BIOLOGY

2006 National Qualifying Examination

Time Allowed:
Reading Time: 15 minutes
Examination Time: 120 minutes































MARKS

SECTION A 50 multiple choice questions 75 marks
SECTION B 5 questions 45 marks

Total marks for the paper 120 marks

INSTRUCTIONS

! Allocate your time appropriately for answering all the questions.


! SECTION A Answer all questions.
Use the Multiple Choice answer sheet provided.
You may use a pencil or pen to mark the answer sheet provided.


! SECTION B Answer all questions.
Use the answer booklet provided.
For question 52(a), you may use a pencil or a pen.
For all other questions, use a black or blue pen do not use a pencil.


! Ensure that your name and school appears on each page of your answers.


! You are not permitted to refer to any books or notes during the examination. The only permitted aid
is a non-programmable calculator.


! DO NOT STAPLE OR FOLD THE MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET.
Australian Science Innovations 2006
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 2 of 20
SECTION A
Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Provided


Q1 Which of the following structures can be found in the cells of all plants, animals and bacteria?

A. Nucleus.
B. Golgi body.
C. Vacuole.
D. Ribosomes.
E. Centrioles.

Q2 Consider two different animals that are classified in the same Family. This means that they must be
classified in:

A. the same Genus.
B. the same Class.
C. the same Species.
D. different Orders.
E. different Kingdoms.

Q3 Which of the following is NOT an example of a homeostatic mechanism for regulating body
temperature?

A. A lizard moving to a sun-heated rock.
B. A dog panting on a hot day.
C. A bird shivering in the cold.
D. A person with influenza developing a fever.
E. Counter-current heat exchange between blood vessels in the legs of a penguin.

Q4 Consider the growth curve below for a population of rabbits in a fully enclosed valley.


















Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for the shape of the curve after the point X?

A. Increased fertility.
B. Accumulated mutations in the population.
C. Increased competition for food.
D. A severe drought.
E. The introduction of a new disease that kills most of the population.
X
N
u
m
b
e
r

o
f

r
a
b
b
i
t
s

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 3 of 20
Q5 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to monocotyledonous (monocot) and
dicotyledonous (dicot) plants?

A. Monocots have an extensive taproot system.
B. Dicots generally have floral parts in multiples of 3.
C. Monocots reproduce by means of spores.
D. Dicots have broad leaves with veins arranged parallel to each other.
E. Dicot seedlings have two seed leaves.

Q6 Blood consists of a cellular component (comprised of white blood cells, platelets and red blood cells)
and a fluid component called plasma (comprised of water, dissolved plasma proteins and other
solutes). Presented below is a pie chart giving the relative volumes of the different elements in the
plasma and cellular components of blood.






















From the chart presented above, what can be concluded about the composition of blood?

A. Plasma proteins take up less volume than platelets.
B. White blood cells make up 10% of blood volume.
C. Red blood cells help carry oxygen in the blood.
D. Plasma proteins are an element of the cellular component of blood.
E. The plasma component of blood takes up more volume than the cellular component.

Q7 Certain amino acids are considered essential in an animals diet because they cannot be produced from
other compounds within the body. Which of the following cellular processes would be most
DIRECTLY affected by a dietary deficiency in essential amino acids?

A. Translation of mRNA.
B. Replication of DNA.
C. Cell division.
D. Oxygen transport.
E. Cellular respiration.

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 4 of 20
Q8 Proteins serve many functions within the body and can be categorised accordingly. Which of the
following functions is / are performed by proteins?

A. Cell to cell communication.
B. Catalysis of chemical reactions.
C. Support of cell structure.
D. Transport of molecules.
E. Proteins can perform all of the above functions.

Q9 Both insects and vertebrates have hinged jaws. While the jaws serve the same general purpose, they
evolved from different structures in the two groups. This is an example of:

A. hybrid vigour.
B. punctuated evolution.
C. divergent evolution.
D. convergent evolution.
E. homologous structures.

Q10 The following diagram shows a representation of a food web in an ecosystem.



If Predator 4s population was severely decreased by disease, which of the following is LEAST likely
to occur?

A. Herbivore 2 will increase in number.
B. Predator 1 will increase in number.
C. Predator 3 will decrease in number.
D. Producer 2 will decrease in number.
E. The Omnivore will increase in number.

Producer 1 Producer 2
Herbivore 1 Herbivore 2
Omnivore
Predator 1
Predator 2
Predator 3
Predator 4
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 5 of 20
For Q11 and Q12, refer to the information and diagram below.

Many mammalian hormones are regulated by complex feedback loops. One such feedback loop is outlined
below. Glands are in solid boxes and the hormones released by these glands when they are stimulated are
shown in dashed boxes. Note: + indicates stimulation and - indicates inhibition.






















Q11 What would happen if the Adrenal Cortex was artificially stimulated to produce large amounts of
Cortisol?

A. The activity of the Hypothalamus would increase.
B. The activity of the Anterior Pituitary would increase.
C. Less Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone would be released.
D. More ACTH would be released.
E. The Hypothalamus would become insensitive to Cortisol.

Q12 Which of the following scenarios would lead to a DECREASE in activity of the Anterior Pituitary
gland?

A. Intravenous injection of a large amount of ACTH.
B. A lack of receptors for Cortisol on the Hypothalamus.
C. A lack of receptors for Cortisol on the Anterior Pituitary.
D. Increased sensitivity of the Anterior Pituitary to Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone.
E. A tumour of the Hypothalamus causing it to secrete excess Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone.

Q13 Which of the following gases are produced in various parts of plants under normal metabolic
conditions?

I. Carbon dioxide.
II. Oxygen.
III. Hydrogen.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. III only.
D. I and II only.
E. I, II and III.
Anterior
Pituitary
Hypothalamus
Adrenal
Cortex
Corticotropin-
Releasing Hormone
ACTH
Cortisol
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 6 of 20
C
C
N
H
O OH
R H
H
Q14 Which of the following is an adaptation that would facilitate seed dispersal by animals?

A. A seed attached to long feather-like fibres.
B. A large seed containing a hollow cavity.
C. A seed surrounded by many sharp barbs.
D. A small seed that is flung out of an exploding pod.
E. A seed attached to thin membranous wings.

Q15 Haemophilia is a X-linked trait that is prevalent in many populations. Consider a case whereby a
woman, whose father was a haemophiliac, marries a healthy man. What is the probability that their
first SON will be a haemophiliac?

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%

Q16 The diagram below shows the general structure of an amino acid.











Which of the amino acids chemical groups can form part of a peptide bond in a protein?

A. The carboxyl group only.
B. The amino group only.
C. The side group only.
D. The carboxyl and amino groups only.
E. The amino and side groups only.

Q17 Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?

A. Organ protection.
B. Muscle attachment.
C. Protection from heat loss.
D. Calcium metabolism.
E. Support against gravity.

Q18 Compared to an ecosystem with a small variety of species, an ecosystem with a large variety of
species:

A. has less natural selection.
B. has less competition between species.
C. has a greater fluctuation in the number of individuals.
D. recycles more energy within the ecosystem.
E. is more stable under conditions of environmental stress.
Carboxyl
group
Amino
group
Side
group
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 7 of 20
Q19 Where are you LEAST likely to find ribosomes in a cell?

A. Bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Inside the vacuole.
C. In the cytoplasm.
D. Inside a mitochondrion.
E. Inside a chloroplast.

Q20 Which pair of plant and animal organs is most alike in function?

Plant Organ Animal Organ
A. Flower Skeleton
B. Leaf Spleen
C. Phloem Blood vessel
D. Xylem Liver
E. Seed Stomach

Q21 Consider the section of a lake shown in the diagram below.


















In which zone/s are you likely to find the most decomposers?

A. Littoral zone.
B. Limnetic zone.
C. Benthic zone.
D. Decomposers would be distributed evenly in all zones.
E. You would not find decomposers in this environment.

Q22 Pathogens are disease-producing organisms that can be broadly classified as intracellular (living inside
cells) or extracellular (living outside cells). Which of the following is an example of an intracellular
pathogen?

A. The fungus that causes tinea (Trichophyton rubrum).
B. The flatworm that causes liver fluke disease (Fasciola hepatica).
C. The protozoa that causes diarrhoea (Giardia intestinalis).
D. The virus that causes chronic liver inflammation (Hepatitis C virus).
E. The bacteria that causes chest infections (Streptococcus pneumoniae).
Littoral zone
Benthic zone
Limnetic zone
Lake .
floor
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 8 of 20
Q23 When a bunch of bananas is placed in a sealed plastic bag, they ripen quicker than they would if placed
out in the open air. Which of the following plant hormones causes this effect?

A. Auxin.
B. Cytokinin.
C. Giberrellin.
D. Abscisic acid.
E. Ethylene.

Q24 Infection with the intestinal parasite Giardia can cause degeneration of the intestinal villi. What is the
most likely effect of a serious Giardia infection?

A. A reduction in bile production and storage.
B. A reduction in nutrient absorption.
C. An increase in blood pressure.
D. An increased rate of carbohydrate digestion.
E. An inability to produce insulin.

Q25 A DNA fingerprint is obtained by amplifying parts of an organisms genetic material and separating
the resulting DNA fragments by a process known as gel electrophoresis. DNA fingerprinting is now
used for a wide variety of applications including ecological studies, crime scene investigations and
paternity testing. A cattle breeder is interested in determining which of his three bulls is the father of a
calf born to his prize cow. The figure below shows the DNA fingerprints of the cow, her calf and the
three bulls. Note: each of the calfs DNA fragments (bands) comes from either its mother or its father.
























From the figure above, which of the bulls could be the father of the calf?

A. Bull 1.
B. Bull 2.
C. Bull 3.
D. Either Bull 1 or Bull 3 could be the father.
E. Either Bull 2 or Bull 3 could be the father.
Cow Calf Bull 1 Bull 2 Bull 3
+
!
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 9 of 20
For questions 26 and 27, refer to the diagram below. The diagram represents the general process by
which sucrose is transported in plants. The diagram is stylised and is not to scale.






























Q26 Match the structures in the diagram to their most likely identities.

Cell X Cell Y Tube Z
A. Cell in root Leaf cell Xylem
B. Leaf cell Leaf cell Xylem
C. Cell in root Leaf cell Phloem
D. Leaf cell Cell in root Phloem
E. Leaf cell Cell in root Xylem

Q27 Which of the following is correct about the movement of sucrose in the system depicted?

A. Sucrose from cell X is transported into tube Z and is then transported into cell Y.
B. Sucrose from cell X passively diffuses into tube Z and is then transported back into cell X.
C. Sucrose from cell Y passively diffuses into tube Z and is then transported into cell X.
D. Sucrose from cell Y passively diffuses into tube Z and then passively diffuses into cell X.
E. Sucrose from tube Z passively diffuses into cell X and cell Y.

Tube Z
Cell X
Cell Y
= Sucrose
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 10 of 20
Q28 A mutated strain of the bacterium Escherichia coli was found to be incapable of incorporating
unsaturated phospholipids into its plasma membrane. Which of the following correctly depicts and
describes the membrane of such a bacteria?


Type I Type II Type III

A. The membrane would appear as type I and would be more fluid at low temperatures.
B. The membrane would appear as type I and would be less fluid at low temperatures.
C. The membrane would appear as type II and would be more fluid at low temperatures.
D. The membrane would appear as type II and would be less fluid at low temperatures.
E. The membrane would appear as type III and would be no different from normal bacterial
membranes.

Q29 Studies have shown that avoiding the use of antibiotics in hospitals for a period of time can reduce the
number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria present. This is because:

A. resistant bacteria require antibiotics to maintain their pathogenicity.
B. in the absence of the antibiotic, non-resistant bacteria are better adapted.
C. resistant bacteria mutate more rapidly when antibiotics are absent.
D. bacteria infect humans to avoid antibiotics in the environment.
E. resistant bacteria require antibiotics as a source of energy.

Q30 A segment of a template DNA strand is shown below:

3 GCGCAATTGTCA 5

The complementary mRNA strand would be:

A. 3 GCGCAAUUGUCA 5
B. 5 CGCGUUAACAGU 3
C. 5 GCGCAAUUGUCA 3
D. 3 CGCGTTAACAGT 5
E. None of the above are correct.

Q31 Which of the following hypothetical cells (A to E) would show the greatest rate of chemical exchange
with its surroundings?


Total surface area
(square units)
Total volume
(cubic units)
A. 24 8
B. 37.5 15.6
C. 96 64
D. 253.5 274.6
E. 384 512
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 11 of 20
For questions 32 and 33, refer to the chart below regarding the Australian Snowy Mountain region.
The chart shows the average winter temperature (left hand y-axis) at different altitudes (x-axis) as well
as the abundance of three alpine eucalypt species (right hand y-axis) at different altitudes (x-axis).
Note: the left hand y-axis (Average temperature) and the right hand y-axis (Abundance) are independent of
one another.




















Q32 Which species is/are found below an altitude of 500m?

A. Species 1 only.
B. Species 1 and 2 only.
C. Species 2 and 3 only.
D. Species 1, 2 and 3.
E. None of the three species are found below altitudes of 500m.

Q33 Which species is/are found in areas where the average winter temperature is below 0C?

A. Species 1 only.
B. Species 3 only.
C. Species 1 and 2 only.
D. Species 2 and 3 only.
E. Species 1, 2 and 3.

Q34 Which of the following cell types would you expect to be abundant in endoplasmic reticulum and
Golgi bodies?

I. Plasma B cells (produce antibodies).
II. Adipose cells (store fats).
III. Islet of Langerhans cells (secrete insulin).
IV. Red blood cells (transport oxygen).

A. I only.
B. III only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II and III only.
E. All would be rich in endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies.
A
b
u
n
d
a
n
c
e

(
N
u
m
b
e
r

p
e
r

k
m
2
)

20 -


15 -


10 -


5 -


0 -


-5 -
A
v
e
r
a
g
e

t
e
m
p
e
r
a
t
u
r
e

(

C
)

- 250


- 200


- 150


- 100


- 50


- 0
Species 1
Species 2
Species 3
Average temperature
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 12 of 20
For questions 35 and 36, refer to the information below.

In any community, organisms interact with each other. The table below gives the major types of interactions
and the outcome of each interaction for the initiating organism (Organism 1) and the recipient organism
(Organism 2). Note: a beneficial outcome of the interaction is shown as + and a negative outcome is
shown as -.


Interaction Organism 1 Organism 2
Mutualism + +
Commensalism + No effect
Antagonism + -
Altruism - +


Q35 Cabbage plants can emit chemicals that inhibit the growth of neighbouring plants. This is an example
of:

A. mutualism.
B. commensalism.
C. antagonism.
D. altruism.
E. This is not a true interaction.

Q36 Aphids are protected against predators by ants that cultivate the aphids for their secretions of
honeydew (a food source for the ants). This behaviour could be described as:

A. mutualism.
B. commensalism.
C. antagonism.
D. altruism.
E. This is not a true interaction.

Q37 The processes listed below are all involved in cell division.

I. Segregation of sister chromosomes.
II. Division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis).
III. Formation of a new nuclear envelope.
IV. DNA replication.

Which of the following lists the processes in the correct sequence?

A. I, IV, III, II
B. I, III, IV, II
C. II, IV, III, I
D. IV, I, III, II
E. II, III, I, IV
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 13 of 20
For questions 38 and 39, refer to the information below.

A particular bacterial strain has a genetic mutation that makes it incapable of growing without the amino acid
histidine supplemented in the growth medium. The following diagram shows three agar plates that contain
samples of the bacterial strain under different treatments. The presence of bacterial colonies on the agar
plates indicates growth of the bacteria. Note: mutagens such as UV light are able to cause reversing
mutations in a small proportion of bacteria, which eliminate their need for histidine.














Q38 Which agar plate(s) are required to verify the bacterias need for histidine?

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and II only.
D. I and III only.
E. II and III only.

Q39 Which agar plate(s) are required to support the hypothesis that UV radiation causes genetic mutation?

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and II only.
D. I and III only.
E. II and III only.

Q40 Mammals secrete most of their nitrogenous waste as urea whereas birds mainly secrete uric acid and
fish mainly secrete ammonia. The order of toxicity of these nitrogenous compounds, from most toxic
to least toxic, is:

A. Ammonia > Uric acid > Urea
B. Urea > Ammonia > Uric acid
C. Uric acid > Urea > Ammonia
D. Ammonia > Urea > Uric acid
E. Uric acid > Ammonia > Urea

Q41 Which of the following would occur in a human body in response to an infection by an extracellular
bacterial pathogen?

A. A drop in body temperature.
B. Rapid mitosis in host cells that are in contact with the bacteria.
C. Release of interferon.
D. Cytotoxic T cell activation.
E. B cell activation.
Plate I
No histidine
Plate II
Histidine added
Plate III
No histidine + UV light
Bacterial colony
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 14 of 20
Q42 Which of the following is required in a clinical trial that is testing the effectiveness of a new drug?

A. Random allocation of subjects to treatment groups.
B. Ensuring that the results fit the hypothesis.
C. Ensuring that the subjects know if they are taking the drug or the negative control.
D. Discounting any side-effects of the drug.
E. The use of a single patent for each dosage level.

Q43 The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a genetically inherited muscle disorder in a family.
Circles represent females, squares represent males and coloured shapes represent affected individuals.


















What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disorder?

A. X-linked dominant.
B. X-linked recessive.
C. Maternal inheritance.
D. Autosomal dominant.
E. Autosomal recessive.

Q44 Consider the ABO blood group system found in humans. Which of the following options correctly
matches the compatibility profile of a donor with type B blood? Note: + indicates compatibility
and - indicates incompatibility.

Type O recipient Type A recipient Type B recipient Type AB recipient
A. + + - -
B. - - + +
C. - - + -
D. + + - +
E. + + + +

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 15 of 20
Q45 Soil texture is defined as the relative proportions of clay, silt and sand. Each mixture is given a special
name according the following texture triangle.


























According to the texture triangle above, soil with 10% clay, 30% silt and 60% sand is classified as:

A. sandy loam.
B. silty clay.
C. clay.
D. sandy clay loam.
E. clay loam.

Q46 In the human eye, the retina functions to:

A. protect the eye from physical damage.
B. focus light on the optic nerve.
C. convert light energy into electrical impulses.
D. convey the image to the brain.
E. control the amount of light that enters the eye.

Q47 The isoelectric point (pI) of an amino acid is the pH at which the overall charge of the amino acid is
zero. If the amino acid aspartic acid has a pI of 3, what would you expect its charge to be at pH 8?

A. Positive.
B. Negative.
C. Neutral.
D. It depends on what other amino acids are present in the solution.
E. It would not have a charge, as the covalent bonds in aspartic acid would break at pH 8.

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 16 of 20
Q48 Phenylketonuria and albinism are two autosomal recessive disorders caused by single unlinked genes.
If a normal couple produced a child with both disorders, what is the probability that their second child
will also have both disorders?

A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
E. 1/64

For questions 49 and 50, refer to the information below.

Bandicoots are a type of small marsupial that live in many parts of Australia. Unfortunately, like many other
native mammals, many bandicoot species have been declining in number in recent years. In an area of
Southern Queensland, ecologists interested in estimating bandicoot numbers captured 350 bandicoots using
traps and marked them with ear tags. These bandicoots were then released into their natural habitat. One
month later, another sample of bandicoots was captured using the same type of traps laid in the same area. Of
this sample, it was found that 45 bandicoots were tagged and 90 were untagged.

Q49 Given the above information, estimate the size of the bandicoot population in this area.

A. 350
B. 700
C. 1050
D. 1400
E. 1750

Q50 Which of the following is most likely to result in an underestimation of the population size?

A. Marked bandicoots learn to avoid traps that have previously resulted in their capture.
B. The ear tags make the bandicoots more visible to predators.
C. Many ear tags fell off the tagged bandicoots.
D. Only a small number of traps were laid down in the second capture.
E. Marked bandicoots were more likely to be trapped in the second capture than unmarked bandicoots.

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 17 of 20
SECTION B
Use the Answer Booklet Provided


Q51 Match the components of the cell with an item from the list of city components that is most similar
in function.

There is only one most appropriate matching item for each cell component. Each city component can
only be used once.


Cell component Matching City Component
1. Cytoskeleton
2. Glucose
3. Mitochondria
4. Nucleus
5. Cell membrane

6. Protein
7. Ribosome
8. Vesicle
9. Vacuole
10. Peroxisome





List of City Components
A. Central library F. Freight truck
B. City limits G. Manufactured good
C. Coal for power station H. Power station
D. Reservoir I. Road system
E. Factory
J. Hazardous waste detoxification
plant

(5 marks)
Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 18 of 20
Q52 Enzymes work by catalysing the formation of a product (or products) from a substrate in a chemical
reaction. Lactase is an enzyme normally found in the human gut, which catalyses the breakdown
lactose (a sugar found in milk) into the simple sugars glucose and galactose.

!
lactose
lactase
" # " " " glucose + galactose

Scientists wishing to study the properties of lactase isolated a sample of the enzyme and measured
the rate at which it catalyses the above reaction at different concentrations of lactose (the substrate).
The results of this experiment are shown below. Lactose concentrations are given in millimolar units
(10
-3
moles per litre) and the reaction rates are given in millimoles/min/mg of enzyme (the number of
millimoles of each product that can be produced per minute by one milligram of enzyme).


Lactose concentration
(millimolar)
Reaction rate
(millimoles/min/mg of enzyme)
0 0
5 11.7
10 22.2
15 26.6
20 28.3
25 29
30 29.5
35 29.7
40 29.8


(a) Plot these data on the graph paper provided in the answer booklet. Join the data points using a
continuous smooth curve and label each axis appropriately.
(8 marks)

(b) From your graph, determine the reaction rate when the lactose concentration is 13 millimolar.
(2 marks)

(c) The Michaelis constant (K
M
) of an enzyme is defined as the substrate concentration at which the
enzyme reaction proceeds at half its maximum rate. Given that the maximum reaction rate for this
enzyme is 30 millimoles/min/mg of enzyme, determine the K
M
for lactase.
(2 marks)

(d) At the maximum rate, 1 mg of lactase enzyme can produce 30 millimoles of glucose in one
minute. Determine the amount of glucose that would be produced in 2 minutes if 3 mg of lactase
were used in a reaction that was proceeding at half the maximum rate.
(3 marks)

Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2006 National Qualifying Examination




Page 19 of 20
Q53 In a species of beans, the plants may be tall or dwarf in size and their flowers may be red, pink or
white in colour.

Plant height in this species is determined by two alleles segregating at single locus. Plants
homozygous or heterozygous for the dominant (H) allele are tall whilst plants homozygous for the
recessive (h) allele are short.

Flower colour in this species is determined by two co-dominant alleles segregating at a single locus
that is independent of the plant height locus. Plants homozygous for the F
R
allele have red flowers,
heterozygous plants (F
R
F
W
) have pink flowers, whilst plants homozygous for the recessive F
W
allele
have white flowers.

(a) What are all the possible genotypes of a tall plant with pink flowers?
(1 mark)

(b) What is/are the genotype/s of the progeny produced from a cross between a dwarf plant with red
flowers and a dwarf plant with white flowers?
(2 marks)

(c) In a cross between a plant of genotype HhF
R
F
W
and a plant of genotype HhF
R
F
R
, how many
different phenotypes are possible? (Give the number of different phenotypes, NOT the phenotypes
themselves).
(2 marks)

(d) If plants of genotype HhF
R
F
W
are self-fertilised, what is the phenotypic ratio of the progeny?
(3 marks)




Q54 The evolutionary success of organisms depends on reproduction. Some groups of organisms
reproduce sexually, some reproduce asexually, while others reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Describe the relative advantages and disadvantages of sexual and asexual reproduction and give one
example of an organism that reproduces sexually and one example of an organism that reproduces
asexually.
(8 marks)




Q55 The cell membrane is extremely important because it separates the contents of the cell from the
external environment. Describe the structure and properties of the cell membrane.
(8 marks)




END OF EXAMINATION






































The Australian Science Olympiads is proudly supported by













Australian Science Innovations Incorporated ABN 81 731 558 309
I nt egr i t y of t he Nat i onal Qual i f yi ng Ex ami nat i ons

To ensure the integrity of the selection process and to identify outstanding
students Australian Science Innovations reserve the right to re-examine or
disqualify any student or group of students where there is evidence of
collusion or other academic dishonesty.