IIT JEE MODEL GRAND TEST - II

PAPER-I


Time: 3 Hrs M.Marks : 198

PHYSICS

INSTRUCTIONS

(Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1- -- -12) 12) 12) 12) : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for
correct correct correct correct answer and answer and answer and answer and 1 mark (minus 1 mark (minus 1 mark (minus 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. one mark) for wrong answer. one mark) for wrong answer. one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos13 (Q.Nos13 (Q.Nos13 (Q.Nos13- -- -16) 16) 16) 16) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option.
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos 17 (Q.Nos 17 (Q.Nos 17 (Q.Nos 17- -- -22) 22) 22) 22) : These Questions are Comprehension, : These Questions are Comprehension, : These Questions are Comprehension, : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct option with only one correct option with only one correct option with only one correct option . .. . You will be You will be You will be You will be
awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.


1. A block is held against a rough wall by applying a horizontal force on the block
perpendicular to the wall. If another horizontal force is also applied on the block but along
the wall, the frictional force on the block by the wall is
A) along the wall and horizontal B) along the wall and vertical
C) along the wall and inclined to the horizontal
D) cannot be decided as the value of the forces applied are not given.

2. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its
centripetal acceleration is varying in magnitude with time t.
A) the net acceleration of the particle is constant in magnitude but varying in direction.
B) the net acceleration of the particle is varying in magnitude but has a constant direction.
C) the net acceleration of the particle is neither constant in magnitude nor in direction.
D) none of the above can be decided as the variation in the magnitude of the centripetal
acceleration with time is not given.

3. When a block is suspended from a spring balance A the balance reads 2 N. Another
balance B reads 5 N when a beaker with some liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The
two balances are now so arranged that the hanging mass is inside the liquid in the beaker
without touching the bottom of the beaker. In this situation
A) balance A reads less than 2 N. B) balance B reads more than 5 N
C) if the spring of balance A is cut and the block is allowed to settle down in the liquid on
the bottom of the beaker then the reading of the balance B will be 7 N
D) none of the above

4. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height and then rolls down the plane
without slipping throughout these motions. The work done by the frictional force
A) in translating the cylinder up the plane is zero
B) in rotating the cylinder up the plane is zero
C) is zero in totally translating plus rotating during the upward journey and translating
plus rotating during the downward journey separately.
D) is zero in totally translating plus rotating during the upward and downward journey
combined.

5. Whenever two spherical bodies collide in mid air
A) their momentum cannot be conserved in the vertical direction as gravitational force is
acting on them.
B) their momentum can be conserved in any direction.
C) their momentum can be conserved along their common tangent only.
D) their momentum cannot be conserved along their common normal

6. Water is flowing in stream line motion through a tube with its axis horizontal. Consider
two points A and B in the tube at the same horizontal level
A) the pressures at A and B are equal for any shape of the tube.
B) the pressures are never equal
C) the pressures are equal if the tube has a uniform cross section


D) the pressures may be equal even if the tube has a non uniform cross section.

7. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube,
A) air flows from bigger bubble to smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
B) air flows from bigger bubble to smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged.
C) air flows from smaller bubble to bigger bubble.
D) the air does not flow at all as the pressure of air in both the bubbles is already equal

8. When two wave pulses approach each other and are identical in shape except that one is
inverted with respect to the other,
A) at one instant the displacement of all the particles will be zero.
B) at one instant when the displacement of all the particles is zero, the kinetic energy of
all the particles at that instant is also zero.
C) at no instance the displacement of all the particles will be zero.
D) at one instant when the displacement of all the particles is zero, the kinetic energy of
all the particles at that instant is not zero.

9. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both the ends has a fundamental frequency f in air.
Half of the length of the tube is dipped vertically in water. The fundamental frequency of
the air column now is
A) 2f B) f / 2 C) f D) f / 3

10. Consider the following two statements:
A: the internal energy of a thermodynamic system necessarily increases if heat is added to
it.
B: the internal energy of a thermodynamic system necessarily increases if the temperature
of the system is increased.
A) A is correct, B is wrong B) A is wrong, B is correct
C) both A and B are wrong D) both A and B are correct

11. When we place a gas cylinder on a van and the van moves,
A) the kinetic energy of the molecules increases
B) the temperature of the gas increases
C) neither the temperature of the gas nor the kinetic energy of the molecules increases
D) the temperature of the gas does not increase.

12. A piece of charcoal and a piece of shining steel of the same area are kept for a long time in
an open lawn in bright sun.
A) the purpose of mentioning that both of them have been kept in the lawn for a long time
is to conclude that the temperatures of both of them have become same.
B) steel will have absorbed more heat than the charcoal
C) if both are picked up by bare hands, steel will be felt hotter than the charcoal because it
is better conductor
D) if the two are picked from the lawn and placed in a cold chamber, steel will lose heat at
a faster rate than the charcoal as steel is a better conductor.

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE:

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STII is the correct explanation of ST 1
Bubble(B) if both the statements are TRUE but STII is NOT the correct explanation of ST-1
Bubble (C ) if STATEMENT I is TRUE and STATEMENT II is FALSE
Bubble (D ) if STATEMENT I is FALSE and STATEMENT II is TRUE.

13. Statement 1: The energy density in dielectrics is greater than that in vacuum for the same
electric field.
Statement 2: Inside the dielectrics placed in an external electric field there is a dipole
moment that appears in the volume. The dipole moments interact with each other so as to
give this additional energy.

14. Statement 1: There is a uniform magnetic field in a cubicle region and is zero outside. We
can project a charged particle from outside into the field so that the particle describes a
complete circle in the field.
Statement 2: The net charge in a current carrying wire is zero. Still a magnetic field exerts
a force on it.






15. Statement 1: When a paramagnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field, the field in the
substance is more than the applied field.
Statement 2: when a dielectric is placed in an electric field, it gets polarized and the
electric field in the polarized material is less than the applied field.

16. Statement 1: electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential
difference.
Statement 2: electrons in a conductor have no systematic motion in the absence of a
potential difference.

Comprehension I:
The convex surface of a thin concavo-convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of
curvature 20 cm. The concave surface has a radius of curvature 60 cm. The convex side is
silvered and placed on a horizontal surface.

17. The position where a pin should be placed on the optic axis such that its image is formed at
the same place is
A) 20 cm B) 60 cm C) 15 cm D) not possible

18. If the concave part is filled with water of refractive index 4/3 and the image of the pin
placed on the optic axis should still coincide with the position of the pin then
A) the pin needs to be shifted closer to the lens than where it was before water was filled
B) the pin needs to be shifted away from the lens than where it was before water was filled.
C) the image of the pin cannot coincide with the position of the pin after water is filled.
D) the pin should be placed where it was before filling the water to have its image coincide
with it.

19. The position of the pin on the optic axis after the concave part is filled with water such that
its image is formed at the same place is
A) 1.16 cm B) 13.84 cm C) 15 cm D) not possible.

Comprehension 2:

The figure shows two identical parallel plate capacitors connected to a battery with the switch S
closed as shown. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of the
capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 3.


B
A
S
V


20. The total electrostatic energy stored in both the capacitors before the dielectric is
introduced is
A) 2CV
2
B) () CV
2
C) CV
2
D) (1/4)CV
2

21. The capacitor in which the potential difference remains constant while the dielectric is
being introduced is
A) A B) B C) both A and B D) neither A nor B

22. The total electrostatic energy stored in both the capacitors after the dielectric is introduced
is
A) (3/2)CV
2
B) (1/6)CV
2
C) (5/3)CV
2
D) zero


CHEMISTRY

(Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23- -- -34) 34) 34) 34) : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for : Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for
correct answer correct answer correct answer correct answer and and and and 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos35 (Q.Nos35 (Q.Nos35 (Q.Nos35- -- -38) 38) 38) 38) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. , with only one correct option. , with only one correct option. , with only one correct option.
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos 39 (Q.Nos 39 (Q.Nos 39 (Q.Nos 39- -- -44) 44) 44) 44) : These Questions are Comprehension, with only : These Questions are Comprehension, with only : These Questions are Comprehension, with only : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct one correct one correct one correct option. option. option. option. You will be You will be You will be You will be


awarded 3 marks awarded 3 marks awarded 3 marks awarded 3 marks for correct answer and for correct answer and for correct answer and for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.


23.
SeO
2
X. X can be

A)
OH
B)
OH
C)
OH
HO
D)
O


24.
3 2 2 2
||
CH C CH Cl CH N
O
+ product. The possible product can be

A) CH
3
CH
2
C CH
2
Cl
O
B) CH
3
C CH
2
O
CH
3
C) CH
3 C CH
2
CH
2
Cl
O
D) CH
3 CH CH
O
CH
2
Cl


25.
H
3
C
C
O
O
AlCl
3
X (major). X can be


H
3
C C
O
OH
A)
B) C
O
OCH
3
H
3
C C
O
C)
O D) None


O
26.
H
+
H
2
O
X (major). X is

A)
OH
HO
B)
HO
OH
C)
OH
OH
OH
HO
D)


27.
CH
3 CBrCl
3
/h
X (major). X is


A)
CCl
3
CH
2
Br
B)
CH
2
Cl
C)
CH
3
D)
CCl
3

28. Correct order of increasing 1E
1
of N, P, O, S follows:
A) S < P < O < N B) S < O < P < N C) P < S < N < O D) none

29. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [CoCl
3
(NH
3
)
3
]?
A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

30. Which of the following elements is/are called chalcophile?
A) Mn B) Zn C) Sn D) Ag



31. The magnetic moment of Fe
3+
in [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
complex is:
A) 1.73 Bm B) 2.83 BM C) 3.87 BM D) 5.92 BM

32. The solubility of AgCl in water at 25C is 1.79 10
-3
g/l. K
sp
of Agcl at 25C will be
A) 1.55 10
-10
mol
2
/litre
2
B) 3.10 10
-10
mol
2
/litre
2

C) 1.247 10
-5
mol/litre D) 2.497 mol/litre

33. The charge in coulombs on 1 gm of phosphide ion (p
3-
) is
A) 1.602 10
-19
coulombs B) 18.03 10
23
coulombs
C) 2.893 10
5
coulombs D) 4.8 10
-19
coulombs

34. No. of -particle emission in the disintegration series of
90
Th
232
to
82
Pb
208
is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3


Assertion & Reason Type:

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and ST2 is the correct explanation of ST 1
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but ST2 is NOT the correct explanation of ST1
Bubble (C ) if ST1 is TRUE and ST2 is FALSE
Bubble (D ) if STI is FALSE and ST2 is TRUE.

35. Statement I: IE
1
of Cu is more than K.
Statement II: Cu has higher effective nuclear charge than K.

36. Statement I: O-toluediene is more basic than P-toluediene.
Statement II: O-toluediene possess intramolecular H-bonding while P-toluediene does
not.

37. Statement I: Allyl phenyl ether on heating preferably produce O-allyl phenol.
Statement II: O-allyl phenol is more stable than P-allyl phenol.

38. Statement I: If 0.1M NaCl solution boils at 101C then 0.1M BaCl
2
solution will boil
nearly at 101.5C.
Statement II: BaCl
2
has higher molecular mass than NaCl.


COMPREHENSION-1:

0.804 g sample of iron ore was dissolved in acid. Iron was reduced to +2 state and it required
47.2 ml of 0.112 N KMnO
4
solution for titration.

39. Mass of iron in the given sample is
A) 0.1467 g B) 0.2934 g C) 0.5868 g D) 0.3649 g

40. Percentage of iron in the iron-ore is
A) 18.25 B) 36.5 C) 54.7 D) 73

41. Percentage of Fe
3
O
4
in the ore is
A) 50.5 B) 25.3 C) 70 D) 40.6

COMPREHENSION-2:

Acetyle chloride on treatment with excess CH
3
MgBr and subsequent hydrolysis produce X
which when treated with HCN in the presence of acid catalyst gives two products Y and Z. Y
when treated with nitrous acid give X which gives white precipitate with lucas reagent
immediately. Z also gives white ppt with Tollens reagent.

42. Structure of compound Y s
A) (CH
3
)
3
C OH B) CH
3
COCH
3
C) (CH
3
)
3
C.NH
2
D) CH
3
CH
2
.NH
2



43. Compound Z can be
A) HCOOH B) CH
3
CHO C) (CH
3
)
2
CH.CHO D) CH
3
CH
2
CHO

44. Compound X is
A) (CH
3
)
2
CH.OH B) (CH
3
)
3
C.OH C) CH
3
CH
2
OH D) None





MATHEMATICS

(Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45- -- -56) 56) 56) 56) : : : : Have one Have one Have one Have one or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for or more than one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for
correct answer and correct answer and correct answer and correct answer and 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos57 (Q.Nos57 (Q.Nos57 (Q.Nos57- -- -60) 60) 60) 60) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning , with only one correct option.
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos 61 (Q.Nos 61 (Q.Nos 61 (Q.Nos 61- -- -66) 66) 66) 66) : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct option : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct option : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct option : These Questions are Comprehension, with only one correct option . .. . You will be You will be You will be You will be
awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.


45. The vectors a

, b

, c

are of the same length and the angle between any two of them is the
same. If

a i j, b j k, = + = +

then c

is
A)
( )
1
3

a i 4j k = +

B)

i k + C)
( )
1
3

i 4j k + + D)
( )

i 2j 3k + +

46. The direction ratios of lines intersecting the line
x 3 y 3 z
2 1 1

= = at angles 60 are
A) 1, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 1 C) 1, 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 1

47. The real values of a for which the equation x
3
3x + a = 0 has three real and distinct roots
is
A) 2 < a < 2 B) a 2 C) a 2 D) 2 < a <
1
2

48. Let
3
3
1
I 3 x = +

dx, then the value of I will lie in the interval

A) [4, 6] B) [1, 3] C) 4, 2 30


D) 15, 30




49. A function is defined as f(x) = [tan x] + tan x [tan x] 0 x <
2

where [ i ] denotes the

greatest integer function, then
A) f(x) is continuous in
( )
2
0,

B) f(x) is not continuous at x = 0
C) f(x) is continuous at x = 0,
4

D) f(x) has infinite points of discontinuities

50. If P is any point lying on the ellipse
2
2
2 2
y
x
a b
1 + = , whose foci are S and S.
Let PSS = and PS S = , then
A) PS + PS = 2a, if a > b B) PS + PS = 2b, if a < b
C) PS + PS + SS = 2a (1 + e) D) none of these

51. If the normals at (xi, yi) i = 1, 2, 3, 4 to the rectangular hyperbola xy = 2 meet at the point
(3, 4) then
A) x
1
+ x
2
+ x
3
+ x
4
= 3 B) y
1
+ y
2
+ y
3
+ y
4
= 4
C) x
1
x
2
x
3
x
4
= 4 D) y
1
y
2
y
3
y
4
= 4

52. If PQR is the triangle formed by the common tangents to the circles x
2
+ y
2
+ 6x = 0 and x
2

+ y
2
2x = 0 then
A) centroid of PQR is (1, 0) B) in centre of the PQR is (1, 0)
C) circum center of the PQR is (1, 0) D) ortho center of the PQR is (2, 0)

53. Let 0 < p < q and a 0 such that the equation px
2
+ 4xy + qy
2
+ 4a (x + y + 1) = 0
represents a pair of straight lines, the a can lie in the interval
A) (, ) B) (, p) C) (p, q) D) (q, )



54. In a ABC, the incircle touches the sides BC, CA and AB at P, Q and R respectively and
its radius is 4 units. If the lengths BP, CQ and AR are consecutive integers then
A) sides are also consecutive integers B) sides are in A.P.
C) perimeter of the triangle is 42 units D) diameter of the circum circle is 65 unit



55. If a square matrix A = [a ij], a ij = i
2
j
2
is of even order then
A) A is a skew-symmetric B) A is a perfect square
C) A is symmetric and A = 0 D) A is neither symmetric nor skew symmetric

56. The series
n n n n
0 1 2 n
C C C C
n n 1 n 2 2n
........
+ +
+ + + is equal to
A)
1
n 1 n
0
x (1 x) dx

B)
1
n 1 n
0
x (1 x) dx

C)
2
n 1 n
1
x (1 x) dx

D)
2
n n 1
1
x (x 1) dx

Assertion & Reason Type:

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and ST2 is the correct explanation of ST 1
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but ST2 is NOT the correct explanation of ST1
Bubble (C ) if ST1 is TRUE and ST2 is FALSE
Bubble (D ) if STI is FALSE and ST2 is TRUE.

57. Statement I: If A and B are two matrices such that AB = B, BA = A then A
2
+ B
2
= A + B
Statement II: If A and B are idempotent matrices

58. Statement I: If A, B, C, D are angles of a cyclic quadrilateral then sin A + sin B + sin C +
sin D = 0
Statement II: If A, B, C, D are angles of cyclic quadrilateral then cos A + cos B + cos C +
cos D = 0

59. Statement I: If I
n
=
n
tan x dx

then 5(I
4
+ I
6
) = tan
5
x
Statement II: If I
n
=
n
tan x dx

then I
n
=
n 1
n 2
tan x
I
n

where n N

60. Statement I: I the length of sub tangent and sub normal at point (x, y) on y = f(x) are
respectively 9 and 4. Then x = 6
Statement II: Product of sub tangent and sub normal is square of the ordinate of the point.

Comprehension-1:

n persons are to sit in a hall and there are n chairs. Each person is assigned a particular chair to
sit. However the first person to enter the hall is an absent minded professor who doesnt care
which seat is assigned to him and just randomly occupies a seat. Each of the remaining persons
enter the hall, one by one, and occupies the assigned seat if it is found vacant, but if it is found
occupied each one is too shy to object and will simply occupy any seat which is vacant. Now
answer the following.

61. The probability that the last person sits in his assigned seat is
A)
1
2
B)
n 1
n!
2

C)
n
1
n(n i)
i 1

=
D) none of these

62. The probability that exactly two persons sit on their assigned seats is
A)
2
n 1
B)
n 1
2
n 1
c
2

C)
n n 1 n 2
2 2 2
n
c c c
2

+ +
D) none of these

63. If the expected no of persons sitting on the assigned chairs be given by
n
i 1
E i p(i)
=
= where
p(i) stands for probability that i persons occupy assigned seats then the value of E is
A)
n
2
1 B)
n 1
2

C)
n
2
D) none of these

Comprehension-2:



Suppose z and w be two complex numbers such that z 1, w 1 and z iw z iw 2 + = = ,
use the result
2
z z z = and z w z w + + and answer the following questions.

64. Which of the following is true about z and w ?
A)
1
2
z w = = B)
3
2
z w = = C)
3 1
2 4
z , w = = D) z w 1 = =

65. Which of the following is true for z and w?
A) Re(z) = Re(w) B) lm (z) = lm (w) C) Re(z) = lm (w) D) Re (w) = lm (z)

66. Number of complex numbers z satisfying the above conditions is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) indeterminate