JPT 5 Main 23 03 2014 Paper Code 0

Academic Session: 2013-14
0
CODE
JEE PREPARATORY TEST-5(JPT-5) - JEE MAIN PATTERN
Target: JEE (Main+Advanced) 2014
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test
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strictly prohibited.
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you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
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3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting
of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry having 30
questions. Mathematics & Physics part consists of Two
sections and Chemistry consists of One section.
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up more than one response in any question will be treated as
wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Date: 23 March 2014 | Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 360
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Course Code : JP, JF, JR, JCC, ER, EP & EF
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Space for Rough Work
JPT5MAIN230314C0-1
PART - A

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 27 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

1. In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket,
10 like both cricket and tennis.The
number of people who like tennis only
and not cricket ?
(1) 25
(2) 30
(3) 10
(4) 15

2. Let R be a relation defined by R = {(x, x
3
)
| x is a prime number < 10} then which of
the following is true
(1) R={(1, 1),(2, 8),(3, 27),(4, 64),(5, 125),
(6, 216), (7, 343), (8, 512), (9, 729)}
(2) R = {(2, 8), (3, 27), (5, 125), (7, 343)
(3) R = {(2, 8), (4, 64), (6, 216), (8, 512)}
(4) none of thesea

3. The mean and variance of 7
observations are 8 and 16 respectively.
If 5 of the observations are 2, 4, 10, 12,
14. If the remaining two observations are
x and y, then the value of xy is
(1) 44
(2) 48
(3) 54
(4) 64

4. Truth value of the statement "if p then q"
is false when
(1) p is true, q is true
(2) p is true, q is false
(3) p is false, q is true
(4) p is false, q is false

5. The negation of the compound
proposition p ! (~ p ! q) is
(1) (p # ~ q) ! (~ p)
(2) (p # ~ q) # (~ p)
(3) (~ p # q) # (~ p)
(4) (~ p # q) # (~ p)

JPT5MAIN230314C0-2
6. The acute angle between the lines
represented by x
2
+ 2xy sec $ + y
2
= 0 is-
(1) 4$
(2) 2$
(3) $
(4) None of these

7. The length of the chord of contact
of the tangents drawn from the
point (%2,3) to the circle,
x
2
+ y
2
% 4 x % 6 y + 12 = 0, is:
(1) 2
(2)
15
16

(3)
15
4

(4)
15
2

8. The normal at three points P, Q, R of the
parabola y
2
= 4ax meet in (h, k). The
centroid of triangle PQR lies on
(1) y = 2
(2) x = 0
(3) x = a
(4) the axis of symmetry

9. If the tangents from the point (&, 2)
to the hyperbol a
2
x
9

2
y
4
= 1 are at
right angles, then & is equal to
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) none of these

10. A tower subtends an angle of 30 at a
point on the same level as its foot. At a
second point h metres above the first,
the depression of the foot of the tower is
60. The height of the tower in metres is-
(1)
h
2

(2) 3 h
(3)
h
3

(4)
h
3

11. If d
!
= p(a b) '
!
!
+ q(b c) '
!
!
+ r (c a) '
! !
and
[abc]
!
! !
= 1 then (p + q + r) =
(1) d
!
.
( )
a b c * *
!
! !

(2) d
!
( )
a b c * *
!
! !

(3) d
!
( )
a b c * *
!
! !

(4) d
!

( )
a b c * *
!
! !

JPT5MAIN230314C0-3
12. If a
n
=
/ 2
2
0
{(sin nx) / sinx} dx
+
,
, then
a
2
a
1
, a
3
a
2
, a
4
a
3
,.... are in
(1) A.P.
(2) G.P.
(3) H.P.
(4) none of these

13. Rolle's Theorem holds for the function
f(x) = x
3
+ bx
2
+ cx, 1 - x - 2 at x =
4
3
,
then the value of b + c is
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1

14. If
x 0
lim
*
.
1/ x
1/ x
p e
1 qe
*
*
=2, then which is not
possible.
(1) p = 1, q = 1/2
(2) p = 0, q =
(3) p = 1, q = 1
(4) none of these

15. If 2 tan
1
(cosx) = tan
1
(cosec
2
x), where
x/ (0, +), then x is equal to
(1)
2
+

(2) +
(3)
6
+

(4)
3
+

16. Given f(x) =
x
x
9
9 3 *
, then the value of
the sum f(1/1996) + f(2/1996) + f(3/1996)
+.....+f(1995/1996) is
(1) 996.5
(2) 997.5
(3) 998.5
(4) 999.5

17. A question paper consists of two parts A
and B. Part A has 4 questions with an
alternative and part B has 3 questions
without any alternative. The number of
ways to attempt paper when at least one
question must be attempted for each
part is (are)
(1) 561 (2) 560
(3) 648 (4) 127

JPT5MAIN230314C0-4
18. The minimum number of times a fair coin
must be tossed so that the probability of
getting at least one head is atleast 0.8 is
(1) 7 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3

19. Number of solutions of the equation
sin
2
x + si n
2
2x sin
2
3x sin
2
4x = 0
l yi ng in the interval 0,
2
+ 0 1
2
3
4 5
is
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5

20. If p, q, r are statements, with truth values
T, F, T respectively then the truth value
of (~ p6 q ) 7 ~ r 8 p is
(1) true (2) false
(3) true if r is false (4) true if q is true

21. If f(x) =
2
2
x x
x 2x *
, then
1
df (x)
dx
is equal
to
(1)
2
3
(1 x)
(2)
2
3
(1 x)

(3)
2
1
(1 x)
(4) none of these

22. If a relation R is defined from A . B,
where A = {x : x is a perfect square of a
natural number}
and B = {y : y is a perfect square of a
natural number divisible by 3}
aRb ; a b is divisible by 9 , then
(1) range of relation = domain of relation
(2) range is multiple of 6
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

23. If the real part of
z 4
2z i
*
*
is equal to
1
2

then the point z lies on.
(1) Circle (2) pair of lines
(3) straight line (4) Parabola

24. If f(x) = {x
2
} ({x})
2
, where {x} denotes
the fractional part of x, then
(1)f(x) is continuous at x=2 but not atx= 2
(2) f(x) is continuous at x= 2 but not at
x = 2
(3) f(x) is continuous at x = 2 and x = 2
(4) f(x) is discontinuous at x=2 but not at
x = 2

JPT5MAIN230314C0-5
25. Coefficient of variation of two
distributions are 60% and 70% and their
standard deviations are 21 and 16
respectively. What are their arithmetic
means ?
(1) 35, 22.85 (2) 35, 22
(3) 35.85, 22 (4) 35, 24

26. Which of the following pair of functions
are identical ?
(1) f(x) = sin(sin
1
x) ; g(x) = x
(2) f(x) = cot
1
x ; g(x) =
1
n(cot x)
e
"

(3) f(x)=
2
sinx
1 tan x *
+
2
cosx
1 cot x *
;
g(x) = sin2x
(4) f(x) = sec
1
x ; g(x) =
1
n(sec x)
e
"

27. If the lines joining the foci of an ellipse
subtend a right angle at an extremity of
the minor axis, then eccentricity of the
ellipse is
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
2

(3)
1
4
(4)
2
5

SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
This section contains 3 reasoning type
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

28. Statement-1 : If a variable takes the
values 0, 1, 2, .........n with frequencies
proportional to the binomial coefficients
n
C
0
,
n
C
1
, .............,
n
C
n
then the mean of
the distribution is
n
2

Statement-2 :
n
C
0
+
n
C
1
+.............+
n
C
n
= 2
n
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct
explanation for Statement-1.
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement-1
False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True

JPT5MAIN230314C0-6
29. Statement -1 : There are only two
family of curves for which tangent at any
point is at a constant distance a units
from origin.
and
Statement -2 : The differential
equation of such a family of curves is of
degree two.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
true and Statement-2 is correct
explaination for Statement-1.
true and Statement-2 in NOT correct
(3) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is
false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is
true

30. Statement-1 : If a, b, c are non-zero real
numbers such that 3(a
2
+b
2
+ c
2
+ 1) = 2
(a + b + c + ab + bc + ca), then a, b, c
are in A.P. and G.P. both
because
Statement-2 : A series is in A.P. and
G.P. both if all the terms in the series are
equal and non-zero.
true and Statement-2 is correct
true and Statement-2 in NOT correct
(3) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is
false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is
true
RESONANCE JPT5MAIN230314C0 - 7
PART-B
SECTION - I
This section contains 28 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. In the circuit, for two inputs A and B, output
is shown. The circuit will indicate :

(1) AND Gate
(2) OR Gate
(3) NOT Gate
(4) NAND Gate
32.
In the circuit, if forward resistance and
forward barrier potential in the diode is
negligiable, the output voltage will be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Output will be zero all the time.
33.
A 10 volt AC (V
rms
= 10V) is used as input.
If barrier potential of the diode in forward
bias is 0.7 volt, what will be the output
potential difference a cross the capacitor
after some time.
(1) 14 volt all the time.
(2) 13.3 volt all the time.
(3) will act like half wave rectrfier with
positive cycle as output.
(4) will be 14.7 volt all the time
34. Trath table for the give circit will be :

(1)
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
1 0 0
Output B A
(2)
A B Output
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 0
(3)
A B Output
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(4)
A B Output
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
35.
If we adjust V
BB
= 1 volt, then potential at
collector (V
CE
) comes out to be 5V. If we
give a signal voltage of 10 mV at input side
then the output signal voltage will be :
( Bar r i er pot ent i al bet ween base and
emi t t er V
BE
= 0. 5 vol t and assume
!
dc
= !
ac
)
(1) 20 mV
(2) 40 mV
(3) 200 mV
(4) 400 mV
36. Three photo-di odes D
1
, D
2
and D
3
are
made of semi conduct ors havi ng band
gapes of 2. 8 eV, 3. 3 eV and 3. 5 eV,
respectively. Which diode will be able to
det ect t he i nt ensi t y of vi ol et l i ght
(" = 400 nm)
(1) D
1
(2) D
2
(3) D
3
(4) both D
1
and D
2
37. When a galvanometer of resistance R
g
is
used t o measur e t he cur r ent , t he
sensi t i vi t y i s S
0
. How much shunt
resistance should be connected parallel to
the galvanometer, so that the sensitivity
decreases to
1000
S
0
?
(1)
1000
R
g
(2)
1001
R
g
(3)
999
R
g
(4) 1000 R
g
38. Maxi mum ampl i t ude of ampl i t ude
modulated wave is 12 volt and minimum
amplitude is 4 volt. If frequency of carrier
wave i s 1000 KHz and frequencies of
side-bands are 998 KHz and 1002 KHz
then
(1) Modulation index is 60%
(2) Modulation index is 33%
(3) Frequency of the modulated signal is
4 KHz
(4) Frequency of the modulated signal is
2 KHz
39. A modul at ed wave i s r epr esent ed as
e = [10 + 6 sin 1250 t] sin 10
8
t, then the
modulating index is :
(1) 10
(2) 1250
(3) 10
8
(4) 0.6
40. A vernier calliper has 20 divisions on the
ver ni er scal e whi ch coi nci de wi t h
19 divisions on the main scale. The least
count of the instrument is 0.025 mm. The
main scale divisions are of :
(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 2 mm
(4) 1/4 mm
41. A body of mass 6 kg is acted upon by a
force which causes a displacement in it
given by x =
4
t
2
m where t is the time in
second. The work done by the force in
2 second is :
(1) 12 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 3 J
42. Four different radioactive elements are kept
in separate containers. In the begining the
container. A has 200 mole with half-life of
2 days, B has 20 mole with half-life of
20 days, C has 2 mole with half-life of
200 days and D has 100 mole with half-life
of 10 days. In the begining the maximum
activity exhibited by the container is :
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
43. An electron, accelerated by a potential
difference V, has de Broglie wavelength ".
I f t he el ect r ons i s accel er at ed by a
pot enti al di ff erence 4V, i ts de Brogl i e
wavelength will become
n
"
where n =
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3)
2
1
(4)
4
1
44. Three particles start at same time from
origin. One along x-axis at speed u
1
other
along y-axis at speed u
2
. Find speed of the
third along y x = 0 such that all of them
always lie along a straight line :
(1)
2
u u
2 1
#
(2)
2 1
2 1
u u
u u 2
#
(3)
2 1
u u
(4) None of above
45. A particle under the acting of a force F
moves on a circular path of radius r with a
constant speed. Its mass is m, speed will
be :
(1)
mr
F
(2)
mrF
(3)
r
F
(4)
m
rF
46. A cylindrical tube when sounded with a
tuning fork gives, first resonance when
length of air column is 0.1 m and gives
second resonance when the length of air
column is 0.35 m. Then end correction is:
(1) 0.025 m
(2) 0.020 m
(3) 0.018 m
(4) 0.012 m
47. A pol ice car with a siren of f requency
8 kHz i s movi ng with uni f orm vel oci ty
36 km/hr towards a tall buil ding which
reflects the sound waves. The speed of
sound in air is 320 m/s. The frequency of
the siren heard by the car driver is
(1) 8.50 kHz
(2) 8.25 kHz
(3) 7.75 kHz
(4) 7.50 kHz
48. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 cm.
Ball rebounds to a height of 10 cm. What
is the loss of energy.
(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%
49. A cyclist starts from the centre O of a
ci rcul ar park of radi us one ki l omet er,
reaches the edge P of the path, then
cycl es al ong t he ci r cumf er ence and
returns to the centre O along Q as shown
i n t he f i gure. If t he round t ri p t akes
10 mi nutes, the net di spl acement and
average speed of the cyclist (in meter and
kilometer per hour) is
P
M
O
Q
(1) 0, 1
(2) 0 ,
2
4 # $
(3) 21.4,
2
4 # $
(4) 0, 24.4
50. Highly energetic electrons are bombarded
on a t arget of an el ement cont ai ni ng
30 Neutrons. The ratio of radii of nucleus
to that of Helium nucelus is 14
1/3
. The
atomic number of nucleus will be :
(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 56
(4) 30
51. A thin uniform rod of length ! is hinged at
one end & is released from the vertical
position as shown. The speed of the centre
of the rod when the rod makes an angle %
from the vertical :
(1) ! g 6 sin
2
%
(2) ! g 3 sin
2
%
(3) ! g 5 . 1 sin
2
%
(4) ! g sin
2
%
52. In LR circuit shown, as the swtich S is
closed, voltage across the inductor varies
as :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
53. Three vertical tubes are connected to a
hori zont al pi pe as shown. There i s a
steady flow of water in the pipes. Height
of water column in the tubes are h
1
, h
2
&
h
3
. Then (Assume cross sect i on area
A
1
> A
3
> A
2
)
(1) h
1
> h
3
> h
2
(2) h
2
> h
3
> h
1
(3) h
1
> h
2
> h
3
(4) h
2
> h
1
> h
3
54. Two l i ke el ectri c charges q
1
& q
2
are
initially separated by a distance d. Now
they are released & they start movi ng
under the influence of each other. Total
work done by electric forces in doubling
their separation is :
(1)
d
q q
4
1
2 1
0
& $
(2)
d 2
q q
4
1
2 1
0
& $
(3)
d
q q 2
4
1
2 1
0
& $
(4)
d
q q 2
4
1
2 1
0
& $
'
55. For an adiabatic process graph between
PV and V for a monoatomic gas is :
(1)
PV
V
(2)
PV
V
(3)
PV
V
(4)
PV
V
56. A sl ab of st one of area 0. 36 m
2
and
thickness 0.1 m is exposed on the lower
surface to steam at 100C. A block of ice
at 0C rests on the upper surface of the
slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted.
The t her mal conduct i vi t y of sl ab i s
approximately : (Given latent heat of fusion
of ice = 3.36 10
5
J kg
1
)
(1) 1.24 J/m/s/C (2) 1.29 J/m/s/C
(3) 2.05 J/m/s/C (4) 1.02 J/m/s/C
57. A met al l i c wi r e of densi t y d f l oat s
horizontally in water. The maximum radius
of the wire such that it may not sink will
be (surface tension of water = T) (Neglect
buoyant force)
(1)
dg
T 2
$
(2) Tdg 2$
(3)
dg
T 2$
(4)
T 2
dg
$
58. Four pendulums (1), (2), (3) and (4) are
suspended from a fixed rod as shown i the
figure. pendulum (1) and (3) are of same
length, pendulum (2) is smaller then (1)
and pendulum (4) is larger than (1). Now
the pendulum (1) is given a transverse
displacement, and all other pendulums
are vibrated one-by-one independently,
each by the pendulum (1). Then :

( 1) Pendul um ( 2) wi l l vi br at e wi t h
maximum amplitude
maximum amplitude
maximum amplitude
(4) All the pendulums wi ll vibrate with
same amplitude.
SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
This section contains 2 reasoning type
questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
59. STATEMENT1 : Diamond loses much of
its glitter when placed under water.
STATEMENT2: Critical angle increases
under water than when the diamond is in
air.
(1) Statement-1 is True,Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1
Tr ue; St at ement - 2 i s NOT a cor r ect
False
True.
60. STATEMENT1: Gases conduct
electricity at low pressure.
STATEMENT2: At low pressure, collision
between gas molecules becomes rare.
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1
Tr ue; St at ement - 2 i s NOT a cor r ect
False
True

JPT5MAIN230314C0-17
PART - C

This section contains 30 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

61. For the first order reaction : A !" B, the
concentration vs time curve is as given
below. Hence, the rate constant of the
reaction is :

C
B
C
A
30
Time (min)
m
o
l
a
r

c
o
n
c
.

(1) 0.02131 min
1

(2) 0.0231 min
1

(3) 0.0693 min
1

(4) None of these
62. Consider the following steps :

2
roast in air
Cu S (A) !!!!!!"
roast without air
(B) !!!!!!!!!"
Which is not the correct statement

(1) It is self - reduction

(2) It involves disproportionation
2
Cu S Cu CuS !!" #

(3) (A) is Cu
2
O and (B) is a mixture of
Cu and SO
2

(4) All are incorrect statements

63. Which of following is incorrect ?

(1) In petro chemical industry, alcohols
are directly converted to gasoline by
passing over heated ZSM-5.

(2) The stability of lyophobic colloid is
due to the charge on the particles.

(3) In chemisorption, adsorptions keep
on increasing with temperature.

(4) Bredig arc method can not be used to
prepare colloidal solution of organic
compound.

JPT5MAIN230314C0-18

(1) Reaction of conc. HNO
3
with $, S, P
and C give respectively H$O
3
, H
2
SO
4
,
H
3
PO
4
, CO
2
.

(2) The oxidation state of phosphorus in
cyclotrimeta phosphoric acid is +5.

(3) The shape of XeO
2
F
2
is trigonal
bipyramidal.

(4) XeF
2
is isostructural with $
3
.

65. Consider the following statements :

When a direct current is passed through
an aqueous concentrated solution of
NaCl.

(I) pH of the solution decreases.

(II) Metallic sodium will be deposited at
the cathode.

(III) Chlorine gas will be liberated at the
anode.

(IV) pH of the solution increases.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?

(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) III and IV (4) I and III
66. Consider the following equilibrium
2A
(g)
+ B
(g)
C
(g)
+ 3D
(g)

At equilibrium, concentrations of A, B
and C are 0.5 M 3 M and 1.5 M
respectively. At the start of the reaction,
C was absent but D was present (initial
concentration of D = 0.5 M). Identify the
correct statement.

(1) The concentration of D at equilibrium
is 4.5 M

(2) K
C
= 250 M
1
.

(3)
C
at eqm.
K
{[A] [B] [C] [D]} # # #
= 25

(4) Addition of helium at constant
pressure to the equilibrium mixture
would push equilibrium backward.

67. Which can act as buffer ?

(1) NH
4
Cl + NH
4
OH

(2) CH
4
COOH + CH
3
COONa

(3) 40 mL, 0.1 M NaCN + 20 mL,
0.1 M HCl

(4) All of these

JPT5MAIN230314C0-19
68. Consider the following observations for
hydrated alkali ions
X = [Li(H
2
O)
n
]
+
, Y = [K(H
2
O)
n
]
+
,
Z = [Cs(H
2
O)
n
]
+

Which is the correct order of size of
these hydrated alkali ions ?
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Z > Y > X
(3) X = Y = Z (4) Z > X > Y

69. Which reaction is most spontaneous ?
(1) In
3+
+ 2e
!" In
+

(2) Tl
3+
+ 2e
!" Tl
+

(3) Pb
2+
!" Pb
4+
+ 2e

(4) Cannot be predicated

70. In a cubic solid, atoms of A are arranged
in ccp while atoms of B are present in all
octahedral voids, If all atoms present on
shaded plane of symmetry shown in
diagram are removed, find the simplest
formula of solid.

(1) A
3
B
4
(2) A
4
B
3

(3) AB (4) A
2
B
3

71. When electrons in N-shell of excited
hydrogen atom return to ground state,
the number of possible spectral lines in
infrared region of spectrum is :
(1) 6 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

72. The van der Waal's equation behaves
almost similar to the ideal gas equation
at :
(1) High pressure and low temperature

(2) Low pressure and low temperature

(3) Low pressure and high temperature

(4) High pressure and high temperature

MNO
3

(500C) &
!!!!!"
M
2
O + gas A + gas B
Where M is alkali metal, gas A is
colourless

(1) M reacts with air to form nitride and
oxides on heating

(2) Gas B exists in equilibrium with its
dimer on cooling

(3) Both gas A and B are paramagnetic

(4) None of these

JPT5MAIN230314C0-20

(1) (CH
3
)
3
P = O exists but (CH
3
)
3
N = O
does not.

(2) (CH
3
)
3
N is more basic than (SiH
3
)
3
N

(3) Number of lone pair in compound
XeF
2
is three.

(4) C
3
O
2
is formed by dehydration of
malonic acid.

75. Maximum work of expansion is done in
(only magnitude)

(1) 4NH
3
(g) + 7O
2
(g) !" 4NO
2
(g) +
6H
2
O(g)

(2) C
2
H
6
(g) + O
2
(g) !" 2CO
2
(g) +
3H
2
O

(3) C

(s) +H
2
O

(g) !" CO (g) + H
2
(g)

(4) Fe
2
O
3
(s) + Al(s) !" Al
2
O
3
(s) +
2Fe(s)

76. Mark incorrect order for following
solutions

(a) 0.1 M(aq) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] ' = 0.2
(dissociation)

(b) 0.2 M(aq) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
' = 0.4
(dissociation)

(c) 0.2 M(aq) Phenol ( = 0.8
(dimersation)

(d) 0.4 M(aq) glucose ' = 0

(1) boiling point (b > d > a > c)

(2) Freezing point (b > d > a > c)

(3) Osmotic pressure (b > d > a > c)

(4) Vapour pressure (c > a > d > b)

JPT5MAIN230314C0-21
77. Consider the following statements and
select the correct option using the codes
given.
(i) [Cr(NH
3
)
6
][Co(CN)
6
] and
[Co(NH
3
)
6
] [Cr(CN)
6
] are
coordination isomers.
(ii) [Cr(py)
2
(H
2
O)
2
Cl
2
]Cl and
[Cr(py)
2
(H
2
O)Cl
3
]H
2
O are hydrate
isomers.
(iii) [Pt(en)
2
Cl
2
] has 3 stereoisomers
& 2 are optically active.
(iv) [PtCl(NO
2
)NH
3
(PPh
3
)] exhibits 3
geometrical isomerism & is
square plannar.
(1) (i) only

(2) (i) and (ii) only

(3) (ii) and (iii) only

(4) i, ii, iii & iv are correct

78. Which of the following represents the
correct order of increasing first ionization
enthalpy for Na, K, F, Ne and O ?
(1) K < Na < O < F < Ne

(2) Na < K < O < F < Ne

(3) K < Na < F < O < Ne

(4) Na < O < K < F < Ne
79. Consider the following conformations of
3-Aminopropanal

(P)
H
CHO
H
H
NH
2
H
(Q)
H
CHO
H
H
NH
2
H

(R)
H
CHO
H
H
NH
2
H
(S)
H
CHO
H
H
H
NH
2

Amongst the above conformations (P, Q,
R, S) one of them is most stable.
This can be attributed due to

(I) H-bonding in the conformer

(II) Gauche conformation in the
conformer

(III) Anti conformation in the conformer

(IV) larger groups being separated by
maximum distance in the conformer
Then correct option is :

(1) II & IV (2) I & II
(3) III & IV (4) I & IV

JPT5MAIN230314C0-22
80. The following compound on hydrolysis
will give :

(1) A pair of anomers
(2) A pair of enantiomeris
(3) A pair of epimers
(4) A pair of molecules having common
tautomer

81. Identify 'X' in the following reaction :
X
! ! ! " !
4 2
SO H
) H ( ) ii (
, KOH ) i (
#
! ! ! ! ! " !
&

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82. An organic compound P on keeping in
slightly acidic aqueous solution gives
yellow precipitate with
2, 4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine.
It also decolourises Br
2
/ CCl
4
solution
and gives coloured solution / precipitate
with neutral FeCl
3
solution. The structure
of P can be :

(1) OHC C(CH
3
)
2
CHO

(2)
O
||
H C C ) CH (
3 3
) )

(3)
O
||
CHO CH C C ) CH (
|
CH
3 3
3
) ) )

(4)

JPT5MAIN230314C0-23
83. Observe the following two set/s of
reactions (I and II). Select the true and
false statements about the ratio of their
rate constants (K).

C H
6 6
C D
6 6
NO
2
NO
2
+
+
C H NO + H
6 5 2
C D NO + D
6 5 2
+
+
Set - I

CH CH Br
3 2
CD CH Br
3 2
C H O
2 5
C H O
2 5
-
-
CH = CH
2 2
CD = CH
2 2
Set - II

(1) In set-I
) D C (
) H C (
6 6
6 6
K
K
! ! ! " ! 6.0

(2) In set-II
) Br CH CD (
) Br CH CH (
2 3
2 3
K
K
! ! ! ! ! " ! 1.0

(3) In both the cases the ratio of rate
constants is less than one.

(1) FFF (2) TFF
(3) FTF (4) FTT

84. The product 'P' is :

I
OH
F
NO
2
! ! ! " !
& / NaOH
P (major)
(1)
OH
OH
NO
2
OH

(2)
F
NO
2
O

(3)
O
NO
2
I

(4)
OH
OH
OH
OH

JPT5MAIN230314C0-24
85. The correct end product (major) of the
following reaction is :
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3

! ! ! " !
hv / Cl
2
(x + y)
! ! ! ! " !
OH CH
3
z (major product)

(1) 2-Methoxy propane

(2) 1-Methoxy propane

(3) Propane-2-ol

(4) Propane-1-ol

86. X (major)
X will be :

(1) by S
N
2
mechanism

(2) by E2 mechanism

(3) by E2 mechanism

(4) by S
N
1 mechanism

87.

Decreasing order of stability follows :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III

(3) I > IV > III > IV

(4) I > IV > II > III

JPT5MAIN230314C0-25
88. Which of the following is the proper
sequence of reagents for the conversion
!"

(1)
PBr
3

(2)

(3)

(4)

89. Which set of reagents is suitable for the
following reaction ?

!"

(1) H
2
/ Ni

(2) (1) LiAlH
4
(2) H
*

(3) Zn (Hg) amalgam in conc. HCl
(heating)

(4) Hydrazine in conc. KOH (heating)

JPT5MAIN230314C0-26
90. Observe the following synthesis.

NH
2
NO
2
Br / Fe (excess)
2
(1)
NaNO / H SO
2 2 4
(2)
CuBr
(3)
(X)

Sn / HCl
(4)
NaNO / HCl
2
(5)
H PO
3 2
(6)
(Y)
X, Y are respectively :

(1)
Br
Br
Br
NO
2
,
Br
Br
Br

(2)
Br
Br
NH
2
NO
2
,
Br Br
NO
2
Br

(3)
Br Br
NO
2
Br
,
Br Br
OH
Br

(4)
Br Br
NO
2
Br
,
Br Br
Br

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