in
vapour compression refrigeration system
decreases C.O.P.
B
With decreasing evaporator pressures, the
C.O.P. of the refrigeration system increases
C
With increases in condensing
temperature, the performance of
refrigeration system is affected adversely.
D Superheating of vapour before entry to
the compressor in a vapour compression
refrigeration system decreases the work
of compression
76. Air refrigeration system operates on
A reversed Carnot cycle B reversed Brayton cycle
C reversed Otto cycle D none of the above
77. The condenser in the vapour compression refrigerator system removes from the refrigerant
A sensible heat only B latent heat only
C both latent and sensible heat D neither latent nor sensible heat
78. Which of the following statements is correct?
A the evaporator is sometime called the
high side of the system
B the evaporator is a device to reject heat
from the refrigeration system
C the temperature of the medium being
cooled must be below that of the
evaporator
D the evaporator is that part of the
refrigeration system in which refrigerant
absorbs heat
79. C.O.P. of carnot heat pump is
A
2 1
1
T T
T

B
2 1
2
T T
T

C
1
2 1
T
T T

D
2
1
T
T

80. A refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The higher temperature of the
refrigerant in the system is 300 K and the lower temperature 250 K. The C.O.P. of the cycle is
A 0.4 B 1.25
C 6 D 5
81. Compare the compressor displacement to produce 15C temperature for the following four
common types of refrigerants. Identify them in ascending order.
A R-22, R-134a, NH
3
, R-11 B NH
3
, R-22, R-134a, R-11
C NH
3
, R-22, R-11, R 134a D NH
3
, R-11, R-134a, R-22
82. When the liquid refrigerant leaving the condenser in the vapour compression refrigeration
system is subcooled, the refrigerating effect.
C remains constant D first increases and then decreases
83. Ice plant and air conditioner both use the same refrigerant and have water cooled condensers.
The C.O.P. of the ice plant will be
A the same as that of the air conditioner B higher than that of the air conditioner
C lower than that of the air conditioner D none of the above
84. The refrigerant used in a household refrigerator working on vapour compression system is
A Ammonia B Freon 134a
C Carbon Dioxide D none of the above
85. As the suction pressure in a simple refrigeration cycle decreases, the C.O.P.
A remain unchanged B decreases
C increases D may increases or decreases
86. With the increase in discharge pressure in a simple refrigeration cycle, C.O.P.
A decreases B increases
C remains constant D none of the above
87. In a simple saturated vapour compression cycle, the state of the refrigerant before entering the
expansion device is
A dry saturated vapour B subcooled liquid
C partly liquid and partly vapour D saturated liquid
88. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle the highest pressure occurs in
A Condenser B Evaporator
C Throttle valve D none of the above

A Free vibrations B Forced Vibrations
C Periodically forced vibrations D Free vibrations with viscous damping
A equal to 1 B below 2
C above 2 D less than 1
A minimum B maximum
C corresponding to natural frequency D zero
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 0
A Increases linearly B increases exponentially
C Decreases linearly D decreases exponentially
A equal to 1 B below 2
C above 2 D less than 1
A Critical damping B damping co-efficient
C Transmissibility D Logarithmic decrement
A Inertia force B impressed force
C infinity D spring force
A logarithmic decrement B damping factor
C logarithmic decrement D magnification factor
A magnification factor B damping factor
C logarithmic decrement D transmissibility
A unity B 2
C >2 D <2
A displacement B velocity
C acceleration D vibrations
A P B
P
2
C
1 / P
2
D
1 / P
3
A Is standard tooth B Is longer than standard tooth
C Is shorter than standard tooth D Has special profile
Backlash is spur gears is the
13
Rated life of a ball bearing in relation to load (P) varies as
14
Stub tooth in gears
11
In vibration isolation systems, transmissibility is unity for all values of damping factor, if /n is equal to
12
In a damped vibration system, the damping force is proportional to
4
A shaft carrying two rotors at ends will have following number of nods
9
The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibrations to the deflection due to the static force
is called
10
The ratio of actual damping co-efficient to the critical damping co-efficient is called
7
The rate of decay of oscillations is known as
8
In forced vibrations the magnitude of damping force at resonance equals
The equation mx + kx = 0 represents
1
2
In vibration isolation systems, the transmissibility that is ratio of force transmitted to the disturbing force
will be less than unity, for all values of damping factors if is
5
In under damped vibrating system the amplitude of vibration with reference to time
6
In vibration isolation systems, the transmissibility that is ratio of force transmitted to the disturbing force
will be less than unity, for all values of damping factors if is
3
At a node of the shaft, the vibrations are
A
Difference between the dedendum of one
gear and the addendum of the mating
gear
B
Difference between the tooth space of one gear
and the tooth thickness of the mating gear
measured on the pitch circle
C
Intentional extension of centre distance
between two gears
D Does not (B) (C) (D)
A Cycloidal B involute
C hypoid D all of the above
A tensile stress B compressive stress in bending
C contact stress D endurance stress
A pressure angle is constant B face and flank of a tooth form a continuous curve
C
all gears having the same pitch and
pressure angle work correctly together
D all of the above
A
right angled bevel gears having same
number of teeth
B spur gears of equal diameter and pitch
C helical gears of same module D gears of different module
A weaker B stronger
C have no effect as regards strength D increase wear
A involute B cycloidal
C epicycloid D hypocycloid
A
are non-parallel and non-intersecting, and
the teeth are carved
B
are non-parallel and non-intersecting, and the
teeth are straight
C
intersect, and the teeth are curved and
oblique
D
intersect, and the teeth are curved and can be
ground
A tan
-1
2 B tan
-1
0.5
C sin
-1
0.5 D sin
-1
2.0
A In volute B cycloidal
C hypocycloid D any one of the above
A 3/3+v (v-pitch line velocity) B 6/6+v
C 9/9+v D none of the above
A gear B pinion
C any one of the two D
both should be considered independently for
tooth strength
A Coefficient of elasticity B Elastic strength
C Brinell hardness number D Yield strength
28
The initial contact in helical gears is
26
If both pinion and gear are made of the same material, then the load transmitting capacity is decided by
27
Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent on its
16
In which type of teeth, variation in centre distance within limits does not affect the velocity ratio of the
mating gears
25
For accurately cut gears operating at velocities upto 20 m/sec, the velocity factor is equal to
23
If the number of teeth on two bevel gears in mesh is 30 and 60, then the come pitch angle of the pinion
will be
24
The type of tooth profile used for gears in watches and clocks is
21
Interference is inherently absent in following type of gears
22
In skew bevel gears, the axes
19
Miter gears are
20
Larger pressure angles in comparison to smaller pressure angles make the gear
17
35. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the
18
Involute profiles in gears are very popular because of the following advantage
15
A point B line
C surface D unpredictable
A pedestal bearing B collar bearing
C full journal bearing D needle bearing
A sleeve bearing B gas lubricated bearings
C ball and roller bearings D plastic bearings
A ball and roller bearings B pivot bearing
C split carbon bearings D plummer block
A oil pressure B bearing metal temperature
C drain oil temperature D all of the above
A ball B outer race
C inner race D all are made equally hard
A ball bearing B partial journal bearing
C roller bearing D needle bearing
A Spur gear B spiral gear
C bevel gear D worm gear
A diametral pitch B (C) One module
C 1.25 modules D none of the above
A pitch B circular pitch
C diametral pitch D module
A Inner circle B prime circle
C base circle D addendum circle
A Obtaining rotation in desired direction B Reducing the size of the individual gear
C
Bridging the gap between the first and last
wheels of the train
D Any one of the above
A Teeth should be of involute type B
Clearance between mating teeth should be
provided
C Dedendum should be equal to 1.157 m D none of the above
A parallel B non-intersecting
C non-coplaner D none of the above
A
Hammer blow, variation of tractive effort,
swaying couple
B Least wear
C Most smooth operation D Better performance of engine
A External source B
Partially external and partially from rotation of
journal
C Not supplied by external source D Shaft driven pump
40
According to law of gearing
41
Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are
42
36
Addendum is given by
37
The ratio of the number of teeth and pitch circle diameter is called
39
Intermediate gears
34
Railroad car baring is a
35
To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting,
use
32
Which of the following parameters should be monitored for determining safe operation of journal
bearing?
33
In case of ball bearings, which part is made harder than others
30
Anti-friction bearings are
31
Which of the following is called the divided journal bearings
28
29
Which of the following is antifriction bearing
38
The circle passing through the bottom of the teeth of gear is known as
Partial balancing in locomotive results in
43
In hydrostatic bearing, pressure to lubricant is supplied by
A Primary distributing force B secondary distributing force
C partial balancing D use of two cylinders
A
The side pressure between the flanges of
the tyres of the wheel and the inside of
the rails
B Cylinders
C Dead weight on the wheels D Balancing weight in the wheels
A Compound train B simple train
C epicyclic train D complex train
A Mass B stiffness
C mass and stiffness D mass, stiffness and eccentricity
A eccentricity B span of shaft
C diameter of disk D all of the above
A swaying couple B hammer couple
C variation in tractive effort D unbalanced force
A full B half
C one-quarter D two-thirds
A 45 B 90
C 135 D 180
A Directly above the wheel centre B Directly below the wheel centre
C Directly above or below the wheel centre D Perpendicular to wheel vertical plane
A Twice the speed of primary critical speed B half the speed of primary critical speed
C
Tour times the speed of primary critical
speed
D One-fourth the speed of primary critical speed
A The clutch and differential B the steering and engine
C the engine and clutch D the differential and Hooks joint
A Totally eliminates vibrations B provide basis of determining critical damping
C enables measurements of damping D
provides measure of the relatives amount of
damping in system
A 0 B 1
C more than 1 D unpredictable
44
Swaying couple results due to
45
The effect of swaying couple is resisted by
46
Gear box of car utilises
47
The critical speed depends on
48
The factor which affects critical speed depends of shaft is
49
The maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force in line perpendicular to the line of stroke is known as
50
Usually following fraction of reciprocating masses, is balanced in case of reciprocating engines
51
In order to facilitate the starting of the locomotive in any position, the cranks of locomotive with two
cylinders are placed at following angle to each other
52
Hammer blow occurs when the c.g. of the balance weight is
53
The secondary critical speed of shaft occurs at
54
The gear box in automobiles is placed between
55
The usefulness of critical damping is that it
56
For a vibrating system, if the damping factor is unity, then maximum magnification factor will be occurs
for /n value of
A Vibrate above equilibrium position B Immediately return to equilibrium position
C Not cross the equilibrium position D
Return to equilibrium position after 1 to 2
oscillation
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
A Combined loading B fatigue
C thermal stresses D shock loading
A 0.2 B 0.25
C 0.33 D 0.4
A
Variation in properties of material from
point to point in a member
B
Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a
member are applied
C Abrupt change of section D All of the above
A more B less
C same D more or less depending on quantum of load
A Same in both cases B 2 times more
C 3 times more D 4 times more
A electroplating B polishing
C coating D shot peening
A ductile materials B brittle materials
C equally serious in both cases D depends on other factors
A ductile materials B brittle materials
C equally serious in both cases D depends on other factors
A Dynamic loading B static loading
C combine static and dynamic loading D completely reversed loading
A Static load B dynamic load
C completely reversed load D impact load
A straining B fatigue
C creep D sudden loading
A
Is greatly decreased by poor surface
condition
B Remains same irrespective of surface condition
57
An over damped system when disturbed from equilibrium position with an initial velocity will
58
A three rotor system has following number of natural frequencies
59
Guests theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
60
Rankines theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
61
Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to
62
If the longitudinal strain in a material is doubled in comparison to lateral strain, ratio of modulus of
63
Stress concentration is caused due to
64
The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough surface is
65
The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular transverse hole, as compared
to its static stress without hole will be
66
The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
67
Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
68
Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in
69
Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand for a infinite number
of load applications without failure when subjected to
70
In testing of material for endurance strength, it is subjected to
71
If a material fails below its yield point, failures would be due to
72
The fatigue limit of material
C Depends mainly on core composition D Is dependent upon yield strength of material
A same B higher
C lower D none of the above
A Acts when external load is applied B Becomes zero when external load is removed
C Is independent of external loads D Is always be harmful
A Finishing and polishing B shot-peening
C decarburisation D electroplating
A Youngs modulus B coefficient of elasticity
C elastic limit D endurance limit
A
Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to
the each other
B
Has head at one end and other end fits into a
tapped hole in the other part to be joined
C Has both the ends threaded D Is provided with pointed threads
A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
A
Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to
the each other
B
Has head at one end and other end fits into a
tapped hole in the other part to be joined
C Has both the ends threaded D
has pointed threads
A Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter B Load required to produce unit deflection
C Its capability of storing energy D Indication of quality of spring
A Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter B Load required to produce unit deflection
C Its capability of storing energy D
Its ability to absorb shocks
A K B K/2
C 2K D K/4
A tension B compression
C shear D all of the above
A half B same
C double D unpredictable
A welding B precasting
C rivetting D casting
A half B same
C double D unpredictable
A ZN/p B p/ZN
C Z/pN D N/Zp
A Directly as load B inversely as square of load
C inversely as cube of load D inversely as fourth power of load
73
Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
74
Residual stress in the materials
75
Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts?
76
Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
77
A bolt
78
Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
79
A stud
80
Spring index is
81
Spring stiffness is
82
When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will be
83
When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
84
If a spring is cut down into two springs the stiffness of cut springs will be
85
Aircraft body is usually fabricated by
86
If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be
87
If p = bearing pressure on projected bearings area, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of
journal, then the bearing characteristic number is given by
88
The rated life of a bearing varies
89
In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer race way
A 5 B 8
C 15 D 25
A Increasing its length B Increasing its shank diameter
C Increasing diameter of threaded portion D Increasing head size
A Yield stress / working stress B tensile stress / working stress
C compressive stress / working stress D bearing stress / working stress
A 0.5 B 0.75
C 1.33333 D 2
A P B Q
C R D S
A 1.2 Ns/m B 3.4 Ns/m
C 8.7 Ns/m D 12.0 Ns/ m
A 0.0531 B 0.9922
C 0.0162 D 0.0028
A 0.223 Ns/m B 17.88 Ns/m
C 71.4 Ns/m D 223.6 Ns/m
A
occures when excitation frequency is
greater than undamped natural frequency
B
occures when excitation frequency is less than
undamped natural frequency
C
occures when excitation frequency is
equal to undamped natural frequency
D never occures
A 10 B 20
C 30 D 40
A w
n
B 0.408 w
n
C 0.204 w
n
D 0.167 w
n
89
90
Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
91
Factors of safety is the ratio of
92
93
A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of
vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibilty
ratio of isolation is
94
There are four samples P, Q, R and S with natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz respectively.
They are mounted on test setup for conducting vibration experiments. If a loud pure note of frequency
144 Hz is produced by some instrument, which of the sample will show the most perceptible induced
vibration?
95
In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 Kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 KN/m. By introducing a
damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90 % of the original value. What is damping
coefficient of the damper?
96
A machine of 250 kg mass is supported on spring of total stiffness 100 KN/m. Machine has an
unbalance rotating force of 350 N at speed of 3600 rpm. Assuming a damping factor of 0.15, the
valuetransmissibilty ratio is
97
A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5 Kg, a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m, and a dashpot with
damping coefficient of 15 Ns/m. The value of critical damping of the system is
98
For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonsnce will
99
A uniform rigid rod of mass 1 Kg and length 1 meter is hinged at its centre and laterally supported at
one end by a spring of stiffness 300 N/m The natural frequnecy in rad /sec is
100
the natural frequnecy of a spring -mass system on earth is w
n
. The natural frequency of this system on
the moon is ( g
moon
= g
earth
/ 6)
A wire rope is designated as 6 x 19 standard hoisting. The numbers 6 x 19 represent
A diameter in millimeter x length in meter diameter in centimeter x length in meter
C
number of strands x number of wires in
each strand
number of wires in each strand x number of
strands
A 4T / ld B
16 T / ld
2
C
8 T / ld
2
D 16 T/ d
3
A 0.2 B 0.25
C 0.3 D 0.35
A 6.6 Nm B 20 Nm
C 40 Nm D 60 Nm
A (K
f
-1) / (K
t
-1) B (K
f
-1) / (K
t
+1)
C (K
t
-1) / (K
f
-1) D (K
f
+1) / (K
t
+1)
A
10
3
cycles
B
10
4
cycles
C
10
6
cycles
D
10
9
cycles
A
Sommerfeld number
B Rating life
C specific dynamic capacity D
rotating factor
A 140 mm B 150 mm
C 280 mm D 300 mm
A 2.4 B 3.4
C 4.8 D 6.8
A 8000 B 6000
C 4000 D 1000
A 0.062 B 0.125
C 0.25 D 0.785
A 0.94 B 0.75
C 0.5 D 0.0625
100
101
102
Square key of side 'd/4' each and length l is used to transmit torque T from the shaft of diameter d to the
hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the thickness of the pulley, the average
shear stress developed in the key is given by
103
In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on the slake side is 3. If the angle of
overlap of band on the drum is 180
0
the coefficient of friction required between drum and the bank is
104
Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and
transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque transmitted by gear is
105
In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (K
t
) and fatique stress concentration factor (K
f
), the
notch sensitivity q is expressed as
106
The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
110
A ball bearing opeating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in hours, when the
load is doubled to 2F is
111
A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20 revolutions/sec
carries a load of 2.0 KN. The lubricant used has viscosity of 20 mPa/s. The radial clearance is 50
micrometer. The Sommerfield number for the bearings is
107
Which of the following is criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?
108
Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19 teeth pinion and 37 teeth gears are in mesh. If the module
is 5 mm, the centre distance between the gear pair will be
109
A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a seatdy load of 15 KN along the weld. The shear
strength of the weld material is equal to 200 Mpa. The factor of safety is
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying
capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is
A toughness B stiffness
C plasticity D hardness
A brittleness B low ductility
C low cimpressive strength D all of these
A normalising B annealing
C tempering D hardeneing
A F=C+P B F=C+P-2
C F=C-P-2 D F=C-P+2
A amorphous B partially crystalline
C fully crystalline D none of these
A nickel B vanadium
C molybdenum D tungsten
A alpha iron B beta iron
C gamma iron D delta iron
A crystal start growing In size B change of allotropic form takes place
C
new spherical crystals first begin to
form, the old deformed ones when a
strained metal is heated
D crystal again begin to appear
A
equillibrium and non equillibrium
conditions respectively
B
non-equillibrium and equillibrium
conditions respectively
C equillibrium both D non-equillibrium both
A slip mechanism B turning mechanism
C disloaction mechanism D fracture mechanism
A wax B clay
C metal D wood
A steel B cast iron
C nickel D copper
A a defect in castings B
rusting of metals when exposed to
moisture
C clean of casting D none of these
A lifter B slick
C draw spike D trowel
13 Hot tear is
14 The tool used for lifting the pattern from the mould is called
1 Ability of material to resist fracture due to high impact load is called
3 Heat treatment process used for castings is
2 Grey casr iron has
12 the most suitable material for die casting is
4 Gibs phase rule is given by
6 the alloying element mainly contribute to improve the endurance strength of steel matreial is
11 investment casting uses pattern made of
7 martensite is a super saturated solution of carbon in
5 Structure of common glass is
9 the iron carbon diagram and the TTT curves are determined under
15 true centrifugal casting is used to get
8 Recryastallisation temperature is one at which
10 In metals subjected to cold working, strain hadrening effect is
A accurate casting B dynamically balanced casting
C statically balanced casting D chilled casting
A make desired recess in castings B strengthen moulding sand
C support loose pieces D remove pattern easily
A machining allowance B contraction allowance
C draft allowance D distoration allowance
A to ensure directional solidification B to provide efficient venting
C for aligning the mold boxes D to support the cores
A fine B medium
C coarse D rounded
A aluminium B cast iron
C steel D copper
A below recrystallistaion temperature B at the recrystallisation temperature
C above recrystallistaion temperature D none of these
A below recrystallistaion temperature B at the recrystallisation temperature
C above recrystallistaion temperature D none of these
A ductility B work hardening
C plasticity D shearing
A draw out material B bend material
C upset material D extrude material
A die only B punch only
C both on die and punch D depends on the material of work piece
A a hollow circular section B T section
C I section D channel section
A wire drawing B babe drawing
C metal cutting D forging
A press load is reduced B good cut edge is obtained
C warping of sheet is minimesd D cut blanks are straight
A the modulus of elasticity B the shear strength of metal
C the bulk modules of metals D the field strength of the metal
A reducing the roll diameter B increasing the roll diameter
C providing back-up rolls D increasing friction
21 Hot working is carried out
20 which one of following material require the largest size of riser for the same size of casting?
18 The main purpose of chaplets is
27 A moving mandrel is used in
22 Cold working is carried out
23 In drawing operation the metal flows due to
30 In the rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by
16 Cores are used to
17 shrink rule is used for providing
25 In blanking operation, the angle of shear is provided on
24 In the forging operation, fullering is done to
29 the cutting force in punching and blanking operations mainely depends on
19 for small and intricate casting the sand grain should be
28 In sheet metal working, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
26 Cold or hot rolling does not produce
A TIG B MIG
C Manual arc welding D SAW
A brazing B soldering
C diffusion D lancing
A continuous spot welding B multi spot welding
C arc welding D thermit welding
A 18-40 volts B 40-95 volts
C 100-125 volts D 130-170 volts
A open air B shielding gas environment
C pressurized inert gas chamber D vaccum
A light B infrared rays
C ultraviolet rays D ultraviolet and infrared rays
A resistance B gas
C fusion D forge
A over head welding B flat welding of lap joints
C edge welding D flat welding of butt joints
A SMAW B Laser beam
C Ultrasonic D MIG
A dc B ac welding with base electrodes
C dc welding with straight polarity D dc welding with base electrodes
A hacksaw blade B milling cutter
C grinding wheel D parting tool
A chip velocity B cutting velocity
C shear velocity D feed
A ram B table
C knee D cross slide
A supporting the bed B hloding very long and heavy job
C external taper turning D performing the kurnling operation
A cylindrical B spherical
C surface D centreless
A EDM B ECM
31 Which one of the following welding process uses non-consumable electordes
32 The process of joining metal sheet by means of a fusible alloy or metal applied in the molten
33 Seam welding is ____________________ process
35 Electron beam welding can be carried out in
42 The velocity of the tool relative to work piece is the
43 which of the following is not a part of shaper
34 Open circuit voltage for arc welding is of the order of
41 Which one of the following is a single point cutting tool?
37 Thermit welding is form of
44 A steady rest is the lathe unit that is used for
45 Grinding process used for steel balls of a ball bearing is
46 Identify the machining method which uses abrasive slurry
36 In arc welding, eyes needed to protected against
38 In arc welding, DC reverse polarity is used to bear greater advantage in
39 which one of welding process consists of minimum heat affected zone?
40 Arc blow is more common in
C USM D LBM
A corrosion B erosion
C fusion D ion displacement
A left hand type B right hand type
C any one of the above two D
depends on the cutting angles and tool
material
A nose part and top face B cutting edges
C
nose part, front relief face and side relief
face
D
face of the cutting tool at a short distance
from the cutting edge
A milling B shaping with rack cutter
C shaping with piston cutter D hobbing
A drilling B tapping
C boring D counter boring
A cutting speed B tool geometry
C feed and depth D microstructure of workpiece
A drilling and reaming B spotfacing and tapping
C counter boring and countersinking D all of these
A stainless steel B tunsten carbide
C diamond D brass
A threads B bores
C grooves D stpes on prismatic bars
A shearing B compression
C shearing and compression D shearing and extrusion
A aluminium B alloy steel
C low carbon steel D brass
A 5 B 6
C 8 D 10
A increasing rake angle B increasing cutting angle
C widening the nose radius D increasing clearance angle
A aluminium oxide B silicon carbide
C cubic boron nitride D maganese oxide
A roughness B flatness
51 Reaming is one of the operations that needs to be done on a job. Which of the following
61 Autocollimator is used to check
49 Flank wear occurs mainly on
47 In ECM, metal removal rate is due to
54 In EDM, tool is made of
52 Tool life is most affected by
53 Drill jigs are used to hold the workpiece when
50 Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by
48 For turning mild steel, type of tool used is
56 Removal of metal in drilling operation is by
57 No cutting fluid is normally used while machining
55 Which one of the following machine operations is carried out by employing gang milling?
58 In ASA system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2, the side rack angle will be
60 Which one of following is not used as abrasive material in grinding wheel?
59 cutting power consumption in turning can be significantly reduced by
C angle D automobile balance
A circles B squares
C zig-zag lines D triangles
A Calibration errors B Environmental error
C Avoidable error D Random error
A combination set B slip gauge
C heighe gauge D micrometer screw guage
A unilateral form B bilateral form
C both way D none of these
A producing high pressure B dead load measurement
C testing the magnitude of dead load D
calibration pressure measuring
instruments
A displacement B angular velocity
C acceleration D vibration amlitude
A vaccum B rotational speed
C torque D flow of liquids
A assembling B sliding
C adhesion D wringing
A direct relationship B linear relationship
C inverse relationship D none of these
A U-tube manometer B single column manometer
C compound U-tube manometer D draft guage
A cm of water B pascal
C torr D micron
A discharge through a river B diameter of fine particles
C the acidity of solution D vaccum pressure
A bevel protector B straight edge
C sine bar D combination set
A static strain only B dynamic strain only
C static and dynamic strain D static and quasi-static strain
A cylindrical B spherical
C elliptical D circular
64 The diameter of finigh turned shaft can best be checked with a
65 Tolerance are basically specified in
62 The surface roughness on a drawing is represented by
63 Which of the following are not controllable errors?
66 A dead weight tester is used for
67 Tachometers are used to measure
71 Small pressure changes in low velocity gas flows can be measured accurately by
68 A rotameter is used to measure
70 Sensitivity and range of measuring instrument have
72 High vaccum pressure is most commonly expressed in
73 A Mcleod guage is used for
76 What should be the shape of an ideal thermometer bulb?
75 Mechanical strain gauge can measure
69 The two slip gauge in precision measurement are joined by
74 Mark odd one out
A outside diameter but not roundness B roundness but not outside diameter
C both outside diameter and roundenes D only external threads
A G7h6 B F7h6
C H7h6 D F7j6
A has no end contractions B must have an inclined angle of 90
C
is more accurate than rectangular notch
for low discharge
D
is more accurate than rectangular notch
for all flow rates
A talysurf B tool maker microscope
C optical projector D gear tooth vernier
A Standard Code B Preparatory Code
C Machine Code D Auxillary code
A imitates human motion B is same fpr all robots
C is not dependant on robot structure D none of these
A Project evaluation and review technique B
Process evaluation and reporting
technique
C
Planning evaluation and reporting
technique
D
Planning estimation and review
techniques
A process layout B product layout
C fixed position D hybrid layout
A Material Recording Point B Material Reordering Planning
C Material Requirement Planning D Material Requirement Programme
A Quality control B Process planning
C operator training D Product design
A job analysis B Production schedule
C inventory control D simulation
A method study B motion study
C process analysis D collection of statistical data
A flexible manufacturing B robots
C computer graphics workstation D numerical control machine
A amplifier B actuators
C sensors D all of these
A personal allowance B work allowance
81 In CNC programming Code G means
85 MRP indicates
82 Robot motion
83 PERT stands for
86 Which one of following steps would lead to interchangeability?
87 ABC analysis is used in
84 All machines and equipment are grouped together at one location according to their functions
89 A device, which does the general population associate most with automation is
88 SIMO charts are associated with
90 Components of a control system may include
91 The individual human variability in time studies to determine the production standards is
77 A ring guage is used to measure
78 Which one of the following tolerances set on inner diameter and out diameter respectively of
79 A triangular notch
80 Which of the following devices is used for precise measurements of all the thread
C rating factor D none of these
A product layout B job shop layout
C fixed position layout D cellular layout
A man power B machines
C material D time
A Sales forecasting B Inventory control
C Waiting time D Production schedule
A total cost of setting up machines B ordering cost of raw material
C maintenance cost of machines D cost of pressing the work piece
A synchronous motors B induction motor
C stepper motor D servo mototr
A reduce production cost B satify more customer
C
balance low demand high capacity
situation
D improve capacity utilization
A delphi B brain stroming
C morphological analysis D direct expert comparision
A precedence relationship B necessary delay time
C resource restriction D resource idleness
A its one corner B its center
C middle of any side D none of these
92 The type of layout suitable for use of the concept, principles and approaches of group
97 The reason for diversification in an industry is to
95 Setup costs do not include
94 Queing theory is associated with
93 CPM consider the trade between cost and
100 In the graphical method of linear programming problem, the optimum solution would be lie in
99 A dummy activity is used in PERT network to
98 The value engineering technique in which experts of the same rank assemble for product
96 Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by
Question
A zero B one
C two D dpend upon the geometry of system
A herringbone B spur
C bevel D worm wheel
A lower pair B higher pair
C spherical pair D cylindrical pair
A velocity B displacement
C rate of change of velocity D none of above
A more B less
C same D depending on the mass of spring
A potential energy B kinetic energy
C electrical energy D chemical energy
A Locomotive boiler B Lancashire boiler
C Cornish boiler D Babcock and Wilcox boiler
A Low humidity B Fine weather
C Low humudity D High humidity
A Increases B decreases
C remains constant D
may increase/decrease depending on
pressure acting on the surfaces
A Carnot B Otto
C Diesel D Joule
A 1.315 B 1
C 1.27 D 1.41
A newton meter B watt
C joule D kg.m/sec
A energy B mass
C mometum D angle
A weight of press is 20 tonnes B
press can handle works weighing upto 20
tonnes
C it can exert pressure upto 20 tonnes D
its foundation should be designed for 20
tonnes
15
The units of moment of inertia of an area is
13
Which of the following is a vector quantity ?
14
A 20 tonne press implies that the
11
The isentropic expansion of superheated steam is fairly represented by pv^n = constant,
12
The unit of power in S.I. units is
10
Which of the following cycle is used as the basis for analysis of gas turbine operation
7
Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?
8
In rainy season, desert coolers become ineffetive because of
Description
1
The number of degrees of fredom in a continuous system would be
2
The type of gear used for speed reduction of 50:1 will be
5 The natural frequency of a spring mass system when the mass of spring is also considered,
6
The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
3
Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following typeof pair
4
In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
9
The coefficient of friction at higher velocities, with increase in velocity
A kg.m^2 B m^4
C m^3 D kg/m^2
A area of contact B shape of surfaces
C strength of surfaces D nature of surface
A same B more
C less D has no corelation
A work B moment
C power D momentum
A rate of doing work B capacity of doing work
C power of doing work D none of the above
A force X velocity B force X time
C force X distance D mass X acceleration
A displacement B velocity
C acceleration D impressed force
A rate of change of velocity B displacement
C velocity D direction
A resilience B proof resilience
C modulus of resilience D toughness
A horizontal axis B vertical axis
C bottom most axis D central axis
A ultimate load B proof load
C bending load D maximum safe load
A creep B fatigue
C edurance D plastic deformation
A ferrite B pearlite
C austenite D ferrite and cementite
A malleability B ductility
C surface finish D damping characteristics
A nodular iron B malleable iron
C spheroidal iron D grey iron
A same B half
C two times D four times
29
Annealing of white cast iron results in production of
30
The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied
27
Pure iron is the structure of
28
The unique property of cast iron is its high
25
The load taken by a laminated spring to make it flat is called
26
Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
23
The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
24
Moment of inertia of an area will be least w.r.t.
21
Rate of change of momentum is proportional to the
22
In simple harmonic motion, acceleration of a particle is proportional to
19
Power is defined as
20
Work is equal to
17
Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
18
The product of mass and velocity is known as
15
16
The coefficient of friction depends on
A ductility B toughness
C resilience D plasticity
A Poisson's ratio B Young's modulus
C modulus of rigidity D bulk modulus
A bending moment B deflection
C shear stress D shear strain
A rubber B plastic
C glass D steel
A French B American
C British D Japanese
A mass and force B momentum
C head and quantity D gravitational force
A permit smallest power house B encounter minimum vibrations
C have high efficiency D have simple structure
A axis of load B perpendicular to axis of load
C minimum cross-section D least radius of gyration
A decrease B increase
C remains same D there is no such corelation
A plasticity B ductility
C elasticity D drawability
A opaque body B transparent body
C black body D polished body
A specific gravities B weights in air
C densities D volumes
A allow rapid acceleration B store and release energy as required
C control rotational speed D balance the rotating parts
A mercury B zinc
C lead D nickle
A compression B tension
C shear D bending
A high discharge pressure B low barometric pressure
45
The property of steel that makes it suitable for use in cable is its strength in
46
Cavitation in a centrifugal pump results from
43
The basic purpose of using a flywheel on rotating machinery is to
44
Which of the following metals has the greatest specific gravity
41
A body which absorbs all radiation falling on it is known as
42
If two objects are weighed in water and both of them lose the same weight, then the two
39
If the section modulus of a beam decreases, then bending stress will
40
The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
37
Vertical shaft arrangement in hydroelectric plants is used to
38
Compression members tend to buckle in the direction of
35
A steel is specified as En 42. This is as per following standard
36
The power is generated from water on account of its
33
Twisting couple in a shaft introduces in it
34
Which of the following materials is most elastic
31
A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as
32
The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain within elastic limit is known as
C high discharge velocity D high discharge rate
A discharge through pipes B discharge through open channels
C velocity of flow D kinetic energy of flow
A reciprocating pump B gear pump
C centrifugal pump D diaphragm pump
A welding B brazing
C soldering D rivetting
A vanadium B nickle
C cobalt D iron
A tensile strength B hardness
C ductility D malleability
A austenie B martensite
C pearlite D cementite
A copper B chromium
C nickle D silicon
A gun metal B bronze
C brass D babbit metal
A cats iron B pig iron
C stainless steel D wrought iron
A furnace B air
C water D oil
A process chart B material handling
C stop watch D all of the above
A flow of current B constant resistance
C voltage D material characteristics
A easily spot welded B very difficult to be spot weled
C
as good for spot welding as any other
material
D preferred to be welded by spot welding
A neutral B oxidising
C carburising D all of the above
A brass B aluminium
C cast iron D steel
61
Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the case of following
59
Copper is
60
The most commonly used flame in gas welding is
57
Work study is done with the help of
58
In arc welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by
55
Which of the following has better capability to bear sudden and excessive shocks ?
56
Normalising operation is carried out in
53
Which of the following elemnets does not impart hardness to steel?
54
Which of the following is used for bearing liner ?
51
Manganese in steel increases its
52
The hardness of steel increases if it contains
49
In which of the following cases, the strength of joint obtained is lowest
50
Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides?
47
Rotameter is used for measuring
48
Priming is needed in a
A cold hardening B hot hardening
C work hardening D induction hardening
A rolling B extrusion
C drawing D spinning
A plastics B thrmosetting plastics
C thermoplastics D non ferrous materials
A weight of press is 20 tonnes B
press can handle works weighing upto 20
tonnes
C it can exert pressure upto 20 tonnes D
its foundation should be designed for 20
tonnes
A hobbing B shaping
C milling D shaving or burnishing
A simple die B progressive die
C compound die D combination die
A die B punch
C both on punch and die D not provided at all
A internal threads B external threads
C taper threads D no threads
A die B punch
C half on die and half on punch D not provided at all
A tungsten carbide B mild steel
C titanium D brass or cast iron
A gear box B worm and gear
C rack and pinion D half nut
A ring gauge B snap gauge
C plug gauge D dial gauge
A plastics B thrmosetting plastics
C thermoplastics D non ferrous materials
A manganese B silicon
C nickle D chromium
A rolling friction B dynamic friction
C limiting friction D static friction
76
The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
73
The following gauge is used for checking of holes
74
Compression moulding is the ideal method of processing
71
No lubricant is required when cutting threads in
72
The power is transmitted by lead screw to the carriage through
69
Lathe spindle has got
70
The clearance in blanking operation is provided on
67
Cutting and forming operations can be done in a single operation on
68
In blanking operation, the angle of shear is provided on
65
A 20 tonne press implies that the
66
Which of the following is a gear finishing operation
63
The seamless tubes in mass production are manufactured by the following process
64
Compression moulding is the ideal method of processing
62
The increase in hardness due to cold working is called
75 In transformer steel, the element which provides the required property is
A v B v/2
C v/4 D asbestose
A 30 B 60
C 90 D 120
A dyne B watt
C kg-m D joule
A between 60 and 70 % B between 70 and 80%
C between 80 and 90% D 100%
A critically damped B not damped
C under damped D over damped
A rolling B waving
C pitching D steering
A solid B hollow
C reinforced D composite
A double B half
C same D none of above
A same torque B less torque
C more torque D none of the above
A A straight line B involute path
C curved line D circle
A Spur gear B spiral gear
C bevel gear D worm gear
A Bottom tooth B face
C flank D tooth depth
A variable B always constant
C dependent on type of mashing D never constant
A Primary distributing force B secondary distributing force
C partial balancing D hammer blow
A Mass B stiffness
C mass and stiffness D mass, stiffness and eccentricity
A Hammer blow B variation in tractive effort
86
To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor
92
Partial balancing in locomotive results in
89
The pressure angle for involute gears is
90
Swaying couple results due to
91
The critical speed depends on
85 A hollow shaft of same cross section area as solid shaft transmits
87
88
The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch surface is called
The path of the contact in involute gears is
82
Which of the following effects is more dangerous for a ship?
83
For eccentrically loaded strut, following section is preferred
84
A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coils will be
79
The unit of energy in S.I. units is
80
An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is
81
If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system is
77
Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the
78
If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
C swaying couple D all of the above
A 0 B 1
C more than 1 D unpredictable
A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
A 0.20 B 0.25
C 0.33 D 0.40
A electroplating B polishing
C coating D shot peening
A Same B higher
C lower D depends on other factors
A tension B shear
C compression D all of the above
A Static load B dynamic load
C completely reversed load D impact load
A endurance limit B Youngs modulus
C elastic limit D ultimate tensile strength
100
Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
97
Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
98
When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
99
In testing of material for endurance strength, it is subjected to
95
If the longitudinal strain in a material is doubled in comparison to lateral strain, ratio of
96
The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
93
For a vibrating system, if the damping factor is unity, then then maximum magnification
94
Rankines theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
A a) 2280 KJ/Kg B 720 KJ/Kg
C 1500 KJ/Kg D 3000 KJ/Kg
A 25% B 50%
1 A thermal power plant operates on a regenerative cycle with a single open feed water
heater as shown in figure. For the state points shown, the specific enthalpies are
h1=2800 kJ/Kg, h2=200KJ/Kg. The bleed to feed water heater is 20% of boiler steam
generation rate. The specific enthalpy at state point 3 is
2
The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
C
70%
D
100%
A
iso-octane and alpha-methyl
naphthalene
B normal octane and aniline
C iso-octane and normal hexane D normal heptane and iso-octane
A same B less
C more D more or less depending on power rating
A An air compressor B A blower
C A ventilator D A breather
A increase B decrease
C remain same D
depend on other factors
3
The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
4 The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
5
The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
6
If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
A 2% B 4%
C 8% D 14%
A
opens at 20 before top dead
center and closes at 35 after the
bottom dead center
B
opens at top dead center and closes at
bottom dead center
C
opens at 10 after top dead center
and closes 20 before the bottom
dead center
D
may open or close anywhere
A
4 - 6 kg/cm
2
and 200 - 250C
B
6 - 12 kg/cm
2
and 250 - 350C
C
12 - 20 kg/cm
2
and 350 - 450C
D
20 - 30 kg/cm
2
and 450 - 500C
7
If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the
%age increase in efficiency will be
8
In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
9
The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are
of the order of
10
Maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
A 500- 1000C B 1000- 1500C
C 1500-2000C D 2000-2500C
A
2-stroke engine can run in any
direction
B
In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is
obtained in 4-strokes
C
thermal efficiency of 4-stroke
engine is more due to positive
scavenging
D
petrol engines occupy more space than
diesel engines for same power output.
A
5-10 kg/cm
2
B
20-25 kg/cm
2
C
60-80 kg/cm
2
D
90-130 kg/cm
2
A 0.15 kg B 0.2 Kg
C 0.25 kg D 0.3kg
A more B less
10
Maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
11
Pick up the wrong statement
12
The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
13
The specific fuel consumption per BHP for a petrol engine is approximately
14
The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical required
for complete combustion is
C same D
may be more or less depending on engine
capacity
A Remains the same B Increases
C Becomes zero D Decreases
A
0.15 Kg/cm
2
B
1.0 Kg/cm
2
C
0.5 Kg/cm
2
D
0.3 Kg/cm
2
A Radial flow B Axial flow
C Centrifugal D Combination of above
A as large as possible B as small as possible
15
As the number of cylinders in multi cylinder engines increases the power to weight ratio
16
The conventional mechanical type fuel pump develops .............pressure
17
Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
18
Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
C about 50% of swept volume D about 100% of swept volume
A A.C. electric motor B compressed air
C petrol engine D diesel engine
A
These are used to dampen
pulsations ,
B
These act as reservoir to- take care of
sudden demands
C
These increase compressor
efficiency
D These knock out some oil and moisture
A mass flow rate B pressure ratio
C change in load D stagnation pressure at the outlet
A 50 to 60 B 80 to 90
19
Mining industry usually employs following motive power
20
Which is false statement about air receivers
21
Pick up wrong statement.Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
22
The diesel index of the fuel for most high speed diesel should be of the order of
C 90 to 100 D 100 to 120
A 85% B 65%
C 50% D 35%
A isothermal B isentropic
C adiabatic D isobaric.
A 3 B
4
C 5 D 6
23
The average percentage of carbon in petrol is routhly
24
If infinite number of heaters are to be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in
turbine approaches
25
In order to burn 1 Kg of CH
4
completely minimum number of Kg of oxygen need is ( take
atomic weights of H,C, and O as 1,12,16 resply)
26
An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2 units each. The area to calculate heat loss can
be taken as
A 4 B 5
C 6 D 8
A 1 cu.m B 2 cu.m.
C 5 to 7 cu.m. D 9 to 10 cu.m.
A Increasing speed B Fuel economy
C Starting in cold weather D Starting in hot weather
A
5%
B
10%
C 25-30% D 45-50%
A Air cleaner B exhaust silencer
C battery D fuel injector
be taken as
27
In a four stroke diesel engine for combustion of 1 litre of fuel , the volume of air
required would be approximately
28
In an automobile choke is applied for
29 In an IC Engine approximate amount of heat loss from cylinder walls is
30
which part is not common between petrol and diesel engine
31
Which one of the following is NOT a necessary assumption for air standard Otto cycle?
A
All processes are both internally
as well as externally reversible.
B
Intake and exhaust are constant volume
heat rejection processes.
C
The combustion process is a
constant volume heat addition
process.
D
The working fluid is an ideal gas with gas
constant specific heat.
A 1032 B 515
C 310 D 103
A The piston walls B The crown of the piston
C The skirt of the piston D The piston pin
32
In an air-standard Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 10. The condition at the
beginning of the compression process is 100kPa and 27C. Heat added at constant
volume is 1500kJ/kg, while 700kJ/kg of heat is rejected during the other constant
volume process in the cycle. Specific gas constant for air=0.287 kJ/kgK. The mean
effective pressure (in kPa) of the cycle is
33
The temperature of the piston will be more at
34
A High speed B High volumetric efficiency
C Piston-ring friction D Low fuel supply
A Low speed B Intermediate speed
C High speed D Low or intermediate speed
A Remains the same B Increases
C Becomes zero D Decreases
A Generator voltage B Generator output
C Field current D Battery voltage
34
One of the major causes of FHP in an engine is
35
Engine torque is highest at
36
As the number of cylinders in multi cylinder engines increases the power to weight ratio
.........
37
In general the design of the current regulator is such that its main actuating winding
carries full
38
If compression ratio is increased
A
Thermal efficiency will be
increased
B Volumetric efficiency will be increased
C
Air standard efficiency will be
decreased
D Air standard efficiency will be increased
A 1/600 sec B 1/640 sec
C 1/540 sec D
1/530 sec
A Pre ignition in the engine B Suction of air for engine
C Pre opening of the exhaust valve D High pressure in the cylinder
39
The duration of the fuel injection at full load in a diesel engine running at 1800 rpm
when it has 200 of crank travel is
40
A negative loop in the P.V diagram of an I.C engine is due to
41 Consider the following statements:
1. Octane rating of gasoline is based on iso-octane and iso-heptane fuels which are
paraffins.
2. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to increase octane number.
3. Ethylene dibromide is added as scavenging agent to remove lead deposits on spark
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 2, 3 and 4
C 1 and 4 D 1, 2 and 3
A
A B C D
5 1 4 2
B
A B C D
1 3 5 4
C
A B C D
5 3 4 2
D
A B C D
1 2 5 4
3. Ethylene dibromide is added as scavenging agent to remove lead deposits on spark
plugs.
4. Surface ignition need not necessarily cause knocking.
42 Match List I (Components) with List II
(Functions) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Steam trap
B. Fusible plug
C. Blow-off cock
D. Feed check valve
List II
1. Controls steam flow rate
2. Controls rate of water flow to boiler
3. Puts off furnace fire when water level reaches unsafe limit
4. Removes mud and dirt collected at the bottom of boiler
5. Drains off water collected by partial condensation of steam in pipes
A
Atmospheric conditions at any
specific location
B
20C and 1 kg/cm
2
and relative humidity
of 36%
C
0C and standard atmospheric
conditions
D
15C and 1 kg/cm
2
A
20C and 1 kg/cm
2
and relative
humidity 36%
B 0C and standard atmospheric conditions
C
15C and 1 kg/cm
2
D
25C, 1 kg/cm
2
and RH of 60%.
A 0.5 kg B 1.0 kg
C 1.3 kg D 2.2 kg
A isothermally B adiabatically
C isentropically D isochronically
43
Free air is the air at
44
Standard air is the air at
45
1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
46
The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
C isentropically D isochronically
A Slightly more than atmospheric B
Pressure sightly less than atmospheric
and temperature slightly more than
atmospheric
C Slightly less than atmospheric D
Pressure slightly more than atmospheric
and temperature slightly less than
atmospheric
A multi-stage compression B cold water spray
C both (a) and (b) above D fully insulating the cylinder
A As large as possible B As small as possible
C About 50% of swept volume D About 100% of swept volume
47 The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
48
Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be
approached by using
49
Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
50
Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
A
To accommodate Valves in the
cylinder head
B To provide cushioning effect
C
To attain high volumetric
efficiency
D
To provide cushioning effect and also to
avoid mechanical bang of piston with
cylinder head.
A Centrifugal compressor B Axial compressor
C Pumps D all of the above
A
Large quantity of air at high
pressure
B Small quantity of air at high pressure
C
Large quantity of air at low
pressure
D Any one of the above.
A
Rise gradually towards the point
of use
B Drop gradually towards the point of use
C Be laid vertically D Be laid exactly horizontally
51
Euler's equation is applicable for
52
Rotary compressor is best suited for
53
To avoid moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
C Be laid vertically D Be laid exactly horizontally
A radial component B axial component
C tangential component D resultant component
A 0.10% B 0.50%
C 1.00% D 5%
A
slip factor
B
velocity factor
C
velocity coefficient
D
blade effectiveness
A
Centrifugal
B
Reciprocating
C
Axial
D
Screw
54
The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
55 The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m
increase in elevation
56 The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is
called
57
For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is
best suited
58
Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A
6 kg/cm
2
B
10 kg/cm
2
C
16 kg/cm
2
D
25 kg/cm
2
A Mass flow rate B
Pressure ratio
C Change in load D All of the above.
A Air stream blocking the passage B Motion of air at sonic velocity
C
Unsteady periodic and reversed
flow
D
Air stream not able to follow the blade
contour
A To supply base load requirements B To supply peak load requirements
C
To enable start thermal power
plant
D When other sources of power fail
59 Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
60
Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
61
Gas turbines for power generation are normally used
62
The ratio of specific weight/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines may be typically of the
A 02:01 B 01:06
C 04:01 D 01:02
A Equal to zero B In the direction of motion of blades
C
opposite to the direction of
motion of blades
D depending on the velocity
A more B Less
C Same D Depends on other factors
A High h.p, speed and low weight B Low weight and small frontal area
C Small frontal area and high h.p. D High speed and high h.p.
62
The ratio of specific weight/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines may be typically of the
order of
63
Gas turbine blades are given a rake
64
The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
65
A gas turbine used in air craft should have
66
Pick up the correct statement
A
Gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio
to economies on fuel
B
Gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to
reduce outgoing temperature
C
to develop the high thrust
required
D all of the above
A isothermal B Isentropic
C Adiabatic D Isochoric
A Control temperature B Control output of turbine
C Control fire hazards D Increase efficiency
A
to economies on fuel
B
Gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to
reduce outgoing temperature
67
If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine
approaches
68
Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
69
Pick up the correct statement
C
to develop the high thrust
required
D all of the above
A 10 to 40% B 40-60%
C 60-70% D 70-90%
A Two times B Three times
C Four times D Six times
A Radial flow compressor B Axial flow compressor
C Roots blower D Reciprocating compressor
A Low speeds B High speeds
C Low altitudes D High altitudes
A 100 B 200
70
The volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor is about
71
In three lobbed rotor the air delivered in one revolution is
72
A compressor mainly used for supercharging in an IC engine is
73
The efficiency of jet engines is higher at
74
The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium 235 in million electron
volts is about
C 300 D 400
A 1000 Km/hr B 2000 Km/hr
C 2400 Km/hr D 3000Km/hr
A
284 cm
3
B
252 cm
3
C
264 cm
3
D
286cm
3
A 0.001 sec B 0.002 sec
C 0.003 sec D 0.004 sec
75
The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbo-jet engine is at speed of
76
A gas engine has a swept volume of 300cm
3
and clearance volume of 25 cm
3
. Its
volumetric efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the
mixture taken per stroke is
77
In petrol engines the delay period is about
78
A Minimum turbulence B Low compression ratio
C High efficiency and power output D Low volumetric efficiency
A 0.3 to 0.7 mm B 0.2 to 0.8mm
C 0.4 to 0.9mm D 0.6 to 1.0mm
A 10 bar B 100 bar
C 150 bar D 500 bar
A Blading efficiency B Nozzle efficiency
C Stage efficiency D Mechanical efficiency
A 0.4 B 0.56
78
The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is
79
A spark gap is kept from
80
The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about
81
The ratio of work done on blades to energy supplied to blades is called
82
The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blades is two third of the isentropic enthalpy
heat drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
C
0.67
D 1.67
A 260 KW B 282 KW
C 296 KW D 302 KW
A 79 m/s B 188 m/s
C 450m/s D 900m/s
A
Mass of the steam discharged
increases
B
Entropy and specific volume of steam
increases
C Exit velocity of steam reduces D All of the above
83
In a 50% reaction turbine stage , tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor
inlet is 537m/s and blade velocity is 454m/s. The power output in KW of steam will be
84
A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 rpm. If the blade
speed ratio is 0.42 then the inlet velocity of steam will be
85
The effect of super saturation is that the
86
When the nozzle operates with a maximum mass flow the nozzle is said to be
A Chocked B Under damping
C Over damping D None of these
A Same as B 2 times
C 4 times D 8 times
A 60 B 90
C 180 D 270
A
Increases the work done through
the turbine
B Increases the efficiency of the turbine
C Reduces wear on the blades D All of the above
A Indicated power B Efficiency
C Brake power D Pressure of steam
86
When the nozzle operates with a maximum mass flow the nozzle is said to be
87 The density of super-saturated steam is about how many times that of the ordinary
saturated vapour at the corresponding pressure
88
A turbine is said to have axial discharge when steam leaves the blade tip at ______the
direction of blade motion
89
Reheating of steam in a turbine
90
Williams line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and
A 1.05 B 2.86
C 6.65 D 10.05
A Blow off cock B Fusible plug
C Super heater D Stop valve
A Size and shape of jet nozzle B Viscosity of fuel
C Rate of fuel flow D All of the above
A
F: A ratio during starting an engine
is about 0.2:1
B
F: A ratio during warming up of an engine
is about 0.15:1
C
F: A ratio during full throttle an
D
F: A ratio during acceleration of an engine
91
A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190mm and a 300mm stroke
has a cut off of 0.35, the expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
92
A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure is called
93
The coefficient of discharge for fuel jet depends on
94
Which of the following statements is false
C
F: A ratio during full throttle an
engine is about 1:1
D
F: A ratio during acceleration of an engine
is about 0.1:1
A
As injection pressure increase the
penetration of fuel in air mass
decreases
B
As fuel density increases the depth of
penetration increases
C
Penetration decreases with
decrease in angle of spiral groove
of injection valve
D
Penetration does not depend on jet
velocity, air density, nozzle size
A
0.005 X 10
-3
B
5 X10
2
C
0.5 X 10
-1
D
0.5 X 10
3
A
The single hole nozzle is
approximate 0.02 cm upwards
B
The diameter of multihole nozzle lies
between 0.25 to 0.35cm
C
To improve cold starting
performances pintaux nozzle is
used
D
Circumferential nozzles are used for
minimise the possible contact area of fuel
and air
95
Which of the following statements is true
96
The amount of volume of fuel injected at full throttle is about
97
Which of the following statements is false
98
In 8 cylinder I.C engines the possible firing orders are
A 1-6-2-5-8-3-7 B 1-5-4-8-6-3-7
C 1-8-4-3-6-5-7 D None of the above
A 400/sec B 200/sec
C 100/sec D 50/sec
A Williams line B Morse test
C
Measurement of brake and
indicated power
D Motoring test
A 10-100% B 200-300%
C 500-600% D >1000%
99 A 2 stroke 4 cylinder petrol engine is running at 6000rpm. The total number of strokes
created by ignition system is
100 The most accurate method of determining friction power is by
101
The air box/swept volume ratio should be in the range for single cylinder engine
102
The best method of measuring speed is by
A Mechanical tachometer B
Electrical tachometer
C Magnetic pickup D None of these
A N0
x
B HC
C CO D CO
2
A Cross scavenging B Uniform scavenging
C Loop scavenging D Reverse flow scavenging
A Greater than 1 B Less than 1
C Equal to 1 D None of the above
A 0.8 B 0.9
C 1 D None of these
103
Non-dispersive infra-red analyzer is widely accepted instrument for measuring
104
Most perfect method of scavenging is
105
Crankcase scavenged engine have delivery ratio of
106
If delivery ratio is 1.8, the excess air factor in case of two stroke engine is
107
Two wheelers without deflector type piston use
A Cross scavenging B Loop scavenging
C Uniform scavenging D Reverse scavenging
A Same power B Half the power
C Twice the power D Four times the power
A Low speeds B High speeds
C High pressures D None of the above
A Racing cars B Marine engines
C Automotive diesel engines D None of the above
A High pressure B Minimum maintenance
108
At the same speed two stroke engine of the same size as four stroke engine will develop
109
Centrifugal type superchargers is preferable only for
110
Supercharging is normally done in
111
The advantages of Roots supercharges is
A High pressure B Minimum maintenance
C Consumes less power D Occupies less space
A Decreases B Increases
C No effect D
Increases up to certain air-fuel ratio and
then decreases
A Higher specific speed B Chemical equilibrium
C Both (a) and (b) D None of the above
A Lower B Higher
C No effect D None of the above
A Progressive combustion B Heat loss through cylinder walls
C Gas leakage D Friction
112
With disassociation the exhaust gas temperature
113
Fuel air ratio affects maximum power output of the engine due to
114
For compression process with variable specific heat and peak temperature and pressure
are
115
Time loss factor in actual cycle is due to
116
When the spark is advanced, work output is less as
A The peak pressure is low B
Peak temperature is low
C
Additional work is required to
compress the burning gas
D Frictional losses increases
A Exhaust blow down B Pumping
C Incomplete combustion D
Variation in specific heat and chemical
equilibrium
A 0.2 - 0.3 B 0.5 - 0.6
C 1 D 0.6 0.8
A
The exhaust gas in the clearance
volume
B Design of intake and exhaust valve
C Valve timing D All of the above
117
The major loss in a SI engine is due to
118
The ratio of actual efficiency and fuel air cycle efficiency for CI engines is about
119
The volumetric efficiency is affected by
120
A simple carburettor supplies rich mixture during
A Starting B idling
C Cruising D Acclerating
A direct injection B sequential injection
C throttle body injection D port injection
A Starting B idling
C Cruising D full throttle operation
A hit and miss governing B quality governing
C quantity governing D none of the above
A 8/1 to 18/1 B 8/1 to 50/1
C 25/1 to 50/1 D 50/1 to 100/1
A decrease in air velocity B increase in air velocity
120
A simple carburettor supplies rich mixture during
121
Precise petrol injection system is
122
Economiser is used to provide enriched mixture during
123 For petrol engines the method of governing is
124
The limits of air fuel for SI engine are
125
Venturi in the carbuerator results in
C decrease in fluid flow D increase of manifold vacuum
A Torque B air consumption
C cylinder peak pressure D none of the above
A thermal efficiency Vs Brake power B Air consumption Vs speed
C heat balance of engine D Torque Vs speed
A compression ratio B engine speed
C output D all of the above
A low injection pressure B direction of spary is not critical
C Both (a) and (b) D good cold starting performance
126
Indicated power is directly propotional to
127
Sankey diagram represents
128
In CI engines the delay period is affected by
129
The advantages of the indirect injection combustion chamber are
C Both (a) and (b) D good cold starting performance
A Increases B decreases
C
No effect
D first decreases and then increases
A
Preignition of the charge before
the spark
B
sudden ignition of the charge before the
spark
C
autoignition of the charge after
the spark in struck
D none of the avove
A increase B decreases
C first increases and then decreases D not affected
A with turbulence B with fuel-air ratio
C Both (a) and (b) D none of the above
A rubber B plastic
130
In CI engines by increasing inlet air pressure the knockng tendency
131
Detonation in S I engines occurs due to
132
In CI engines with increase in compression ratio the delay period
133
In SI engines flame speed increases
134
The radiator cooling tubes are generally made of
C brass D copper
A struck radiator pessure caps B open thermostat
C broken fan belt D excess coolant
A No
x
B CO
C HC D CO andHC
A HC B CO
C No
x
D CO and HC
A No
x
B HC
C CO D unburnt oil
135
Engine overheating may be due to
136
Exhaust gas recirculation is the most effective way of reducing emission of
137
Rhodium promotes the reduction of
138
Blue smoke in diesel engine indicates
C CO D unburnt oil
A
detergent -dispersion
characteristics
B pour point depression
C antifoam characteristics D all of the above
A 5 bar -10 bar B 11 bar- 15 bar
C 3 bar -8 bar D 1 bar
A pressure B temperature
C velocity D Viscosity
A Ramjet engines B gas turbines
C pulse jet engines D C I Engines
A no load opeartion B full load operation
C part load opeartion D under sudden accleration
139
Additives are added in lubricants to have
140
Oil pressure in dry sump lubrication system is around
141
Strain gauges are mainly used to measure
142
Brayton cycle is used in
143
Vacuum advance mechanism shifts the ignition point under
A setting spark plug gap B contack breaker gap
C setting the ignition advance D setting
A DIrect heat loss B loss due to incomplete combustion
C rubbbing friction loss D pumping loss
A at the stoichiometric air fuel ratio B when the mixture is slightly lean
C when the mixture is slightly rich D none of thw above
A No
x
B CO
C HC D CO
2
144
Dwell meter is used for
146
With disassociation the peak temperature is obtained
147
Chemiluminescence analyser is used for measuring
148
Continuous injection system usually has
145
The major loss in a CI engine is
A plunger pump B rotary pump
C gear pump D vane pump
A 100-200 bar B 200-400bar
C 400-600bar D 1500bar
A proper injection timing B proper injection quantity
C proper injection pressure D all of the above
150
EFI system can achive
148
Continuous injection system usually has
149
Common rail injection system uses injection pressure of the order

Gujarat PGCET Question Bank Mech

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

Gujarat PGCET Question Bank Mech

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

A active force B reactive force

C torque D work done

are the temperature of plate and

Potrebbero piacerti anche