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OM0013-Unit-01-1Mark-Questions

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1. Which of the following sentences are inappropriate to business strategy?
Each business unit within the corporate group forms its own business strategy to define its
individual mission and objectives.
It guides the business in an environment consisting of its customers, markets, competitors,
and its own corporate group.
It plays an important part in contributing to the strategic and / or competitive objectives of the
business
It translate the objectives of the business into teams.
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2. Which are the questions that help in forming the corporate strategy of a corporation?
What are the types of business the group wants to be in?
Where in the world does the organisation want to operate?
What businesses does it want to acquire or diversify into?
Where does it get the funds for the businesses?
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3. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to maturity stage in product life
cycle?
Demand drops, which leads to a shortage of supply.
Competition becomes intense, with an emphasis on price, or 'value for money'.
Market becomes increasingly competitive and price-conscious environment.
Maturity stage is characterised by fast declining sales revenue and fewer customers.
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4. Which of the following is not a point to be considered while formulating a manufacturing
strategy process?
Customer requirements
Finding out the deal location for the manufacturing plant
Manufacturing capabilities
Competitors
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5. How can content decisions be classified?
In many ways in accordance with the classification of operational operations adopted.
In an order so that the organisation reaches its strategic goals.
In contrast with the process of operational strategy formulation
In implementing the Production Planning Process
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6. As different customer groups for a product starts to emerge in the growing market,
which of the following statements holds true?
The company cannot afford to let its quality levels drop as it ramps up its level of activity
There is a decline in sales and fewer customers in the market.
Products and services lose their novelty and become mature in the market
Company is forced to cut down on its operations
OM0013-Unit-01-2Mark-Questions
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1. State whether the statement True or False
1. Each function of the business needs an operational strategy which guides its action
within the business.
2. In business strategy, organisations develop their strategies based on their global,
economic political and social environment.
1T, 2F
1F, 2T
1T, 2T
1F, 2F
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2. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the description of strategy?
An organisation's commitment to a set of actions.
Decisions taken to determine the position of the organisation relative to its environment.
Total pattern of decisions and actions which position an organisation in its environment.
Giving direction to corporate values, culture, goals and missions.
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3. Which of the following are not the features of value chain analysis?
It details the operations which form part of a business cycle.
It is used to identify which activities are best performed by a business and which are best
provided by others.
All the activities are linked closely together in the value chain, and each has suppliers, owners
and customers.
This makes an impact on the way the operation organises its improvement operations.
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4. Identify the correct statement with respect to Manufacturing Strategy process.
It is part of a larger system of activities called the value system.
Employees are either skilled or unskilled and they work on a network of domestic and foreign
facilities.
It is a system of activities and linkages.
It helps to identify the sources of low cost advantage.
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5. The different stages involved in product life cycle are:
1. Development Stage.
2. Introduction Stage.
3. Detailed Tasks stage.
4. Action Plans.
1 & 2
1 & 3
1 & 4
3 & 4
OM0013-Unit-01-4Mark-Questions
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1. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Determining optimal layouts Simulation methods
Computer heuristic methods CRAFT
Fixed layout Customised ships
Location of manufacturing plant Proximity to markets
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Critical path analysis CPA
Types of production Flexible manufacturing
Jobbing manufacture One- off production
Complex production process Batch manufacturing
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3. Identify the correct sequence.
1. Development.
2. Decline.
3. Introduction.
4. Maturity.
5. Growth
3, 1, 5, 2, 4
1, 5, 3, 2, 4
1, 3, 5, 4, 2
5, 3, 1, 4, 2
OM0013-Unit-02-1Mark-Questions
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1. The operations strategy of an organisation should be able to align its _____________
goals.
Management
Operational
Financial
Supply Chain
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2. The design and ongoing management of a firm's operation have a significant impact on
the ________________ success of the firm.
operational
social
financial
operational and financial
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3. The early 1980s saw the development of the manufacturing strategy paradigm by
researchers at the _____________ school.
Harvard Business
Stanford University
University of California
University of Cambridge
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4. The __________________ has opened new ways for the customer to interact directly
with a firm.
World Wide Web
Communication
Web 2.0
Internet
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5. There is a competition when different organisations supply ___________ products to
satisfy customers in the same market sector.
Similar
Variety
Exchangeable
Hardware
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6. Some customers are interested primarily in the _________ of a product or service.
Cost
Process
Logistics
Transportations
OM0013-Unit-02-2Mark-Questions
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1. Identify the correct statement with respect to the results of a market entry study
conducted by AMC Kinsey.
A delay of six to eight months in bringing a product to market can cost a company one-third of
the products life time project potential.
A delay of six months in bringing a product to market can cost a company one-third of the
products life time project potential.
A delay of twelve months in bringing a product to market can cost a company one-third of the
products life time project potential.
A delay of twenty four months in bringing a product to market can cost a company one-third of
the products life time project potential.
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2. A company that produces higher quality projects than its _____________ can increase
its _________.
departments, quality
competitors, sales
production, sales
delivery, time
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3. The two main characteristics of a product that define quality are _____________and
_______________.
process, quantity
financial, design
cost, process
design, process
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4. Many companies strive to be more ___________, customer support and ___________
activity becomes the first area for cost cutting.
low cost process, delivery
process, delivery
training, production
efficient, training
OM0013-Unit-02-4Mark-Questions
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1. Identify the correct statement set.
The key to competitive success for operations strategy lie in:
1. Understanding target markets.
2. Identifying the priority choices.
3. Understanding the consequences of each choice.
4. Appreciating the various tradeoffs
1
1 & 2
1, 2 & 3
1, 2, 3 & 4
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Product
variety and
facility size
Crockery Store retailers compete by having larger
stores with a larger inventory of products and by
offering additional services
Product or
process
expertise
Sharp Corporation has prospered in consumer
electronics due to its dominance in producing liquid
crystal displays
Production
flexibility
Celestica uses equipment that is not bolted to the
floor so that production lines can be quickly
reconfigured to make different products
Quality as a
competitive
weapon
Toyota Motors and Mc Donald's fast food chain
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3. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Information The ability to furnish critical data on product
performance
1970s and
early 1980s
Manufacturing strategy paradigm
Problem
solving
capability
The ability to help internal and external groups
solve problems especially in quality
ERP Enterprise Resource Planning
OM0013-Unit-03-1Mark-Questions
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1. The balanced scorecard is used to maintain __________ measures.
Performance
Quantity
Finance
Quality
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2. There are _______ types of performance objectives.
Five
Six
Two
Eight
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3. Financial performance measures are used to achieve strategic impact on how
_____________.
To view shareholders
To excel in business process
The customers be viewed
To build capabilities
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4. Quality is used to measure ________.
Schedule adherence
Frequency of delivery
Number of defects per unit
Customer query time
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5. Benchmarking is defined as _________.
The process of serving others
The process of quantifying action
The process of learning from others
The process of identifying risk
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6. Name the risk that may result in loss or gain.
Speculative risk
Static risk
Consequential risk
Legal risk
OM0013-Unit-03-2Mark-Questions
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1. Which statement is appropriate according to the Sandcone theory?
Quality should be the first priority.
Quality should be the second priority.
Quality should be the third priority.
Qualilty should be the last priority.
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2. Operations improvement program are:
A. Zero defects.
B. Quality circles.
C. Total Quality Management.
D. Value engineering.
A, C & D
B, C & D
A, B & C
A, B, C & D
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3. What is performance measure?
The process of quantifying action, where measurement means the process of quantification.
The process of qualifying action, where measurement means the process of quantification.
The process of quantifying action, where measurement means the process of qualification.
The process of qualifying action, where measurement means the process of qualification.
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4. State whether the statement is True or False.
1. Benchmarking is not a one-off project.
2. Benchmarking is a means of taking resources to activity.
1T, 2F
1F, 2T
1F, 2F
1T, 2T
OM0013-Unit-03-4Mark-Questions
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1. Select the appropriate sentence.
Performance measurement is:
A. The process of quantifying action.
B. Assumed to be derived from the actions taken by its management.
C. An operation that fulfills six performance objectives.
D. A prerequisite for judging an operation.
A & C
B, C & D
A, B & C
A, B & D
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2. It involves comparing operations or parts of operations within the same total organisation.
For example, a large motor vehicle manufacturer with several factories could choose to
benchmark each factory against the others. What type of benchmarking does this refer to?
Internal benchmarking
External benchmarking
Competitive benchmarking
Practice benchmarking
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3. The scale for judging importance is done by:
A. Providing a crucial advantage.
B. Providing an important advantage.
C. Providing a useful advantage.
D. Being consistently worst than the competitors.
A, B & C
B, C & D
C, D & A
A, B & D
OM0013-Unit-04-1Mark-Questions
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1. Which of the following are aspects of manufacturing flexibility?
Variety
Variety and competitiveness
Variety, volume and time
Variety, competitiveness and time
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2. Which one among the following is the factor that determines the level of automation
required?
Cost per unit
Manufacturing
Job variety
Use of labour
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3. ___________ is formed when two or more automated machines are linked by a transfer
system.
Automation
Automated assembly line
Automated flow line
Flexible manufacturing system
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4. What is designed in automated assembly lines so that the assembly tasks are performed
in the sequence they are intended for?
Product layouts
Tasks
Methodologies
Layouts
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5. Which of the following is not a component of FMS?
Computer Numerically Controlled machine tools.
Automated material handling systems
Supervisory computer control
Manufacturing systems
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6. What type of production system is implemented at Vought Aerospace?
Flexible manufacturing systems
Automated assembly line
Automated flow line
Automated production systems
OM0013-Unit-04-2Mark-Questions
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1. Which is incorrect with respect to automated assembly lines?
All the equipments required to produce a finished product are laid out in such a way as to
follow a particular sequence.
The parts, or sub-assemblies, are assembled in such a way that the product is ready to
perform the function it was designed to do.
The design of the product layouts is such that assembly tasks are performed in the sequence
it has been designed for.
Tasks do get repeated at each station.
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2. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to automated flow lines?
Operations can be performed on a single machine with a number of attachments.
The parts are processed continuously so as to attain the required shapes or acquire special
properties so that they can perform desired functions.
Human intervention is kept to a maximum.
The machines are designed in such a way that operation times are the same throughout the
sequence of the material flow.
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3. Which of the following is not appropriate with respect to the advantages of prototyping?
Prototyping help in confirming the design and any shortcomings that can be rectified at low
cost.
If serious defects or problems arise during the manufacture, a thorough change in design or
even its replacement may be considered.
The prototypes are made within the shortest possible time.
The physical space of the product is amenable to have cross sections made.
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4. Which of the following are not the advanced technologies in rapid prototyping method?
Stereo lithography
Solid Ground Curing
Selective Laser Sintering
Time Compressing Technique
OM0013-Unit-04-4Mark-Questions
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1. In the ____________ sector,automation usually involves the use of ______________.
Services, labour saving devices
Manufacturing, time saving devices
Services, time saving devices
Production, labour saving devices
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2. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Fixed manufacturing systems consist of production equipment workstations such as
machine tools or other equipment for fabrication, assembly or treatment.
2. The equipment in FMS are linked by materials handling system to move parts from one
workstation to another.
3. Fixed position layout of arranging machines help in flexibility because when machines
that having similar processes are grouped together to make similar components skills,
materials and machine times can be shared.
4. One of the major concerns of modern manufacturing systems is to be able to maximise
efficiency.
1F, 2T, 3F, 4F
1F, 2F, 3F, 4F
1T, 2F, 3T, 4T
1T, 2T, 3T, 4F
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3. State whether the statements are True or False.
1. Robotic arms keep track of operational activities and move the assemblies to the next
stage.
2. Assembly line consists of an assembly of several components that are assembled in a
separate bay and brought to the assembly line.
3. Sensors pick up parts and places them at specified places, and fasten them by riveting,
screwing, etc.
4. Operators move materials between stations.
1T, 2T, 3F, 4F
1F, 2T, 3F, 4F
1F, 2F, 3F, 4F
1T, 2F, 3T, 4T
OM0013-Unit-05-1Mark-Questions
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1. A layout in which there is a single main passage which goes from the entrance to the
rear of the store
Free-flow layout
Grid layout
Loop Layout
Spine layout
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2. The buffer that protects the constraint's ability to meet its schedule is:
Constraint Buffer
Shipping Buffer
Assembly Buffer
DBR
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3. The primary methodology used in manufacturing planning is:
S-DBR
DBR
POOGI
RBD
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4. What is the first focusing step in enterprise planning?
Decide how to exploit the constraint
Sub-ordinate everything else to the constraint
Identify the system constraint
Elevate the constraint
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5. The weakest link in production planning is:
Buffer
Drum
Rope
Constraint buffer
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6. The layout which is used when the items to be manufactured are huge or unique and
have to be worked on individually is:
cellular layout
product layout
functional layout
fixed position layout
OM0013-Unit-05-2Mark-Questions
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1. The I-Plant features are:
A. Materials usually flow in a sequence.
B. The preliminary work is done on a one-one basis.
C. The operation is slow.
D. The materials generally flow on a one-many basis.
B,C,D
C,D,A
A,B,C
D,C,A
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2. Identify the first three steps of Process of ongoing improvement
A.Identify the system constraint.
B.Decide how to exploit the constraint.
C.Subordinate everything else to the constraint.
D. Elevate the constraint.
A,B,D
D,C,B
A,B,C
C,B,D
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3. The different types of stores layout are:
A. Free-Flow Layout.
B. Grid Layout.
C. Loop Layout.
D. Cellular Layout.
A,B,C
B,C,D
D,B,A
A,C,D
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4. The types of buffer are:
A. Constraint.
B. Shipping.
C. Assembly.
D. Rope.
B,C,D
D,B,A
A,B,C
C,D,A
OM0013-Unit-05-4Mark-Questions
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1. Identify the inappropriate sentence: The Theory of constraint is based on:
Emphasis should be on balancing flow rather than on balancing capacity
Throughput of the entire system cannot be improved by maximising the output and efficiency
of every resource.
Losing an hour at a bottleneck
Identify the system constraint
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2. Match the following aspects related with the flow of material in the plant layout
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
I-Plant One-One
A-Plant Many-One
V-PLant One-Many
T-Plant Many-Many
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3. Identify the inappropriate sentence: Buffer helps in :
Protecting the Drum
Maintaining the work flow
using time as the unit of measurement
Releasing Time
OM0013-Unit-06-1Mark-Questions
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1. ____________is composed of a number of entities in a unidirectional path with nodes.
Flow chart
Function Diagram
Affinity diagram
Work Flow
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2. What is of great assistance to system architects and developers to produce efficient and
scalable applications?
Logical Process modelling
Physical Process modelling
Entity Relationship Diagram
Business Process Management
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3. Which are not the example of Statistical methods used to interprest data?
Chi-squared tests
Flow chart
Affinity chart
Frequency distributions
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4. Which concept when implemented can make workflow more productive?
Business Process Management
Physical Process Modelling
Job Design
Process Analysis
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5. Which system allows management to study the dynamics of the business and consider
the effects of changes without risk?
Business Process Management
Business Process System
Total Quality Management
Total Productive maintenance
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6. __________ is the responsibility that a business undertakes to utilise resources and
deliver outputs that creates value for the customer.
Business Analysis
Business Planning
Failure Design
Business Processing
OM0013-Unit-06-2Mark-Questions
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1. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to Business Process Management
(BPM)?
Designers and programmers put together the data and processes to provide optimum
benefits, and put in place the architecture which is capable of addressing these needs.
The business architecture should be flexible to adapt new methods.
It does not help in delivering good value of the Customer
In BPM, all the elements like activities, products, data, people, processes, performance
measurement, etc. have to be structured and controlled for the purposes of analysis,
evaluation, modification, implementation and correction.
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2. What is the purpose of the data driven approach for processes?
To capture relevant data in detail to be acted upon.
To locate deficiencies and remove them, so that decisions about process and sequence can
be taken.
To deliver specific outputs.
To create value for the customer.
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3. Which of the following is correct with respect to data driven approach?
1. Involves the use of data to support organisational activities.
2. Uses Statistical Methods.
3. Data Driven approach involves the use of research to support organisational activities.
4. Uses multiple resources.
1 & 2
2, 3 & 4
1, 2 & 3
1, 2, 3 & 4
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4. Which of the following is correct with respect to Logical process modelling?
Diagrams represent various processes and the flow of information within and between
different processes and entities.
Diagrams are produced to illustrate business processes and organisational units.
It is concerned with the actual design of data base meeting the requirements of the business.
It is putting together all the activities of business process in detail and making a representation
of them.
OM0013-Unit-06-4Mark-Questions
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1. The user has choices of subsequent activities and takes advantage of the flexibility the
process is allowed to have. What system does this statement refer to?
Process modelling
Business surveys
Business Process Systems
Business Process Management
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Uses specific inputs Characteristic of
BPM
Establishing controls and limiting the access to
data during execution of process
Logical Process
Modeling
Acquisition, storage, distribution, and control of
data across tasks in the process
Element of
business process
Lead the team members to a consensus Business analyst
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3. Identify the correct sequence?
Develop Research Plan --> Collect integrated data --> Publish information --> Define problem
Define problem --> Develop Research Plan -->Publish information --> Collect integrated data
Define problem --> Develop Research Plan --> Collect integrated data --> Publish information
Collect integrated data --> Publish Information Develop Research Plan --> Define problem
OM0013-Unit-07-1Mark-Questions
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1. Name the layout type where specific types of operations are grouped together within the
manufacturing or service facility.
Product Layout
Fixed Position Layout
Process Layout
Cell Layout
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2. One of the factors that does not affect the process design is:
Cost of the products and services
Requirements
Amount of task to be done by the firm, suppliers and customers
Time allotted for delivery of products and services to customers
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3. Product Research and Design can be defined as the __________ research that yields
information about desired characteristics of the product or service.
Sales
Marketing
Finance
Manufacturing
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4. The Operations Manager makes decisions about the _________ of the process.
Design
Review
Requirements
Release
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5. Which of the process types is highly flexible?
Project
Line
Batch
Job
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6. ___________ enables speed and flexibility in terms of rapid changes to products.
Flexibile Manufacturing Systems
Line
Batch
Job
OM0013-Unit-07-2Mark-Questions
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1. __________ and ___________ processes are associated with a wide variety of products
or designs, which can be customised for individual customers or clients.
Project and Job
Project and Batch
Project and Line
Project and Continuous
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2. In Projects, some common elements will be used from one project to the next project.
Which one of the following is a common element?
Project Planning and Scheduling
Product Research and Design
Products and Services
Simple Projects and Sophisticated Tools
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3. Operations strategy is expressed in terms of:
Success or Failure
Capacities and Capabilities
Scope of operations and Scale of operations
Research and Design
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4. Organisations that compete on cost usually rely on ____________ to achieve
________________.
High volumes, low unit costs
High volumes, high unit costs
Low volumes, high unit costs
Low volumes, low unit costs
OM0013-Unit-07-4Mark-Questions
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1. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Scope of Operations Amount of task to be done by the
firm
Scale of Operations Required capacity of the operation
Existing Processes Taking a major design decision
Process
Characteristics
Nature of the changes
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Project Highly flexible
Job High unit costs
Line Consistent quality levels
Continuous Commonly highly automated
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3. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Fixed
position
layout
The product or person being acted on remains in one
place, while operations take place around it
Process
Layout
Specific types of operations are grouped together
within the manufacturing or service facility
Product
Layout
Developed during mass production
Hybrid
Process
Designed to meet the needs of limited range of
products and allows one operator to carry out more
than one function
OM0013-Unit-08-1Mark-Questions
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1. _________ is a method of setting expectations and monitoring progress.
Generating a Filtering Process
Incubation process
Planning process
Controlling process
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2. The key aspect involved in product development is:
Top management support
Organising
Capture customer needs
Chief Programmer Model
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3. Which among the following increases the chances of successful new product
introductions.
Outsourcing
Organisational learning
Removing barriers
Organisational agility
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4. Which of the following are correct out of the seven key strategies that creates a culture
of ideas?
1. Remove barriers to the generation of new ideas
2. Help assess how time delays impact the project.
3. Create a positive, perhaps virtual place for new ideas to incubate
1, 3
1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 3
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5. _______ is a way of visualising the project and its successful outcomes, and seeing
potential pitfalls.
Process
Planning
Organisation culture
Risk
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6. ________ are those who address product quality as a risk reduction issue.
Project managers
Risk managers
Functional managers
Team leaders
OM0013-Unit-08-2Mark-Questions
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1. Identify the steps involved in the new product development process:
1. Idea generation, product design, and detail engineering
2. Market research and marketing analysis.
3. Updating the schedule and making appropriate changes in the schedule as the project
progresses.
1
2
3
1, 2
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2. State whether the following set of statements are Tue of False with respect to New
Organisational Structure for New Products:
1. People can create new products before they are anticipated by the customer, marketplace.
2. Traditional ways of organising around product lines, markets, or geographic locations can
encourage new thinking about products in a broader context.
3. Processes can describe various systems and interactions that lead to product success.
1T, 2T, 3T
1T, 2F, 3T
1F, 2T, 3F
1F, 2F, 3F
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3. Which of the following are inappropriate with respect to Building the Culture?
Mature organisation does treat risk management as a separate process.
Risk is an integral part of the thinking of its key people.
A risk management culture can be defined as the prevailing standard for how risk is handled.
Sustaining the culture of risk management is considered a major function of corporate
leadership in the risk-planning phase
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4. Which of the following are Key Strategies that helps a company or agency to develop a
culture of ideas?
1. State that new product development and opportunity generation are the business
2. Add barriers to the generation of new ideas
3. Create a positive, perhaps virtual place for new ideas to incubate
4. Generate a rigid process of filtering, evaluating and transitioning new ideas into a portfolio
and new product development process.
1, 2
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3
OM0013-Unit-08-4Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. Identify the correct sequence of Training and development in risk.
Identifying risks in the WBS-->Producing a risk matrix-->Building a work breakdown structure
(WBS)
Producing a risk matrix-->Identifying risks in the WBS-->Building a work breakdown structure
(WBS)
Building a work breakdown structure (WBS)-->Identifying risks in the WBS-->Producing a risk
matrix
Producing a risk matrix--> Building a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)--> Identifying risks in
the WBS
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2. Match the following:
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Outsourcing Helps to increase the chances of successful new
product introductions
Product
development
teams
Help to re-organise personnel involved in product
development to improve effective communication,
sharing resources, constraints and ideas early in
the product development cycle
Learning
Organisation
The lessons learned from past project experiences
are incorporated in documentation and then
embedded in training programmes so that project
managers learn from past experiences
Risk
assessment
sheet
Helps risk manager to identify the possible degree
of harm that could happen before organising an
event
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3. Match the following:
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Remove barriers Eliminating the fear of failure
Promote return on creativity Return on creative solutions
Generating a filtering
process
Risk assessment and
response
Organizational Agility Responsiveness and energy
OM0013-Unit-09-1Mark-Questions
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1. __________should be clearly shared and understood by all through strong
communication channels to the team members
Goal
Skills and personalities
Factors affecting work
Work method
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2. A standard that helps maintain the quality of a companys products and services is known
as:
Work method
Work measurement
Quality management
Project planning
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3. Establish can be defined as:
Asset reliability and performance problem should be prevented.
An Improvement methodology
Management practices that impact asset reliability and performance can be set.
Analysis and performance monitoring of the root cause should be done to solve the reliability
problem
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4. What are control variables?
Factors that can be changed such as project staffing or the tools that can be used
Measurement of infrequent work
Helps in improving the quality of product
Factors which cannot be considered such as the experience of the user
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5. What is necessary in complementing strengths which can be used to support team goals
and compensate the weaknesses?
Risks analyses
Skills
Minimising risks
Mutual Interests
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6. Work method statement is also known as:
Safe work method statement
Rating
Allowance
Quality Management
OM0013-Unit-09-2Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. Identify the correct elements of Safe method statement:
A. Need not be available for review
B. Used for the purpose of safety induction
C. Should be available for review
D. The principal contractor and people involved should be updated
B,C,D
A,B,C
D,A,B
A,C,D
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2. The features of design problem are:
A. Project design is considered as a responsibility
B. Clarity of the problem is given more importance
C. Primary Goal is controlling of the process
D. Waterfall model is used as an improvement strategy
A,B,C
B,C,D
D,A,B
A,C,D
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3. The four ideas that help in making teams are:
A. Maintain a good balance of skills and personalities
B. Establishing team norms and behaviour
C. There should not be open commnuication.
D. Involve the whole team in decision making
A,B,C
B,C,D
D,A,B
A,C,D
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4. Which among the following are various contol situation problems?
A. Realisation
B. Distribution
C. Allocation
D. Design
A,B,C
B,C,D
D,A,B
A,C,D
OM0013-Unit-09-4Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. Match the following:
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Irregular Factors which cannot be considered
Goal Factor which makes one achieve
Control Factors which can be changed
Distribution Factors which make distribution of variables
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2. Match the following
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Realisation Priority given to the problem getting realised
Allocation Priority given to major issues such as controlling
capacity
Design Clarity of the product for project design
Exploration Involved in getting the commitment of the people
involved
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3. Match the following:
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
ISO 9004:2008 Rules for performance improvement
ISO 15504-4:
2005
Guidance for process improvement and
capability determination
Zero Defect
Program
One of the inputs to six sigma inventors
Quality circle A group (people oriented) approach to
improvement
OM0013-Unit-10-1Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. ___________ is done after the demand has increased and then the capacity is
increased.
Capacity Lead Strategy
Capacity Lag Strategy
Average Capacity Strategy
Capacity Requirement Planning
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2. Identify a basic element in the structure of core production planning system.
Capacity Requirements Planning (CRP)
Fixed order quantity (FOQ)
Periodic Order Quantity (POQ)
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
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3. Identify the correct statement with respect to Lot-for-Lot rule.
Minimises the number of orders placed and maximises on-hand inventory.
Orders or production can not be modified easily.
This rule agrees with Just-In-Time philosophy.
The organisation must order or produce more than the quantity required in each period to
maintain safety stock at its required level.
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4. Identify the main principle which applies to planning and control system.
There is no simple best way to control a manufacturing business
Commit any flexible resource to a specific use until the latest possible moment.
There is a simple best way to control a manufacturing business.
No organisational group within a company does not has its own functions and objectives
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5. The ____________ to manufacture bicycles are seats, tyres, aluminium, etc.
Independent demand
Dependent demand
Inventory
Stock
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6. What does the first law of manufacturing state?
All benefits will be directly proportional to the speed of flow of materials and information.
All benefits will be inversely proportional to the speed of flow of materials and information.
All benefits will be neglected with respect to the speed of flow of materials and information.
None of the benefits are related to the speed of flow of materials and information.
OM0013-Unit-10-2Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. If a company purchases __________ quantities of an item used in manufacturing a
particular product, they may be _________ to meet contracts to supply products on the
agreed date.
More, able
Less, unable
Wrong, able
Exact, able
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2. MRP is a logical way to determine the following factors needed to produce each end
item.
A. Number of parts
B. Number of components and materials
C. Number of employees
D. Number of operators
A, B
A, C
B, C
C, D
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3. State whether the following sentences are true or false.
1. Demand Management allows to take care of supplier demand and optimise delivery of
available products.
2. Demand based planning increases the unwanted inventory.
1F, 2F
1F, 2T
1T, 2T
1T, 2F
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4. Use following data and calculate weekly requirements.
Forecast/Quantity per week for product Z is 85.
Data: Components per Product Component in master sheet for product Z
A. 1
B. 1.5
Weekly requirements for A = 0, B = 42.5
Weekly requirements for A = 85, B = 42.5
Weekly requirements for A = 85, B = 127.5
Weekly requirements for A = 40, B = 127.5
OM0013-Unit-10-4Mark-Questions
Question Results
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1. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
CRP It is a technique that allows business to plan in
advance
Capacity
Lead
Strategy
It is a very aggressive strategy and is used to attract
customers away from competitors
Average
Capacity
Strategy
It is a moderate strategy, in this the average expected
demand is calculated and then capacity is increased
accordingly
Capacity
Lag
Strategy
It is a conservative strategy and may result in loss of
customers as, it assumes that customers will return
after capacity has been met, which might not be true
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Economic
Order
Quantity
(EOQ)
The organisation must order or produce the economic
order quantity, plus any additional items needed to
refill safety stock, if it has fallen below its desired level
Fixed
order
The organisation must order or produce a fixed
quantity or a multiple of that fixed quantity must be
quantity
(FOQ)
ordered or produced
Periodic
Order
Quantity
(POQ)
Order or produce a quantity equal to the gross
requirements for P periods excluding any items in on-
hand inventory, plus any additional items needed to
replenish safety stock, if it has fallen below its desired
level
Lot-for-
Lot (L4L)
Orders or production can be modified easily for
purchase discounts or restrictions, scrap allowances,
process constraints and so on
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3. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Rough cut
approach
Three forms of data: base data, divided data
and forecasted data
Forecasted
data
Marketing forecast and operation forecast
BOM file What a finished product is composed of
Master
schedule
How much a finished product is desired and
when
OM0013-Unit-11-1mark
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1. What is considered as an input to the service system?
Processing time
Departure rate
Arrival rate
Customer population
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2. Reneging is when ___________.
The customer moves from one line to another in order to reduce waiting time.
The customer opts to come back later in order to avoid waiting in the waiting line.
The customer after being in the waiting line chooses to leave before being served.
The service provided can depend on a single activity or a series of activities.
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3. Customer population is considered infinite when _____________.
The count of customers waiting in the line will not considerably affect the rate at which the
population makes new customers.
The count of customers present affects the possible new customer
The count of customers present affects the possible old customer's service present in the
system.
The count of customers waiting in the line will considerably affect the population which makes
old customers.
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4. S in M/M/s model represents _____________.
Identical queues
Identical servers
Identical customers
Identical suppliers
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5. The waiting line priority used in a Single-server model is______________.
First come last serve basis
First come first serve basis
First come no serve basis
First come second serve basis
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6. Waiting line systems is also known as:_____.
Queuing systems
Customer population
Arrival rate
Service rate
OM0013-Unit-11-2mark
Question Results
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1. Identify the inappropriate sentence: The length of the waiting line indicates that
______________.
Customer service is poor.
Service is inefficient.
Customer service is good.
Capacity is inadequate.
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2. For model with finite population A. Poisson arrivals B. Exponential services C. No phases
D. Examine operating characteristics
A, B, C
B, C, D
C, D, A
A, B, D
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3. Identify the inappropriate sentence: The total time in the system are_____________.
Cost
Server efficiency
Capacity
Customers
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4. Operating characteristics of waiting line systems are: A. Average number of customers
in the lines. B. Probability of customers present in the system. C. Average number of
customers in the system. D. Average time spent by the customer in the waiting line.
A, B, C
B, C, D
C, D, A
A, B, D
OM0013-Unit-11-4mark
Question Results
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1. Single/Multiple channel system have A. Poisson arrivals B. Exponential service times C.
Multiple service channels D. Single departure line
A, B, C
B, C, D
C, D, A
A, B, D
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2. One Channel consists ____________ . A. Poisson Arrivals B. Deterministic Service
Time C. Automated service time D. Difference in service time
C, D, A
B, C, D
A, B, C
A, B, D
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3. Identify the inappropriate sentence: The efficiency of the server depends
on_________________.
Training
Incentives
Work methods
Pre-emption
OM0013-Unit-12-1mark
Question Results
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1. __________ consists of workmen who are capable of performing many tasks.
Rigid workforce
Flexible workforce
Workforce
Material handling
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2. Which of the following is design flow process?
Link operations
Worker responsibility for quality
Reduce lead times
Automatic inspection
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3. Which of the following are correct requirements from the design process to the
measurement of performance? 1. Total Quality Control 2. Total productive maintenance 3.
Reduce Inventories 4. Stabilise schedule
1, 2, & 4
1, 2, 3, & 4
1, 2, & 3
1, 3, & 4
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4. Which of the following is not a key element of JET?
Lot size reduction
Effort and movement
Setup time reduction
Uniform load
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5. Which of the following is Total quality control?
Balance workstation capacities
Enforce compliance
Project usage requirements
Quality Expectations
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6. _________ is a waste of energy; causes blockages, disrupting movements and delaying
the flow of other items creating delays.
Process
Effort and movement
Movement
Over production
OM0013-Unit-12-2mark
Question Results
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1. Which of the following are correct set of JET model? A. Total productive maintenance B.
Discontinuous flow processing C. Full systems D. Total quality control
A & B
B & C
C & D
A & C
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2. State whether the following sentences are True or False. Which of the following is
inappropriate with respect to JET Inventory and Supply Chains? 1. Supply chain consists
of a number of entities like organisations, departments, workstations, counters in sequence
that produce and deliver products or services. 2. Different companies adopt different
strategies depending on their products, the type of outsourcing they are able to develop
and manage, the extent of reach they have for customers and competition they face.
1F, 2F
1T, 2F
1F, 2T
1T, 2T
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3. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to Characteristics of JET?
JET considers elimination of waste as fundamental to any processes.
The extra parts or products may not be needed or may not be available when needed.
The people who work make a study as to how these are utilised in realising the purpose for
which they are made.
Any unnecessary movement is a waste of energy
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4. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to High Quality Production?
JET Production is meant for products which are repetitive in nature.
It has its genesis in providing solution for manufacturing process where the finished product
has a number of parts that get assembled.
The permitted tolerances do ensure high quality.
Controlling variability by strict adherence to best processes with built-in robustness to achieve
six sigma standards, ensures high quality.
OM0013-Unit-12-4mark
Question Results
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1. Identify the correct set of statements to with respect to Suppliers as partners? A.
Suppliers are those companies which undertake to make supplies of products they
manufacture. B. Treating suppliers as a part of our business and sharing information,
providing technical and financial assistance, seeking their help in improving process,
building up rapport between the employees of the supplier organisation and assure long
term business. C. Quality enhancement programmes can be implemented simultaneously
for faster and better results.
A & B
B & C
A & C
A, B, & C
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2. Match the following sets?
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Design flow process Emphasise preventive
maintenance
Improve Product Design Fail-safe Methods
Solving problems
concurrently
Root Cause
Total Quality Control Quality Expectations
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3. Match the following sets?
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Kanab Pull Reduce Lot sizes
Reduce Inventories Carousels
Work with vendor Reduce lead times
Measuring Performance Emphasise improvement
OM0013-Unit-13-1mark
Question Results
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1. Which process includes targeted sales estimate, production levels, inventory levels and
client backlogs?
Demand management
Aggregate planning system
Aggregate planning
Manufacturing plan
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2. The process that has forecasts of the quantities and timing of customer demands are
developed is
Demand management
Aggregate Planning
Production plan
Aggregate planning system
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3. In __________, information is gathered from and about the market such as forecasting
market demand, entering orders and determining _________.
Demand management, Specific product requirements.
Aggregate planning, Customer requirements
Demand management, Client requirements
Aggregate planning, Company requirements
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4. Which are strategic decisions made with an eye to the future?
Action planning
Facilities planning
Aggregate Planning
Scheduling
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5. Which cost in aggregate production planning includes costs of expediting, loss of
customer goodwill?
Inventory holding costs
Costs associated with changes in the production rate
Back ordering costs
Budgets
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6. Which method of aggregate planning is based on a rule that production rate for any
period would be set by the general decision rule?
Linear Decision rule
Management Coefficients model
Linear programming
Search decision rule
OM0013-Unit-13-2mark
Question Results
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1. Which of the following are not costs associated with decision variables in aggregate
planning?
Higher labour and material costs
Wage, premium and non-productive time costs.
Delayed response and higher fixed costs.
Lower fixed costs
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2. State whether the following statements about aggregate planning are true or false. 1. It is
one of the prominent steps in the production planning process. 2. It senses the relationship
between overall productive capacity and the sales forecast.
1T, 2T
1F, 2F
1T, 2F
1F, 2T
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3. Identify the correct statement with respect to the objectives of aggregate planning.
To accomplish a production plan that will effectively utilise the organisation
To combine the strategic goals in a with plans for the individual products in a service firm.
To combine the strategic goals with detailed work-force schedules in a manufacturing firm.
Aggregate planners must take decisions on input rates.
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4. State whether the following statements are true or false. 1. Master schedule expresses
the overall plan in terms of the amounts of specific end items to produce and dates to
produce them. 2. Master schedule is a complex problem.
1T, 2F
1T, 2T
1F, 2F
1F, 2T
OM0013-Unit-13-4mark
Question Results
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1. In this planning strategy, it will result in hiring, firing or terminating a large amount of
employees which results in the insecurity and unhappiness of the staff. Which is the
strategy referred here?
Chase strategy
Level strategy
Operational strategy
Business strategy
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2. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Trial and
improvement
method
One chooses a particular answer and
implements it to the problem. If it fails, one
chooses another option and tries it
subsequently
Transportation
method of linear
programming
Elements affecting the choice of approach are
described in detail
Simulation Undergoes severe test in order to find
acceptable strategies
Functional
objective search
Compares the planning load and the available
capacity
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3. Match the following sets.
Match Correct Answer
User
answer Feedback
Aggregate plan Includes targeted sales estimate
Capacity Total number of units per time
MPS Module Short term manufacturing plans are
developed and controlled
Demand
management
Identifying all sources of demand
OM0013-Unit-14-1mark
Question Results
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1. _________ process of V4L is ensured with the use of the right metrics and requirement
that a consensus be reached before plans are changed.
Variability
Visibility
Velocity
Variety
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2. Objectives that must be considered while making a decision on start sequence are: 1.
Keeping vehicles in the original planned line-off sequence. 2. Starting vehicle assembly
back to back. 3. Maintaining the ratio of models on the assembly line.
1, 2, & 3
2 & 3
1 & 2
1 & 3
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3. Expand TPM.
Total Productive Maintenance
Total Productive Management
Total Product Maintenance
Total Product Management
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4. Which of the following are part of The Framework of Toyota production system? 1.
Problem solving 2. People and Partners 3. Process
1 & 2
2 & 3
1, 2, & 3
1 & 3
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5. Which of the following are pillars of Toyota Production System? 1. Just-In-Time 2.
Highly motivated people 3. Total Productive maintenance
1, 2, & 3
2 & 3
1 & 2
1 & 3
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6. Which of the following inappropriate TPS?
HRM Requirements
Customers
Supplier capabilities
Lean production system
OM0013-Unit-14-2mark
Question Results
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1. Which of the following are correct set of Assembly plant operations? A. Assembly shop.
B. Paint shop C. Fabricated shop D. Plastic shop
A, B, & C
B, C, & D
A, B, & D
A, B, C, & D
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2. Identify the incorrect statement.
The retail segment has the largest segment of customers in an automobile company.
All retail customers of an automobile are of the same kind.
The serious buyer is a person who needs a vehicle within a short time frame.
The serious shopper is a person who has done homework and knows exactly what he or she
wants
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3. Identify the correct set of Main learning principles? A. Create awareness B. Establish
capability C. Make action protocols D. Generate system-level awareness
A, B, & D
A, B, & C
B, C, & D
A, B, C, & D
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4. Identify the incorrect statement.
Distribution model defines the method used to distribute vehicles from the assembly plant to
the dealers.
There are many variations in the distribution model within the automotive industry.
At Toyota, the distribution model is same for various regions around the world.
Toyota has a set of core values but allows individual divisions to customise to local conditions.
OM0013-Unit-14-4mark
Question Results
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1. Match the following sets?
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Stamping shop Shape the body parts
Body shop Identity is provided
Assembly shop Installing the body parts
Plastic shop Supplies key components
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2. Match the following sets?
Match Correct Answer User answer Feedback
Variety Operational efficiency
Velocity Capacity planning
Visibility Follow correct processes
Variability Quality improvement
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3. Which of the following are the characteristics of Kanban system? A. Smoothing of
production B. Standardisation of jobs C. Autonamation D. Reduction of set-up time design
of machine layout
A, B, & D
A, B, & C
B, C, & D
A, B, C, & D
OM0013-Unit-15-1mark
Question Results
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1. User confidence can be built on _____ visualisation.
1D
2D
3D
4D
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2. CIM is also known as ________.
Computer-Aided Process Planning
Enterprise Resource Planning
Flexible Design and Manufacturing
Production Planning and Control
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3. A single computer controller can drive all the tools into ________cell.
Single
Two
Three
Four
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4. In CAM, ______axis of machines are considered.
Two
Five
Three
Four
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5. In Computer-Aided Design, the design engineer can use a visual display terminal along
with ________ as an input device.
Light pen
Light rubber
Light mouse
Light Pencil
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6. In Robotics,__________ perform manufacturing process automatically.
ROP
MRP
IR
JIT
OM0013-Unit-15-2mark
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1. Companies doing online auction will have to _____________. A. Worry about the
reliability of the suppliers. B. Use a rating system to identify the integrity of the suppliers.
C. Use a rating system to identify the creditworthiness of the suppliers. D. Stop being
aware about the suppliers available.
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,D,A
D,A,B
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2. Benefits of robots are ____________. A. Helps in using G-code programming language.
B. Helps to minimise the cost. C. Helps to achieve high levels of quality. D. Helps in
performing risky choice.
A,B,C
B,C,D
D,A,B
A,B,D
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3. Features of the software for operations management includes _____________. A.
Waiting line B. Enterprise Resource Planning C. Forecasting D. Inventory
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,D,A
D,A,B
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4. The three competitive advantages in problem solving are _______________. A.
Improvement of process and customer service. B. Improvement of Response time. C.
Improvement of Quality management. D. Improvement of the Capacity management by
doing inventory.
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,B,A
D,A,B
OM0013-Unit-15-4mark
Question Results
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1. Identify the inappropriate sentence. The present CAM users can generate
_______________ . A. Streamlined tool paths B. Cutting operations C. Optimised tool axis
tilt used for higher feed rates D. Optimised Z axis depth cuts.
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,D,A
A,B,D
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2. The following activities are done at the preliminary investigation stage: A. Old product
ideas B. True market C. Technical D. Financial assessments
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,D,A
D,A,B
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3. The typical process followed by firms for NPD are __________________ . A.
Preliminary investigation B. Detailed investigation C. Development D. No Market launch
A,B,C
B,C,D
C,D,A
A,B,D
Sikkim Manipal University
Subject: Advanced Production and Operations Management
Subject code: OM0013
Book ID B1235
Question Paper Code:
Time: 2 hours Max.Marks:140


SECTION A 1 MARK QUESTIONS
Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark 50 * 1= 40 Marks

1. In a manufacturing Organisation, raw material enters its premises through:
a. Supply System
b. Sales department
c. Production department
d. Purchase department

2. The practice of certain basic concepts of Supply Chain can be traced back to industrial
revolution in:
a. Twentieth century
b. Eighteenth century
c. Seventeenth century
d. Nineteenth Century

3. The Basic Concept of Supply Chain Management relates to _______________ of the
complete Chain.
a. Globalisation
b. Distribution
c. Planning
d. Optimisation

4. SCM is focused on Planning, while ERP is focused on _______________.
a. Implementing
b. Supplying
c. Execution
d. Production

5. Which among the following is a process of centralised data management and retrieval?
a. Data management
b. Meta data
c. Data base
d. Data Warehousing
6. Computer resources include both ____________ and embedded systems.
a. Stand -alone
b. Hardware
c. Software
d. Support systems

7. Which among the following can be defined as an association of customers and suppliers who
use management techniques, work together to optimise their collective performance.
a. Integration process
b. Cost of integration
c. Integrated Supply Chain
d. Benefits of integration

8. Most Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) no longer compete solely as
_____________ corporations.
a. Bureaucratic
b. Partnering
c. Dependent
d. Autonomous

9. Properly implemented quality procedures can reduce _______, scrap, testing, and inspection.
a. Time
b. Money
c. Rework
d. Repair

10. Firms involved in __________can easily share the point of sales data among the participants
of the supply chain
a. E- business
b. E- commerce
c. Integration process
d. Production

11. Sourcing and outsourcing have direct relevance for the supply chain management because of
their implications for _______________.
a. Make and buy
b. Control and flexibility
c. Supplier and selection
d. Adherence and timely delivery

12. The Key Strategic choice for any supply chain is the ___________________ it seeks to
provide.
a. Locations of suppliers
b. Cost of production
c. Level of responsiveness
d. Level of service
13. In order to stay ahead of competition, organisations need to incorporate _________.
a. CPFE
b. CPFR
c. CPPR
d. CFPR

14. _________ aims to co-ordinate planning tasks of independent Supply Chain partners.
a. Trade Exchanges
b. Order generation
c. Point of Sale
d. Collaborative Planning

15. Vendors financial and assortment planning procedures affect ________ management.
a. Goal
b. Inventory
c. Profit
d. Risk

16. Customer Relationship Management can be described through __________ phased process
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

17. _______ analysis should be used while analysing open-ended questions.
a. Pareto
b. Priority
c. Standard
d. Statistical

18. The value in one's product is almost always defined on ____.
a. Customer's and company's terms
b. Product's terms
c. Customer's terms
d. Company's terms

19. "In the factory we make cosmetics: In the store we sell Hope: this was said by ________.
a. Revson Charles
b. Jack canfield
c. Katz
d. Charles

20. Equivalent words for Procurement are:
a. Procurement or buy
b. Ownership or buy
c. Purchase or Buy
d. Order or purchase

21. The Vendor completes the supplies as per the terms of the ____.
a. Policy
b. Memo
c. Purchase order
d. Order

22. A consensus building meeting requires _____ hours.
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight

23. The facilitator should have the list of _________ in case there is a need to foster discussion.
a. Justification
b. Questionnaire
c. Debate
d. Arguments

24. The activities that are involved in conducting the assessment usually occur during a period of
_______ days.
a. 7 to 14
b. 5 to 10
c. 10 to 14
d. 15 to 30

25. _________________ are the organisations or units that are responsible for providing
resources, stock, and other assets.
a. Secondary members
b. Primary members
c. Relationship members
d. Activity members

26. EVSM stands for:
a. Efficient Volume Stem Maps
b. Extended Value Stem Maps
c. Efficient Value Stream Maps
d. Extended Value Stream Maps

27. _________________ Maps identifies the lead time of the inventory.
a. Pipeline inventory
b. Relationship based
c. Time based process
d. Extended Value Stream Maps

28. The higher the supply chain _______, the more successful the supply chain.
a. Global issues
b. Location
c. Profitability
d. Inventory

29. The specialisation model creates ________ and distribution networks.
a. Participants
b. Partners
c. Products
d. Manufacturing

30. The supply chain encompasses all activities associated with the flow and ________ of goods
a. Transformation
b. Transportation
c. Services
d. Inventory

31. The order processing system is the main centre of the _________ and supply chain.
a. Customer
b. Demand forecast
c. Logistics
d. Information

32. Computer based decision support system supports the executive decision making in logistics
and ______________.
a. Supply chain management
b. Information technology
c. Customer management
d. Processing

33. In replacement of obsolete systems firms often adopt a ___________ approach.
a. Strategic planning
b. Business process
c. Rapid response
d. Piece-meal

34. A market orientation helps the ___________ of Supply Chain Management.
a. Promotion
b. Relation
c. Execution
d. Upstream

35. __________________ information arranges customers to purchase products and services
using the companys website.
a. E-commerce
b. E-mails
c. Advertisements
d. Newspapers

36. Choice of marketing ___________ should support the firms overall strategy.
a. Concept
b. Channels
c. Orientation
d. Relationships

37. Businesses do not undertake ___________ activities alone.
a. Shipping
b. Supply chain
c. Marketing
d. Firm's

38. Many of us think of ___________ as a one way street.
a. Supply Chain Management (SCM)
b. Reverse Supply Chain Management (RSCM)
c. Inventory
d. Quality Control

39. Which among is a process of tracking items that are returned from the customers and
accounting for them in inventory.
a. Green standards requirements
b. Reverse Supply Chain Management
c. Supply Chain Management
d. Centralised Collection Management

40. 40. RSCM can be seen as a weapon in reducing _______ by reusing the products or
components.
a. Supply
b. Burden costs
c. Operating costs
d. Market Price

41. Identify the statement that explains the role of Transportation in SCM:
a. Includes all activities and processes that are involved in generating and supplying
products.
b. Transportation includes Road, Rail and Air
c. The goods does not reach customer as per delivery dates committed by the company to
the customer.
d. Depending on the specific requirement of each customer and the logistics involved, the
shipping department decides the best mode of Transportation options.

42. Consider the following statements:
i. All activities are integrated together and these activities are used to interact with the
customers.
ii. The purpose, activities, and performance of various players in supply chain are integrated
in the background of primary aim of maximising the value for the final Customer.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-False
b. (i)-False, (ii)-False
c. (i)-False, (ii)-True
d. (i)-True, (ii)-True

43. Identify some of the benefits of Data warehouse:
1. The information in the warehouse can be stored safely for extended periods
2. Maintains a central repository of all organisational data.
3. Provides a common data model for all data of interest regardless of the data's source.
4. Many references provide an expanded definition for Data Warehousing.

a. 4, 3
b. 2, 1
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 3

44. Objective of __________ technology is to minimise the overall costs by increasing
operational efficiency of the ___________.
a. (i). Supply chain, (ii). Operational process
b. (i). Logistics, (ii). Manufacturing process
c. (i). Information, (ii). Process
d. (i). Integration, (ii). Overall supply chain

45. The forecast of demand forms the basis for all __________ and _______ decisions in a
supply chain.
a. (i). Techniques, (ii). Delivery
b. (i). Supply, (ii). Manufacturing
c. (i). Strategic, (ii). Planning
d. (i). Cost, (ii). Quality

46. Give reason for the following: Sourcing activity has made the supply chain management
much more complex.
a. Because of the geographical distance through which the goods have to be transported
from the suppliers to the buying firm.
b. Because of the shortest distance through which the goods have to be transported from the
suppliers to the buying firm.
c. Because of the risk in maintaining co-ordination between supplier and firm.
d. Because of global sourcing.

47. Identify the ideas which supply chain managers should consider to focus attention on co-
ordination.
1. Try to achieve co-ordination in the entire Supply Chain network.
2. Use technology to advance connectivity in the Supply Chain.
3. Safeguarding the benefits of co-ordination equitably.
4. Neglect the Bullwhip effect.

a. 1 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 4
d. 2 & 3

48. CPFR integrates the company goals throughout the _______ and ______ process.
a. (i). Supply, (ii). Demand
b. (i). Problem, (ii). Dealt
c. (i). Plan, (ii). Control
d. (i). Problem, (ii). Demand

49. Consider the following statements:
i. Dynamic Replenishment is a process that enables buyers to compare customer forecast or
planning data with their own production plans, to better match supply and demand.
ii. The CRP process is intended to isolate the replenishment calculation from other
enterprise processes.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-False, (ii)-True
c. (i)-False, (ii)-False
d. (i)-True, (ii)-False

50. Consider the following statements:
i. Customer Relationship Management is not described as the issue as a four- phased
process.
ii. Customer Relationship Management is based on the customer value.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-True, (ii)-False
c. (i)-False, (ii)-True
d. (i)-False, (ii)-False

Section-B
Answer all questions. Each question carries 2 marks 25 * 2 = 50 Marks

51. Spiral-of quality has which of the following activities?
A. Preceding market research
B. Quality strategy
C. Research and design
D. Do not dispose of waste

a. A, B, D
b. B, C, D
c. A, B
d. A, B, D

52. Every procurement decision involves a detailed ________ and ________ of the supplier.
a. (i) Purchase order, (ii) Goods
b. (i) Research, (ii) Acceptance
c. (i) Analysis, (ii) Rating
d. (i) List, (ii) Material

53. Consider the following statements:
i. Procurement may be understood as the act of ordering.
ii. Procurement may be understood as the act of getting possession of something.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-False, (ii)-True
c. (i)-True, (ii)-False
d. (i)-False, (ii)-False

54. Consider the following statements with respect to Develop a Plan for Action?
i. It is a good practice to define action items that can be achieved in a short period of time,
within 3 months, and others that require a year or more to implement.
ii. It is a good practice to define the time limit of process, within 3 months, and others that
require a year or more to implement.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-False
b. (i)-False, (ii)-True
c. (i)-True, (ii)-True
d. (i)-False, (ii)-False

55. Consider the following statements with respect to the Assessment process:
i. Assessment can be planned one day before and conducted.
ii. An assessment needs to be planned at least a month in advance of the consensus building
meeting.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-False, (ii)-False
c. (i)-False, (ii)-True
d. (i)-True (ii)-False

56. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to Relationship Based Maps?
a. Assists in allocating the resources that are required within the organisations network.
b. Building relationships between two organisations with respect to the supply chain.
c. Responsible for identifying the specific steps and business in the process.
d. Tasks that are vital for the processing of the supply chain are identified.

57. Consider the following statements:
i. Supply Chain Management ensures that the material, information, and cash flows are
smooth.
ii. Make component is the most metric-intensive part of the supply chain.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-True, (ii)-False
c. (i)-False, (ii)-False
d. (i)-False, (ii)-True

58. Supply chain transactions that involve e-business include the flow of information,
__________, and __________.
a. (i) Funds, (ii) Forecast
b. (i) Product, (ii) Funds
c. (i) Production, (ii) Process
d. (i) Technology, (ii) Logistics

59. According to _________, ___________ is to establish, maintain, and enhance relationships
with customers.
a. (i) Morgan, (ii) Supply Chain Management
b. (i) Hunt, (ii) Marketing
c. (i) Berry, (ii) Supply Chain Management
d. (i) Gronroos, (ii) Marketing

60. Consider the following statements:
i. There is a relation between time and the product life cycle.
ii. Organisations can reduce the time spent on reworking on a product, delivery of product
or services, and unnecessary movement of materials and subassemblies.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)-True
b. (i)-False, (ii)-False
c. (i)-False, (ii)-True
d. (i)-True, (ii)-False

61. Consider the following statements with respect to the benefits of Supply Chain Management:
i. Being able to deliver to the customer the right products.
ii. Cost reductions across the supply chain.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)- False
b. (i)-True, (ii)-True
c. (i)-False, (ii)-False
d. (i)-False, (ii)-True

62. ______________ (SEM) is employed to aid in developing measures that operates, constructs
and test relationships. The results indicate that a ________ management process that includes
logisticians results in appropriate investment in modern technology.
a. (i) Supply economic Management, (ii) Marketing
b. (i) Structural Equation Modelling, (ii) Strategic management
c. (i) Structure Equal Model, (ii) Supply chain
d. (i) Structural Equation Modelling, (ii) Logistics

63. Which of the following refers to workforce planning, hiring and Equipment investment,
budgetary planning?
a. (i) Personnel, (ii) Production
b. (i) Marketing, (ii) Personnel
c. (i) Finance, (ii) Personnel
d. (i) Production, (ii) Marketing

64. Consider the following statements:
i. Parties that trust each other share information without any problem.
ii. Parties that trust each other and have a long relationship still rely on legal contracts.

State True or False:
a. (i)-True, (ii)- True
b. (i)-False, (ii)-False
c. (i)-True, (ii)-False
d. (i)-False, (ii)-True

65. Dynamic replenishment approaches helps in:
A. Creating time fence profiles
B. Decrease order fills rates and increases raw materials.
C. Managing by exception with alerting capabilities
D. Working within flexible planning horizons

a. A, B, C
b. C, D, A
c. A, B, D
d. B, C, D

66. Consider the following sentences are True of False.
i. Potential value is used to determine the amount which the company can increase the
value of certain customer.
ii. Potential value is the maximum value which the customer can present to the company.

State True or False:
a. (i) True, (ii) False
b. (i) True, (ii) True
c. (i) False, (ii) True
d. (i) False, (ii) False

67. Consider the following statements with respect to Purchase Requisition:
i. It is defined as initiating document for all purchase activities in an organisation.
ii. It is defined as all available communication methods by which the information is provided
by the supplier to the procurement department.

State True or False:
a. (i) False, (ii) False
b. (i) True, (ii) False
c. (i) False, (ii) True
d. (i) True, (ii) True

68. Which of the following set is correct with respect to Assessment of SCM?
A. Gain Commitment for an Assessment is the first step among the 10 steps of assessment
process.
B. The full power of the assessment is achieved only when it is conducted with adequate
cross-functional representation
C. The main reason to conduct a cross-functional assessment of a process is to capture the
perspectives of managers from all key corporate functions
D. Feedback sheets may generate a slightly higher response than Questionnaires.

a. A, B, & D
b. A, C, & D
c. B, C, & A
d. B, C, & D

69. Identify the process links for the statements:
i. Facilitates in integrating and managing the supply chain within the company.
ii. Facilitates unifying and managing the supply chain, among the members of various
companies.

a. (i) Non member process links, (ii) Managed process links
b. (i) Managed process links, (ii) Non member process links
c. (i) Not managed process links, (ii) Managed process links
d. (i) Monitored process links, (ii) Non member process links

70. A typical supply chain involves a variety of stages they are:
A. Customers
B. Retailers
C. Wholesalers\ distributors, manufacturers
D. Component \Raw materials

a. A, B, C
b. B, C, D
c. A, C, D
d. A, B, C, D

71. Which among the following are the drivers of supply chain system?
A. Internal and external strategic integration
B. Globalisation and communication
C. Data Information management
D. New business processes

a. A, B, C
b. A, C, D
c. B, C, D
d. A, B, C, D

72. Which of the following is correct with respect to Role of Marketing in Supply Chain
Management?
A. The objective of marketing is generating exchanges, and the output of it is customer
satisfaction.
B. The marketing concept consists of the three pillars. They are: customer focus, co-
ordinating marketing and profitability..
C. A market orientation is the implementation of those beliefs, forcing the firm to generate,
disseminate, and respond to market information..
D. A market orientation reduces and encourages inter-functional co-ordination within a firm.

a. A, B, & D
b. A, C, & D
c. B, C, & A
d. B, C, & D

73. Which of the following refers to the manufacture quickly assesses the expected financial
gains on refurbishing, repairing or replacing a returned product?
a. RSCM
b. Exchange of Old for New Products
c. Efficient Flow of Returns
d. Products for spares

74. Consider the following statements in depicting the role of 'Exchange of Old for New
Products'?
i. This is a part of the managerial function in Supply Chain Management.
ii. In this before the introduction of the product, thoroughly understand and forecast
accurately the product failure rate.

a. (i) True, (ii) True
b. (i) True, (ii) False
c. (i) False, (ii) False
d. (i) False, (ii) True

75. Consider the following statements in describing the impact of Reverse Supply Chain
Management on Profitability?
i. The intention of every organisation in implementing Reverse Supply Chain Management
in its business process is mainly to increase the profits.
ii. A well planned Reverse Supply Chain Management brings profits, by utilizing
technology to evaluate at the point of customer returns.

a. (i) True, (ii) True
b. (i) True, (ii) False
c. (i) False, (ii) False
d. (i) False, (ii) True

Section-C
Answer all the following questions. (Descriptive questions to be answered in not more than
400 words) 10 Marks x 4 = 40Marks

Sl.
No.
Questions Marks
76. Discuss in brief about the evolution of the modern manufacturing
system that led to the emergence of the automated system.

Refer unit 4
10 Marks)
77. Discuss the different types of processes in the category of operations
configurations.
Refer unit 7
(10 Marks)

Read the following case study thoroughly and answer the following questions:

We Bake for You is a classic example of a success story. What started as a small eatery in the
suburbs of one of Indias cities has now become a famous restaurant with a chain of them
throughout India. There is always a buzz and the place is full with mostly students or people
stopping by to have a quick tea while returning from office. It has a strong customer base in
ladies who give preference to picking up a cream roll or a cream bun with tutty-fruity toppings
for children on their way home. What contributed to the success of this bakery are the following
attributes:
Use of fresh materials
Quick Service
Limited items in the menu
Reasonable prices
With growing competition and increasing popularity, it also had to think of ways to survive the
competition and to retain its customers. So, they began with expanding their menu. They retained
the old favourites and added a few more variations to the existing ones. Now, this bakery cum
restaurant has more than 15 suppliers of different ingredients used in different patties, pizzas and
burgers.

However, it was not a cakewalk for We Bake for You. When they started, it was quite difficult
for them to set right the supply chain. A thorough market analysis was done to understand the
dynamics. They made the farmers, suppliers and even the vendors to understand why specific
fresh ingredients were required to prepare the mayonnaise or a particular sauce and why was it
important to get that the same taste over and over again. Once this process was streamlined,
everything else fell into place. These efforts bore fruit when We Bake for You got an offer to get
into a collaborative deal with Spice n Ice Restaurants.

78. Discus about the success story of We Bake for You. What do you
think are the distinguishing features of We Bake for You?
Refer case study an unit 2

(10 Marks)
79. How did the bakery overcome the challenges of market? Did its
(10 Marks)
market analysis help in establishing a strong foothold?
Refer case study and unit 2

Master of Business Administration
Model Question Paper
OM0013 Advanced Production and Operations Management
PART A 1 mark questions
1. What is the total pattern of decisions and actions which allows an organisation to
achieve its long term goals known as?
a. Production
b. Strategic management
c. Strategy
d. Business strategy

2. What is the collection of policies, plans and behaviours which operation chooses
to pursue known as?
a. Action Plans
b. Functional Strategies
c. Operational Strategy Content
d. Detailed Tasks

3. The __________ depend on the decisions taken by an organisation.
a. Strategy
b. Strategic level decisions
c. Operational strategy
d. Levels of strategy

4. The __________ or __________ life cycle can have a big influence on the
operational strategy of an organisation.
a. Supplier, inventory
b. Product, service
c. Planning, system
c. Philosophy, practice

5. ________________ is the company's special expertise in making certain
products.
a. Information
b. Product
c. Process Expertise
d. Project Management

6. ________ is the ability to replace defective parts quickly.
a. Vendor Support
b. Field Support
c. Information Support
d. Customer Support

7. __________ is a prerequisite for judging whether an operation is good, bad or
completely different.
a. Performance measurement
b. Operations performance
c. Balanced scorecard
d. Performance targets

8. _________ attempts to provide important information that is required to allow
the overall strategy of an organisation to be reflected adequately in specific
performance measures.
a. Performance approach
b. External performance based targets
c. Balanced scorecard approach
d. Target performance

9. A large retail store can compare its systems and procedures for controlling stock
levels with those used by another department store. What type of benchmarking
is this?
a. Non-competitive benchmarking
b. Competitive benchmarking
c. Performance benchmarking
d. Practice benchmarking

10. _________ in the banking sector has led to the introduction of ATMs which save
banks a huge amount of labour and have brought great ___________.
a. Automation, customer satisfaction
b. Cams and Sensors, company satisfaction
c. Retrieval Systems, quality in product
d. Numerically controlled machines, company satisfaction

11. ___________________ are driverless vehicles that follow markers or wires on
the floor.
a. Fixed automated machines
b. Automated storage and retrieval systems
c. Automated Guide vehicles
d. Automated Machines

12. What are read and programmed into the system in order to monitor quantity,
location and movement?
a. Bar codes
b. Automated machines
c. Automated Storage and Retrieval systems
d. Automated Guide Vehicles

13. Policy Constraint is
a. Any business rule that conflicts with the goal of making more money
b. Can be a Capacity Constrained Resource
c. Which prevents parts from waiting on non-constraint parts at assembly
d. Protects the constraints ability to meet its schedule

14. What is decision-making tool in TOC called?
a. POOGI
b. Thinking Process
c. Constraint Management
d. ROI

15. How many plant layouts are there?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four




16. The deeper we go into the details of process definition, and collect data and make
them available at the ________, better will be the model.
a. Final stage
b. Initial stage
c. Secondary stage
d. Intermediate stage

17. Once the logical model is certified, ________ will take care of the implementation
of the process.
a. Workflow
b. Process flow
c. Software application
d. Information flow

18. While defining a process, how should the purpose of the process be written?
a. Purpose should be written including those that provide desired outcomes even if
gaps are there.
b. Purpose should be written carefully including only those that are relevant and
capable of being achieved.
c. Facts and assumptions can be written down.
d. Purpose should be written carefully including those that are relevant but not
necessarily capable of being achieved.

19. With respect to manufacturing, what may take many years to repay the
investment made in it?
a. Production line
b. Investment
c. Scale of Operations
d. Scope of operations

20. Carrefour, the French hypermarket chain resembles which process type ?
a. Project
b. Batch
c. Line
d. Continuous


21. Sustaining the culture of risk management is considered a major function of
corporate leadership in the __________.
a. Project development phase
b. Risk-planning phase
c. Project analysis phase
d. Project execution phase

22. __________ is the metaphor for responsiveness and energy.
a. Filtering process
b. Creative intelligence and new products
c. Creating a virtual place for new ideas
d. Organisational agility

23. All the information about risk is recorded in __________.
a. Random Number Generator
b. Risk Matrix
c. Risk Assessment Sheet
d. Chief Programmer Model

24. Work Method statement is also known as:
a. Safe work procedure
b. Safe way
c. Safe exit
d. Safe benefits

25. What is necessary to advise the employees on work safety?
a. Quality control
b. Work management
c. Work method statement
d. Goals

26. Techniques used to measure work is grouped into _______
a. Five
b. Two
c. Nine
d. Eight

27. SOP stands for _________________________.
a. Sales and Operations Planning
b. Sales or Operations Planning
c. Service and Operations Planning
d. Sales and Operator Planning

28. SOP is the result of __________ planning activities.
a. Yearly
b. Monthly
c. Weekly
d. Quarterly

29. CRP stands for ____________________.
a. Capacitor Requirements Planning
b. Capacity Reorder Planning
c. Capacity Requirements Planning
d. Capability Requirements Planning

30. In pure service systems, _______________ .
a. The customer receives money directly from the service provider.
b. The customer receives services indirectly from the service provider.
c. The customer receives services directly from the service provider.
d. The customer receives money indirectly from the service provider.

31. Waiting line systems are based on the
a. Queuing theory
b. Newton's law
c. Maslaws theory
d. Archimedes principle

32. ___________ is meticulously done taking into consideration and accommodating
for the uncertainties
a. Forecasting
b. Production scheduling
c. Capacity planning
d. Budgeting

33. Which industry most commonly uses JIT?
a. Software Industry
b. Automobile Industry
c. Finance Industry
d. Media Industry


34. _______ system is a means to achieve JIT production.
a. Kanban
b. Pull
c. Quality Assurance
d. Preventive maintenance

35. Aggregate planning is associated with understanding the _________ and the
_______ for the near future.
a. Quantity, production schedule
b. Quality, consistency
c. Flexibility, production
d. Cost, Production schedule

36. How many costs are there which are relevant to the aggregate production plan?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Two

37. One approach to aggregate planning is to match ________ with ________.
a. Product, demand
b. Cost, demand
c. Production, actual demand
d. Cost, production

38. The Toyota production system is a technology of comprehensive production
management formulated in ___________.
a. USA
b. South Korea
c. Japan
d. China

39. Which of the following is HRM requirement?
a. Effective communication
b. JIT
c. Flexible role
d. Able to reduce cost

40. What is Just In Time production system?
a. A software for producing essential units in essential quantity at an essential time.
b. A system of producing essential units in essential quantity at an essential time.
c. A system of producing non-essential units in essential quantity at an essential
time.
d. A software for producing non-essential units in essential quantity at an essential
time.

PART B 2 mark questions
1. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to strategy?
a. Strategy of an organisation is its commitment to a set of actions.
b. Strategy is defined as the total pattern of decisions and actions which position an
organisation in its environment and intend to achieve its long term goals.
c. Strategy is giving direction to corporate values, culture, goals and missions.
d. Strategy is moving the organisation closer to its long term goals.

2. Which of the following are appropriate with respect to formulating a
manufacturing strategy process?
A. Any process for formulating it must take into account customer requirements
B. During the process, questions are asked regarding the ideal location for the
manufacturing plant.
C. It is characterised by one-off production.
D. The levels of automation are low.

a. C & D
b. A & D
c. A & B
d. A & C

3. It is necessary for an organisation to understand its
markets from both __________ and _________ perspective.
a. sales, operations
b. marketing, operations
c. logistics, operations
d. outbound, sales

4. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to performance measurement
of an organisation?
a. It is assumed to be derived from the actions taken by its management
b. It is the process of learning from others
c. It is the process of quantifying action, where measurement means the process of
quantification.
d. It is defined as the extent to which an operation fulfils the five performance
objectives at any point in time so that the customers are satisfied.

5. State whether the statements are True or False.
a. Operations managers must consider the issues of setting and achieving
performance goals and objectives.
b. Performance can be simplified to an input or output ratio.
a. 1T, 2F
b. 1F, 2T
c. 1T, 2T
d. 1F, 2F

6. State whether the statements are true or false.
a. Automation systems cost huge sum of money and therefore no analysis of the
various factors is required.
b. Some extent of automation can be designed even with customisation and can lead
to produce or deliver low volumes specific to a requirement.
a. 1F, 2F
b. 1F, 2T
c. 1T, 2F
d. 1F, 2T

7. Which of the following is correct with respect to automated flow lines?
a. It is formed when two or more automated machines are linked by a transfer
system.
b. After completing one operation, the semi-finished parts are held in the same
process.
c. They can work only when the product is needed in low volumes over a relatively
smaller period.
d. From the raw material stage to the assembly stage, parts are processed in
batches.

8. The different types of pallets are:
A. Cardboard Pallets
B. Racks
C. Wooden pallets
D. Plastic pallets
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,A
d. D,B,A


9. The different types of plant layouts are:
A. Fixed-position layout
B. Functional Layout
C. Cellular Layout
D. Grid Layout
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,A
d. A,B,D

10. What is Logical modelling?
a. It is concerned with the performance and the administration of the database that
is implemented
b. It is concerned with the actual design of data base meeting the requirements of
the business.
c. It deals with the conversion of the logical model into a relational model. Objects
get defined at the schema level. The objects here are tables created on the basis of
entities and attributes
d. It requires customers to identify the elements of products that they found either
particularly satisfying or not.

11. Which of the following are the characteristics of physical modelling?
a. The outcomes are server model diagrams showing tables and relationships with a
database.
b. The physical model becomes the creation by developers in association with the
business analyst to generate diagrams and documentation for initiating physical
modelling
c. The outcomes are Entity Relationship Diagrams and Business Process Diagrams.
d. The model is user friendly.

12. State whether the statements are true or false.
1. Stopping a continuous process is generally avoided.
2 .Line production process can be restarted again without affecting the product.
a. 1T, 2F
b. 1F, 2T
c. 1F, 2F
d. 1T, 2T

13. The _____________and the __________are the factors on which the scale of
operations are based.
a. Scale of operations, cost
b. Cost of products, time allotted
c. Cost of products, supplier capabilities
d. Production

14. Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to Learning organisation?
a. An organisation that learns from its experiences by documenting risk impacts and
contingencies
b. Communication is open in organisations, leading to a process by which project
experiences are handed down to next generation project teams.
c. The challenge for the organisation is to teach and train project.
d. Organisation does not reinvent the wheel each time it plans and implements a
project.

15. The risk manager creates action steps for the risk and has clear idea about:
A. The regular occurrence of risk status communication .
B. The root cause or trigger for the risk.
C. The impact of risk on business or on the project.

a. A, B
b. B, C
c. C, A
d. A, B, C

16. The three essential elements for team building are:
A. Goal
B. Skills and personalities
C. Allowance
D. Factors affecting work
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,A
d. A,B,D

17. The work method statements should be :
A. Ambiguous
B. Understandable
C. Dated
D. Signed
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,A
d. A,B,D

18. Forecasted data can take the following forms:
A. Marketing forecast
B. Base data form
C. Operation forecast
D. Sales forecast

a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & D
d. A & C

19. State whether the statements are true or false.
1. The component forecast must be adjusted to reflect the deletions such as off loads
to renders or other factories.
2. The component forecast must be adjusted to reflect additions such as spare parts,
expansion, and second source items.

a. 1T, 2T
b. 1T, 2F
c. 1F, 2F
d. 1F, 2T

20. Waiting line properties are ____________________.
A. Based on queuing theory
B. Consists of customer population
C. Consists of system of service
D. Consists of dealing with finance

a. A, B, C
b. B, C, D
c. C, D, A
d. A, B, D

PART C 4 mark questions
1. Match the following sets:
First Set:
1. MTO
2. ETO
3. CPA
4. CTO

Second Set:
A. Engineer to Order
B. Ship building
C. Configure to Order
D. Make to Order

a. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
b. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
c. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
d. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

2. Which of the following are the main steps necessary to perform a competitive
analysis?
1. Developing properly defined corporate objectives.
2. Determining marketing strategies to meet those objectives.
3. Appreciating the operational implications for the markets in which firm operates.
4. Understanding the essential attributes of product and service combinations.

a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 2, 3 & 4
a. 1, 3 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4

3. Which of the following are the applications are measurement techniques for
calculating profitability?
a. Establishing a pre-study review
b. Identifying the issues that have to be improved
c. Evaluating the results of the improvement program
d. Finding the root cause of the issues.
a. A, C, & D
b. A, B & C
c. B, C & D
d. C, D & A

4. Match the following sets.
First Set:
1. Requirement of human intervention
2. Manufacturing Process
3. Scope to accommodate extra pallets or tool holders
4. Automated flow lines

Second Set:
A. Automated machines
B. Changes in production
C. Just in time
D. Verification of operations

a. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
c. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

5. The five focusing steps are:
a. Identify->Decide->subordinate->Elevate->Return
b. Identify->subordinate->Elevate->Return->Decide
c. Decide->Identify->Elevate->Return->subordinate
d. subordinate->identify->Elevate->Return->Decide

6. Which of the following is appropriate with respect to the definition of Business
Process Management?
1. A set of activities undertaken to optimise the business process to improve the
organisations performance.
2. A set of activities undertaken to optimise the business process to deliver better
value to the customer.
3. A set of activities undertaken to optimise the business process to maximise the
earnings.
4. A set of activities undertaken to optimise the business process to keep ahead of
competition.

a. A, C & D
b. A, B, C & D
c. B, C & D
d. A & B

7. Match the following sets.
First Set:
1. Operations strategy
2. Scope of operations
3. Existing processes
4. Supplier capacity and capabilities

Second Set:
A. Amount of task
B. Major design decisions
C. Process design
D. Scale of operations

a. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
b. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
c. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
d. 1-A, 2-C, 3-C, 4-B

8. Which of the following are inappropriate with respect to Product development
planning?
a. New product activity is often viewed as separate from the rest of the companys
product design and production processes.
b. Successful new product development requires the individual management of risk
and business opportunity.
c. A risk management culture can be defined as the past standard for how risk is
handled.
d. The existence of strong functional management ensures the basic functional
competency of the company.

9. Match the following
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act
1. Assessement of the present state
2. Improvement strategy
3. Acting according to the
measurement
4. Ensure that the strategy and
plan is more productive
a. A1,B2,C4,D3
b. A2,B3,C4,D1
c. A3,B4,C1,D2
d. A4,B1,C2,D3

10. State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Based on sales we can create a production plan for the system.
2. Based on target inventory we can create a production plan for the system.
3. Component forecast is merely a reflection of the end items.
4. In order to coordinate and keep track of all of the different components of a
project the project management team leader devises a number of individual
schedules.

a. 1T, 2T, 3T, 4T
b. 1T, 2T, 3F, 4T
c. 1F, 2F, 3F, 4F
d. 1F, 2T, 3T, 4F

11. Arrival rate and service rate are necessary in waiting line models for the following
reasons:
A. The arrival rate indicates the average number of customers for specified time
period.
B. The departure rate indicates the average number of customers for specified time
period.
C. Service rate indicates the average number
of customers that can be served during a time period.
D. The capacity of the service system.
a. A, B, D
b. A, B, C
c. B, C, D
d. C, D, A

12. Match the following sets?
First set:
1. Reduce Inventories
2. Total Quality Control
3. Improve Product Design
4. Measuring Performance

Second set:
A. Track trends
B. Quality Expectations
C. Conveyors
D. Automatic inspection

a. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
b. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
c. 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
d. 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

13. Identify the inappropriate feature involved in the Production and Delivery Lead
Time reduction:
A. Moving work stations closer together
B. Re-lay-out for flow
C. Reduce set-up and changeover times
D. Reducing the number of jobs to be processed at a given machine

a. A, C
b. A, D
c. A, B
d. C, D

14. Match the following sets.
First Set:
1. Mass Production Schedule
2. Demand Time Fence
3. Planning Time Fence
4. Time Span

Second Set:
A. Changes are not made automatically
B. Plan for staffing, inventory and production
C. Depends on type of product and volume of production
D. No changes can be made to the schedule

a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
b. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
c. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-B

15. Which of the following are methods of aggregate planning?
A. Trial and error method
B. Linear decision rule
C. Transportation model
D. Optimisation method

a. A, C, & D
b. B, C, & D
c. A, B, & C
d. A, B, & D

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