MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

MBA – II Semester

MB0028 - Set 1

Financial Management

1. Explicit cost and implicit cost are the two dimensions of cost. What role
does cost play in financial decisions.
Ans.
The cost of debt has two parts – explicit cost and implicit cost. Explicit cost is the given rate
of interest. The firm is assumed to borrow irrespective of the degree of leverage. This can
mean that the increasing proportion of debt does not affect the financial risk of lenders and
they do not charge higher interest. Implicit cost is increase in Ke attributable to Kd. Thus
the advantage of use of debt is completely neutralized by the implicit cost resulting in Ke
and Kd being the same.

Graphically this is represented as:

Percentage cost

Page 1 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

2. Assume you are newly appointed as Finance Executive in a

Manufacturing firm. What guidelines you need to follow in financial
planning?
Ans.

Guidelines for financial planning that I would follow:

1. Never ignore the coordinal principle that fixed asset requirements be met from thelon
g term sources.

2. Make maximum use of spontaneous source of finance to achieve highest

productivity of resources.

3. Maintain the operating capital intact by providing adequately out of the

current periods earnings. Due attention to be given to physical capital maintenance
or operating capability.

4. Never ignore the need for financial capital maintenance in units of constant
purchasing power.

5. Employ current cost principle wherever required.

6. Give due weightage to cost and risk in using debt and equity.

7. Keeping the need for finance for expansion of business, formulate plough
back policy of earnings.

8. Exercise thorough control over overheads.

9. Seasonal peak requirements to be met from short term borrowings from banks.

3. Due to over capitalization the company may collapse which would

certainly affect its employees, society, consumers and its shareholders.
What remedies you would suggest? Give suitable example.
Ans. I would suggest following Remedies for Overcapitalization
1. Reduction of debt burden.

2. Negotiation with term lending institutions for reduction in interest obligation.

3. Redemption of preference shares through a scheme of capital reduction.

4. Reducing the face value and paidup value of equity shares.

5. Initiating merger with well managed profit making companies interested in taking over
ailing company.

Page 2 of 16
 MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

A company is said to be overcapitalized, when its total capital (both equity and debt)
true value of its assets. It is wrong to identify overcapitalization with excess of capital
because most of the overcapitalized firms suffer from the problems of liquidity. The correct
indicator of overcapitalization is the earnings capacity of the firm. If the earnings of the
firm are less then that of the market expectation, it will not be in a position to pay dividends
to its shareholders as per their expectations. It is a sign of overcapitalization. It is also
possible that a company has more funds than its requirements based on current operation
levels, and yet have low earnings.

4a. Mr. Avinash aged 40 years, needs 50000 after 5 years. If the interest
rate is 10% how much should he save now to get Rs.50000 at the end
of 5 years
Ans.

FVn=PV (1+i/m)m*n
Where
i = annual nominal interest rate (as a decimal)=0.1
m = number of times the interest is compounded per year=1
n = number of years = 5
FVn = amount after time t ie 5 yrs = 50,000
PV = principal amount (initial investment=Present Value) =?

50,000 = PV (1+ 0.1/1)1*5

= PV (1.1)5

= PV * 1.61051

PV = 50,000/1.61051

PV = Rs. 31,046.07

The ampount to be saved now is Rs. 31,046.07

4b. A Senior citizen intents to deposit Rs.1000 annually in ICICI bank for 3 years. The
prevailing interest rate is 10%. What is the maturity value of the deposit?

Ans.
Amount at the end of 3 years with 10% rate of interest = Deposit * FVIFA(10%, 3y)

Page 3 of 16
 MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

Where, FVIFA = Future Value of Interest Factor for Annuity

From Compound Value of Annuity table we have

For 10% and 3 years we get 3.310

= 1,000 * 3.310

= Rs. 3,310

5. Explain various types of bonds.

Ans. Types of Bonds

Bonds are of three types: (a) Irredeemable Bonds (also called perpetual bonds) (b)
Redeemable
Bonds (i.e., Bonds with finite maturity period) and (c) Zero Coupon Bonds.

1) Irredeemable Bonds or Perpetual Bonds

Bonds which will never mature are known as irredeemable or perpetual bonds. Indian
Companies Acts restricts the issue of such bonds and therefore these are very rarely issued
by corporates these days. In case of these bonds the terminal value or maturity value does
not exist because they are not redeemable. The face value is known; the interest received
on such bonds is constant and received at regular intervals and hence the interest receipts
resemble a perpetuity. The present value (the intrinsic value) is calculated as:

V0=I/id
If a company offers to pay Rs. 70 as interest on a bond of Rs. 1000 par value, and the
current yield is 8%, the value of the bond is 70/0.08 which is equal to Rs. 875

2) Redeemable Bonds :

There are two types viz.,bonds with annual interest payments and bonds with semiannual
Interest payments.

Bonds with annual interest payments;

Basic Bond Valuation Model:

The holder of a bond receives a fixed annual interest for a specified number of years and a
fixed

Page 4 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

principal repayment at the time of maturity. The intrinsic value or the present value of bond
can be expressed as:

V0 or P0=Σ n
t=1 I/(I+kd) n +F/(I+kd) n
Which can also be stated as folloows
V0=I*PVIFA(kd, n) + F*PVIF(kd, n)

Where V0= Intrinsic value of the bond

P0= Present Value of the bond
I= Annual Interest payable on the bond
F= Principal amount (par value) repayable at the maturity time
n= Maturity period of the bond
Kd= Required rate of return

Bond Values with Semi-Annual Interest payment:

In reality, it is quite common to pay interest on bonds semiannually. the value of bonds with
semiannual interest is much more than the ones with annual interest payments. Hence, the
bond valuation equation can be modified as:

V0 or P0=Σ n
t=1 I/2/(I+id/2) n +F/(I+id/2) 2n

Where V0=Intrinsic value of the bond

P0=Present Value of the bond
I/2=Semiannual

Interest payable on the bond

F=Principal amount (par value) repayable at the maturity time
2n=Maturity period of the bond expressed in half yearly periods
kd/2=Required rate of return semiannually.

Zero Coupon Bonds

In India Zero coupon bonds are alternatively known as Deep Discount Bonds. For close to a
decade, these bonds became very popular in India because of issuance of such bonds at
regular intervals by IDBI and ICICI. Zero coupon bonds have no coupon rate, i.e. there is no

Page 5 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

interest to be paid out. Instead, these bonds are issued at a discount to their face value,
and the face value is the amount payable to the holder of the instrument on maturity. The
difference between the discounted issue price and face value is effective interest earned by
the investor. They are called deep discount bonds because these bonds are long term bonds
whose maturity
some time extends up to 25 to 30 years.

6. Sushma Industries wishes to issue bonds with Rs.100 as par value, 5 years
to maturity, coupon rate 11% and YTM of 11%.
a. What is the value of the bond?

b. If the YTM is 10% what would be the value of the bond?

c. If the YTM is 13% what is the value of the bond

Ans.

Note: In the above problem YTM is misprint. It should be Kd.

F = Rs. 100
n = 5 years

Coupon rate = 11%

I = F * Coupon rate = 100 * 11% = Rs. 11

V0 = Value of Bond = ?
(a) If kd is 11%,

V0=I*PVIFA(kd, n) + F*PVIF(kd, n)
=11*PVIFA(11%, 5) + 100*PVIF(11%, 5)
=11*3.6959 + 100*0.593
=40.6549+59.3
=Rs. 99.95

(b) If kd is 10%,

V0=I*PVIFA(kd, n) + F*PVIF(kd, n)
=11*PVIFA(10%, 5) + 100*PVIF(10%, 5)
=11*3.7908 + 100*0.621

Page 6 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

=41.6988+62.1
=Rs. 103.79

(c) If kd is 13%,

V0=I*PVIFA(Kd, n) + F*PVIF(kd, n)
=11*PVIFA(13%, 5) + 100*PVIF(13%, 5)
=11*3.5172 + 100*0.543
=40.6549+54.3
=Rs. 94.95

Page 7 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

MBA – II Semester

MB0028 - Set 2

Financial Management

1. Is Equity Capital Free of cost? Substantiate your statement.

Ans. No. Equity Capital is not free of cost. Some people are of the opinion that equity
capital is free of cost for the reason that a company is not legally bound to pay dividends
and also the rate of equity dividend is not fixed like preference dividends. This is not a
correct view as equity shareholders buy shares with the expectation of dividends and capital
appreciation. Dividends enhance the market value of shares and therefore equity capital is
not free of cost.

Equity shareholders do not have a fixed rate of return on their investment. There is no legal
requirement (unlike in the case of loans or debentures where the rates are governed by the
deed) to pay regular dividends to them. Measuring the rate of return to equity holders is a
difficult and complex exercise. There are many approaches for estimating return - the
dividend forecast approach, capital asset pricing approach, realized yield approach, etc.
According to dividend forecast approach, the intrinsic value of an equity share is the sum of
present values of dividends associated with it.

2 (a) What is the rate of return for a company if the β is 1.25, risk free
rate of return is 8% and the market rate of return is 14%. Use CAPM model.

Ans.

Ke = Rf + β (Rm—Rf)
= 0.08 + 1.25(0.14 - 0.08)

= 0.08 + 0.075
= 0.155 or 15.5%

(b) Sundaram Transports has the following capital structure.

Page 8 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

Equity capital Rs.10 par value 250 lakhs

12% preference share capital Rs.100 each 100 lakhs

Retained earnings 150 lakhs

12% Debentures (Rs.100 each) 350 lakhs

14% Term loan from SBI 150 lakhs

Total 1000 lakhs

The market price per equity is Rs 54. The company is expected to declare a dividend per
share of Rs.2 per share and there will be a growth of 10% in the dividends for the next 5
years. The preference shares are redeemable at a premium of Rs.5 per share after 8
years. The current market price of preference share is Rs.92. Debenture redemption will
take place after 7 years at a discount of 2% and the current market price is Rs.91 per
debenture. The corporate tax rate is 40%. Calculate WACC. (7 Marks)

Ans.

Ke is the cost of external equity,

D1 is the dividend expected at the end of year 1 = 2

P0 is the current market price per share = Rs. 92

g is the constant growth rate of dividends = 10%

f is the floatation costs as % of current market price.

Step I is to determine the cost of each component.

Cost of external equity:

Ke =( D1/P0) + g

= (2/54) + 0.1
= 0.137 or 13.7%

Cost of preference capital:

Kp = D + {(F—P)/n} / (F+P)/2
D is the preference dividend per share payable=11
F is the redemption price=105
P is the net proceeds per share = 92

Page 9 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

n is the maturity period =8

Kp = D + {(F—P)/n} / (F+P)/2
= 11 + (105—92)/8] / (105+92)/2

=12.625/98.5
= 0.1281 or 12.81%

Cost of Retained Earnings:

Kr=Ke which is 13.7%

Cost of debentures:
Kd = [I(1—T) + {(F—P)/n}] / {F+P)/2}

Where Kd is post tax cost of debenture capital,

I is the annual interest payment per unit of debenture,

T is the corporate tax rate = 40%

F is the redemption price per debenture = Rs. 98

P is the net amount realized per debenture = Rs. 91

n is maturity period = 7 years

Kd = [I(1—T) + {(F—P)/n}] / {F+P)/2}

= [12(1—0.4) + (98—91)/7] / (98+91)/2

= [7.2 + 1] / 94.5
= 0.0867 or 8.67%

Cost of Term Loans:

Kt = I(1—T)
=0.14(1—0.4)

= 0.084 or 8.4%

Step II is to calculate the weights of each source.

We = 250/1000 = 0.25

Page 10 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

Wp = 100/1000 = 0.1
Wr = 150/1000 = 0.15

Wd = 350/1000 = 0.35
Wt = 150/1000 = 0.15

Step III Multiply the costs of various sources of finance with corresponding weights and
WACC calculated by adding all these components.

Weighted Average of Cost of Capital:

WACC = WeKe + WpKp +WrKr + WdKd + WtKt

= (0.25*0.137) + (0.1*0.1281) + (0.15*0.137) + (0.35*0.0867) + (0.15*0.084)

= 0.03425+ 0.01281+ 0.02055+ 0.030345+ 0.0126

= 0.043 + 0.023 + 0.022 + 0.0384 + 0.004

= 0.1105 or 11.05%

3. The effective cost of debt is less than the actual interest payment made by the
firm. Do you agree with this statement? If yes/no substantiate your views.

Ans. Yes. The debentures carry a fixed rate of interest. Interest qualifies for tax deduction
in determining tax liability. Therefore the effective cost of debt is less than the actual
interest payment made by the firm.
The Net Cash Outflows in terms of Amount of Periodic interest Payment and Repayment of
Principal in Installments or in lump-sum on Maturity.

The Interest Payment made by the firm on Debt Issues qualifies for tax deduction in
determining the net taxable income. Therefore, the effective cash outflow is less than the
actual payment of Interest made by the firm to the debt holders by the amount of tax shield
on Interest Payment. The debt can either be Perpetual/Irredeemable or Redeemable.

4. Why capital budgeting decision very crucial for finance managers?

Ans. There are many reasons that make the Capital budgeting decisions the most crucial
for finance Managers:

1. These decisions involve large outlay of funds now in anticipation of cash flows in future.
For example, investment in plant and machinery. The economic life of such assets has
long periods. The projections of cash flows anticipated involve forecasts of many financial
variables. The most crucial variable is the sales forecast.

Page 11 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

a. For example, Metal Box spent large sums of money on expansion of its production
facilities based on its own sales forecast. During this period, huge investments in R & D
in packaging industry brought about new packaging medium totally replacing metal as
an important component of packing boxes. At the end of the expansion Metal Box Ltd
found itself that the market for its metal boxes had declined drastically. The end result is
that Metal Box became a sick company from the position it enjoyed earlier prior to the
execution of expansion as a blue chip. Employees lost their jobs. It affected the standard
of lining and cash flow position of its employees. This highlights the element of risk
involved in these type of decisions.

b. Equally we have empirical evidence of companies which took decisions on expansion

through the addition of new products and adoption of the latest technology creating
wealth for shareholders. The best example is the Reliance group.

c. Any serious error in forecasting Sales and hence the amount of capital expenditure
can significantly affect the firm. An upward bias may lead to a situation of the firm
creating idle capacity, laying the path for the cancer of sickness.

d. Any downward bias in forecasting may lead the firm to a situation of losing its market
to its competitors. Both are risky fraught with grave consequences.

2. A long term investment of funds some times may change the risk profile of the firm. A
FMCG company with its core competencies in the business decided to enter into a new
business of power generation. This decision will totally alter the risk profile of the business
of the company. Investor’s perception of risk of the new business to be taken up by the
company will change his required rate of return to invest in the company. In this
connection it is to be noted that the power pricing is a politically sensitive area affecting
the profitability of the organization. Therefore, Capital budgeting decisions change the risk
dimensions of the company and hence the required rate of return that the investors want.

3. Most of the Capital budgeting decisions involve huge outlay. The funds requirements
during the phase of execution must be synchronized with the flow of funds. Failure to
achieve the required coordination between the inflow and outflow may cause time over
run and cost over run. These two problems of time over run and cost over run have to be
prevented from occurring in the beginning of execution of the project. Quite a lot empirical
examples are there in public sector in India in support of this argument that cost over run
and time over run can make a company’s operations unproductive. But the major
challenge that the management of a firm faces in managing the uncertain future cash
inflows and out flows associated with the plan and execution of Capital budgeting
decisions.

4. Capital budgeting decisions involve assessment of market for company’s products and
services, deciding on the scale of operations, selection of relevant technology and finally
procurement of costly equipment. If a firm were to realize after committing itself
considerable sums of money in the process of implementing the Capital budgeting

Page 12 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

decisions taken that the decision to diversify or expand would become a wealth destroyer
to the company, then the firm would have experienced a situation of inability to sell the
equipments bought. Loss incurred by the firm on account of this would be heavy if the
firm were to scrap the equipments bought specifically for implementing the decision taken.
Sometimes these equipments will be specialized costly equipments. Therefore, Capital
budgeting decisions are irreversible.

5. The most difficult aspect of Capital budgeting decisions is the influence of time. A firm
incurs Capital expenditure to build up capacity in anticipation of the expected boom in the
demand for its products. The timing of the Capital expenditure decision must match with
the expected boom in demand for company’s products. If it plans in advance it may
effectively manage the timing and the quality of asset acquisition. But many firms suffer
from its inability to forecast the future operations and formulate strategic decision to
acquire the required assets in advance at the competitive rates.

6. All Capital budgeting decisions have three strategic elements. These three elements are
cost, quality and timing. Decisions must be taken at the right time which would enable the
firm to procure the assets at the least cost for producing the products of required quality
for customer. Any lapse on the part of the firm in understanding the effect of these
elements on implementation of Capital expenditure decision taken will strategically affect
the firm’s profitability.

7. Liberalization and globalization gave birth to economic institutions like World Trade
organization. General Electrical can expand its market into India snatching the share
already enjoyed by firms like Bajaj Electricals or Kirloskar Electric Company. Ability of G E
to sell its products in India at a rate less than the rate at which Indian Companies sell
cannot be ignored. Therefore, the growth and survival of any firm in today’s business
environment demands a firm to be proactive. Proactive firms cannot avoid the risk of
taking challenging Capital budgeting decisions for growth. Therefore, Capital budgeting
decisions for growth have become an essential characteristics of successful firms today.

8. The social, political, economic and technological forces generate high level of
uncertainty in future cash flows streams associated with Capital budgeting decisions.
These factors make these decisions highly complex.

9. Capital expenditure decisions are very expensive. To implement these decisions firm’s
will have to tap the Capital market for funds. The composition of debt and equity must be
optimal keeping in view the expectation of investors and risk profile of the selected
project.

5. A road project require an initial investment of Rs.10,00,000. It is expected

to generate the following cash flow in the form of toll tax recovery.

Year Cash Inflows

1 4,50,000

2 4,25,000

Page 13 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

3 3,00,000
4 3,50,000

What is the IRR of the project?

Ans.

To calculate Internal Rate of Return (IRR):

Step I: Compute the average of annual cash inflows

Year Cash Inflow in Rs.

1 4,50,000

2 4,25,000

3 3,00,000

4 3,50,000

Total 15,25,000

Average = 15,00,000 / 4 = Rs. 3,81,250

Step II: Divide the initial investment by the average of annual cash inflows:
=10,00,000 / 3,81,250
=2.622

Step III: From the PVIFA table for 4 years, the annuity factor very near to 2.622 is 20%.
Therefore
the first initial rate is 20%

Year Cash flows PV factor at 20% PV of Cash

1 4,50,000 0.833 3,74,850

2 4,25,000 0.694 2,94,950

3 3,00,000 0.579 1,73,700

4 3,50,000 0.482 1,68,700

Total 10,12,200

Page 14 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

Since the initial investment of Rs.10,00,000 is less than the computed value at 20% of
Rs. 10,12,200 then next trial rate is 22%.

Year Cash flows PV factor at 22% PV of Cash

1 4,50,000 0.82 3,69,000

2 4,25,000 0.672 2,85,600

3 3,00,000 0.551 1,65,300

4 3,50,000 0.451 1,57,850

Total 9,77,750

Since initial investment of Rs.10,00,000 lies between 9,77,750 (22%) and 10,12,200
(20%), the IRR by interpolation is,

IRR = 20 + ((10,12,200-10,00,000) / (10,12,200-9,77,750))*2

= 20 + 0.3541 *2
= 20.70%

6. What is sensitivity analysis? Mention the steps involved in it.

Ans. Sensitivity Analysis:

There are many variables like sales, cost of sales, investments, tax rates etc which affect
the NPV and IRR of a project. Analysing the change in the project’s NPV or IRR on account
of a given change in one of the variables is called Sensitivity Analysis. It is a technique that
shows the change in NPV given a change in one of the variables that determine cash flows
of a project. It measures the sensitivity of NPV of a project in respect to a change in one of
the input variables of NPV.

The reliability of the NPV depends on the reliability of cash flows. If fore casts go wrong on
account of changes in assumed economic environments, reliability of NPV & IRR is lost.
Therefore, forecasts are made under different economic conditions viz pessimistic, expected
and optimistic. NPV is arrived at for all the three assumptions.

Steps involved in Sensitivity analysis:

1. Identification of variables that influence the NPV & IRR of the project.

Page 15 of 16
MBA II SEM- Assignment - Financial Management (MB0029) – (Fall-2009)

2. Examining and defining the mathematical relationship between the variables.

3. Analysis of the effect of the change in each of the variables on the NPV of the project.

Page 16 of 16