ASAT

(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)

For
LEADER COURSE
(For XII Passed & Appeared Students)
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so by
the invigilator.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will
be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 20 pages and all the 100 questions.
6. A candidate has to write his/her answer in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Black ball point pen as the correct answer of the question attempted.
7. Question Paper format :
The question paper consists of 2 part.
Part-I : IQ (Mental Ability) & Part-II : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Biology.
Part-II, Section A and Section B are compulsory to attempt. You need to attempt any one of the
Section C or D (Mathematics/Biology) & fill your response corresponding to Q. No. in ORS sheet.
8. Marking Scheme :
Part-I : For each question in Part-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this part.
Part-II : For each question of Part-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this part.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Time : 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 300
1/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
PART - I
I Q (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Find the wrong term :
445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4
(1) 25 (2) 46 (3) 109 (4) 221
2. Find the missing term :
3, 11, 19, 31, 43, ?
(1) 57 (2) 53 (3) 59 (4) 61
3. Roentgen is related to X-rays in the same way as Becquerel is related to ........?..........
(1) Uranium (2) Radioactivity
(3) Fission (4) Superconductivity
Direction for (Q.4) :- In the following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some
manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
4. (1) Ample (2) Copious
(3) Plentiful (4) Abundance
5. In a certain code, VISHWANATHAN is written as NAAWTHHSANIV. How is KARUNAKARANA written
in that code ?
(1) AKNUARRANKA (2) KAANRAURNAAK
(3) NKKRANKRAUK (4) RURNKAAUNAK
Direction for (Q. 6 to Q. 8) :- Read the information given below to answer these questions -
Rani and Shreshtha are a married couple having two daughters, Medha and Deepti. Deepti is married to Anurag
who is the son of Garima and Tarun. Nidhi is the daughter of Anurag. Komal, who is Anurag's sister , is married
to Harshit and has two sons, Aman and Prem. Prem is the grandson of Garima and Tarun.
6. What is the relationship between Aman and Nidhi :
(1) Cousins (2) Husband-Wife (3) Father-Daughter (4) Uncle-Niece
7. How is Komal related to Deepti ?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister-in-law (3) Sister (4) None of these
8. Which of the following is true :
(1) Tarun is Deepti's maternal uncle
(2) Aman is the son of medha
(3) Garima is Harshit's mother-in-law
(4) Nidhi is the cousin of Komal.
Leader Course
2/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
Direction for (Q.9 to Q.13) :- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions -
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III-tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a different
profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologiest. They occupied two
lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper berth. The Architect
is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth
and their professions are pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a Journalist nor an
Architect. K occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor.
9. Who is the Architect?
(1) D (2) H (3) R (4) Data inadequate
10. What is D's profession ?
(1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer (3) Doctor (4) Data inadequate
11. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth ?
(1) BT (2) BD (3) BK (4) None of these
12. Which of the following groups occupies the middle berth?
(1) DKT (2) HKT (3) DKR (4) None of these
13. Which of the following combinations of person - berth - profession is correct ?
(1) K - Upper - Lawyer (2) D - Upper - Doctor
(3) R - Lower - Architect (4) All correct
14. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west. He then
turned to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km. Finally , he turned
right and drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
(1) 2 km West (2) 5 km East (3) 6 km South (4) None of these
15. A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English (E) and Sanskrit
(S) is given below :
200 220
170
110 80
E H
S
100
120
What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know Sanskrit ?
(1)
1
9
(2)
1
10
(3)
10
17
(4)
5
27
3/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
16. If stands for , stands for +, + stands for and stands for , which one of the following equations
is correct ?
(1) 15 5 5 20 + 10 = 6 (2) 8 10 3 + 5 6 = 8
(3) 6 2 + 3 12 3 = 15 (4) 3 7 5 10 + 3 = 10
17.
18 24 32
12 14 16
3 ? 4
72 112 128
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
Direction for (Q.18 to Q.20) :- From the data available in the figure answer the questions which follow:
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
1994
1
2
.
5
1
5
1
0
2
0
1995
1
0
5
0
1
7
.
5
2
0
1996
2
5
3
0
2
0
1
5
2
0
3
0
3
5
2
5
4
5
3
5
3
0
2
5
1997 1998
Punjab U.P Haryana Gujarat
Figure : Production of Rice in Four States : Punjab,
U.P., Haryana and Gujarat over the Years (in lakh tonnes)
18. In which of the following state/states did the production of rice increase every year ?
(1) Punjab (2) UP (3) Haryana (4) Punjab & Haryana
19. What is the percentage rise in rice production in Gujarat in 1998 over the previous year ?
(1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 33.33% (4) None of the above
20. The production of rice in Gujarat in 1998 is what percent less than the production of rice in U.P. in 1997?
(1) 16.66% (2) 20% (3) 40% (4) 0%
Leader Course
4/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
PART - II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Two different rods A and B are kept as shown in figure. The variation of temperature of different cross
sections is plotted in a graph shown in figure.
A B
70C 100C 35C

100
70
35
0 30 100
Distance
(cm)
Temp.(C)
The ratio of thermal conductivities of A and B is
(1) 2 (2) 0.5 (3) 1 (4) 2/3
22. In a photoelectric emission, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of frequency f. The potential
difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for various frequencies. If Y has a greater work
function than X, which graph illustrates the expected results?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
5/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
23. When an electron accelerated by potential different U is bombarded on a specific metal, the emitted Xray
spectrum obtained is shown in figure.
If the potential difference is reduced to U/3, the correct spectrum is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
24. Three resistors are connected in series with a battery of internal voltage E = 62 volts and internal resistance
approximately zero. Measurements are carried out with a single voltmeter.
B C D A
E=62V
The result of the first three measurements are V
AB
= V
BC
= V
CD
= 20 Volts. What does the instrument show
when it is connected between the points B and D?
(1) 38 V (2) 20 V (3) 40 V (4) 42 V
Leader Course
6/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
25. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable resistor as shown in figure (i). The
current i through circuit can be varied by shifting the contact point C along the length of the variable resistor.
The plot of thermal power P generated in R versus V, the voltage across R is shown in figure (ii). The slope
of this curve at V = E/4
Fig. (i)
i
C
R
i
E
r
Fig. (ii)
E/2
P
V
E O
(1)
E
r
(2)
E
2r
(3)
E
4r
(4) insufficient information
26. A soap bubble 10 cm in radius with a wall thickness of
1000
3

is charged to a potential of 0.08 V. The
bubble bursts and falls as a spherical drop. Find the potential of the drop in volts.
(1) 80 V (2) 8 V (3) 0.8 V (4) 0.08 V
27. Consider a cube as shown in the figure-I; with an electrical charge uniformly distributed within its
volume. The intensity of electrical field and potential at one of its vertex P are E
0
and V
0
respectively. A
portion of half the size (half edge length) of the original cube is cut and removed as shown in the
figure-II. Find modulus of electric field and potential at the vertex P of the original cube.
P
Figure-I Figure-II
P
(1)
0
1
2
E
;
0
3
4
V
(2)
0 0
1 3
;
4 4
E V
(3)
0 0
1 1
;
4 4
E V
(4)
0 0
1 1
;
2 2
E V
7/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
28. Two smooth spherical non conducting shells each of radius R having uniformly distributed charge Q and
Q on their surfaces are released on a smooth non-conducting surface when the distance between their centres
is 5R. The mass of A is m and that of B is 2m. The speed of A just before A and B collide is
[Neglect gravitational interaction]

=

p
0
1
K
4
A B
m 2m
Q -Q
5R
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
(1)
2
2KQ
5mR
(2)
2
4KQ
5mR
(3)
2
8KQ
5mR
(4)
2
16KQ
5mR
29. A satellite of mass 5m orbits the earth in a circular orbit. At one point in its orbit, the satellite explodes into
two pieces, one of mass m and the other of mass 4m. After the explosion the mass m ends up travelling in
the same circular orbit, but in opposite direction. After explosion the mass 4m is
(1) In a circular orbit
(2) unbound
(3) elliptical orbit
(4) data is insufficient to determine the nature of the orbit.
30. In older times, people used to think that the Earth was flat. Imagine that the Earth is indeed not a sphere of
radius R, but an infinite plate of thickness H. What value of H is needed to allow the same gravitational
acceleration to be experienced as on the surface of the actual Earth ? (Assume that the Earths density is
uniform and equal in the two models.)
(1)
3
R 2
(2)
3
R 4
(3)
3
R 8
(4)
3
R
Leader Course
8/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
COMPREHENSION :- This section contains 2 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc.
Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehensions and three questions on
last comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Comprehension # 1 (Q.31 & Q.32) :- An Earth satellite is a body placed in a stable orbit about the Earth. These
satellites are used for communications, meteorology, Earth measurements (gravitation and magnetic fields), resource
evaluation (water, minerals), transmission of radio and TV signals, and as reference points for navigation.
Although most satellites are launched from ground based stations, more recently some have been placed in orbit
from one of NASA's space shuttles.
There are two requirements needed to place a satellite in a stable orbit at an insertion point C. (Figure). It is first
necessary to bring the satellite to that altitude and then the satellite must be given the necessary orbiting velocity.
The orbiting velocity for a circular orbit, also called the insertion velocity.
A
B
h
S
R
C
Earth
31. What is insertion velocity for very small h (<<R)
(1)

-

GM h
1
R 2R
(2)

-

2GM h
1
R 2R
(3)

-

GM 2h
1
R R
(4)

-

GM h
1
2R 2R
32. If velocity at insertion point is k times escape velocity of the satellite at the insertion height h, then mark
incorrect statement.
(1) For k =1 satellite moves in a circular orbit
(2) For k 1 satellite moves in an unbound orbit
(3) For k < 1 satellite may move in an elliptical orbit
(4) For k < 1 satellite can move in circular orbit
9/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
Comprehension # 2 (Q.33 to Q.35) :- Light having photon energy hn is incident
B
X
Y
e
-
Z
q
v
on a metallic plate having work function f to eject the electrons. The most energetic
electrons are then allowed to enter in a region of uniform magnetic field B as shown in
figure. The electrons are projected in XZ plane making an angle q with Xaxis and
magnetic field
0

B B i =
r
along Xaxis. Maximum pitch of the helix described by an
electron is found to be p. Take mass of electron as m and charge as q.
33. The correct relation between p and B
0
is
(1) ( ) = p q n -f
0
qpB 2 cos 2 h m (2)
( ) n -f
= p q
0
2 h
qpB 2 cos
m
(3) ( ) = p n -f
0
pqB 2 2 h m (4)
p
= n -f
0
2 m
p h
qB
34. Considering the instant of crossing origin at t=0, the Zcoordinate of the location of electron as a function
of time is :
(1)
( )
0
0
2m h qB t
sin 1 cos
qB m
n - f
- q -



(2)
( )
0
0
2m h qB t
sin sin
qB m
n - f

q


(3)
( )
0
0
2m h qB t
sin sin
qB m
- n - f

q


(4)
( )
0
0
2m h qB t
sin
qB m
n - f

35. The plot between Xcoordinate of the location of electron as a function of time for different frequencies n
of the incident light, is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Leader Course
10/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
36. Amongst the following the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is :
N
CH
3
CH
3
OH
(a)
OH
(b) (c)
COOH O CH CH
2 3
(d)
CH OH
2
(1) (c) (2) (d) (3) (b) (4) (a)
37. Pick out the correct statements ?
(a) The hybrid state of carbon in carbonyl group is sp
2
.
(b) The hyperconjugation effect is known as no bond resonance.
(c)
+
is non-aromatic
(d) Dipole moment of vinyl chloride is less than that of methyl chloride.
(1) c,d only (2) a,b,c (3) a,b,d (4) b,c,d
38. Both [Ni(CO)
4
] and [Ni(CN)
4
]
2
are diamagnetic. The hybridization of nickel in these complexes respectively
are.
(1) sp
3
, sp
3
(2) sp
3
, dsp
2
(3) dsp
2
, sp
3
(4) dsp
2
, dsp
2
39. Electronic configuration of four elements A,B,C and D are given below :
(A) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
(B) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
4
(C) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
1
(D) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency of gain electron?
(1) A < C < B < D (2) A < B < C < D (3) D < B < C < A (4) D < A < B < C
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
11/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
40. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following statement about the magnetic character and
bond order is correct regarding O
2
+
?
(1) Paramagnetic and B.O. < O
2
(2) Paramagnetic and B.O. > O
2
(3) Diamagnetic and B.O. < O
2
(4) Diamagnetic and B.O. > O
2
41. 2.0 gm of charcoal is placed in 100 ml 0.05 M CH
3
COOH to form an adsorbed monoacidic layer of acetic
acid molecules and thereby the molarity of CH
3
COOH reduces to 0.49. The surface area of charcoal is
3 10
2
m
2
gm
1
. The surface area of charcoal adsorbed by each molecule of acetic acid is -
(1) 1 10
18
m
2
(2) 1 10
19
m
2
(3) 1.0 10
13
m
2
(4) 1.0 10
22
m
2
42. Calculate the standard reduction potential for the reaction H
2
O + e
1
2
H
2
+ OH

, using the nernst equation

and the fact that the standard reduction potential for the reaction H
+
+ e
1
2
H
2
in, by definition equal to
0.00 V at 25C.
(1) 0.79 volt (2) 0.8274 volt (3) 0.79 volt (4) +0.00 volt
43. Calculate the half life period of the first order reaction,
C
2
H
4
O(g) CH
4
(g) + CO(g)
If the initial pressure of C
2
H
4
O(g) is 80 mm and total pressure at the end of 20 minute is 120 mm.
(1) 40 min (2) 120 min (3) 20 min (4) 80 min
44. If benzoic acid (mol. mass = 122) is associated into double molecules when dissolved in benzene and the
osmotic pressure of a solution of 5 g of benzoic acid in 100 ml benzene is 5.73 atm at 10C. What is the
percentage association of benzoic acid.
(1) 80% (2) 70% (3) 90% (4) 85%
45. Which of the following has osmotic pressure equal to that of equimolar solution of K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
(a) Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
(b) AlCl
3
(c) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
Assume complete ionization :
(1) a and b (2) a only (3) b and c (4) a and c
Leader Course
12/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
COMPREHENSION :- This section contains 2 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc.
Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehensions and three questions on
last comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Comprehension # 1 (Q.46 & Q.47) :- Read the information given below to answer these questions -
Two aliphatic aldehydes P and Q react in the presence of aqueous K
2
CO
3
to give compounds R, which upon treatment
with HCN produce S. On acidification and heating S gives the product shown below :
O
CH
3
CH
3
OH
O
46. The compound P and Q respectively are :
(1) CH CH C H
3
CH
3
O
and CH C H
3
O
(2) CH CH C H
3
O CH
3
and H C H
O
(3) CH CH CH C H
3 2
O CH
3
and CH C H
3
O
(4) CH CH CH C H
3 2
O CH
3
and H C H
O
13/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
47. The compound R and S respectively are :
(1) CH C C C H
3
CH
3
O
CH
2
OH
and CH C CH OH
3
CH
3
OHCH
2
CN
(2)
CH
3
C CH C H
O
OHCHCH
3
CH
3
and
CH
3
C C H
O
CH CN
2
CH
3
(3) CH CH CH C H
3
CH
3
O
CH OH
2
and CH CH CH C H
3
O
CH
3
CH C N
2

(4)
CH CH CH C H
3
O
CH
3
CH
3
CHOH
and
CH
3
C CH OH
CN
CH OH
2
CH
3
Comprehension # 2 (Q.48 to Q.50) :- Read the information given below to answer these questions -
Conductivity cell is used to measure conductance of electrolyte. It makes use of conductivity water which does not
contain any ions. The cell constant of conductivity cell is determined by using relation.
1
K
R a
=
l
48. Calculate a of CH
3
COOH if
M

l for HCl, NaCl and CH

3
COONa are 426, 126 & 91 S.cm
2
mole
1
and
l
M = 14.4
S.cm
2
mole
1
at 0.015 M concentration.
(1) 0.037 (2) 0.018 (3) 0.37 (4) 0.18
49. Calculate K
a
for CH
3
COOH if a = 0.037 and concentration is 0.015 M.
(1) 1 10
5
(2) 2 10
5
(3) 2 10
5
(4) 2 10
4
50. Equal volume of 0.015 M CH
3
COOH and 0.015 NaOH are mixed together. What would be molar conductivity
of mixture if conductivity of CH
3
COONa is 6.3 10
4
S.cm
1
.
(1) 8.4 s. cm
2
mole
1
(2) 84 s. cm
2
mole
1
(3) 8.4 s. m
2
mole
1
(4) 84 s. m
2
mole
1
Leader Course
14/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Attempt any one of the section C or D
51. If tangents are drawn from a variable point on the line x + y = 4 to the circle x
2
+ y
2
= 9 such that corresponding
chord of contact always passes through P(a,b), then value of 2(a + b) is-
(1) 9 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
52. Value of l for which three planes 2x y z = 9, x 2y + z = 4, x + y + lz = 3 + l do not have a common
point, is-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 1
53. Let
3
2 3
x sin x cos x
(x) 1 0 1
p p p
=
-
where p is constant, then
'''
2
p


is equal to-
(1) p
2
(2) p
2
(3) 5p
2
(4) 5p
2
54. If
x
y
2
=
is a chord of circle x
2
+ y
2
= 10y, then equation of circle with this chord as diameter
is-
(1) x
2
+ y
2
4x 2y = 0 (2) x
2
+ y
2
16x 8y = 0
(3) x
2
+ y
2
= 1 (4) x
2
+ y
2
= 10
55. If y sec x sec x sec x ....... = + + + , then value of ( )
/ 3
0
dy
2y 1 dx
dx
p

-

is equal to (secx > 0)-

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
56. The equation cotx = sinx has a root in the interval-
(1)
,
3 2
p p


(2)
,
4 3
p p


(3)
,
6 4
p p


(4)
0,
6
p


15/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
57.
e
e
log | x |
dx
x 1 log | x | +

equals (x 0)
(1) ( )
2
1 n | x |. n | x | 2 c
3
+ - + l l
(2) ( )
2
1 n | x |. n | x | 2 c
3
+ + + l l
(3) ( )
1
1 n | x |. n | x | 2 c
3
+ + + l l
(4) ( )
1
1 n | x | n | x | 3 c
3
+ - + l l
(where 'c' is the integration constant)
58. A table has 7 seats, 4 being on one side facing the window and 3 being on opposite side, then the number of
ways in which 7 people can be seated on the table, if 3 people x,y,z must sit on the side facing the
window -
(1) 144 (2) 576 (3) 96 (4) 1152
5. If
1
1 sin x
y tan , x ,
1 sin x 2
-
+ p
= p

-

, then
dy
dx
equals-
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3)
1
2
(4)
1
2
-
60. Let (x) = x
3
+ ax + b with a b and suppose that the tangent lines to the graph of (x) at x = a and x = b are
parallel. Then (1) is equal to-
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2
61. Let A(2,4), B(3,8) and C(x,y) are three points such that ACB is a right angle and the area of
DABC
41
2
=
square units. Then number of such points C is-
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) Infinite
62. Given y = (x) be the solution of differential equation
x 2
e dy x dx 2xdx
-
- = with y(0) = 0, then which of
the following is true - (where
( )
1
x
x 0
e lim 1 x

= + )
(1) (x) has local minimum at x = 2.
(2) (x) has no point of inflection.
(3) area bounded by the curve
2
(x)
x
, coordinate axes and the line x = 1 is 2e.
(4) The local maximum value of (x) is
2
4
e
.
Leader Course
16/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
63. Let A = [a
ij
] and B = [b
ij
] are two square matrices of order n such that A is symmetric and B is skew symmetric,
then which of the following is true -
(1) A
n
, B
n
are symmetric matrix for all n N.
(2) for n = 3, (A
1
B
1
)
T
= B
1
A
1
.
(3) Let a
ij
= b
ij
for i j and C = A + B, then det.C = det.A is always true.
(4) Let a
ij
= b
ij
for i < j, (a
ij
0 for i < j ) then C = A + B is necessarily an upper triangular matrix.
64. The area bounded by the curve y = (x), the ordinates x = 1 & x = e
a
(a > 0) and the x-axis is given by ae
a
,
then (x) equals (where (x) > 0)-
(1) x + lnx (2) e
x
+ xe
x
(3) 1 + lnx (4) x + e
x
65. The locus of the point of intersection of the lines x 2y = 3sinq, x + 2y = 2cosq is (where q is a variable
parameter)
(1) 13x
2
+ 52y
2
+ 20xy = 36 (2) 13x
2
+ 52y
2
+ 52xy 36 = 0
(3) 13x
2
+ 20y
2
+ 20xy = 36 (4) 13x
2
+ 20y
2
+ 20xy + 36 = 0
66. Let (x) is a continuous function in [a, b] such that (a) (b) and (a), (b) > 0, then which of the following
is INCORRECT ?
(1) If (c) =
(a) (b)
2
+
, then there always exist at least one 'c' in (a, b)
(2) If (c) (a)(b) = then there always exist at least one 'c' in (a, b)
(3) If 5(c) 3(a) 2(b) = + , then there always exist at least one 'c' in (a, b)
(4) If 2(c) 3(a) (b) = - , then there always exists at least one 'c' in (a, b)
67. If (x + (y)) = (x) + y " x,y R and (0) = 671 then the value of (2013) is-
(1) 3 (2) 671 (3) 2013 (4) data insufficient
68. A spherical balloon is expanding. If at any instant rate of increase of its volume is 16 times of rate of increase
of its radius, then its radius at that instant, is-
(1)
1
p
(2)
2
p
(3)
2
p
(4)
4
3 p
69. If a,b,c are in A.P. , b,c,d are in G.P. and c,d,e are in H.P., then a,c,e are in (a,b,c,d,e are non-zero distinct
numbers)-
(1) A.P. (2) G.P. (3) H.P. (4) None of these
17/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
70. If
3
x 0
a sin x b tan x 3
lim
x 2

+
=
, then |a + 2b| is-
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
COMPREHENSION :- This section contains 2 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc.
Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehensions and three questions on
last comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Comprehension # 1 (Q.71 & Q.72) :- Consider the 8 digit number N = 22234000.
71. How many possible 8 digit numbers can be formed using all 8 digits of N?
(1)
8
3
5!
C .
2!
(2)
7
3
5!
C .
2!
(3)
8
3
5!
C . .3!
2!
(4)
7
3
5!
C . .3!
2!
72. A number is randomly chosen out of all possible 8 digit numbers formed using all 8 digits of N. Probability
that it will be divisible by 1000 is -
(1)
1
42
(2)
1
35
(3)
1
30
(4)
1
20
Comprehension # 2 (Q.73 to Q.75) :- Let (x), g(x), h(x) are three differentiable functions satisfying
( ) ( )
3 3
2
1 2
x x
(x) g(x) dx C , (x) g(x) dx x C
3 3
+ = + - = - +

& 3
(x) 1
dx C
h(x) x
= - +

(where C
1
,C
2
,C
3
are integration constants).
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :
73. The value of ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
x g x h x dx + +

is equal to-
(1)
3 4
x x
C
3 4
+ + (2)
3 4
2
x x
x C
3 4
- + + (3)
2 3 4
x x x
C
2 3 4
+ + + (4) None of these
(where 'C' is integration constant)
74. Number of points of non-differentiability of function f(x) = min{(x), (x) + g(x), h(x)} is equal to-
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
75. If number of distinct terms in the expansion of ( )
n
(x) g(x)
1 (x)
h(x)
S
+
+ +


, (n N) is 31, then the
value of n is equal to-
(1) 17 (2) 5 (3) 16 (4) 15
Leader Course
18/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
SECTION-D : BIOLOGY
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
76. Although in internal fertilization showing plants male gametes are motile, yet which of the following group
donot possess non motile male gametes :
(1) Marchantia (2) Pteridium (3) Ginkgo (4) Pisum
77. Regarding to number of ovules in ovary select out the odd one
(1) Wheat (2) Orchids (3) Paddy (4) Mango
78. Regarding to aquatic plants pollination which of the following is odd one
(1) Vallisneria (2) Hydrilla (3) Water lily (4) Zostera
79. Intra testicular genital duct system includes :
(1) Tubuli recti, rete testis and ductuli efferentes
(2) Tubuli recti, vas deferens and ejaculatory duct
(3) Urethra, epididymis and Tubuli recti
(4) Seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct and ampulla
80. Infertility cases due to inability of male partner to inseminate the female corrected by :
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(3) Artificial insemination (4) ICSI
81. The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele when it produces :
(1) Normal enzyme (2) A non functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme at all (4) Inactive enzyme
82. Regarding to Meselson and Stahl experiment for semi conservative nature of DNA replication select out the
wrong statement
(1)
15
N of
15
NH
4
Cl was incorporated in DNA and other compounds
(2)
15
N &
14
N can be differentiate on the basis of radioactive activity
(3) Heavy and normal DNA molecules could be distinguished by CsCl density gradient centrifugation
(4)
15
N used in
15
NH
4
Cl was not a radioactive isotope
83. Shape of seed depends on starch granules size, so inheritance of seed shape show ......... relationship while
inheritance of starch grains show ...........
(1) Dominant recessive, codominance
(2) Incomplete dominance, codominance
(3) Dominant - recessive, incomplete dominance
(4) Codominance, incomplete dominance
19/20
Leader Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
84. Out of the following which is an example of convergent evolution ?
(A) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(B) Flippers of penguins and Dolphins
(C) Sweet potato and potato
(1) A and C (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) A, B and C
85. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?
(1) Macrophage (2) T
H
cells (3) T
K
cells (4) N.K. cells
86. (a) Smack
(b) Diacetylmorphine (c) White
(d) Odourless (e) Bitter crystalline compound
(f) Extracted from latex of poppy plant
Above statements/informations are correct for:-
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin (3) Cocain (4) Barbiturates
87. Biological principles as applied to animal husbandry and food production. Which of the following technique
is not going to play a pivotal role in further enhancing food production
(1) Embryo transfer technique (2) Tissue culture technique
(3) Mutations (4) Biomining
88. Bacillus thuringiensis show their inhibitory effect on which part of the insect body
(1) Gut (2) Respiratory tract
(3) Nervous system (4) Circulatory system
89. If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of b-galactosidase enzyme then
(1) Non-recombinants will give blue coloured colonies in presence of chromogenic substrate
(2) Recombinant will give blue coloured colonies in presence of chromogenic substrate
(3) Both recombinants and non-recombinants give blue colour
(4) Non-recombinants do not produce colour due to insertional inactivation.
90. For the control of the cotton bollworms, which one of the genes is useful ?
(1) Cry 1 Ac (2) Cry 1 Ab (3) Cry 1 Ad (4) All of these
91. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragments separate according to size (smaller the fragment size, the faster it
moves) this effect is called :
(1) Sieving effect (2) Movement effect (3) Size effect (4) Spooling
92. What is the salinity (part per thousand) of hypersaline lagoons
(1) 5 % (2) 3035% (3) More then 100 % (4) Less than 50 %
93. Behavioural response to cope with variations in the environment can be seen in
(1) CAM plants (2) Kangaroo Rat (3) Desert lizards (4) Archaebacteria
Leader Course
20/20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
94. Find out the right one
(1) India has 7.1% species diversity
(2) India is one of the 22 megacenters of Biodivessity world
(3) Acc. to Mary's global estimate only 22% of the total species have been recorded so for
(4) Acc. to May's estimation, more than 3,00,000 plant species yet to be discoverd.
95. The goal of Euro - norms, according to roadmap is to reduce sulphur to
(1) 50 ppm in petrol and dieseel (2) 150 ppm in petrol and diesel
(3) 350 ppm in petrol and diesel (4) 250 ppm in petrol and diesel
COMPREHENSION :- This section contains 2 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc.
Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehensions and three questions on
last comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Comprehension # 1 (Q.96 & Q.97) :- Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time
of birth. This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreigh agents into our
body.
96. Which of the following is incorrect match of innate immunity.
(1) Physical barrier - skin (2) Cytokine barrier - Interferon
(3) Cellular barrier - PMNL (4) Physiological barrier - Neutrophils
97. Tears from eyes prevent microbial growth, is an example of which type of barrier of innate immunity.
(1) Physical (2) Cellular (3) Physiological (4) All of these
Comprehension # 3 (Q.98 to Q.100) :- An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly, easily available, effective
and reversible with no or least side-effect. A wide range of contraceptive methods are presently available which
could be broadly grouped into the following categories namely, natural/traditional, Barrier, IUPS oral contraceptive,
Injectables. implants and surgical methods.
98. Natural methods work on the principle of
(1) Avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting
(2) Inhibition of ovulation
(3) Inhibition of implantation
(4) Phagocytosis of sperms
99. An example of non-medicated IUDs
(1) CuT (2) Multiload - 375 (3) Lippes loop (4) LNG - 20
100. Which contraceptive is highly effective but reversibility is very poor :
(1) Barrier method (2) IUDs (3) Implants (4) Tubectomy
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