BCQs

1. Infants are born with

a) Astigmatism
b) Emetropia
c) /Hypermetropia
d) Myopia
2. The most common factor responsible for myopia is
a) Refractive index of the ocular media
b) Curvature of cornea and lens
c) /Axial length of the eye ball
d) Anterior displacement of the lens
3. Removal of crystaline lens surgically may be advocated in
a) Presbyopia
b) Astigmatism
c) High hypermetropia
d) /High myopia
4. The maifestation of presbyopia in hypermetropia occurs at
a) A usual age of 40 years
b) /An earlier age than usual
c) A later age than usual
d) Does not manifest at all
5. Anisekonia means
a) /Difference in retinal image size
b) Difference in refractive power
c) Diffrence in curvature of cornea
d) Difference in the depth of anterior chambers
6. With a slit lamp without any additional aid one can examine upto
a) The retina
b) /Anterior vitreous
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Anterior surface of lens
7. The regurgitation test may be false negative in
a) Conganital dacryocystitis
b) /Chronic dacryocystitis with internal fistula
c) Chronic dacryocystitis with external fistula
d) All of above
8. Rose Bengal stains
a) Mucus selectively
b) Diseased and devitalized cells
c) /Area of cornea which are denuded of epithelium
d) All of the above
9. The average corneal endothalial cells count per sq.mm in the adult is
a) /2800 cells
b) 1900 cells
c) 4000 cells
d) 1000 cells
10. Dilated vertically oval pupil seen in
a) Myopia
b) Atropinisation
c) Both of the above
d) /Closed angle glaucoma
11. Anterior chamber is deep
a) In hypermetrope
b) In closed angle glaucoma
c) /In myope
d) In an infant
12. The aqueous flare is best seen by
a) Streak retinoscope
b) Operating microscope
c) /Biomicroscope
d) Ophthalmoscope
13. Irido donesis is seen in all the conditions except
a) Subuxated lens
b) /Iridodyialysis
c) Aphakia
d) Shrunken hypermature cataract
14. Gonioscopic use is to see the
a) Depth of anterior chamber
b) /Angle of anterior chamber
c) Retinal lesions
d) Any of the above
15. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the image formed is
a) Virtual, inverted and between the convex lens and observed eye
b) Virtual, erect and between the observer and convex lens
c) Real, erect and between the convex lens and observed eye
d) /Real, inverted and between the observer and convex lens
16. For biomicroscopic examination of the vitreous and the fundus the following lenses are used
except
a) /Koeppe lens
b) Goldman three mirror contact lens
c) Posterior fundus contact lens
d) Hruby lens

17. Ultrasonic frequencies used for ophthalmic diagnosis are in the range of
a) 12MHZ
b) 18MHZ
c) 15MHZ
d) /10MHZ
18. In an eye with opaque ocular media the retinal detachment can be diagnosed by
a) /Ocular ultrasonography
b) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
c) Distant direct ophthalmoscopy
d) Direct ophthalmoscopy
19. The optic disc diameter is
a) 1.00 mm
b) 3.00 mm
c) 2.00 mm
d) /1.5 mm
20. Macula lutea is situated at
a) 1 Disc diameter medial to optic disc
b) /2 Disc diameter temporal to optic disc
c) 1 Disc diameter medial to optic disc
d) 2 Disc diameter medial to optic disc
21. Normally pulsations seen on the optic disc are
a) /Venous pulsations
b) Capillary pulsations
c) Arterial pulsations
d) All of above
22. Whole letter in snellen chart will subtend an angle at
a) 2 min
b) /5min
c) 3 min
d) 1 min
23. Snellens test types at a given distance subtend at the nodal point of the eye an angle of
a) 4 min angle
b) /1 min angle
c) 2 min angle
d) 3 min angle
24. All of the following are antiviral agents except
a) Triflurothimidine
b) Ara-A
c) 5-Iodo-2-deoxyuridine
d) /Diethylcarbamazine


25. Nystatin an antifingal agent is administered in patients of keratomycosis
a) Intrathically
b) Intramuscularly
c) Intrvenously
d) /Topically
26. Systemic administration of steroids have the following side effects except
a) Precipitate hypertension
b) /Precipitate seizures
c) Precipitate diabetes
d) Activate tuberculosis
27. All of the following are the ocular indications of local steroids except
a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
b) /Retinitis pigmentosa
c) Acute iridocyclitis
d) Spring catarrh
28. All of the following can cause ophthamia neonatorum except
a) Chlamydia oculogenitalis
b) /Pseudomonas
c) Streptococcus pneumoiae
d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
29. True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by
a) Streptococcus
b) Gonococcus
c) Pneumococcus
d) /Corynebacterium dipptheriae
30. All are the features of angular conjunctivitis except
a) /Lid and corneal involvement do not occur
b) Usually associated with the infection of nasal tract
c) Bacillus produces a proteolytic ferment which macerates the epithelium
d) Caused typically by a diplobacillus
31. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by
a) Corynebacteria
b) /Moraxella
c) Pneumococcus
d) Streptococcus
32. The treatment of angular conjunctivitis is
a) Framycetin eye drops
b) /Zinc sulphate eye drops
c) Sulphacetamide eye drops
d) Pencillin eye drops


33. Chlamydia is
a) /Gram negative
b) Gram positive
c) Variable
d) Any of the above
34. Regressive trachomatous pannus is seen in
a) 1
st
stage
b) 2
nd
stage
c) /3
rd
stage
d) 4
th
stage
35. Herbert pits seen in
a) /Trachoma
b) Phlyctanular conjunctivitis
c) Tubercular conjunctivitis
d) All
36. Acute conjunctivitis associated with urethritis and polyarthritis
a) Stills disease
b) /Reiters disease
c) Stevens johnson syndrome
d) Behcets disease
37. Phlyctanular conjunctivitis is due to
a) /Endogenous allergic reaction
b) Infection due to virus
c) Infection due to bacteria
d) Exogenous allergic reaction
38. Phlyctens are most commonly in the
a) Palpebral conjunctiva
b) Fornices
c) /Bulbar conjunctiva at or near limbus
d) Cornea
39. Topical treatment of phlyctenular conjunctivitis is by
a) Antibiotic drops
b) Antiviral drops
c) /Steroid drops
d) Astringent drops
40. Marked itching is the hallmark of
a) Trachoma
b) /Spring catarrh
c) Follicular conjunctivitis
d) Mucopurulent conjuncitivitis


41. Subconjunctival haemorrhage seen in
a) Malaria
b) Purpura
c) Scurvy
d) /All of the above
42. All are known to cause xerophthalmia except
a) /Acute catarrhal conjunctivitis
b) Trachoma
c) Lagophthalmos
d) Vitamin A defeciency
43. Slight opacity of the cornea is termed as
a) Macula
b) /Nebula
c) Leucoma
d) Adherent leucoma
44. Hypopyon can be caused by all except
a) Gonococcus
b) /Acanthamoeba
c) Pneumococcus
d) Pseudomonas pyocyanea
45. The following causes lead to delayed healing of corneal ulcer except
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Chronic dacryocystitis
c) /Associated conjunctivitis
d) Rise of IOP
46. Moorens ulcer is
a) /Autoimmune
b) Degenerative
c) Infective
d) None
47. All are the characteristic features of Herpes simplex keratitis except
a) Hypoesthesis of cornea
b) /Single corneal lesion
c) Absence of vasculitis
d) Dendritic keratitis
48. The reservoir of infection in herpes zoster is
a) /Gasserian ganglion
b) Superior cervical ganglion
c) Inferior cervical ganglion
d) Ciliary ganglion


49. In an established case of keratoconus the best treatment is
a) Soft contact lens
b) Hard contact lens
c) /Spectacle lens
d) Penetrating keratoplasty
50. Most common corneal endothelial dystrophy is
a) /Fuchs dystrophy
b) Reis buckler dystrophy
c) Salzman dystrophy
d) None of the above
51. Adherent leucoma formed as a complication of
a) Cornea ulcer
b) /Small perforation
c) Large perforation
d) None of the above
52. Anterior staphyloma formed as a complication of
a) Scleritis
b) Ocular injury
c) /Prforated corneal ulcer
d) Intact corneal ulcer
53. Bullous keratopathy occurs as a complication of
a) Cataract
b) /Glaucoma
c) Iritis
d) Keratitis
54. Pigment deposition in Kayser Fleischer ring is
a) Melanin
b) Hemosiderin
c) /Copper
d) Iron
55. The circumscribed nodule of episcleritis is due to the infilteration of the episcleral tissue by
a) Monocytes
b) Eosinophils
c) Neutrophils
d) /Lymphocytes
56. Blue sclera seen in
a) /Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Osteopetosis
c) Ehler Danlos syndrome
d) None of the above


57. The clinical presentation of scleritis in collagen disease is
a) Massive granuloma of the sclera
b) Sclermalacia perforans
c) Necrotizing nodular scleritis
d) /All of the above
58. Scleritis is a common implication of the following diseases except
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Herpes simplex infection
d) Systemic lupus erythmatosus
59. All are complications of scleritis except
a) Secondary glaucoma
b) Uveitis
c) Ciliary staphyloma
d) /Dacryoadenitis
60. Rubiosis iridis leads to
a) Ghost cell glaucoma
b) Inverse glaucoma
c) /Neovascular glaucoma
d) Glaucoma capsular
61. All of the following are causes of rubeosis iridis except
a) Sickle cell disease
b) Central retinal vein occlusion
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) /Coats disease
62. Uveitis is found in association of all following diseases except
a) /Osteoarthritis
b) Behcets syndrome
c) Ankylosing spondylitis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
63. All of the following can cause hypopyon except
a) Acute endophthalmitis
b) Acute iridocyclitis
c) Acute pneumococcal keratitis
d) /Acute papilitis
64. All are the causes of circumcorneal congestion except
a) Acute narrow angle glaucoma
b) Acute iridocyclitis
c) Keratitis
d) /Conjunctivitis


65. Night pain is the prominent symptom of
a) Conjunctivitis
b) /Iritis
c) Cataract
d) Optic neuritis
66. Granulomatous uveitis is seen in all of the following except
a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
b) Syphilitic uveitis
c) Tubercular uveitis
d) /Collagen diseases with uveitis
67. A young adult complaining of severe headache and unilateral diminution of vision with raised
IOP, positive aqueous flare and few KPs is suffering from
a) Marfans syndrome
b) Vogt-koyanagi syndrome
c) /Posner and Schlossman syndrome
d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
68. Complications of anterior uveitis are the following except
a) Macular edema
b) Secondary glaucoma
c) /Keratitis
d) Complicated cataract
69. Bilateral punched out, heavily pigmented retinochoroidal scars in the macular area seen in
a) Brucellosis
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Tuberculosis
d) /Toxoplasmosis
70. Exudative retinal detachment occurs in all of the following except
a) Retinopathy of pregnancy induced hypertension
b) Exudative retinopathy of coats
c) /Circinate retinopathy
d) Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada disease
71. Typically coloboma of iris occurs
a) Superotemporally
b) Superonasally
c) Inferotemporally
d) /Inferonasally
72. Atropine helps in treatment of iritis because
a) Keeps the iris and ciliary body at rest
b) Diminishes the hyperemia
c) Pevention and breakage of synechae
d) /All of the above

73. All of the following are features of zonular cataract except
a) Lenticular opacity is usually sharply demarcated
b) /Usually unilateral
c) Rider may run outwards towards equator
d) The area of the lens within and around this opaque zone is clear
74. Drug known to cause acquired cataract are
a) Corticosteroids
b) Anticholine estrase miotics
c) Dinitrophenol
d) /All of above
75. All of the following lead to the formation of complicated cataract except
a) Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
b) Progressive myopia
c) /Progressive hypermetropia
d) Iridocyclitis
76. Complicated cataract occurs in the
a) Equitorial region of the lens
b) /Posterior part of the cortex
c) Nuclear area of lens
d) Anterior subcapsular region
77. The ring of sommering is theterm used for
a) /After cataract
b) Diabetic cataract
c) Complicated cataract
d) Traumatic cataract
78. Congenital rubella syndrome consists of
a) Cataract
b) Cranial malformations
c) Patent ductus arteriosus
d) /All of the above
79. Acquired cause of anterior polar cataract is
a) Corneal ulcer
b) /Perforated corneal ulcer
c) Keratitis
d) All of the above
80. Posterior vitreous detachment may be associated with
a) Floaters
b) Photopsiae
c) /Both of above
d) None of above


81. All of the following are proliferative retinopathies except
a) /Retinopathy in toxemia of pregnancy
b) Sickle cell retinopathy
c) Ealess disease
d) Central retinal venous occlusion
82. Black spots floating infront of the eye is known as
a) Synchiasis scintillans
b) Asteroid hyalosis
c) /Muscae volitants
d) None of the above
83. Treatment of vitreous haemorrage consist of all except
a) Bed rest
b) Pad and bandage
c) /Head down position
d) Vitrectomy in unresponded cases after 6 months
84. Retinal vein occlusion leads to vitreous haemorrhage after
a) One month
b) Two months
c) /Three months
d) Four months
85. Eales disease is
a) /Hypersensitive reaction to tuberculoprotein
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Degenerative disease
d) Any of the above
86. Ocular findngs of sickle cell disease
a) Angiod streaks
b) Papilloedema
c) Glaucoma
d) /All of the above
87. All of the following are types of lens induced glaucoma except
a) Lens paticle glaucoma
b) Phacomorphic glaucoma
c) /Glaucoma capsulare
d) Lens protein glaucoma
88. The eyes which are vulnerable to have attack of narrow angle glaucoma are
a) Myopic eyes
b) Astigmatic eyes
c) Emtropic eyes
d) /Hypermetropic eyes


89. Phacolytic glaucoma seen with
a) Hypermature cataract
b) Premature cataract
c) /Mature cataract
d) All
90. Coloured haloes are seen in all of the following except
a) /Acute iridocyclitis
b) Immature senile cataract
c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d) Narrow angle glaucoma
91. Water drinking test is used to detect
a) Closed angle glaucoma
b) /Open angle glaucoma
c) Both
d) None
92. All of the following develops painless rapid loss of vision except
a) Total retinal detachment
b) Central retinal vein occlusion
c) /Open angle glaucoma
d) Central retinal artery occlusion
93. Mydriatic test helps in diagnosis of
a) /Closed angle glaucoma
b) Secondary glaucoma
c) Open angle glaucoma
d) None of the above
94. Field defect in chronic simple glaucoma
a) Baming of blind spot
b) Roen step
c) Bjerrum scotoma
d) /All of the above
95. All of the following are the causes of cystoids macular oedema except:
a. Postoperative case of cataract extraction
b. ~Central retinal artery occlusion
c. Central retinal venous occlusion
d. Diabetes mellitus
96. All of the following are the symptoms of the retinal diseases except:
a. ~Pain is almost invariably present
b. Light sense is diminished
c. Black sots may be present
d. Metamorphopsia, micropsia, macropsia

97. Retinal hemorrhages with characterstic white centres are called as:
a. ~Roths spot
b. Taranta spot
c. Bitots spot
d. Koplicks spot
98. Roths spots are seen in:
a. Tays choroiditis
b. Tay sach disease
c. ~Retinopathy of sub acute bacterial endocarditis
d. All of above
99. Phenomenon of nicking seen in:
a. ~Hypertensive retinopathy
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Sickle cell retinopathy
d. None of the above
100. The early sign of the background diabetic retinopathy is:
a. Small dot and blot haemorrhage
b. ~Micrroaneurysm in the macular area
c. Hard exudates
d. All of the above
101. Angioidstreaks are associated with all of the following conditions except:
a. ~Presumed histoplasma syndrome
b. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
c. Pagets disease of bone
d. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
102. Following can cause traction retinal detachment except:
a. Plastic cyclitis
b. Retero lental fibroplasias
c. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
d. ~Degeneration of the vitreous
103. The most common quadrant to have retinal holes is:
a. Superonasal
b. Infero temporal
c. Infero nasal
d. ~Superotemporal
104. 90 days glaucoma or 3 months glaucoma seen in:
a. Eclipse blindness
b. Central retinal artery occlusion
c. Both
d. ~Central retinal vein occlusion

105. Earliest symptoms of Retinitis pigmentosa:
a. ~Night blindness
b. Tube vision
c. Ring scotoma
d. None
106. Foster-Kennedy syndrome is caused by:
a. Pontine tumors
b. Midbrain tumors
c. ~Tumors of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe
d. Cerebellar tumors
107. Centrocaecal scotoma particularly to red objects is seen in:
a. ~Tobacco amblyopia
b. Lead poisoning
c. Quinine amblyopia
d. Methyl alcohol poisoning
108. The longest part of the optic disc is:
a. ~Intracranial
b. Intraobital
c. Intracanalicular
d. Intraocular
109. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy seen in:
a. After massive haemorrhage
b. Neglected acute attachk of closed angle glaucoma
c. Severe Anemia
d. ~All of the above
110. Homonymous hemianopic field defects are seen in the lesions of:
a. Lateral geniculate body to occipital lobe
b. ~Optic chiasma to occipital lobe
c. Optic chiasma to lateral geniculate body
d. Optic nerve to optic chiasma
111. Hamianopia means:
a. Loss of visual field totally
b. ~Loss of half of the visual field
c. Partial loss of visual field
d. Any of the above
112. Scintillating scotoma seen in:
a. ~Migraine
b. Amblyopia
c. Amaurosis
d. None of the above


113. The most frequent site of metastases in malignant melanoma is:
a. Bones
b. Gastrointestinal tract
c. Lungs
d. ~Liver
114. The most common mode of metastasis of retinoblastoma is:
a. By direct extension: by continuity to the optic nerve
b. ~Via blood stream
c. Via lymphatics
d. All of the above
115. The most common type of presentation of retinoblastoma in a child is:
a. Esotropia
b. ~Leucocoria
c. Severe uveitis
d. Propiosis
116. Classification is pathognamanic of:
a. Persistent primary vitreous
b. ~Retinoblastoma
c. Both
d. None
117. Most common presentation of retinoblastoma:
a. Squint
b. Ovitis
c. ~White pupil
d. None
118. The most distressing sequelae of chemical burns in eye is:
a. ~Symblepharon
b. Trichiasis
c. Ectropian
d. All of the above
119. Vossiuss ring is the imprint of the contracted pupil on the anterior surface of the lensin:
a. Heterochromic cyclitis of Fuchs
b. Iridoshisis
c. Iridocylitis
d. ~Blunt trauma of eye
120. Cha;cosis caused by:
a. Mercury
b. Bras
c. Nickel
d. ~Copper

121. Siderosis buibi caused by:
a. ~Iron
b. Mercury
c. Alluminium
d. All of the above
122. Blow out fracture of maxilla results in:
a. Exophthalmos
b. ~Enophthalmos
c. Miosis
d. Any of the above
123. Features of paralytic squint:
a. Diplopia
b. False orientation
c. Vertigo
d. ~All
124. All is true about the complete third nerve palsy except:
a. Diplopia occurs when the lid is raised
b. Eye is deflected outwards and rotate internally
c. ~Pupil is mobile and accommodation is intact
d. There is no ptosis
125. Exophoria ween in:
a. ~Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbyopia
d. All
126. If the latent deviation is convergence, the squint is known as:
a. ~Esophoria
b. Exophoria
c. Hyperphoria
d. None
127. Exophoria treated by:
a. Surgery
b. Prism
c. Orthoptics
d. ~All
128. Strabismic amblyopia is treated by:
a. Occlusion of the squinting eye
b. ~Occlusion of the good eye
c. Antiprostaglandin eye drops
d. Surgery

129. Squamous blepharitis is frequently associated with:
a. Pityriasis
b. Psoriasis
c. ~Seborrhoeic dermatitis
d. None of the above
130. Stye is also known as:
a. ~Hordeolum externum
b. Chalazion
c. Hordelum internum
d. None
131. The treatment of trichiasis is:
a. Epilation
b. Destruction of hair follicle by diathermy
c. Destruction of hair follicle by electrolysis
d. ~All of the above
132. The most common cause of congenital ptosis is:
a. Paralysis of levatopalpebrae superioris
b. Birth trauma
c. Systemic disease
d. ~Defective development of levator palpebrae sperioris
133. The commonest site for basal cell carcinoma is:
a. ~Inner canthus
b. Upper lid
c. Outer canthus
d. Lower lid
134. Dry eye caused by:
a. Altered corneal Surface
b. Deficiency of tears
c. Deficiency of macus
d. ~All of the above
135. In orbital cellulitis the most common nasal sinus from where the extension of
inflammation occurs is:
a. Sphenoidal sinus
b. ~Ethmoidal sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Frontal sinus
136. All of the following are the complications of orbital cellulitis except:
a. ~Cartico-cavernous fistula
b. Purulent meningitis
c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d. Cerebral abscess

137. Rhabdomysarcoma arise from
a. Unstriated muscle
b. Striated muscle
c. ~Connective tissue
d. All of the above
138. The most frequent cause of pulsating exophthalmos is:
a. Orbital varices
b. Haemangioma
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. ~Carotico-cavernous fistula
139. When the total refraction of the two eyes is unequal the condition is called:
a. Myopia
b. Hpermetropia
c. ~Anisometropia
d. Isometropia
140. The major factor responsible for hypermetropia
a. Curvature of the lens and cornea
b. ~Axial length of the eyeball
c. Loss of accomodation
d. Displacement of the lens
141. Bitots spots are signs of the
a. Trachoma
b. Spring catarrh
c. Pterygium
d. ~Vitamin A defociency
142. Steroids are contraindicated in
a. Iritis
b. Optic neuritis
c. ~Corneal ulcer
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
143. Treatment of aphakia does not include
a. Spectacles
b. Contact lenses
c. ~Radial keratotomy
d. Anterior chamber IOL
144. Intraocular pressure rises as a result
a. Increased outflow resistance
b. Obstruction of trabecular meshwork
c. Central retinal vein occlusion
d. ~All of the above

145. Blue dot cataract is
a. ~Congenital cataract
b. Juvenile cataract
c. Presenile cataract
d. Senile cataract
146. Steroid induced ctaracts are initially
a. Anterior subcapsular
b. Cortical
c. Nuclear
d. ~Posterior subcapsular
147. Miotics may cause
a. Posterior subcapsular cataract
b. ~Anterior subcapsular cataract
c. Cortical cataract
d. Nuclear cataract
148. Vitreous haemorrhage may be due to all except
a. ~Cataract
b. Diabetic retina
c. Trauma
d. Neo vessels on retina
149. In infants follicles develop only after the age of
a. 1 month
b. ~3 months
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
150. Distichiasis means
a. Absent of eye lashes
b. Inward turning of eye lashes
c. ~Presence of extra row of lashes
d. Scanty eye lashes
151. Transparency of the cornea is maintained
a. Irregular arrangement of collagen stromal fibres
b. ~Corneal endothelial pump mechanism
c. Vascularization of the cornea
d. Single layer of precorneal tear film
152. Aqueous humor
a. ~Produced by ciliary body epithelium
b. 80% production is thru diffusion and osmosis
c. Anterior chamber is about 3.5mm deep
d. Aqueous contain higher amount of sodium

153. Regarding iris
a. ~Sphincter pupillae is supplied by parasympathetic autonomous secretomotor fibers
b. Dilator pupillae is supply by branch of trigeminal nerve
c. Posterior synechiae means adhesion b/w the peripheral iris and the cornea
d. Pilocarpine can cause dilatation of pupil
154. Sharp instrument passing through the superior orbital fissure would most likely severe
the following nerve
a. ~Abducent nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Maxillary nerve
d. Optic nerve
155. 70 year old lady came to emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss, she
had severe pain in the temple region specially when combing. Her ESR is 55mm/hr. Diagnosis is
a. Angle closure glaucoma
b. ~Giant cell arteritis causing arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
c. Nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy
d. Central retinal artery occlusion
156. Panphotocoagulation in diabetic mellitus is indicated for
a. Preproliferative
b. Ischemic maculopathy
c. ~New vessels at the disc
d. Retinal cotton wool spots
157. Microaneurysms are present in b/w
a. Retinal pigment epithelium and inner plexiform layer
b. Nerve fibre layer and outer limiting membrane
c. Inner and outer plexiform layer
d. Nerve fibre layer and R.P.E
158. Flame shaped haemorrhages arise from
a. Middle layers of retina
b. Deeper capillary arterioles
c. ~Nerve fibre layer
d. Retinal pigment epithelium
159. Ciliary congestion is most marked at
a. Canthii
b. Fornix
c. /Limbus
d. Plica semilunaris
160. Kayser Fleischer ring is seen in
a. Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
b. Keratoglobus
c. Marfans syndrome
d. /Wilsons disease
161. Most common age related degeneration of cornea includes
a. Lipid keratopathy
b. Band keratopathy
c. /Arcus senilis
d. Spheroidal degeneration
162. The middle layer of normal tear film is produced by
a. Goblet cells
b. /Lacrimal and accessary lacrimal gland
c. Meibomian gland
d. Gland of Zeis
163. Most important factor to maintain corneal transparency
a. Regular arrangement of collagen fibres
b. Intact epithelium
c. Endothelial pump
d. Avascularity


1. Cornea is supplied by:
A. Lacrimal nerve
B. Frontal nerve
C. /Nasocilary nerve
D. Trochlear nerve

2. The depth of the anterior chamber in the centre is about:
A. /2.5 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 4.0 mm

3. Color Vision is the function of:
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglion cells
C. Rods
D. /Cones

4. Normal crystalline lens is rich in all except:
A. Glutathione
B. /Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Ascorbic acid

5. Pupils are small in all except in:
A. Old age
B. During sleep
C. Hypermetropes
D. /Myopes

6. In presbyopia it is better that the condition is:
A. Fully corrected
B. Over corrected
C. /Under corrected
D. Left as such

7. The most common factor responsible for myopia is:
A. /Axial length of the eye ball
B. Refractive index of the ocular media
C. Curvature of cornea and lens
D. Anterior displacement of the lens

8. Folllowing are the features of degenerative myopia except:
A. Vitreous synchisis and synresis
B. Posterior staphyloma and myopic crescent
C. /Small hyperaemic disc without any cup
D. Peripheral retinal degenerations

9. After removal of lens the eye becomes:
A. Highly astigmatic
B. Highly myopic
C. Emetropic
D. /Highly hypermetropic

10. Ciliary congesion occurs in all the following conditions except:
A. Iridocyclitis
B. /Acute conjunctivitis
C. Acute narrow angle glaucoma
D. Suppurative keratitis

11. Anterior chamber is usually shallow in all except:
A. In an infant
B. In hypermetope
C. In closed angle glaucoma
D. /In myope

12. The aqueous flare is best seen by:
A. Opthalmoscope
B. /Biomicroscope/Slit lamp
C. Operating microscope
D. Streak retinoscope

13. Fluorescein angiography has special role to play in:
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Central serous retinopathy
C. Cystoid macular oedema
D. /All of above

14. In an eye with opaque ocular media the retinal detachment can be diagnosed by:
A. Direct opthalmoscopy
B. Distant direct opthalmoscopy
C. Indirect opthalmoscopy
D. /Ocular ultrasonography(B-Scan)

15. The most effective route of administration of drug in endophthalmitis is:
A. Topical drops
B. /Intravitreal injection
C. Subconjunctival injection
D. Systemic route

16. The ocular side effects of systemic steroid is:
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. /Both of above
D. None of above

17. All of the following can cause ophthalmia neonatorum except:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoearrhoea
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. /Pseudomonas
D. Chlamydia oculogenitalis


18. Complication of trachoma infection is:
A. Trichiasis
B. /Corneal ulcer
C. Entropion
D. Xerosis conjunctivae

19. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is due to:
A. Exogenous allergic reaction
B. /Endogenous allergic reaction
C. Infection due to virus
D. Infection due to bacteria


20. Vernal conjunctivitis is common in
A. Spring season
B. /Summer season
C. Winter season
D. Rainy season

21. Secretions in the spring catarrh contains:
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. /Eosinophils
D. Monocytes

22. In the aetiology of pterygium following factors have been blamed except:
A. Pterygium frequently follows pingueculum
B. Exposure to ultraviolet rays is one of the aetiological factors
C. /It is viral aetiology
D. Dry, hot, sandy and sunny climate is blamed

23. Vision in pterygium is impaired by:
A. Fibrosis in pterygium resulting in astigmatism
B. The encroachment of pupillary area
C. /Both of abve
D. None of above

24. All are known to cause xerophthalmia except:
A. Vit. A deficiency
B. Lagophthalmos
C. Trachoma
D. /Acute catarrhal conjunctivitis

25. The following causes lead to delayed healing of corneal ulcer except:
A. Rise of IOP
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Chronic dacryosystitis
D. /Associated conjunctivitis

26. Steroids are indicated topically in:
A. Pneumococcal hypopyon ulcer
B. Herpes simplex keratitis
C. Mycotic ulcer
D. /Disciform keratitis

27. Ocular complications are usually associated with the involvement of:
A. /Nasociliary nerve
B. Lacrimal nerve
C. Frontal nerve
D. Trochlear nerve


28. In an established case of keratoconus the best treatment is:
A. /Penetrating keratoplasy
B. Spectacle lens
C. Hard contact lens
D. Soft contact lens

29. Scleritis is a common association of the following diseases except;
A. Systemic lupus erythematosis
B. /Herpes simplex infection
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

30. All of the following are causes of rubeosis iridis except:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Central retinal venous occlusion
C. /Coats disease
D. Sickle cell disease

31. Bilateral, punched out, heavily pigmented retinochoridal scars in the macular area are seen in:
A. /Toxoplasmosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis

32. Anterior chamber in intumescent cataract becomes:
A. /Shallow
B. Deep
C. No change
D. Irregular

33. Nuclear sclerosis causes change in the refractive state of the eye towards:
A. /Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astisgmatism
D. No change

34. Snow flake cataract is seen in:
A. /Diabetes
B. Tuberculosis
C. Wilsons disease
D. Galactosaemia

35. The early symptom of senile cataract is:
A. Seeing stationary spots before the eyes
B. Uniocular polyopia
C. Coloured haloes
D. /All of above
36. Most common postoperative complication of extracapsular cataract extraction is:
A. Endothelial decompensation
B. /Posterior capsule thickening
C. Cystoid macular oedema
D. Retinal detachment

37. The type of laser employed for treatment of posterior capsule thickening is:
A. Argon laser
B. Krypton laser
C. /YAG laser
D. Excimer laser

38. Vitreous haemorrhage occurs in:
A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Eales disease
C. Trauma
D. /All of above

39. All of the following lead to neovascular glaucoma except:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. /Central serous retinopathy
C. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
D. Sickle cell retinopathy

40. All of the following features may precipitate an attack of narrow angle glaucoma
except:
A. /Narrow pupil
B. Shallow anterior chamber with narrow angle
C. Anterioly placed lens in a hypermetropic eye
D. Closely apposed iris to the lens causing physiological iris bombe

41. Colored haloes are seen in all of the following except:
A. Narrow angle glaucoma
B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. Immature senile cataract
D. /Acute iridocyclitis

42. The dark room prone test is the provocative test for:
A. Primary open angle glaucoma
B. /Primary narrow angle glaucoma
C. Both of above
D. None of above

43. All of the following are cardinal signs of open angle glaucoma except:
A. Rise of IOP
B. /Frequent change of near vision glasses
C. Field defects
D. Cupping of the disc

44. Timolol eye drops are contraindicated in:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Patients of bradycardia and heart blocks
C. /Both of above
D. None of above

45. The accepted treatment of clinically significant macular oedema of diabetes is:
A. Cryotherapy
B. Diathermy
C. /Laser photocoagulation
D. None of above

46. Roths spots are seen in:
A. Anaemic retinopathy
B. Leukaemic retinopathy
C. Retinopathy of sub acute bacterial endocarditis
D. /All of above

47. Cherry red spots in the macular area of the retina is seen in:
A. Central retinal venous occlusion
B. /Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Central chlorioretinitis

48. Obstruction of central retinal artery is nearly always:
A. /At the lamina cribrosa
B. Behind the lamina cribrosa
C. Infront of the lamina cribrosa
D. None of above

49. The early sign of the background diabetic retinopathy is:
A. /Microaneurysm in the macular area
B. Small dot and blot haemorrhage
C. Hard exudates
D. All of above

50. Indications of vitrectomy in more advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
A. Non resolving vitreous haemorrhage
B. Traction retinal detachment
C. /Both of above
D. None of above

51. Salt and pepper fundus is a characteristic of:
A. Tubercular choroloretinitis
B. /Congenital syphilitic retinal affection
C. Presumed histoplasma syndrome
D. Congenital toxoplasmosis

52. In the detachment of retina it is the:
A. Pigment epithelium and sensory retina which separates from choroid
B. /Pigment layer which separates from neurosensory retina
C. Outer nuclear layer which separates from inner nuclear layer
D. None of above

53. Rhegmatogenous detachment is due to the formation of:
A. Hole in the vitreous
B. Hole in the pigment epithelial layer
C. /Hole in the neurosensory retina
D. None of above


54. Retinal tears are commonly associated with:
A. Lattice degeneration
B. Snail track degeneration
C. While without pressure
D. /All of above

55. The longest part of the optic neve is:
A. Intraocular
B. Intraorbital
C. Intracanalicular
D. /Intracranial

56. Night vision is a function of:
A. /Rods
B. Cones
C. Rods and cones
D. None of above.

57. Night blindness is a symptom of all of the following except:
A. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
B. Vit. A deficiency
C. Liver cirrihosis
D. /All of above

58. The most common type of presentation of retinoblastoma in a child is:
A. Esotropia
B. Severe uveitis
C. /Leucocoria
D. Proptosis

59. All of the following are causes of leucocoria except:
A. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
B. Coats disease
C. /Buphthalmos
D. Retinopathy of prematurity

60. The other mode of therapy of retinoblastoma else than surgery is:
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Photocoagulation
D. /All of above

61. Following are the causes of uniocular diplopia except:
A. Iridodialysis
B. Subluxatd lens with the edge of the lens crossing the pupilliary area
C. A hole in the iris
D. /Paralytic squint

62. Metals which frequently lead to suppuration are the following except:
A. /Tantalum
B. Zinc
C. Nickel
D. Mercury


63. Capsulotomy (non-invasive) can be carried out by:
A. /Argon laser
B. Krypton laser
C. YAG laser
D. Hruby laser

64. Postoperative complications of the cataract surgery is:
A. Prolapse of the iris
B. Shallow anterior chamber
C. Endophthalmitis
D. /All of above

65. Evisceration is indicated in:
A. Painful blind eye
B. /Panophthalmitis
C. Badly mutilated eye
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia

66. Strabismic amblyopia is treated by:
A. Surgery
B. Anti prostaglandin eye drops
C. /Occlusion of the good eye
D. Occlusion of the squinting eye


67. Hordeolum externum is an acute suppurative inflammation of:
A. /Gland of Zeis
B. Gland of Moll
C. Gland of Wolfring
D. Gland of Krause

68. The treatment of trichiasis is:
A. Epilation
B. Destruction of hair follicle by diathermy
C. Destruction of hair follicle by electrolysis
D. /All of above

69. If the eye ball is congenitally absent the condition is called as:
A. /Congenital anophthalmos
B. Congenital enophthalmos
C. Congenital exophthalmos
D. None of above

70. Nasolacrimal duct opens into:
A. Middle meatus
B. Superior meatus
C. /Inferior meatus
D. None of above

71. The systemic cause of dacryoadenitis is:
A. Mumps
B. Influenza
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. /All of above

72. A standard Schirmer test is carried out for:
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. /5 minutes

73. The most frequent cause of pulsating exophthalmos is:
A. /Carotico-cavernous fistula
B. Neurofibromaosis
C. Haemangioma
D. Orbital varices
74. The strongest attachment of the vitreous body is to the
A. Macula
B. /Vitreous base
C. Posterior surface of lens
D. Optic disc
75. Actively secreted aqueous humour is rich in any of the following as compared to plasma
A. Bicarbonate
B. /Ascorbic acid
C. Pottassium
D. Lactic acid





1. Pupil is markedly contricted in
a. Myopia
b. Dim illumination
c. Sympathomimetic drugs
d. /Parasympathomimetic drugs
2. Pupil is dialated in:
a. Bright illumination
b. CNS Syphilis
c. Parasympathomimetic drugs
d. /Sympathomimetic drugs
3. Total refractive power of the eye is
a. 40D
b. 50D
c. /60D
d. 70D
4. Features of Diabetic Cataract are
a. Rosette Cataract
b. Nuclear Cataract
c. Cortical Cataract
d. /Snowflake Cataract
5. K.F ring is seen in:
a. /Wilson disease
b. Fabry disease
c. Myotonic dystrophy
d. Diabetes Mellitus
6. Late complication of cataract surgery
a. Wound leak
b. Iris prolapsed
c. Keratitis
d. /Posterior capsular opacity


7. Shallow A/C found in:
a. Aphakia
b. Retinal Detachment
c. Hyphema
d. /Wound leak (Post op cataract surgery)
8. Deep A/C found in
a. /Aphakia
b. Malignant glaucoma
c. Choroidal effusion
d. Acute congestive glaucoma
9. IOP is measured by
a. /Applanation tonometer
b. Exophthalmometer
c. Gonioscopy
d. Keratoscopy
10. Goniolens is used to examine
a. /Anterior chamber angle
b. Corneal layer
c. Retinal layer
d. Conjunctival layer
11. Most common treatment of Keratokonus is
a. /Hard contact lens
b. Soft contact lens
c. Bandage contact lens
d. LASIK surgery
12. Indications of lamellar Keratoplasty
a. Corneal perforation
b. Recurrent pterigium
c. /Bullous keratopathy
d. Keratoconus
13. Central corneal scar indicates
a. Superior limbic keratoconjunctivitis
b. Trachoma
c. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
d. /Keratoconus
14. Which layer of cornea is secreted & regenerated by endothelium
a. Bowmans layer
b. Stroma
c. /Descmets membrane
d. Endothelium
15. Most common predisposing factor causing fungal keratitis is
a. /Vegetative trauma
b. Vth cranial nerve palsy
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Herpes simplex
16. Most common cause of keratitis in contact lens wearer is
a. /Acanthamoeba keratitis
b. Moorens ulcer
c. Marginal keratitis
d. Herpes simplex keratitis
17. Munsons sign in keratoconus is
a. Scissoring reflex
b. Hydrops of the cornea
c. Bulging of upper lid when patient looks up
d. /Bulging of lower lid when patient looks down
18. Oil droplet sign in keratoconus is seen by
a. Torch examination
b. Retinoscopy
c. Keratoscopy
d. /Direct ophthalmoscopy
19. The unequal size of pupils is called
a. Anisometropia
b. Aniseikonia
c. /Anisocoria
d. Aniridia
20. The most fast acting cycloplegic drug is
a. Cyclopentolate
b. Homatropine
c. Atropine
d. /Tropicamide
21. Most infants are born with
a. Myopia
b. /Hypermetropia
c. Astigmatism
d. Emetropia
22. After removal of the lens the eye becomes
a. Highly astigmatic
b. Highly myopic
c. Emetropic
d. /Highly hypermetropic
23. Following are the features of degenerative myopia
a. Vitreous synchisis & syneresis
b. Posterior staphyloma & myopic crescent
c. Peripheral retinal degeneration
d. /All of the above
24. The most common type of error of refraction is
a. Myopia
b. /Hypermetropia
c. Astigmatism
d. Emetropia
25. Follicles in the lower fornix are more commonly seen in
a. /Follicular conjunctivitis
b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c. Trachoma
d. Allergic conjunctivitis
26. Phylectunar conjunctivitis is due to
a. Exogenous allergic reaction
b. Infection due to virus
c. /Endogenous allergic reaction
d. Infection due to bacteria
27. Phlyctens are most commonly seen in the
a. Cornea
b. /Bulbar conjunctiva at or near the limbus
c. Fornices
d. Palpebral conjunctiva
28. Bitots spots are seen in
a. Spring catarrh
b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c. Membranous conjunctivitis
d. /Vit- A deficiency
29. Papillary conjunctivitis is seen in
a. /Allergic conjunctivitis
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Viral conjunctivitis
d. None of the above
30. Acanthamoeba keratitis is a
a. Fungal infection of the cornea
b. Bacterial infection of the cornea
c. /Protozoal infection of the cornea
d. Chlamydial infection of the cornea
31. Hard contact lenses are made of
a. Hydroxyethylmethacrylate (HEMA)
b. /Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
c. Silicone
d. Glass
32. Contact lenses are useful in
a. Myopia
b. Anisometropia
c. Keratoconus
d. /All of the above
33. The greatest incidence of severe microbial keratitis is found in patients with
a. Hard contact lens
b. /Soft contact lens
c. Semi soft contact lens
d. All of the above
34. Ocular side effects of systemic steroids
a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. /Both of above
d. None of abive
35. Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by
a. Pseudomonas
b. Corynebacterium Diphtheria
c. /Neisseria Gonorrhoea
d. None of the above
36. True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by
a. Pneumococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. / Corynebacterium Diphtheria
d. Gonococcus
37. Marked itching is the hallmark of the symptomatology of
a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
b. Follicular conjunctivitis
c. /Spring catarrh
d. Trachoma
38. Secretions in the spring catarrh contains
a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. /Eosinophils
d. Monocytes
39. Examination of fundus is done by
a. /Ophthalmoscope
b. Retinoscope
c. Keratoscope
d. Amblyoscope
40. Band keratopathy is seen in
a. Upper part of the cornea
b. /Interpalpebral area of the cornea
c. Lower part of the cornea
d. Peripheral part of the cornea
41. Following test is helpful in the diagnosis of keratitis
a. Conjunctival swab culture
b. /Corneal scraping for gram staining & culture
c. Impression cytology
d. Blood culture
42. Minute Corneal foreign body is detected by
a. Torch examination
b. Retinoscope
c. /Slit lamp biomicroscope
d. Keratoscope
43. Chalazion is
a. Infection of zeis gland
b. /Chronic inflammatory granuloma of meibomian gland
c. Suppurative inflammation of tarsal gland
d. None of above
44. Trichiasis is
a. /Misdirection of lashes
b. Decreased number of lashes
c. Extra row of lashes
d. Absent lashes
45. Myasthenia gravis is
a. Allergic reaction
b. /Autoimmune disease
c. Viral disease
d. Fungal disease
46. Nasolacrimal duct opens into
a. Middle meatus
b. Superior meatus
c. /Inferior meatus
d. Inferior turbinate


47. Schrimer test is the test for diagnosis of
a. /Dry eye
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Keratitis
d. Dacryocystitis
48. In babies with congenital dadryocystitis the most common abnormality of the lacrimal passage
is an obstruction at
a. Punctum
b. Canaliculus
c. Lacrimal sac
d. /Nasolacrimal duct
49. Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of
a. Nasolacrimal duct
b. /Lacrimal sac
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Canaliculi
50. Scrimmer test is done by
a. /Whatman filter paper no. 41
b. Phenol red thread test
c. Fluorescein strip
d. None of the above








MU07b q Vascular smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in:

A. Different source of Calcium

B. Absence of tropomyosin

C. Contraction not dependant on interaction between actin and myosin

D. Force developed is less