2010H2MI - Physics Prelim

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Class
Adm No
Candidate Name:
Preliminary Examination II 2010

Pre-university 3
H2 Physics 9646
Paper 1: Multiple-Choice Questions
9646/01
Friday
24 September
1h 15m
Additional materials:
OMR
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces at the top of this page and on all the
work you hand in.
Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, and glue or correction fluid.
There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four
possible answers A, B, C, and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your answer in soft pencil on the separate
OMR.
Read the instructions on the OMR very carefully.
Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet
This question paper consists of 21 printed pages.

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Data
speed of light in free space,
3.00 108 m s1
permeability of free space,
4 107 H m1
permittivity of free space,
8.85 1012 F m1
(1/(36)) 109 F m1
elementary charge,
1.60 1019 C
the Planck constant,
6.63 1034 J s
unified atomic mass constant,
1.66 1027 kg
rest mass of electron,
me
9.11 1031 kg
rest mass of proton,
mp
1.67 1027 kg
molar gas constant,
8.31 J K1 mol1
NA
6.02 1023 mol1
the Boltzmann constant,
1.38 1023 J K1
gravitational constant,
6.67 1011 N m2 kg2
acceleration of free fall,
9.81 m s2
the Avogadro constant,
Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion,
work done on/by a gas,

hydrostatic pressure,
gravitational potential,
1 2
at
2
ut +
v2
u2 + 2as
p V
gh
Gm
r
displacement of particle in s.h.m.
xo sin t
velocity of particle in s.h.m.,
vo cost
xo2 x 2
mean kinetic energy of a molecule of

an ideal gas
resistors in series,
R1 + R2 +
resistors in parallel,
1
R
1
1
+
+ ...
R1 R 2
alternating current/voltage,
xo sin t
transmission coefficient
exp(2kd)
where k
electric potential,
radioactive decay,
decay constant,
4 0 r
8 2 m(U E )
h2
x0 exp(t)
0.693
t1
2
[Turn Over
4
1.
2.
In the equation, P = Q RS, P, Q, R and S are physical quantities. For the

equation to be homogeneous, which of the following must be true.
A.
P, Q, R and S all have the same units.
B.
P, Q, R and S are all scalar quantities.
C.
The product RS have the same units as P and Q.
D.
The product RS is numerically equal to (Q P)
A student wishes to determine the density of a cylinder of mass M, height

d2
h and diameter of cross section d, using the formula M =
h . If the
4
percentage uncertainties of his measurements of M, d and h are 3%, 1%

and 2% respectively, what will be the percentage uncertainty of ?
3.
A.
3%
B.
5%
C.
6%
D.
7%
A train travelling at 2.0 m s-1 passes through a station. The graph below
shows the variation with time, t of the speed, v of the train after leaving the
station.
What is the speed of the train when it is 150 m from the station?
A.
6.0 m s-1
B.
8.0 m s-1
C.
10 m s-1
D.
12 m s-1
5
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following is a false statement regarding how two forces give
rise to a couple?
A.
They act in opposite directions.
B.
They both act at the same point.
C.
They both act on the same body.
D.
They both have the same magnitude.
A string of negligible mass with a weight of 50 N at one end is attached at

the other end to a fixed point P. The sphere is acted upon by a horizontal
to the vertical. What is
force of 80 N such that the string makes an angle
the value of ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Five blocks of equal masses V, W, X, Y and Z are connected by four

identical strings as shown in the diagram below. They are pulled by a
steadily increasing force F. Which of the strings A, B, C or D is most likely
to break first?
[Turn Over
7.
8.
A 60 kg archer stands at rest on frictionless ice and fires a 0.50 kg arrow

horizontally at 50 m s-1. What is the final velocity of the archer as he moves
across the ice after firing the arrow?
A.
0.42 m s-1
B.
0.48 m s-1
C.
0.60 m s-1
D.
0.72 m s-1
A stone of weight 80 N is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with an

initial kinetic energy of 150 J. Ignoring air resistance, the kinetic energy, the
gain in potential energy, and the work done against gravity when the stone
is at 1.00 m above the ground will be
Kinetic Energy
Gain in Potential
Work Done
Energy
9.
A.
70 J
70 J
70 J
B.
70 J
80 J
70 J
C.
70 J
80 J
80 J
D.
80 J
150 J
80 J
A block of iron is suspended in water
The block experiences an upthrust from the water.

Which is the explanation for this upthrust?
A.
Iron is more dense than water.
B.
The area of face R is greater than the area of face S.
10.
C.
The density of water increases with depth.
D.
The pressure of water increases with depth.
A helicopter which has blades of diameter 5.0 m is hovering above the

ground at a particular instance. Its blades are rotating in such a way that
they are pushing air downwards at a speed of 18 m s-1.
The density of the surrounding air can be taken as 1.02 kg m-3.
The upward force acting on the blades is
11.
12.
A.
360 N
B.
1400 N
C.
6500 N
D.
26000 N
To travel at constant speed, a car engine provided 25 kW of useful power.

The driving force on the car is 600 N. At what speed is the car travelling at?
A.
2.5 m s-1
B.
4.0 m s-1
C.
25 m s-1
D.
42 m s-1
A satellite is in circular orbit 144 km above the Earth. Assuming that the
radius of the Earth is 5760 km, the gravitational force on the satellite
compared with that when it is at the Earths surface is approximately
A.
greater by 10%
B.
greater by 5%
C.
the same
D.
less by 5%
[Turn Over
13.
Why does the Moon stay in its orbit at a constant distance from the Earth?
A.
The gravitational pull of the Earth on the Moon is just sufficient to cause
the centripetal acceleration of the Moon.
B.
The gravitational pull of the Earth on the Moon balances the

gravitational pull of the Moon on the Earth.
C.
The gravitational pull of the Moon on the Earth is negligible at this

distance.
D.
The centripetal force the Earth exerts on the Moon balances the
centripetal force the Moon exerts on the Earth.
14.
P is a planet with centre O, as shown in the figure below. X and M are two
points of equal gravitational potential, A . Y and N are two other points of
equal gravitational potential, B .
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
The work done by an external agent to move a mass from Y to X is

negative.
B.
The work done by the gravitational field to move a mass from X to N is
9
different from that needed to move the same mass from M to Y.
C.
The work done by the gravitational field to move a mass from N to M is

negative.
D.
15.
16.
A OX
=
B OY
For one complete oscillation in simple harmonic motion with amplitude, a,

how does velocity, v vary with displacement, x?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An object undergoes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude A, and its

total energy is E. What is the displacement of the object from the equilibrium
position when its kinetic energy is
A.
A
C.
17.
3E
?
4
3
2
3A
4
B.
A
4
D.
A
2
Which of the following statement is true?
A.
The internal energy of a system can be increased by transfer of energy
[Turn Over
10
by heating.
B.
The internal energy of a system is dependent only on its temperature.
C.
When the internal energy of a system is increased, its temperature

always rises.
D.
When two systems have the same internal energy, they must be at the
same temperature.
18.
19.
A heater of power of 300 W is immersed in a filter funnel of crushed ice.

Before the heater is switched on, 10 g of water is collected from the melting
ice in 1 minute. When the heater is switched on, the mass of water collected
from the melting ice in 1 minute is 85 g. The specific latent heat of fusion of
ice, in J g-1 is
A.
B.
240
C.
300
D.
1200
A star emits electromagnetic waves of wavelengths 50 m, 5 m, 0.5 m and

0.05 m. In which regions of the electromagnetic spectrum are they?
Wavelength
20.
50 m
5 m
0.5 m
0.05 m
A.
infra-red
infra-red
visible
ultraviolet
B.
infra-red
visible
ultraviolet
x-ray
C.
microwave
visible
visible
ultraviolet
D.
radio
infra-red
visible
ultraviolet
A stationary sound wave has a series of nodes. The distance between the
first and the sixth antinode is 30.0 cm.
What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
A.
5.0 cm
B.
6.0 cm
11
C.
21.
10.0 cm
D.
12.0 cm
Monochromatic light with a wavelength of is incident normally on a

diffraction grating. The angle between the directions of the two second-order
diffracted beams is .
What is the spacing of the lines on the grating?
A.
C.
2
sin
( 2)
sin
22.
B.
sin
D.
sin
( 2)
A sphere is released from rest, in vacuum, between two parallel, vertical

metal plates with a separation of 0.10 m. The sphere has a weight of
1.6 10 3 N and an electric charge of +2.0 C. The potential difference
between the two plates is 80 V.
Which of the following depicts the path of the sphere after release?
[Turn Over
12
23.
A positive charge is placed at P and a negative charge is placed at Q. The

electric potential at different points between these two charges is shown in
the figure below.
Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation with distance, x
along line PQ of the electric field strength, E?
A.
B.
13
C.
24.
D.
Two charges, P and Q are 100 mm apart.
X is a point on the line between P and Q. If the potential at X is 0 V, what is

the distance from P to X?
25.
A.
40 mm
B.
45 mm
C.
50 mm
D.
60 mm
What is the definition of resistance?
A.
Resistance is the potential difference per unit current.
B.
Resistance is the gradient of the graph of potential difference against

current.
C.
D.
Resistance is the voltage required for a current of 1 A.

Resistance is defined by the equation R =
l
A
, where is the resistivity
of the material, l is the length of the wire, and A is its cross-sectional

area.
26.
A main circuit has six identical bulb connected in series. One of the bulbs
has a broken filament. Voltmeters X and Y of infinite resistance are placed in
the circuit as shown.
[Turn Over
14
What are the voltmeter readings?
27.
X reading
Y reading
A.
0V
0V
B.
0V
240 V
C.
40 V
40 V
D.
240 V
0V
A diode is connected to a battery as shown below.
Which of the following statements about the diode is not true?
A.
No current flows through the diode.
B.
The resistance is very large.
C.
The voltage across the diode is zero.
D.
The voltage across the diode is the same as the e.m.f. of the source.
15
28.
29.
In the circuit shown below, the light bulb will become brighter when
A.
light is incident on the LDR and P is moved to X.
B.
light is incident on the LDR and P is moved to Y.
C.
the LDR is covered and P is moved to X.
D.
the LDR is covered and P is moved to Y.
A straight wire PQ carrying a constant current I is placed perpendicularly to a

uniform magnetic field, as represented by the dotted line in the diagram
below.
The current-carrying wire is then rotated through an angle, about an axis

perpendicular to the plane of the diagram.
[Turn Over
16
Which of the following graph shows how the magnitude of the magnetic force
F on the wire varies with in the range 0 to 90?
30.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two long straight wires, X and Y are placed perpendicular to each other at a
small distance, d apart, with wire X vertically above the point R. The current
in wire X is out of the page and the current in wire Y is to the right as shown
in the figure below.
What is the direction of the force acting on wire Y at point P due to the
17
magnetic field produced by wire X?
31.
A.
Out of the page
B.
Into the page
C.
Upwards
D.
Downwards
An e.m.f. is induced in a wire that is subjected to a varying magnetic field.

The following graphs show how magnetic flux density, B of this field varies
with time, t.
At what time is the magnitude of the e.m.f induced in the wire at its
maximum?
32.
A.
1 ms
B.
2 ms
C.
3 ms
D.
4 ms
Two flat horizontal coils are mounted as shown
[Turn Over
18
Which of the following actions will cause the galvanometer to register a

current?
1. With switch S closed, Coil 2 is stationary while Coil 1 is moved

upwards.
2. Both coils are stationary and S is switched on and off.

3. With switch S closed, the variable resistor R is increased and
decreased rapidly.
33.
A.
2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
A sinusoidal alternating current flows through a resistor.

What is the mean power dissipated in the resistor?
A.
1
2
B.
1
2
(maximum current )
(maximum power )
C.
1
maximum current
2
D.
1
maximum power
2
(
(
19
34.
35.
36.
The half-wave rectification of an alternating current sinusoidal voltage of

amplitude 100 V gives the waveform as shown in the figure below. The r.m.s.
value of the rectified voltage is
A.
25 V
B.
50 V
C.
71 V
D.
100 V
A laser beam of power, P has wavelength, . What is the rate of photons

produced?
A.
hc
P
B.
Ph
c
C.
Phc
D.
P
hc
Which of the following observations regarding the photoelectric effect is not predicted
by the classical theory of electromagnetic radiation?
A.
The rate of photoelectric emission is proportional to the intensity of the incident

radiation.
B.
Irrespective of the intensity of radiation, photoelectric emission is instantaneous.
C.
Photoelectric emission is observable using any part of the electromagnetic

spectrum.
D.
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is dependent on the intensity

of the radiation.
[Turn Over
20
37.
38.
At room temperature, the charge carriers inside a p-type semi-conductor are
A.
holes only
B.
electrons only
C.
positive ions
D.
both holes and electrons
The following diagram illustrates the upper energy bands in two different classes of
solids at absolute zero. The shaded areas represent occupied electron energy levels.
What are bands P and Q, and classes X and Y of solids?
39.
Band P
Band Q
Class X
Class Y
A.
conduction
valence
intrinsic semi-conductor
metal
B.
conduction
valence
metal
C.
valence
conduction
metal
D.
valence
conduction
metal
Which of the following equations correctly shows an -particle causing a nuclear

reaction?
A.
14
7
N + 42 He
B.
17
8
O + 42 He
C.
17
8
O + 10e
D.
14
7
N + 11p 116 C + 42 He
17
8
O + 11n
20
9
13
5
F + 11p
B + 42 He
21
40.
Initially, a source comprises No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide. What is the number of nuclei
decayed after a time interval of three half-lives?
A.
No
B.
No
16
C.
7No
D.
15No
16
END OF PAPER
[Turn Over
Class
Adm No
Candidate Name:

Pre-university 3
H2 Physics 9646
Paper 2 Structured Questions
9646/02
17 September
Friday
1h 45m
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.

No Additional Materials are required.

Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces at the
top of this page.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough
working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, and glue or correction
fluid.
For Examiners Use

1
2
Section A
Answer all questions.
It is recommended that you spend about 1 hour 15 minutes on this
section.
Section B
Answer Question 8
It is recommended that you spend about 30 minutes on this section
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each
question or part question.
3
4
5
6
7
8
Total
This question paper consists of 23 printed pages and a blank page.

[Turn over
Data
3.00 108 m s1
4 107 H m1
8.85 1012 F m1
(1/(36)) 109 F m1
elementary charge,
1.60 1019 C
6.63 1034 J s
1.66 1027 kg
me
9.11 1031 kg
mp
1.67 1027 kg
molar gas constant,
8.31 J K1 mol1
NA
6.02 1023 mol1
1.38 1023 J K1
6.67 1011 N m2 kg2
9.81 m s2
Formulae

ut +
1 2
at
2
v2 =
u2 + 2as
p V
p =
gh
Gm
r
xo sin t
vo cost
( x o2 x 2 )

an ideal gas
3
kT
2
R =
R1 + R2 +
1
R
1
1
+
+ ...
R1 R 2
T =
electric potential,
where k
radioactive decay,
decay constant,
4 0 r
xo sin t
exp(2kd)
8 2 m(U E )
h2
x0 exp(t)
0.693
t1
2
[Turn Over
Section A
Answer all questions
It is recommended that you spend about 1 hour 15 minutes on this section.
1.
(a)
Distinguish between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity, providing an example for
each.
....[2]
(b)
A ship is initially cruising in the direction bearing of 045 at a speed of 10 m s-1

changes direction to head in a new direction bearing of 145 at a speed of 5 m s-1, as
seen in Fig. 1.1. The manoeuvre was completed in 30 s.
Fig. 1.1
Using a vector diagram or otherwise, calculate the acceleration of the ship during the
change in direction.
acceleration of the ship =..m s-2 at bearing of [3]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
2.
(a)
A body accelerates at 10 m s-2 over a period of time.

Explain what is meant by the phrase in italics.
....[1]
(b)
A Singapore Army soldier is undergoing marksmanship training by firing at the target,

as seen in Fig. 2.1 below. He uses the SAR 21 Rifle, which has a muzzle velocity
(velocity at which the bullet exits the rifle) of 900 m s-1.
Fig. 2.1
He ensures his rifle is perfectly horizontal while aiming for the head of the target. He
then fires a bullet at the target, which is 300 m away from his current position.
(i)
Calculate the time taken for the bullet to reach the target after it is fired.
time taken =...s [1]

(ii)
What is the assumption made in this calculation?
...[1]
[Turn Over
(iii)
For
Examiners
Use
Assuming that it is a perfect shot (i.e. the rifle was perfectly horizontal and was
aimed properly at the head of the target), calculate the vertical distance
between his aiming point and where the bullet actually hits the target.
vertical distance =m [2]

(iv)
After passing through the target, the bullet is entrenched 4.0 m deep into a
sandbag that is directly behind the target board.
Calculate the average deceleration of the bullet as it moves within the sandbag
average deceleration =.m s-2 [2]

(v)
If the assumption was not made in (b) (ii), state whether the bullet would hit the
target at a lower or higher point than what was calculated in (b) (iii).
...[1]
3.
(a)
Using the simple Kinetic Model of Matter, explain the following:

(i)
the melting of ice takes place without a change in temperature.
...[2]
(ii)
the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is higher than its specific latent
heat of fusion.
...[2]
For
Examiners
Use
(b)
An ideal gas at constant pressure has its volume directly proportional to its absolute
temperature.
Calculate the absolute temperature T when an ideal gas has volume 0.00825 m3,
assuming that the same mass of the ideal gas at the same pressure has volume
0.00424 m3 at a temperature of 273 K.
absolute temperature T =.K [2]

(c)
(i)
State the conversion formula from the Celsius scale (C) to the thermodynamic
absolute scale (K)
[1]
(ii)
Hence or otherwise, comment on whether the following statement is true:

Today the temperature is 30 C and yesterday it was 15 C. Hence it is twice
as hot today as it was yesterday.
...[1]
[Turn Over
4.
(a)
For
Examiners
Use
A 1 kg solid block of iron, when placed on water, will sink. The same block of iron is
shaped into a model of a boat, and this model would float on water.
Explain why the boat model would float, and not sink.
.......[2]
(b)
A string supports a solid iron object of mass 200 g. The solid iron object is hence
suspended in mid-air
(i)
Calculate the tension in the string when the solid iron object is suspended by
the string in mid-air
tension in the string =. N [1]

(ii)
Given that the density of iron is 8000 kg m-3, calculate the volume of the solid
iron object
Volume of solid iron object =.. m3 [1]

(iii)
Calculate the new tension in the string when the solid iron object is completely
immersed in a liquid of density 800 kg m-3.
New tension in string = N [2]
For
Examiners
Use
(c)
A solid cube with sides of length, x is placed on the surface of a fluid. The cube is
then slowly pushed downwards into the fluid, as seen in Fig.. The distance from the
base of the cube to the surface of liquid is given by h. The cube is pushed
downwards until h >> x.
Fig. 4.1
Fig. 4.2
Sketch in, Fig. 4.2 above, the graph showing the variation of the upthrust acting on
cube due to the fluid against the distance from the base of the cube to the fluid
surface, h. Your graph should show the variation of upthrust for values of h that are
greater than x.
[2]
[Turn Over
10
5.
(a)
Define magnetic flux density.
....[2]
(b)
Fig. 5.2 below shows a loosely-coiled metal spring hanging from a fixed point.
Fig. 5.1
The ends of the spring are connected to a circuit as shown in Fig. 5.1. When a
current is switched on, the spring becomes compressed (i.e. the coils move closer to
one another and the vertical length of the spring becomes slightly shorter than
before).
(i)
Explain why the spring shortens in length when the current is switched on.
...[2]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
11
(ii)
State and explain if the spring is lengthened or compressed if the direction of

current is reverse?
...[1]
(c)
Fig. 5.2 below shows a beam of -particles of speed v entering a region in space
where there is a uniform magnetic field of flux density B.
Fig. 5.2
In the magnetic field, they are deflected from their original pathway and move along
the arc of a circle of radius r.
(i)
Indicate on the figure the direction of the magnetic field.

[1]
(ii)
Sketch the path of -particles that has a speed greater than v.

[1]
(d)
A beam of electrons that is travelling with velocity 3.4 107 m s-1 enters
perpendicularly into a region with magnetic flux density of 8.4 mT.
(i)
Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic force on an electron.
magnetic force = . N [2]
[Turn Over
12
(ii)
State and explain the changes (if any) in the kinetic energy of electron due to
the magnetic force acting on it.
...[1]
6.
(a)
State and explain briefly the conditions necessary for the production of a laser beam.
....
....
....
....
....
........[3]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
13
(b)
Complete the table below to show the three differences between light from a filament
lamp and laser light.
Light from a filament lamp
Laser light
[3]
[Turn Over
14
7.
X-rays are emitted when a metal target is bombarded by high-energy electrons. The X-ray
spectrum consists of a broad continuous spectrum and a series of sharp lines known as
the line or characteristic X-ray spectrum.
The K-series line spectrum arises when an incoming electron removed an atomic electron
from the innermost shell, K-shell (n = 1). An electron from the L-shell (n = 2) may fill the
vacancy, and in the process emits a photon. The photon emitted has an energy that
corresponds to the wavelength of the K -line shown in Fig. 7.1.
Fig. 7.1
(a)
(i)
Explain how the continuous spectrum is formed.
...[2]
(ii)
Explain why there is a minimum wavelength 0 for the continuous spectrum.
...[1]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
15
(iii)
Explain how the K -line arises.
...[1]
(b)
In 1913, a British physicist H. G. J. Moseley measured the wavelength of the

characteristics X-rays from a number of elements. He noted that when the squareroot of the frequency f is plotted against the position Z (atomic number) of the
element in the periodic table, a straight line results.
The energy for a multi-electron atom is given by the expression
k (Z 1)
n2
En =
where k is a constant
(i)
Show that the frequency f of the K -line is given by the expression

f = C (Z 1)
where C is a constant.
[2]
[Turn Over
16
(ii)
The experimental data for the variation with Z of
For
Examiners
Use
f are shown in Fig. 7.2.
On Fig. 7.2, draw the best-fit line for the points.

[1]
Fig. 7.2
For
Examiners
Use
17
(iii)
Determine the constant C, with its unit.
C =
unit =[2]
(iv)
Hence, or otherwise, determine the wavelength of the K -line for copper

whose atomic number Z is 29.
wavelength =.. m [2]
(c)
The X-ray spectrum can be studied using the X-ray diffraction. A particular set of
crystal planes that have a known spacing d is chosen, as seen in Fig. 7.3 These
planes effectively reflect different wavelengths at different angles.
Fig. 7.3
[Turn Over
18
(i)
For
Examiners
Use
Fig. 7.4 shows a graph of intensity against angular position (measured in

degrees) for the diffraction of an X-ray beam by a crystal. The beam consists of
two wavelengths, and the spacing d between the reflecting planes is 0.94 nm.
Fig. 7.4
The condition for constructive interference is given by the expression

2d sin = m , which is known as Braggs law.
Using Braggs law, calculate the values of these two wavelengths of the X-ray
beam.
1 = pm [1]
2 = pm [1]
For
Examiners
Use
19
(ii)
A standard optical diffraction grating where the grating spacing is 3000 nm

cannot be used to discriminate between different wavelengths in the X-ray
region of approximately 0.1 nm.
Using the formula for the calculation of the diffraction angle, given the
wavelength and grating spacing, explain quantitatively why this is so.
...[2]
[Turn Over
20
For
Examiners
Use
Section B
Answer Question 8
It is recommended that you spend about 30 minutes on this section.
8.
A manufacturer of filament lamps for use as a night-light in children's bedrooms is concerned

about the surface temperature of the glass envelope after the lamp has been left on for some
time, The surface temperature must not be too high, otherwise there is a danger of burns or fire
resulting from accidental contact with the surface of the lamp. However, it is important that the
power output from the lamp should not be too small, otherwise the lamp will be too dim to be
useful.
Power supply
Connecting wires
Light bulbs of different diameters
3 V battery
Crocodile clips
Signal generator
Microphone
Bunsen burner
Loudspeaker
Voltmeter
Ammeter
Oscilloscope
Bucket of water
Thermometer
Rheostat
Thermistor
Thermocouple
Your answer should contain a diagram showing how the chosen equipment would be
arranged, together with details of
(a) the procedure to be followed,

(b) your choice of the type of thermometer used to measure the surface temperature of the
lamp,
(c) how the electrical power would be measured,
(d) any relevant safety precautions you may take when carrying out the experiment,
(e) any particular features of your design that may improve the accuracy of your experiment.
[12]
For
Examiners
Use
21
DIAGRAM
[Turn Over
22
For
Examiners
Use
23
END OF PAPER
For
Examiners
Use
Class
Adm No
Candidate Name:

Pre-university 3
H2 Physics 9646
Paper 3 Longer Structured Questions
9646/03
20 September
Monday
2h
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.

No Additional Materials are required.

Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces at the
top of this page.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough
working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, and glue or correction
fluid.
For Examiners Use

1
Section A
Answer all questions.
Section B
Answer any two questions.
You are advised to spend about one hour on each section.

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each
question or part question.
7
Total
This question paper consists of 33 printed pages and a blank page

[Turn over
Data
3.00 108 m s1
4 107 H m1
8.85 1012 F m1
(1/(36)) 109 F m1
elementary charge,
1.60 1019 C
6.63 1034 J s
1.66 1027 kg
me
9.11 1031 kg
mp
1.67 1027 kg
molar gas constant,
8.31 J K1 mol1
NA
6.02 1023 mol1
1.38 1023 J K1
6.67 1011 N m2 kg2
9.81 m s2
For
Examiners
Use
Formulae

ut +
1 2
at
2
v2 =
u2 + 2as
p V
p =
gh
Gm
r
xo sin t
vo cost
( x o2 x 2 )

an ideal gas
3
kT
2
R =
R1 + R2 +
1
R
1
1
+
+ ...
R1 R 2
T =
electric potential,
where k
radioactive decay,
decay constant,
4 0 r
xo sin t
exp(2kd)
8 2 m(U E )
h2
x0 exp(t)
0.693
t1
2
[Turn Over
Section A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1.
An intelligent elevator as seen in Fig. 1.1, can take passengers to the top of a skyscraper.
The elevator has a built-in weight sensor below its floor that can be used to measure the
combined weight of the elevators occupants.
Fig. 1.1
An emergency braking mechanism can be activated within a few seconds if the steel cable
holding onto the elevator snaps.
A man decides to take the elevator to reach the upper floors. He has a mass of 80 kg, and
the elevator has a mass of 1.0 10 3 kg.
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
(a)
Calculate the initial reading of the weight sensor when the elevator is stationary.
initial reading of weight sensor =..N [1]
(b)
The lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration of 2.5 m s-2.
(i)
Draw a free-body diagram of the man, indicating and labelling the forces acting
on him.
There is no need to show the magnitude of the forces involved.
[1]
[Turn over
6
(ii)
Hence or otherwise, calculate the reading of the weight sensor when the
elevator is accelerating upwards at 2.5 m s-2.
Reading of weight sensor =.N [2]
(iii)
If the maximum G-force that can be experienced safely by a human is 1.5G

(i.e. 1.5 times of the humans weight), calculate the maximum upward
acceleration of the elevator that is still considered safe.
Maximum safe upward acceleration =. m s-2 [1]
(c)
A computer simulation is designed to test the response of the emergency braking

mechanism and the weight sensor should the elevators cable snap when there are
passengers onboard. The simulation takes place in the following sequence:
Time / s
0
t1
t2
t3
Incident
Elevator is stationary at a height of 250 m.
Steel cable snaps and elevator starts to
freefall.
Emergency braking system kicks in and
elevator undergoes deceleration.
Elevator comes to a complete stop.
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
Sketch a graph using the axes provided in Fig. 1.2 below to show the variation of the
weight sensors reading with time during the simulation. The original reading, W, is
indicated.
[2]
Fig. 1.2
(d)
The owner of the skyscraper decided to replace the motor powering the elevator as it
was not efficient enough. He decided to use a motor that is 75% efficient, replacing
the original model which is 60% efficient.
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
8
(i)
If the elevator is designed to hold up to 8000 N of passenger weight, and is

required to rise up to a height of 250 m in 60 s, calculate the power required to
achieve the task.
power required = W [2]
(ii)
Hence, calculate the input power that is required to operate the new motor.
input power =.W [1]
For
Examiners
Use
2.
(a)
State the formula to calculate the centripetal force required to keep a body of mass
m, moving in a circle of radius r with speed v.
....[1]
(b)
A smooth toy car track is set up in the following manner as seen in Fig. 2.1 below.
Fig. 2.1
Cars 1 and 2 are identical in construction and have a mass of 500 g each. Car 1 is
released from rest at point A, which is at a height of 0.60 m. Car 1 is designed to
move down the slope and complete the circular loop (during which it would be upside
down at the top of the loop), before colliding with Car 2.
(i)
Calculate the speed of Car 1 at point B after it has moved down the slope.
speed of Car 1 at point B =.. m s-1 [2]
[Turn over
10
(ii)
If Car 1 was to just reach point C, i.e., it comes to a complete stop at point C,
state the height of the circular loop.
height of circular loop = m [1]
(iii)
Explain why if the circular loop has the height that is calculated in (b) (ii), Car 1
would be unable to complete the entire loop safely.
..
..
..... [2]
(iv)
Hence or otherwise, calculate the maximum radius of the circular loop.
maximum radius of circular loop =m [2]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
11
(c)
After completing the loop, Car 1 collides elastically with Car 2. Car 1 comes to a
complete stop, and Car 2 moves forward and compresses the spring until it comes to
a complete stop
Given that the spring constant of the spring is 150 N m-1, calculate the compression
of the spring when Car 2 comes to a complete stop.
compression of spring = m [2]
[Turn over
12
3.
(a)
In Fig. 3.1 below, the battery has an internal resistance r and the ammeter has
negligible resistance.
Fig. 3.1
The graph in Fig. 3.2 below shows how current I in the circuit varies as the potential
difference V across the variable resistor R changes.
Fig. 3.2
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
13
(i)
Define the term potential difference.
...[2]
(ii)
1. Show that the e.m.f E of the battery is 6 V.

[2]
[Turn over
14
2. What is the power dissipated in the variable resistor R when the current
in the circuit is 1.2 A?
power dissipated =..W [2]
3. What is the internal resistance r of the cell?
internal resistance r = [2]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
15
(b)
Four resistors are connected as shown in Fig. 3.3 below. Point a is at a higher
potential than point b.
Fig. 3.3
If a wire is connected from c to d, state and explain the direction of the current that
will flow through the wire.
[2]
[Turn over
16
4.
Fig. 4.1 below shows an arrangement used to determine the wavelength of

monochromatic light emitted by a laser.
Fig. 4.1
S1 and S2 are slits that are at right angles to the plane of this page. When illuminated by
light from the laser, they form coherent sources of light. An interference pattern is formed
on the screen, from which measurements can be taken to determine .
(a)
Explain what is meant by interference of two coherent sources.
[2]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
17
(b)
(i)
Describe briefly the interference pattern produced using the arrangement

shown in Fig. 4.1 above.
...[2]
(ii)
Describe the roles played by diffraction and interference in the production of

the interference pattern.
...[2]
(iii)
Calculate the wavelength of light emitted by the laser, given the following
values:
D = 2.0 m
a = 0.5 mm
Fringe spacing = 2.5 mm.
wavelength = nm [2]
[Turn over
18
(c)
The interference pattern is easier to observe when the amplitudes of the waves from
the two coherent sources are similar.
Explain why this is so.
.
.
.
.....[2]
Section B
Answer two questions in this section
5.
(a)
Explain what is meant by simple harmonic motion, and give an example of it that
occurs in nature.
.[2]
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
19
(b)
A vertical peg is fixed to the rim of a horizontal turntable of radius r = 15.0 cm,
rotating with a constant angular speed = 4.0 rad s-1, as shown in Fig. 5.1 below.
Fig. 5.1
Parallel light is incident on the turntable so that the shadow of the peg is observed on
a screen, which is normal to the incident light. At time t = 0, = 0 and the shadow of
the peg is seen at S.
At some later time t, the shadow is seen at T.
(i)
Write down an expression for the angular displacement in terms of and t.

[1]
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
20
(ii)
Derive and expression for the distance ST in terms of r, and t.

[2]
(iii)
By reference to your answer in (b) (ii), explain how the motion executed by the
shadow is simple harmonic in nature.
...[2]
(iv)
Calculate the period of the motion of the shadow on the screen.
period of shadows motion = s [1]
For
Examiners
Use
21
(v)
Hence or otherwise, calculate

1. the speed of the shadow as it passed through S,
speed of shadow = m s-1 [2]
2. the magnitude of the acceleration of the shadow when it is

instantaneously at rest
magnitude of acceleration =. m s-2 [2]
(c)
A light spring hangs vertically from a fixed support and a metal sphere of mass
m is attached to its free end. The mass is displaced vertically and then
released. The variation of the kinetic energy of the mass Ek, with time t of the
mass is shown in Fig. 5.2 below.
Fig. 5.2
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
22
(i)
Determine the period T of the oscillation.
period =.. s [1]
(ii)
Using the data from the kinetic energy-time graph in Fig. 5.2, sketch the
displacement-time graph of the oscillating mass for two complete oscillations
using the axes in Fig. 5.3 below.
On the axes, indicate and label clearly the amplitude and the period of the
oscillation.
[2]
Fig. 5.3
For
Examiners
Use
23
(d)
To investigate the effects of damping on the oscillations of the metal sphere in (c), an
electromagnet is placed near it, and light damping is observed.
(i)
Explain what is meant by damping.
...[1]
(ii)
Sketch on Fig. 5.2, the kinetic energy-time graph of the lightly damped
oscillating system.
[2]
(iii)
Suggest how critical damping of the metal spheres oscillations may be

achieved using the electromagnet.
...[2]
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
24
6.
(a)
Fig. 6.1 below shows 2 coils X and Y wound on a soft iron core.
Fig. 6.1
(i)
Magnetic flux links coils X and Y when there is a current in coil X.
1. What happens in coil Y when the magnetic flux in the soft iron core
changes?
...[1]
2. State a law that justifies your answer in (i) (1).
...[1]
(ii)
The output of coil Y is connected to a 12 V, 3 A light bulb. The input of coil X is

now connected to a 240 Vr.m.s 100 Hz mains supply.
(Assume that the efficiency of energy transfer between the two coils is 100%
and the bulb lights with full intensity.)
Calculate the current in coil X.
current in coil X =.A [2]
For
Examiners
Use
25
(iii)
(b)
Sketch a graph to show how the power dissipated in the light bulb connected to
coil Y varies with time over one cycle of the alternating output voltage.
[2]
Fig. 6.2 below shows the path of an -particle as it passes near the nucleus of a gold
atom.
Fig. 6.2
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
26
(i)
Explain why the -particle was deflected as shown in Fig. 6.2.
...[2]
(ii)
Indicate on the diagram the direction of the electric force acting on the
-particle.
[1]
(c)
Xenon-139 has a half-life of 41 s and is generated at a constant rate during the

fission of a specific sample of Uranium-235. The number of Xenon-139 nuclei in the
sample increases initially and finally becomes constant.
(i)
Explain the meaning of the following terms:
1. half-life,
...[1]
2. fission.
...[1]
(ii)
Suggest a reason why the number of Xenon-139 nuclei in the sample becomes
constant.
...[1]
For
Examiners
Use
27
(iii)
The activity of Xenon-139 is 3.4 10 8 Bq when the number of Xenon-139

nuclei has reached a constant.
Calculate
1. the number of Xenon-139 nuclei present in the sample.
number of Xenon-139 nuclei present =..[2]
2. the mass of Xenon-139 in the sample.
mass of Xenon-139 =kg [2]
[Turn over
28
(d)
The energy released in the fission reaction of Uranium-235 occurs partly as kinetic
energy of the fission products (167 MeV) and of the neutrons (5 MeV).
In a nuclear power station, 25% of the energy of the fission products is converted
into electrical energy. The number of uranium nuclei in 1.0 kg of Uranium-235 is
2.56 10 24 .
(i)
Calculate the electrical energy generated from the fission of 1.0 kg of

Uranium-235.
electrical energy generated =.. J [2]
(ii)
Calculate the average power output of the power station if the duration of the
fission reaction of Uranium-235 is 24 hours.
average power output =. MW [2]
For
Examiners
Use
29
For
Examiners
Use
[Turn over
30
7.
(a)
Explain clearly each of the following observations:
(i)
Light waves seem to travel only in straight lines while sound waves and water
waves can go around corners.
...[2]
(ii)
Sound waves cannot be polarized but radio waves can.
...[1]
(b)
Fig. 7.1 below shows some of the possible energy levels of an electron orbiting
inside a mercury atom.
The lowest possible energy level is Level 1. The diagram below is not drawn to
scale.
Fig. 7.1
For
Examiners
Use
For
Examiners
Use
31
(i)
Explain how Fig. 7.1 can be used to account for the emission line spectrum.
......
...[3]
(ii)
Cool mercury vapour is bombarded with a stream of electrons that have been
accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 7.3 V.
1. Determine the kinetic energy of an electron inside the stream.
kinetic energy of electron =J [2]
2. Calculate the frequency of an emitted photon when an electron falls

from Level 2 to Level 1.
frequency of emitted photon =. Hz [2]
[Turn over
For
Examiners
Use
32
3. State and explain whether photons with frequency in (b) (ii) (2) would
be emitted if electrons with energy of 4.15 eV collide with the mercury
atoms.
......
...[2]
4. Draw on Fig. 7.1 the number of possible transitions when the mercury
atoms are bombarded by electrons with energy of 7.6 eV.
[2]
(c)
A particle of mass m and kinetic energy E has a de Broglie wavelength .

Show that the expression for de Broglie wavelength in terms of m and E is given by
h
2mE
[2]
(d)
An electron travels at 0.5 times the speed of light.
For
Examiners
Use
33
(i)
Calculate its de Broglie wavelength.
de Broglie wavelength =. m [2]
(ii)
Comment and explain what is observed if such an electron beam is passed

through a thin film of crystalline material.
......
...[2]
END OF PAPER
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Preliminary Examination II 2010

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

This question paper consists of 21 printed pages.

permeability of free space,

permittivity of free space,

the Planck constant,

unified atomic mass constant,

rest mass of electron,

rest mass of proton,

molar gas constant,

6.02 1023 mol1

the Boltzmann constant,

6.67 1011 N m2 kg2

acceleration of free fall,

the Avogadro constant,

uniformly accelerated motion,

work done on/by a gas,

displacement of particle in s.h.m.

velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

mean kinetic energy of a molecule of

In the equation, P = Q RS, P, Q, R and S are physical quantities. For the

P, Q, R and S all have the same units.

P, Q, R and S are all scalar quantities.

The product RS have the same units as P and Q.

The product RS is numerically equal to (Q P)

A student wishes to determine the density of a cylinder of mass M, height

percentage uncertainties of his measurements of M, d and h are 3%, 1%

They act in opposite directions.

They both act at the same point.

They both act on the same body.

They both have the same magnitude.

A string of negligible mass with a weight of 50 N at one end is attached at

Five blocks of equal masses V, W, X, Y and Z are connected by four

A 60 kg archer stands at rest on frictionless ice and fires a 0.50 kg arrow

A stone of weight 80 N is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with an

A block of iron is suspended in water

The block experiences an upthrust from the water.

Iron is more dense than water.

The area of face R is greater than the area of face S.

The density of water increases with depth.

The pressure of water increases with depth.

A helicopter which has blades of diameter 5.0 m is hovering above the

To travel at constant speed, a car engine provided 25 kW of useful power.

The gravitational pull of the Earth on the Moon balances the

The gravitational pull of the Moon on the Earth is negligible at this

Which of the following statements is correct?

The work done by an external agent to move a mass from Y to X is

The work done by the gravitational field to move a mass from X to N is

The work done by the gravitational field to move a mass from N to M is

For one complete oscillation in simple harmonic motion with amplitude, a,

An object undergoes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude A, and its

Which of the following statement is true?

The internal energy of a system can be increased by transfer of energy

The internal energy of a system is dependent only on its temperature.

When the internal energy of a system is increased, its temperature

A heater of power of 300 W is immersed in a filter funnel of crushed ice.

A star emits electromagnetic waves of wavelengths 50 m, 5 m, 0.5 m and

Monochromatic light with a wavelength of is incident normally on a

A sphere is released from rest, in vacuum, between two parallel, vertical

A positive charge is placed at P and a negative charge is placed at Q. The

Two charges, P and Q are 100 mm apart.

X is a point on the line between P and Q. If the potential at X is 0 V, what is