Questionaire Cetpg 2013

CET(PG)-2013
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words
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Subject : B.P.Ed.(Bachelor of Physical Education)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
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B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BZL/48978-A 2
B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BZL/48978-A 3 [Turn Over
B.P.Ed.(Bachelor of Physical Education)/A
1. Puberty :
(A) Is the same as adolescence
(B) Occurs earlier for boys than for girls
(C) Is the period of growth and hormonal changes that lead to sexual maturity
(D) Involves a growth spurt of 1-2 years during which boys are taller than girls
2. In Thorndike's law of effect, events critical for conditioning :
(A) Occur after the response
(B) Occur before the response
(C) Occur simultaneously with the response
(D) Are unrelated to the response except during extinction
3. Sprain is an injury caused at :
(A) Ligaments (B) Muscle fibre
(C) Cartilages (D) Bones
4. 1 gm of proteins in the body yields :
(A) 9 kilo calorie of energy (B) 6.8 kilo calorie of energy
(C) 4 kilo calorie of energy (D) 2.6 kilo calorie of energy
5. The power house of cell is :
(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus
(C) Golgi body (D) Cytoplasm
6. The number of bones in vertebral column is :
(A) 22 (B) 33
(C) 23 (D) 36
7. An umpire in Field Hockey shows green card. He is indicating for :
(A) Warning (B) Temporary suspension
(C) To start the game (D) For medical attention
8. Synovial Joint is said to be :
(A) Freely Movable joint (B) Immovable joint
(C) Semi movable joint (D) Static joint
9. Which of the following is not performed by muscles ?
(A) Motion (B) Excretion
(C) Maintenance of posture (D) Heat production
10. Which valve prevents the backwards flow of blood in to the left atrium ?
(A) Aortic valve (B) Pulmonary valve
(C) Mitral valve (D) Tricuspid valve
11. The sportswear company Adidas belongs to which country ?
(A) Japan (B) Russia
(C) China (D) Germany
12. Name the two sports personalities who nominated by Election Commission of India as
National Icons.
(A) Mary Kom and Saina Nehwal (B) Abhinav Bindra and Gagan Narang
(C) Mary Kom and Gagan Narang (D) Sushil Kumar and Sanjay Kumar
13. The host of the 2018 world cup football is :
(A) Japan (B) Spain
(C) Brazil (D) Russia
14. In which game you can see Antenna ?
(A) Basketball (B) Football
(C) Volleyball (D) Tennis
15. 'Pele' is related to which game ?
(A) Cricket (B) Horse Riding
(C) Swimming (D) Football
16. Ricky Ponting is also known as what ?
(A) The Rickstar (B) Punter
(C) Ponter (D) Ponts
17. In a 200 metres race A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. A's time over the course is :
(A) 40 Sec (B) 47 Sec
(C) 33 Sec (D) 35 Sec
18. Jude Felix is a famous Indian player in which of the fields ?
(A) Football (B) Hockey
(C) Table Tennis (D) Volleyball
19. Find the odd one out :
(A) P. V. Sandhu (B) Aprna Popet
(C) Saina Nehwal (D) Shinny Wilson
20. Which trophy or cup doesnt relate to Football ?
(A) Agha Khan Cup (B) Santosh Trophy
(C) Rovers Cup (D) D.C.M Trophy
21. When was the first time the Olympic Games moved to Asia ?
(A) 1960 (B) 1964
(C) 1956 (D) 1976
(A) Anup Sridhar (B) P Kashyap
(C) Sai Praneeth B. (D) Somdev Devvarman
23. Who is the minister of Youth Affairs and Sports of India ?
(A) Jitendra Singh (B) Jaipal Reddy
(C) Dr. Pallam Raju. (D) Ajit Singh
24. In February 2013, Viswanathan Anand won :
(A) Grenke Chess Classic trophy (B) Swiss Chess trophy
(C) World Chess Championship (D) Konex Chess Tournament
25. Which type of lever is most effective in sport movements ?
(A) Third class (B) Second class
(C) First class (D) None
26. 'Hamstring' muscle :
(A) Extends knee (B) Flexes knee
(C) Extends elbow (D) Flexes elbow
27. The real name of Muhammad Ali, a famous boxer is :
(A) Cassius Clay (B) Carmen Basilio
(C) Carlos Monzn (D) Marcel Cerdan
28. 'Lordosis' is also called :
(A) Round back (B) Hollow back
(C) Lateral back (D) Back curve
29. Which component of food is considered as the "building blocks of the body" ?
(A) Fats (B) Carbohydrates
(C) Vitamins (D) Proteins
30. In golf what is the name given to the grassed area between the tee and the green ?
(A) Fairway (B) Gateway
(C) Freeway (D) Green path
31. What is the name of the method of training a horse to carry out a set routine of movements
in equestrian ?
(A) Show jumping (B) Dressage
(C) Steeplechase (D) Tent pegging
32. Which sport was originally called Mintonette ?
(A) Basketball (B) Tennis
(C) Volleyball (D) Wrestling
33. What is the shortest running event not run in the lane ?
(A) 400M (B) 800M
(C) Mile (D) 1500M
34. What should be done to maintain discipline among students ?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
35. Students who ask questions in the class should be :
(A) Advised to meet the teacher after the class
(B) Encouraged to participate in the discussion in the class
(C) Encouraged to continue asking questions
(D) Encouraged to search answers independently
36. Teacher behaviour ought to be :
(A) Administrative (B) Instructive
(C) Idealistic (D) Directive
37. The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching :
(A) Studies problem of student behaviour
(B) Compares different types of tests
(C) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D) Cannot deal with children effectively
38. What is an anchor ?
(A) A nickname for the shot
(B) The final leg of a relay
(C) The placement of the foot of the takeoff on the pole vault
(D) The spot where the contestant leaves the ground
39. Why are staggered starts used ?
(A) To restrict fast runners
(B) To give slower runners a head start
(C) To equalize distance when races are run on curves
(D) To help the starter see false starts more easily
40. What is the recommended exchange for relays in which each leg is 200 meters or more ?
(A) Non-visual (B) Basket pass
(C) Visual (D) Two looks
41. What is best describing the action of triple jump ?
(A) Skip, Hop, Jump (B) Hop, Skip, Jump
(C) Hop, Step, Jump (D) Hop, Skip, Land
42. Which of the following is not punishment in Handball ?
(A) 5 minute suspension (B) 2 minute suspension
(C) Red card (D) Yellow card
43. How high should be the table tennis net ?
(A) 6 in (15.24cm) (B) 7 in (17.78cm)
(C) 5.5 (12.7cm) (D) 44.5 (13.97cm)
44. How many weapons are there in fencing ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
45. In which year was Hockey introduced in the Olympics ?
(A) 1908, London (B) 1920, Antwerp
(C) 1936, Berlin (D) 1956, Melbourne
46. Australia won the Sultan Azlan Shah Tournament 2013 for the :
(A) Fourth time (B) Five time
(C) Sixth time (D) Seventh time
47. Which of the following terms is not used in Track and field ?
(A) Broken line (B) Brake line
(C) Scratch line (D) Split line
48. 'Cannon, Cue and Pot' are three terms associated with :
(A) Golf only (B) Billiards only
(C) Billiards, golf and shooting (D) Billiards and golf
(A) XVIII Olympic Games, Tokyo (B) XIX Olympic Games, Mexico City
(C) XX Olympic Games, Munich (D) XXI Olympic Games, Montreal
50. In which year winter Olympic Games were started ?
(A) 1922 (B) 1924
(C) 1928 (D) 1936
51. Find the odd personality :
(A) Makhan Singh (B) Ajmer Singh
(C) Bahadur Singh (D) Chetan Singh
52. When kabaddi introduced in the Asian games ?
(A) 1990 Beijing, China (B) 1994 Hiroshima, Japan
(C) 1986 Seoul, South Kzorea (D) Bangkok, Thailand
53. The winner of Copa America cup (football) 2013 is :
(A) Germany (B) Paraguay
(C) Japan (D) Uruguay
54. The 17th Pan American Games, is a major international multi-sport event that is scheduled
to be held from July 1026, 2015 in :
(A) Toronto, Canada (B) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(C) Guadalajara, Mexico (D) Havana, Cuba
55. Which of the following in an example of a prebiotic ?
(A) Yogurt (B) Insulin
(C) Creatine (D) Fish Oil
56. Which of the following is not one of the five components of health related fitness ?
(A) Speed (B) Body composition
(C) Flexibility (D) Muscular endurance
57. What is endurance ?
(A) The ability to exercise for longer periods of time
(B) The ability to run faster
(C) A combination of strength and power
(D) The ability to act against resistance
58. An organ that produced bodily juice bile :
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas
(C) Gall Bladder (D) Small intestine
(A) Larynx (B) Trachea
(C) Lungs (D) Veins
60. Smallest blood vessels are :
(A) Arteries (B) Arterioles
(C) Venules (D) Capillaries
61. What circulation carries oxygenated blood to the body ?
(A) Systemic (B) Bodily
(C) Muscular (D) Pulmonary
62. Name the vitamin which is not a Fat soluble.
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
63. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the ball.
Calvin is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side by side behind
Calvin. Zeller is behind Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the tackle but misses and
falls. Burton trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver ?
(A) Burton (B) Zeller
(C) Jenkins (D) Calvin
64. At the baseball game, Henry was sitting in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right of
Henry in seat 254. In the seat to the left of Henry was George. Inez was sitting to the left
of George. Which seat is Inez sitting in ?
(A) 251 (B) 254
(C) 255 (D) 256
65. Which organ of the Alimentary canal is known as 'Graveyard of Red Blood Cells ?
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen (D) Duodenum
66. The first President of the Indian Olympic Association was :
(A) Sir Bhupendra Singh Maharaja of Patiala
(B) Dorabji Tata
(C) Hary Crow Buck
(D) Shri Jaisingh, Maharaja of Jaipur
67. Panjab University Sports Tournament Committee was formed in :
(A) 1896 (B) 1900
(C) 1920 (D) 1931
68. How many apparatus are used in women artistic gymnastics ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Five (D) Four
69. In which Olympics 11 members of the Israeli Olympic team, who were taken hostage and
eventually killed ?
(A) 1976, Montreal (B) 1980, Moscow
(C) 1972, Munich (D) 1984, Los Angeles
70. Find out which is a Nautical sports :
(A) Rowing (B) Trampoline
(C) Shooting (D) Golf
71. The main postural deformity among adolescent girls is :
(A) Pigeon Chest (B) Kyphosis
(C) Scoliosis (D) Lordisis
72. The full form of WADA is :
(A) World Anti Doping Association (B) World Anti Doping Agency
(C) World Anti Drug Association (D) World Anti Drug Agency
B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BZL-48978-A 10
73. Men's Shooting was introduced in modern Olympic Games :
(A) 1900 (B) 1904
(C) 1896 (D) 1908
74. The gladiatorial combats were a very popular past time for all sorts of people in ancient :
(A) Greece (B) Rome
(C) China (D) Germany
75. Who was the chairman of the London 2012 Organising Committee for the Olympic Games :
(A) Steve Cram (B) Sebastian Coe
(C) Steve Ovett (D) Steve Well
ROUGH WORK
B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/BZL/48978-A 12 136
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : LL.M. (Master of Laws)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
LL.M. (Master of Laws)/BZL/48990-A 2
LL.M. (Master of Laws)/BZL/48990-A 3 [Turn over
LL.M. (Master of Laws)/A
1. Which of the following is not covered by the term law under Article 13 of the
Constitution ?
(A) Administrative orders of the executive
(B) Ordinances issued by the Governor
(C) Personal laws
(D) Custom or usage
2. The phrase "equal protection of Laws' as laid down under Article 14 of the Constitution
of India is based on Section 1 of the Constitution of :
(A) USA (B) England
(C) Canada (D) South Africa
3. Ajay Canu v UOI relates to :
(A) Right of locomotion (B) Compulsory helmets
(C) Bandhs and Hartals (D) Right to use highways
4. Sexual harassment of women at working place is a violation of Article ______.
(A) 19 (B) 14
(C) 21 (D) All of the above
5. Balco Employees Union V Union of India is a case related to :
(A) Epistolatory jurisprudence (B) Adversarial procedure
(C) Judicial review (D) Rule of locus standi
6. In the event of the Supreme Court declaring the election of the President void, the acts
done by him in the exercise of his power will be :
(A) Valid
(B) Invalid
(C) Only if the next incumbent ratifies it
(D) Only if the parliament ratifies it
7. It is "a subversion of democratic process and colorable exercise of power and such
exercise of power amounted to a fraud upon the Constitution and hence unconstitutional".
The Supreme Court refers to which of the following powers of the President in D.C.
Wadhwa V State of Bihar ?
(A) Power to grant pardons (B) Ordinance making power
(C) Powers in relation to emergency (D) All of the above
8. Which of the following is not an example of inherent power of the Supreme Court ?
(A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Writ jurisdiction
(C) Review jurisdiction (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India does not apply to the State
of J & K ?
(A) Elections
(B) Directive principles of state policy
(C) Freedom of trade, Commerce and intercourse
(D) Official language
10. If for a period of _______ days, a member of either house of Parliament is without
permission of the house absent from all meetings of the house, the house may declare his
house vacant.
(A) 60 days (B) 90 days
(C) 30 days (D) No such limit
11. Remission as laid down in Article 72 means :
(A) Exchange of one form of punishment for another
(B) Temporary suspension of death sentence
(C) Awarding lesser punishment on some special grounds
(D) Reduction of the amount of sentence
12. The CSW of United Nations in March, 2013 announced a framework as agreed between
member nations on :
(A) Tackling violence against women
(B) Poverty alleviation
(C) Tackling violence in educational institutions
(D) Nuclear proliferation
13. John Kerry was in News recently because :
(A) He has been sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy
(B) He has been appointed as the Secretary to US President
(C) He has won the Nobel prize for peace
(D) He has won the best actor award in Oscar
14. Sarabjit Singh, a high profile Indian Prisoner was imprisoned at ______ jail when he was
attacked.
(A) Kot Lakhpat (B) Kot Bilawl
(C) Kot Kapura (D) Lahore Central Jail
15. The recent scam in helicopter deal for the defence involved the purchase of :
(A) Agatha Westland (B) Augusta Westland
(C) Augustus Helibuild (D) None of the above
16. Which of the following Acts was recently passed by the Indian Parliament ?
(A) Women Reservation Bill (B) National Food Security Bill
(C) Jan Lokpal Bill (D) None of the above
17. India had recently held talks with which of the following for a free trade agreement ?
(A) European Union (B) Eurasian Economic Commission
(C) Bangladesh (D) Sri Lanka
18. Which of the following is an example of contract of service ?
(A) Employeremployee (B) Contractorclient
(C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) None of the above
19. Theory of fundamental breach is applicable to :
(A) Tenders and quotations (B) Quasi-contracts
(C) Standard form of contracts (D) All of the above
20. Which of the following is the test of contractual intention ?
(A) Objectivity (B) Subjectivity
(C) Both objectivity & subjectivity (D) None of the above
21. Shares issued to promoters in consideration of services rendered by them in bringing
about the company come under the category of :
(A) Sweat equity shares (B) Deferred shares
(C) Preference shares (D) Equity share with differential right
22. Which of the following is void ab initio ?
(A) Void contract (B) Voidable agreement
(C) Void agreement (D) Voidable contract
23. Which of the following is not subject to restrictions under the company Act ?
(A) Buying its own shares by a company (B) Issue of shares at a discount
(C) Issue of shares at a premium (D) Both (B) & (C)
24. A small shareholder is a person who holds shares of nominal value of :
(A) Rs. 10,000 or less
(B) Rs. 20,000 or less
(C) Rs. 25,000 or less
(D) 1000 shares or less irrespective of the nominal value
25. A company can change its name :
(A) By passing an ordinary resolution and with the written approval of the government
(B) By passing a special resolution and with the written approval of the government
(C) Following the procedure as laid down in the Memorandum of Association
(D) By giving an application to the Registrar without any resolution
26. "Proof beyond reasonable doubt" is a prominent feature of which of the following systems
of justice :
(A) Adversarial system (B) Inquisitorial system
(C) Epistolatory system (D) Expostulatory system
27. In which of the following offences Mens rea needs to be proved ?
(A) Abetment of suicide of a minor
(B) Polluting of river water
(C) Sale of lottery ticket to a person below the age of sixteen
(D) Sale of prohibited drugs
28. In which of the following offences, intention of the offender is immaterial ?
(A) Abduction (B) Kidnapping
(C) Criminal conspiracy (D) Abetment of suicide
29. An "Act" under the Indian Penal Code includes :
(A) Omission
(B) Illegal omission
(C) Omission as well as illegal omission
(D) Omission, illegal omission and failure to perform a duty imposed by law
30. The limit of solitary confinement is ______ months, if the term of imprisonment exceeds
on month but not one year.
(A) One month (B) Two months
(C) 90 days (D) four months
31. A hurt is grievous, if it endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the space
of ______ days in severe bodily pain.
(A) 7 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 21
32. Dishonest inducement is a feature of which of the following ?
(A) Theft (B) Robbery
(C) Extortion (D) Dacoity
33. Which of the following is not true about counterfeit ?
(A) Causing one thing to resemble another thing
(B) Intending by new means of resemblance to practice deception
(C) Knowing it to be unlikely that deception will thereby be practiced
(D) All of the above
34. In which of the following punishment is altered to one of different sort than originally
proposed ?
(A) Permutation (B) Remission
(C) Commutation (D) Rescission
35. Ali, a Hanafi Muslim, marries a fifth wife, the marriage is :
(A) Valid (B) Void
(C) Irregular (D) Amounts to bigamy
36. When a Muslim husband swears by god that he will not have sexual intercourse with his
wife and leaves his wife to observe iddat, he is said to make ______.
(A) Zihar (B) Ahul
(C) Ila (D) Mubaraat
37. Which of the following is a ground for divorce under the Indian Divorce Act ?
(A) Conversion (B) Leprosy
(C) Venereal disease (D) Cruelty
38. Reconciliation is a special provision under which of the following ?
(A) Hindu Marriage Act (B) Indian Divorce Act
(C) Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act (D) Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act
39. Adoption by a Hindu male or female married under the Special Marriage Act 1954 is :
(A) Valid under the law as he remains a Hindu
(B) Has no capacity to adopt as the marriage was not solemnized as per Hindu Rites
(C) Valid if his parents have married under the Hindu Marriage Act
(D) Valid only if the child has been brought up as a Hindu
40. Which of the following is true according to Hindu Laws ?
(A) An illegitimate son is not entitled to maintenance
(B) An illegitimate son is entitled to maintenance
(C) An illegitimate son is entitled to maintenance during minority only
(D) An illegitimate son is entitled to maintenance till his marriage
41. Who said that 'all positive law is an attempt at just law' ?
(A) John Austin (B) Prof. HLA Hart
(C) Stammler (D) Kohler
42. While criticizing delegated legislation who said 'Today, citizen and lawyer alike are faced
with a statutory progeny, as alarming as the ghostly issue of Banquo were to
Macbeth' ?
(A) Keeton (B) Paton
(C) Prof Laski (D) C K Allen
43. Which out of the following is the correct observation in the Masjid Shahid Ganj v Shiromani
Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee ?
(A) Guru Granth Sahib is a juristic person
(B) A mosque is a juristic person
(C) Idol is a juristic person
(D) Both Guru Granth Sahib and a Mosque are juristic persons
44. Which of the following is not a mode of acquisition ?
(A) Specificatio (B) Occupatio
(C) Jus necessitatis (D) Extinction
45. Regarding animus as an element of possession, which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) The claim of the possessor must be exclusive
(B) The animus need not be a claim on one's own behalf
(C) The claim need not be rightful or legal
(D) None of the above
46. Who out of the following in his book sums up the operation of custom by saying that the
thing done becomes the thing which must be done ?
(A) Paton (B) Friedman
(C) Dias (D) C K Allen
47. As a principle of Natural Justice, audi alteram partem means :
(A) Hear the other side
(B) No one can be punished twice for the same offence
(C) Every one is innocent unless proved guilty
(D) Justice delayed is justice denied
48. Who remarked that 'International law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence' ?
(A) Holland (B) Starke
(C) Austin (D) Oppenheim
49. In IMO, (a specialized agency of UN), 'M' stands for :
(A) Monetary (B) Meteorological
(C) Maritime (D) None of the above
50. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Blockade is an act of war
(B) Neutrality is the attitude of partiality adopted by states during the time of war
(C) Conditional contraband includes those goods which are susceptible of use in war as well as
for purposes of peace
(D) States may declare war on each other without the employment of forces
51. International fund for Agricultural Development was adopted in 1974 by :
(A) World Monetary Conference (B) World Health Conference
(C) World Agricultural Conference (D) World Food Conference
52. Which of the following is celebrated as United Nations Day ?
(A) 24
th
October (B) 26
th
October
(C) 24
th
November (D) 26
th
November
53. Which of the following is not a peaceful means of settlement of International disputes ?
(A) Retortion (B) Pacific Blockade
(C) Intervention (D) None of the above
54. Representatives or members to the principal and subsidiary organs of the United Nations
have been accorded certain privileges and immunities by :
(A) United Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act 1947
(B) United Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act 1950
(C) United Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act 1949
(D) Article 225 of the Constitution
55. Which of the following is an object on which political fund of a registered trade union may
be spent ?
(A) For election of a candidate as a member of any legislative body constituted under the
Constitution
(B) For selection of a candidate as a member of any legislative body constituted under the
Constitution
(C) For distribution of any political document
(D) All the above
56. The Factories Act 1948 prohibits employment of young children who have not attained
the age of ______.
(A) 16 years (B) 18 years
(C) 14 years (D) 12 years
57. Which of the following is a workman according to Industrial Disputes Act 1947 ?
(A) A person employed in State Bank of India mainly to do managerial or administrative work
(B) A teacher of primary classes in government school
(C) A temporary employee of Delhi Cantonment Board
(D) A research scholar of Panjab University who is holder of scholarship
58. Which among the following is not an Industry ?
(A) The department pertaining to removal of encroachment
(B) Undertakings of the Corporation which carry out non-sovereign functions for the welfare of
people
(C) All India Radio
(D) Govt. College for Girls affiliated with Panjab University
59. Which out of the following is not an industrial dispute ?
(A) Dispute between an employee and his discharged workman
(B) Dispute between an employer and his workmen relating to their working conditions
(C) Dispute between a company & Supervisor drawing a salary of Rs. 30,000/-pm
(D) Dispute between a Company & its salesman regarding his commission
60. Which out of the following is not an essential of the tort of negligence ?
(A) A legal duty to exercise due care on the part of the party complained of towards the party
complaining
(B) Breach of the said duty
(C) Consequential damage to the complaining party
(D) There may or may not be consequential damage as important is breach of duty
61. A man's reputation is :
(A) jus in rem (B) jus in personam
(C) jus nullius (D) res nullius
62. Regarding distinction between libel and slander which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) A libel is a defamation in some permanent form whereas slander is a defamation in some
transient form
(B) At common law a libel is a criminal offence as well as civil wrong but slander is a civil wrong
only
(C) At common law a libel is a criminal offence only and slander is a civil wrong only
(D) Under Indian Law, both libel and slander are criminal offences
63. The definition of 'tort' is contained in :
(A) The Indian Contract Act 1872 (B) The Limitation Act 1963
(C) The Indian Trusts Act (D) The Motor Vehicles Act
64. The maxim 'res ipsa loquitur' is a :
(A) Rule of Substantive Law (B) Rule of Procedural Law
(C) Rule of Last Opportunity (D) Rule of Evidence
65. Gloucester Grammer School case relates to :
(A) damnum sine injuria (B) injuria sine damno
(C) volenti non fit injuria (D) scienti non fit injuria
66. Remoteness of damages is determined by :
(A) The test of last opportunity (B) The test of directness
(C) The test of reasonable foresight (D) Both (B) & (C)
67. What is exact and appropriate meaning of intervivos as regards to transfer of
property ?
(A) Transfer between two living beings (B) Family settlement
(C) Transfer between two living persons (D) None of the above
68. Which of the following are non transferable under the Transfer of Property Act ?
(A) Spessuccessionis (B) Mere right to re-entry
(C) Pensions and stipends (D) All of the above
69. 'No one can approbate and reprobate at the same time'. Which of the following principles
deal with this maxim ?
(A) Doctrine of lis pendens (B) Doctrine of past performance
(C) Doctrine of election (D) Doctrine of Ejusdem generis
70. The concept of transfer by ostensible owner has been described under section ______ of
the Transfer of Property Act.
(A) Section 40 (B) Section 41
(C) Section 42 (D) Section 43
71. Which of the following is an essential of the concept of lis pendens as described under
section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act ?
(A) There is a pendency of a suit or proceeding in a court of competent jurisdiction
(B) A right to immovable property is directly and specifically involved in a suit
(C) The suit or proceeding must not be collusive
72. The doctrine of past performance is ______ .
(A) An equitable doctrine (B) A rule of evidence
(C) A rule of procedure (D) A rule of interpretation
73. The distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice was emphasized by :
(A) Aristotle (B) Savigny
(C) Plato (D) Austin
74. A wagering contract according to Indian Contract Act is :
(A) Illegal and void (B) Immoral and against public policy
(C) Void but not illegal (D) Voidable
75. Name the Schedule of the Constitution in which if a Statute is specified, it cannot be
questioned in a court of law on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
(A) Eleventh Schedule (B) Ninth Schedule
(C) Tenth Schedule (D) Twelfth Schedule
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LL.M. (Master of Laws)/BZL/48990-A 15 141
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and Answer Sheet.
Subject :M.E. (Chemical )
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.E. (Chemical)/BZL/48975-A 2
M.E. (Chemical)/BZL/48975-A 3 [Turn over
M.E. (Chemical)/A
1. Sewage sludge is nonnewtonian fluid of type :
(A) Pseudo plastic
(B) Bingham plastic
(C) Real plastic
(D) Dilatent fluid
2. A fluid is pumped at the rate of 10 Lbs/sec to a height of 55 ft. The horse power required
is :
(A) 1 hp (B) 10/55 hp
(C) 10 hp (D) 55 hp
3. The range of particular Rotameter can be increased by :
(A) Use of float of different density (B) Increase dia of float
(C) Decreasing dia of float (D) None of these
4. Water is flowing through square cross sectional channel of side 'x'. For pressure drop
calculation purpose, the equivalent dia is given by :
(A) 4 x (B) 2 x
(C) x (D)
x
5. The ratio of wall drag to total drag in Stokes's law range is :
(A) 1 (B) 2/3
(C) 1/3 (D) 4/3
6. Weight of 56 litres of ammonia at N.T.P. is :
(A) 12.5 gms
(B) 42.5 gms
(C) 375.5 gms
(D) 2500.5 gms
7. Kopp's rule is useful for the determination of :
(A) activation energy (B) heat capacities of gases
(C) heat capacities of solids (D) heat capacities of liquids
8. Cpspecific heat of a gas at constant pressure, at critical temperature and pressure :
(A) reaches zero (B) reaches 0.34 kcal/kmol.K
(C) reaches infinity (D) reaches 1 kcal/kmol.K
9. An insulator should have :
(A) Low thermal conductivity
(B) High thermal conductivity
(C) A porous structure
(D) None of these
10. Fouling Factor :
(A) is dimensionless number
(B) accounts for additional resistance to heat flow
(C) is temperature gradient
(D) none of these
11. For reversible isobaric process the exponent n in relation PV
n
= constant, has the value
(where ! ! ! ! ! = ratio of specific heats)
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) # (D) !
12. Reynold's analogy states that :
(A) St = f/2 (B) St = f/4
(C) St = 4 f (D) St = (f)
0.5
13. The effect of baffles in heat exchanger is to :
(A) hold tubes in position (B) easy cleaning
(C) increase shell side heat transfer coefficient (D) provide mechanical strength
14. Wet bulb temperature of a gas is :
(A) More than dry bulb temperature (B) Less than dry bulb temperature
(C) Equal to dry bulb temperature (D) None of the above
15. The dew point of a saturated gas phase is equal to :
(A) Gas temperature (B) 0C
(C) 0C (D) Bubble temperature
16. Boiling mechanism below critical temperature drop is called :
(A) Pool boiling (B) Film boiling
(C) Nucleate boiling (D) None of these
17. For solutions Duhring's plot is used to calculate :
(A) Concentration (B) Boiling point rise
(C) Enthalpy (D) Entropy
18. What is absorptivity of black body ?
(A) 1.0 (B) 0
(C) 0.45 (D) 0.69
19. The kinetic energy correction factor for laminar flow through a circular pipe is :
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5
(C) 2.0 (D) 2.5
20. Floating head is used in heat exchanger to :
(A) provide supports for tubes (B) avoid bucking of tubes
(C) increase length (D) increase pressure drop
21. For a fully developed flow in a pipe, the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity
is :
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
22. Leidenfrost point is concerned with :
(A) boiling of liquid on hot surface (B) condensation of vapour on cold surface
(C) concentration of solution by evaporation (D) none of these
23. Fick's first law of diffusion for the 'Z' direction is :
(A)
Z
C
D J
A
AB A
$
$
%
(B)
Z
C
D J
A
AB A
$
$
& %
(C)
2
A
2
AB A
Z
C
D J
$
$
%
(D)
2
A
2
AB A
Z
C
D J
$
$
& %
24. For steady state molecular diffusion of gas A through nondiffusion B, the ratio
N
A
/(N
A
+ N
B
) is :
(A) 0 (B)
(C) 1 (D) #
25. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material ?
(A) Screw conveyor (B) Belt conveyor
(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Apron conveyor
26. Dry bulb temperature of the gas as compared to the wet bulb temperature, is :
(A) less (B) more
(C) equal (D) uncertain
27. Peclet number (N
Pe
) for mass transfer is defined as :
(A) N
Re
/N
Sc
(B) N
Re
.N
Sc
(C) N
Sc
/N
Re
(D) None of these
28. Flooding in a column occurs due to :
(A) high pressure drop (B) low pressure drop
(C) low velocity (D) high temperature
29. Which of the following method assume constant molar vaporization and overflow :
(A) PonchanSavarit method (B) McCabe Thiele method
(C) Ellis method (D) Smoker's equation
30. In a binary system separation is efficient when the relative volatility is :
(A) 1 (B) < 1
(C) > 1 (D) 0
31. In azeotropic mixture, the equilibrium vapor composition is :
(A) more than liquid composition (B) less than liquid composition
(C) same as liquid composition (D) none of these
32. A saturated liquid feed is entering a distillation column. The slope of feed line is :
(A) zero (B) unity
(C) infinity (D) none of these
33. For an open transfer function G = k / [ ( s + 1).(s + 2).(s + 3) ], the number of poles are :
(A) Zero (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
34. Which of the following is most suitable for extraction having low density difference :
(A) Mixer settler extractor (B) Centrifugal Extractor
(C) Pulsed Extractor (D) Packed Extractor
35. It is easier to remove :
(A) equilibrium moisture (B) bound moisture
(C) unbound moisture (D) none of these
36. Rotary drier is suitable for :
(A) free flowing materials (B) sticky materials
(C) viscous materials (D) all types of materials
37. Freundlich equation is applicable to :
(A) concentrated solutions
(B) dilute solutions over small concentration range
(C) dilute solutions over large concentration range
(D) none of these
38. Rate of leaching increases with :
(A) temperature (B) pressure
(C) size of solid (D) viscosity
39. Chemisorption (Chemical Adsorption) is :
(A) same as Van der Waals adsorption (B) a reversible phenomena
(C) an irreversible phenomena (D) none of these
40. Which of the following remains constant during adiabatic saturation of unsaturated air ?
(A) dry bulb temperature (B) dew point
(C) wet bulb temperature (D) none of these
41. Main constituents of dolomite are :
(A) CaCO
3
(B) Mg CO
3
(C) Na
2
CO
3
(D) K
2
CO
3
42. Complete combustion of one pound of carbon requires :
(A) 2.6 pounds of air (B) 12.6 pounds of air
(C) 22.6 pounds of air (D) 32.6 pounds of air
43. Thermocouples employ two :
(A) dissimilar metal strips (B) similar metal strips
(C) dissimilar metal strips (D) similar metal strips
44. McLeoid gauge measures :
(A) > 2 Kg
f
/cm
2
(abs) (B) < 2 Kg
f
/cm
2
(abs)
(C) High vacuum (D) Atm. Pressure
45. Working principle of filament type optical pyrometer is based on the :
(A) Wien's Law (B) Seebeck effect
(C) Kirchoff's law (D) Peltier effect
46. The ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces is called :
(A) Weber number (B) Mach number
(C) Froude number (D) Reynolds number
47. 1.6 gm of an organic compound gives 4.4 gm of CO
2
. The percentage of C in the compound
is :
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
48. S.I. units of thermal conductivity :
(A) J/m
2
K (B) W/mK
(C) W/mK sec (D) W m/k
49. The temperature to which a substance must be heated before it may burn, is called :
(A) flash point (B) critical temperature
(C) transition temperature (D) ignition temperature
50. Which of the following instrument is not used for measuring subzero(<0) temperature ?
(A) Platinum resistance thermometer (B) Mercury in glass thermometer
(C) Vapor pressure thermometer (D) Radiation pyrometer
51. Potential flow is flow of :
(A) Compressible fluids with shear (B) Compressible fluids without shear
(C) Incompressible fluid with shear (D) Incompressible fluids without shear
52. Multi storage centrifugal pumps are used for :
(A) High head (B) High discharge
(C) Slurries (D) Highly viscous liquid
53. Most suitable reactor for carry out isothermal operation is :
(A) Batch reactor (B) Back mix reactor
(C) Plug flow reactor (D) Fixed Bed reactor
54. Density of CO
2
in kg/Nm
3
is :
(A) 44/22400 (B) 44/22.4
(C) 22.4/44 (D) None of these
55. What fraction of total pressure is exerted by oxygen, if equal weights of oxygen and
methane are mixed in an empty vessel at 25C ?
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/3
(C) (D) 4/5
56. To remove very small amount of tiny solid impurities from liquid, we use a :
(A) Pressure filter (B) Vacuum filter
(C) Centrifugal filter (D) Coagulant
57. Polluted water having low BOD is most economically treated in :
(A) Clarifier (B) Bag filters
(C) Oxidation ponds (D) Sludge digesters
58. DCDA process is most recent process for manufacture of :
(A) Nitric acid (B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Hydrochloric acid (D) Phosphoric acid
59. Which of the following is almost absent in crude petroleum ?
(A) Olefins (B) Mercaptans
(C) Naphthenes (D) Cycloparaffins
60. Kinematic viscosity is equal to :
(A) Dynamic viscosity/ density (B) Dynamic viscosity density
(C) Density / Dynamic viscosity (D) Density Dynamic viscosity
61. What is unit of thermal conductivity ?
(A) W/m k (B) W/m
2
k
(C) W/m
3
k (D) W/m
2
hr k
62. Part of which all the three phase (solid, liquid, gas)co-exist is known as :
(A) Freezing point (B) Triple point
(C) Boiling point (D) Melting point
63. Fourier law is applied to HT by :
(A) Convection (B) Radiation
(C) Conduction (D) None of these
64. Diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to temp. (T) as :
(A) D ' T (B) D ' T
1/2
(C) D ' T
3/2
(D) D ' T
2
65. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring :
(A) Liquid temp. only (B) Very high temp. only
(C) Low temp. only (D) Both high and low temp.
66. The two specific heats Cp and Cv are equal at :
(A) 0 C (B) 0 K
(C) 0 F (D) 0 R
67. Efficiency of a Carnot Engine working between hot reservoir at temperature, T
1
and sink
reservoir at temperature T
2
is :
(A) (T
1
T
2
) / T
1
(B) (T
1
T
2
) / T
2
(C) T
1
/ (T
1
T
2
) (D) T
2
/ (T
1
T
2
)
68. One ton of refrigeration is defined as heat rate corresponding to the melting of one ton of
ice in :
(A) 1 minute (B) 1 hour
(C) 1 day (D) 1 year
69. The Mollier chart is :
(A) Pressureentropy chart (B) Enthalpyentropy chart
(C) Temperatureentropy chart (D) Volumeentropy chart
70. Refrigerant Freon22 is chemically :
(A) Mono chloro difluoro methane (B) Di chloro difluoro methane
(C) Tri chloro mono fluoro methane (D) Tri chloro difluoro methane
71. In a reversible process :
(A) TdS = dE + dW (B) TdS = dE dW
(C) TdS = dW dE (D) TdS = dE
72. Air at 30C blows over a plate of 50 cm 75 cm maintained at 260C. If the convection
heat transfer coeff. is 25 W/m
2
C, the heat transfer rate is :
(A) 2.156 kW (B) 12.56 kW
(C) 215.6 kW (D) 2156 kW
73. A 10 kg solid (specific heat = 0.8 kJ/kg.C) at 100C is immersed in 40 kg of liquid
(specific heat = 4.0 kJ/kg.C) at 20C. If the container is insulated, the temperature after
a long time is :
(A) 20C (B) 24C
(C) 28C (D) 32C
74. In underdamped second order response overshoot is equal to :
(A) (Decay ratio) (B) (Decay ratio)
1
(C) (Decay ratio)
2
(D) (Decay ratio)
3
75. Solenoid valve works like :
(A) PD controller (B) PID controller
(C) Onoffcontroller (D) Proportional controller
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M. Tech. (Instrumentation)/BZL/48974-A 3 [Turn over
M. Tech. (Instrumentation)/A
1. What is meant by the term accuracy ?
(A) The overall quality of data
(B) The lack of bias in the data
(C) The extent to which a value approaches its true value
(D) The level of detail at which data is stored
2. The two port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented
as a single two port network. The parameters of the combined representation of the
network are obtained :
(A) by multiplying the individual z parameter matrix
(B) by multiplying the individual h parameter matrix
(C) by multiplying the individual y parameter matrix
(D) by multiplying the individual ABCD parameter matrix
3. A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability that it lands on heads exactly one
time ?
(A) 0.375 (B) 0.333
(C) 0.125 (D) 0.250
4. Statistical power analysis seeks to optimise the size of the :
(A) sample (B) population
(C) difference (D) correlation
5. Instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to
earth and to one another is :
(A) Tangent galvanometer (B) Kelvins double bridge
(C) Meggar (D) Current transformer
6. The desirable static characteristic of a measuring system are :
(A) accuracy and reproducibility (B) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(C) drift and dead zone (D) static error
7. Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by a single current source
whose current is the algebraic sum of individual source currents and source resistance is
the parallel combination of individual source resistance.
The above statement is associated with :
(A) Thevenins theorem (B) Superposition theorem
(C) Millmans theorem (D) Maximum power transfer theorem
8. Kirchoffs law is applicable to :
(A) passive networks only
(B) dc circuits only
(C) ac circuits only
(D) both ac and dc circuits
9. One of the following laws of electrical network is used in node analysis of the network :
(A) Kirchoffs voltage law
(B) Kirchoffs current law
(C) Faradays law
(D) Ohms law
10. What is a non trivial node ?
(A) It is any node other than the ground node
(B) It has three or more components connected to the node
(C) It has two component connected to the node
(D) It has only four nodes connected to the node
11. Strain gauge, LVDT and the thermocouple are examples of :
(A) Analog transducers (B) Pulse transducers
(C) Active transducers (D) Inverse transducers
12. The transducer which requires an external power and their output is a measure of some
variation such as resistance, capacitance, inductance etc. are called as :
(A) Primary sensors (B) Active transducer
(C) Passive transducer (D) Self generating transducer
13. Errors due to assignable causes are called :
(A) static errors (B) systematic errors
(C) random errors (D) calibration errors
14. Which of the following have relatively large and negative temperature coefficient of
resistance ?
(A) Thermistors (B) Thormocouples
(C) Platinum resistance detectors (D) Radiation pyrometers
15. The pH value is a measure of hydrogen ion in a solution. The letters pH stands for :
(A) percentage of H
2
in solution (B) presence of hydrogen ions
(C) purist of H
2
O (D) power of Hydrogen ion concentration
16. Which measurement is a good guide to the quality of the water ?
(A) potentiometry (B) dissolved O
2
content
(C) conductometry (D) turbidity
17. The change in length of humidity sensitive elements is measured by :
(A) Hydrometer (B) Hygrometer
(C) Photometer (D) Psychrometer
18. What does a piezoelectric material generate in response to an applied force ?
(A) sound (B) resistance
(C) movement (D) electrical energy
19. Match the following List I (parameters) with List II (transducer) :
List I List II
1. Flow measurement W Radiant pyrometer
2. Temperature measurement X Dall tube
3. Angular velocity measurement Y Pirani gauge
4. Vacuum pressure measurement Z Gyroscope
(A) 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W (B) 1Z, 2Y, 3W, 4X
(C) 1X, 2W, 3Z, 4Y (D) 1W, 2Z, 3X, 4Y
20. The conventional way of expressing vibration is in terms of :
(A) Acceleration due to gravity (B) Speed of sound
(C) Richter scale (D) Atmospheric pressure
21. A sinusoidal signal has a period of 40 ms. What is its frequency ?
(A) 25 KHz (B) 25 Hz
(C) 50 KHz (D) 50 Hz
22. Zener diodes are used as :
(A) reference resistance (B) reference current
(C) reference voltage (D) reference inductance
23. When a BJT is biased to have the characteristics of an open switch ? Which of the
following is true ?
(A) I
C
= I
C
(sat) (B) V
CE
= 0 V
(C) V
BE
= V
CC
(D) V
CE
= V
CC
24. A semiconductor device operated in reverse bias mode whose capacitance can change in
response to a modulating signal is the :
(A) Zener diode (B) Tunnel diode
(C) Varactor diode (D) Unijunction transistor
25. Which amplifier class typically uses pulse width modulation ?
(A) D type (B) C type
(C) B type (D) A type
26. When an amplifier is provided with current series feedback, its :
(A) Input impedance increases and output impedance decreases
(B) Input and output impedance both decreases
(C) Input impedance decreases and output impedance increases
(D) Input and output impedance both increases
27. The maximum rate of change of the output voltage in responsible to a step input voltage
of an op-amp is the :
(A) time constant (B) CMRR
(C) slew rate (D) maximum frequency
28. The op-amp with the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance
configuration is known as :
(A) Integrator (B) Voltage follower
(C) Inverting amplifier (D) Non Inverting amplifier
29. What characteristics would characterize an ideal op-amp ?
(A) An infinite voltage gain, zero input resistance, zero output resistance
(B) An infinite gain, zero input resistance, infinite output resistance
(C) An infinite voltage gain, infinite input resistance, infinite output resistance
(D) An infinite voltage gain, infinite input resistance and zero output resistance
30. What is a key characteristic of an instrumentation amplifier ?
(A) high CMRR (B) high output offset
(C) high output impedance (D) low input impedance
31. What is the primary application of a precision rectifier ?
(A) To rectify high level signals at precise level
(B) To rectify digital signals
(C) To rectify very low-level and signals
(D) To isolate two signals
32. How are the capacitor and resistor arranged with the input in a first order high pass
Butterworth filter ?
(A) The resistance is in series and the capacitor is in parallel
(B) The capacitor is in series and the resistance is in parallel
(C) The resistor and capacitor both in series with the input
(D) The resistor and capacitor both in parallel with the input
33. In a phase shift oscillator, how many RC cascaded networks as the feedback circuit are
used ?
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
34. A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number is a :
(A) Decoder (B) Multiplier
(C) Encoder (D) De multiplexer
35. Convert the hexadecimal number 12 Hex into binary number :
(A) 01100 (B) 10010
(C) 01010 (D) 10011
36. What is unique about TTL device such as the 74S00 ?
(A) The gate transistors are silicon (S) and the gates therefore have lower values of leakage
current
(B) The S denotes that it uses a single gate
(C) The S denotes that the slower version of the device
(D) The device use Schottky transistors and diodes, this results in faster turn on and turn off times
which translates into higher frequency operation
37. The negative numbers in the binary system can be represented by :
(A) ASCII code (B) 1s complement
(C) 2s complement (D) Octal code
38. A carry look ahead adder is frequently used for addition because it :
(A) is of less cost (B) is more accurate
(C) uses less number of gates (D) is faster
39. In a flash analog to digital converter (ADC) the output of each comparator is connected
to an input of a :
(A) decoder (B) priority encoder
(C) multiplexer (D) demultiplexer
40. The output of a Schmitt trigger is a :
(A) sinusoidal waveform (B) sawtooth waveform
(C) triangle waveform (D) pulse waveform
41. Which mode of operation is being used when a 555 timer chip has two external resistors
and an external capacitor ?
(A) pulse stretching (B) monostable
(C) astable (D) Schmitt triggering
42. Which combination of inputs to an SR flip flop should be avoided ?
(A) R and S are low
(B) R and S are high
(C) R is high S is low
(D) R is low S is high
43. What is the purpose of a sample hold circuit ?
(A) To keep temporary memory
(B) To hold voltage constant so an ADC has time to produce an output
(C) To hold voltage constant so an DAC has time to produce an output
(D) To hold data after a multiplexer has selected an output
l
44. What is the major advantage of the R/2R ladder digital to analog converter as compared
to a binary-weighted digital to analog converter ?
(A) It only uses two different resistor values
(B) It has fewer parts of the same number of inputs
(C) Its operation is much easier to analyze
(D) The circuit is easier to troubleshoot
45. The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into
the memory locations 2050H and 2051H respectively is :
(A) SPHL 2050H (B) SPHL 2051H
(C) SHLD 2050H (D) STAX 2050H
46. The reduced state table of a sequential machine has 7 rows. What is the minimum number
of flip flops needed to implement the machine ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
47. A discrete signal x[n] is periodic with period N, if x(t) is equal to :
(A) x[n+2N] (B) x[n]
(C) x[n+N] (D) x[nN]
48. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be :
(A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal (B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal
(C) twice the bandwidth of a signal (D) twice the highest frequency of a signal
49. A signal flow graph is used to determine the :
(A) steady state error of the system (B) transfer function of a system
(C) stability of the system (D) dynamic error coefficient
50. The Z-transform and the Laplace transform are related by :
(A) S =
l
n Z (B) S = Z
(C) S =
l
n Z / T (D) T /
l
n Z
51. In TV transmission the modulation schemes for video and audio are respectively :
(A) AM and FM (B) FM and FM
(C) AM and AM (D) FM and AM
l
52. The most noise immune system is :
(A) SSB (B) PCM
(C) PDM (D) PWM
53. In case of data transmission which one of the following system will give the maximum
probability of error ?
(A) ASK (B) FSK
(C) PSK (D) DPSK
54. Convolution of x(t+5) with impulse function ! !! !!(t-7) is equal to :
(A) x(t12) (B) x(t+12)
(C) x(t2) (D) x(t+2)
55. Anderson Bridge is used to measure :
(A) Inductance (B) Capacitance
(C) Voltage (D) Current
56. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available
are :
(A) One voltmeter and one ammeter
(B) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
(C) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(D) one voltmeter and one energy meter
57. Name type of voltage applied to the horizontal plate of a CRO for display of signal
pattern :
(A) Sinusoidal (B) Sawtooth
(C) Square (D) Rectangular
58. The electronic multimeter measures resistance by :
(A) using the bridge circuit
(B) using a buffer circuit
(C) using an electronic bridge compensator for nulling
(D) forcing a constant current and measuring the voltage across the unknown resistance
59. The Q meter works on the principle of :
(A) mutual inductance (B) self inductance
(C) series resonance (D) parallel resonance
60. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called as :
(A) transient response (B) error response
(C) dynamic response (D) steady state response
61. The steady state error due to a ramp input for a type two system is equal to :
(A) constant (B) infinite
(C) zero (D) non zero number
62. The transfer function for the state variable representation
X = AX + Bu , Y = CX + Du is given by :
(A) B (SI A)
1
C + D (B) C (SI A)
1
D + B
(C) C (SI A)
1
B + D (D) D (SI A)
1
C + D
63. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient
response ?
(A) Root locus (B) Bode plot
(C) Nyquist plot (D) Polar plot
64. Gain cross over frequency is defined as :
(A) I G (j") H(j") I = 0 (B) I G (j") H(j") I = #
(C) I G (j") H(j") I = 1 (D) I G (j") H(j") I = 1/2
65. The viscous friction co-efficient in force-voltage analogy is analogous to :
(A) reciprocal of inductance (B) reciprocal of conductance
(C) charge (D) resistance
66. Addition of a Pl controller in cascade with a plant :
(A) increases damping (B) increases the order of the system
(C) produces oscillations in response (D) reduces the order of the system
67. The Nyquist plot of a system passes through (1, j0) point in the G (j" "" "") H(j" "" "") plane, the
phase margin of the system is :
(A) zero (B) less than zero
(C) greater than zero but not infinite (D) infinite
68. The transfer function of a linear time invariant system is the :
(A) ratio of the output and the input
(B) ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input
(C) ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input with all initial conditions zero
(D) ratio of the laplace transform of the output and that of the input with all initial conditions zero
69. Mass spectrometer separate isotopes of different elements based on their :
(A) mass (B) electric charge
(C) mass divided by electric charge (D) mass minus electric charge
70. The Beer-Lambert Law gives correlation with positive gradient between :
(A) Absorbance and Concentration
(B) Wavelength and Absorbance
(C) Molar extinction coefficient and Concentration
(D) Molar extinction coefficient and Absorbance
71. The function of Michaelson Interferometer in an FTIR instrument is to :
(A) perform FT
(B) increase the sensitivity
(C) modulate the interference pattern of the light beam from the source
(D) speed up the acquisition time
72. The light sources used in fibre optic communication are :
(A) LEDs (B) Semiconductor lasers
(C) Phototransistors (D) Both LEDs and semiconductor lasers
73. Korotkoff sounds are used :
(A) in blood flow measurements (B) in blood pressure measurements
(C) in heart valve functioning (D) as a reference for sound level measurement
74. Choose the correct match for signals and biological activity :
1. EMG W Heart activity
2. EOG X Brain activity
3. ECG Y Muscle activity
4. EEG Z Eye movement
(A) 1Z, 2Y, 3W, 4X (B) 1X, 2Z, 3W, 4Y
(C) 1X, 2Y, 3W, 4Z (D) 1Y, 2Z, 3W, 4X
75. During an ECG recording what type of configuration is used when by connecting
2 electrodes one on left arm (LA) and another on left leg (LL) is made :
(A) Level I configuration (B) Level II configuration
(C) Level III configuration (D) Both Level I and Level II configuration
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M. Tech. (Instrumentation)/BZL/48974-A 15 140
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Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/DSr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Subject : M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corre-
sponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer
Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on
duty.
the examination.
M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BZL/49004-A 2
M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BZL/49004-A 3 [Turn Over
M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/A
1. In Economics, the central problem is :
(A) Production (B) Scarcity
(C) Allocation (D) Money
2. Indicate below what is NOT a factor of Production :
(A) A bank loan (B) Capital
(C) Labour (D) Land
3. Microeconomics is not concerned with the behaviour of :
(A) Firms (B) Industries
(C) Aggregate demand (D) Consumers
4. Physical verification of fixed assets is the primary responsibility of the :
(A) Auditor (B) Management
(C) Government (D) Shareholders
5. Statutory auditor of a company in the case of a casual vacancy may be appointed by
the :
(A) Board of Directors (B) Managing Director
(C) Extraordinary General meeting (D) Government concerned
6. Consider the following functions of a stock exchange :
(1) Providing a ready market for securities
(2) Helping capital formation
(3) Regulating the capital structure of a company
(4) Regulating the public deposits with companies
of the above functions :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct (D) Only 1 is correct
7. Complete consolidation as a class of business combination may include :
(A) mergers and amalgamations
(B) pools and cartels
(C) trusts and holding companies
(D) trade associations and chambers of commerce
8. Modernization of industries can be achieved by :
(A) ensuring proper enforcement of the provisions of BIFR Act
(B) permitting PSUs to disinvest
(C) strictly implementing the provisions of industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(D) creating consciousness among the industrialists about the need for modernization
9. Every person has insurable interest in his own life upto :
(A) a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000
(B) twenty times his net salary drawn
(C) an unlimited extent provided the premium payable does not exceed 20% of his sales salary
(D) an unlimited extent
10. Management by exception introduces :
(A) selective, responsibility oriented reporting
(B) reporting of significant variances
(C) requirements of full reports on performance
(D) computation of actual in different spheres of performance
11. Consider the following four steps of purchasing office supplies :
1. Obtain quotation from vendors
2. Fill out quotation forms indicating requirements
3. Send forms to prospective vendors
4. Catalogue respective quotations
The correct sequence of the above steps is :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4
12. A public limited Company may in the general meeting, resolve to capitalize any part of
the amount standing to the credit of any of its reserve accounts, upon the recommendation
of the :
(A) Managing Director (B) Board of Directors
(C) Financial Advisers (D) Shareholders
13. According to the Companies Act, 1956, a private company must have at least :
(A) seven directors (B) three directors
(C) two directors (D) one director
14. An enterprise incorporated by a Special Act of Parliament on the State Legislature
intending to carry on some business of national importance is called :
(A) public company (B) statutory corporation
(C) registered company (D) registered statutory company
15. A special resolution for the alteration of the objects clause of the Memorandum of
Association of a company having been passed, the alteration is to be confirmed by the :
(A) Court concerned (B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board (D) Creditors of the Company
16. According to Sec. 2 (45) of the Companies Act (as amended in 1974), a Company
Secretary must possess the qualifications prescribed from time by the :
(A) Company Law Board (B) Central Government
(C) Registrar of Companies (D) Parliament
17. Accounting Standard Board issuing Accounting Standards in India belongs to :
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Company Law Board
(C) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
18. An organization structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives
of the enterprise. This is known as :
(A) Scalar principle (B) Principle of functional definition
(C) Principle of unity of objectives (D) None of the above
19. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial
functions ?
(A) Organizing, planning, directing, staffing, coordination and control
(B) Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordination and control
(C) Planning, directing, organizing, staffing, control and coordination
(D) Organizing, planning, staffing, directing, control and coordination
20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Value of any security : The real value of any security is determined by the prior rights to the
return of income
(B) Debenture : It possesses maximum safety and normally offers regular and fixed income.
(C) Preference share : It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and fixed income by way of
dividend
(D) Equity share : It invites speculative tendency among the investors. There is risk of loss in such
a share
21. Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate Cross Relationship under span
of control ?
(A) n {n1} (B) n {2n1}/n
(C) n {2n+n-1}/n (D) None of the above
22. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied in a claim for loss by fire ?
1. There must be actual fire
2. Fire must be accidental
3. Cause of fire must be ascertainable
4. The goods must have been destroyed, not damaged by fire
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
23. In which of the following right to buy or sell securities in stock exchange is acquired ?
(A) Arbitrage (B) Margin Trading
(C) Option Dealing (D) Blank Transfers
24. Contango Charges are paid by :
(A) Bull to Bear (B) Bear to Bull
(C) Either of the two (D) None of the two
25. Window dressing is prohibited by :
(A) Convention of Conservatism (B) Convention of Disclosure
(C) Convention of Materiality (D) Convention of Truthfulness
26. A mixed marine policy means :
(A) combination of fire and marine losses coverage
(B) combination of voyage and time policies
(C) combination of all types of risk on the sea
(D) combination of export credit insurance and marine insurance
27. Three methods of computing National Income are :
(A) Saving, Investment and Income Method
(B) Outlay, Depreciation and Production Method
(C) Balance of Payments, Income and Consumption Method
(D) Production, Outlay and Income Method
28. A household in a two-sector model is essentially a unit of :
(A) Consumption (B) Production
(C) Investment (D) Profitability
29. In a closed economy model, which of the sectors below is not to be considered ?
(A) Household (B) Firms
(C) Government (D) Foreign Trade
30. Saving represents :
(A) An injection in the circular flow of income (B) Both a leakage and injection
(C) A leakage in the circular flow of income (D) None of the above
31. Variable costs include costs of :
(A) Purchasing the building for the factory (B) Purchasing heavy machines
(C) Payment to owner (D) Paying the labourers
32. Economic development can be defined simply as :
(A) National income keeping up with population increases
(B) An increase in real per capita income over an extended period of time
(C) An increase in the national income from one year to another
(D) An increase in real investment over many years
33. An increase in GNP is a sign of :
(A) Economic Growth (B) Economic Development
(C) Increase in welfare (D) Economic Forwardness
34. Factor-intensity as it is used in economics is primarily a :
(A) Relative Concept (B) Absolute Concept
(C) Abstract Concept (D) Empirical Concept
35. Which product is the largest net foreign exchange earner for India ?
(A) Engineering Goods (B) Textiles
(C) Gems and Jewellery (D) Handicrafts
36. The swan diagram explains :
(A) Internal Equilibrium (B) External Equilibrium
(C) Both External and Internal Equilibrium (D) Imports as a function of National Income
37. Estimates of National Income in India are prepared by :
(A) Planning Commission (B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Statistical Organization (D) Reserve Bank of India
38. Monopolistic Competition constitutes :
(A) Single firm producing close substitutes
(B) Many firms producing close substitutes
(C) Many firms producing differentiated products
(D) All of these
39. The period of the business cycle in which real GDP is increasing is called the :
(A) Expansion (B) Peak
(C) Recession (D) Stagflation
40. Assume that, in the population, 95 million people worked for pay last week, 5 million
people did not work for pay but had been seeking a job, 5 million people did not work for
pay and had not been seeking a job for the past several months, and 45 million were
under Age 16. The unemployment rate, given these numbers, is :
(A) 5% (B) 8%
(C) 10% (D) 20%
41. A type of unemployment in which workers are in-between jobs or are searching for new
and better jobs is called _______ unemployment.
(A) Frictional (B) Cyclical
(C) Structural (D) Turnover
42. Consider three consumer goods : 100 of Good A, 100 of Good B, and 100 of Good C. In the
base year, Good A sold at a price of $1, Good B sold at a price of $1 and Good C sold at a
price of $1. In the current year, Good A sold at a price of $3, Good B sold at a price of $5,
and Good C sold at a price of $ 10. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) of the current year is :
(A) 100 (B) 300
(C) 500 (D) 600
43. Which of the following is a loser from unexpected inflation ?
(A) Workers with cost of living allowances
(B) People who own Treasury Bills
(C) The middle class
(D) People who own homes and have fixed-rate mortgages
44. If the nominal interest rate on a checking account is 2% and the inflation rate is 3% this
year, the real interest rate is :
(A) 5% (B) 2%
(C) 2/3% (D) 1%
45. Which of the following would cause the demand curve for automobiles to shift to the left ?
(A) An increase in the price of the automobiles
(B) An increase in the interest rate paid to borrow money to pay for the automobile
(C) An increase in buyers incomes
(D) An increase in the cost of production of automobiles
46. Suppose it is announced that industry analysts are predicting that decreased oil supplies
from Iraq will cause gasoline prices to rise, beginning next month. In the current week,
the announcement would :
(A) Shift the supply of gasoline right
(B) Shift the demand for gasoline left
(C) Shift the demand for gasoline right
(D) Have no effect on the demand or supply of gasoline
47. Which of the following would cause the aggregate demand curve to shift to the right ?
(A) An increase in purchases by the federal government
(B) An increase in real interest rates
(C) An appreciation of the American dollar
(D) A decrease in the money supply
48. Which of the following statements is/are true about the classical quantity theory of
money ?
(A) The equation of exchange is MV = PQ
(B) The classical economists assumed that V would rise when real interest rates rise
(C) The classical economists concluded that increases in the money supply cause increases in
real GDP and nothing else
49. The Phillips Curve describes the relationship between :
(A) The federal budget deficit and the trade deficit
(B) Savings and investment
(C) The unemployment rate and the inflation rate
(D) Marginal tax rates and tax revenues
50. An increase in the money supply causes :
(A) Interest rates to fall, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise
(B) Interest rates to rise, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise
(C) Interest rates to rise, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall
(D) Interest rates to fall, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall
51. The set of marketing tools that the firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in the
target market is called a(n) :
(A) Customer mix (B) Competitor mix
(C) Marketing mix (D) All of the above
52. What are the ballpoint pens purchased by a clothing company ?
(A) Direct materials (B) Indirect materials
(C) EDI (D) None of the above
53. The State Bank of India (Amendment) Bill-2010, which was passed in the parliament in
the latter half of 2010, apart from other things, reduces the statutory minimum shareholding
of the Central Government in the bank from _______ to _______ %, which among the
following set of figures fills the blank correctly ?
(A) 59,52 (B) 55, 51
(C) 59, 55 (D) 62, 51
54. Which among the following body promoted Securities Trading Corporation of India Limited
(STCI) jointly with the Public Sector Banks ?
(A) SEBI (B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) IDBI Ltd. (D) ICICI Ltd.
55. Mutual funds are regulated in India by which among the following ?
(A) RBI (B) SEBI
(C) Stock exchanges (D) RBI and SEBI both
56. Which among the following is Indias largest indigenous Research and Production Nuclear
Reactor ?
(A) Apsara (B) Dhurva
(C) Kamini (D) CIRUS
57. Bring out the only incorrect statement :
(A) Reserve Repo operation by RBI aims are injecting/increasing liquidity
(B) SDR refers to special drawing
(C) Rupee Appreciation results in decrease in imports
(D) Increase in inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate
58. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Accounting and Book-keeping are synonymous
(B) Book-keeping and Accounting are complementary to each other
(C) Accounting starts from where Book-keeping ends
(D) Both (B) and (C)
59. The Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) aim at :
(A) Uniformity in accounting practices
(B) Uniform accounting practices in all enterprises
(C) Acceptance of globalization, liberalization and privatization in the field of accounting
60. Revenue is realized :
(A) When sales order is received (B) When goods are sold
(C) When cash is received (D) When goods are received by the purchaser
61. Personal Account relates to :
(A) Persons (B) All artificial and natural persons
(C) Representative Personal Accounts (D) All of the above
62. The cost of erection on an old machine will be posted in the credit side of :
(A) Cash Account (B) Machinery Account
(C) Repairs and Renewal Account (D) None of the above
63. Outstanding Wages is :
(A) Nominal Account (B) Real Account
(C) Personal Account (D) Current Account
64. Adjustment Entry for rent received in advance would be :
(A) Cash A/c Dr,
To Rent Received in Advance A/c
(B) Cash A/c.
To Rent A/c Dr.
(C) Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent Received Advance A/c
(D) Advance Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
65. Accounting treatment of a Capital Expenditure as Revenue Expenditure creates :
(A) General Reserve (B) Revenue Reserve
(C) Capital Reserve (D) Secret Reserve
66. Partnership comes into existence through :
(A) Introduction (B) Promotion
(C) Contract (D) Situation
67. Partnership Deed is always :
(A) Written (B) Oral
(C) Written or Oral (D) Written and Oral
68. The number of partners in a partnership firm is :
(A) Uncertain (B) Unlimited
(C) Decided by partners (D) Limited
69. In the absence of partnership agreement the profit is shared by the partners :
(A) equally (B) on the basis of capital invested
(C) on the basis of decision of the court (D) on the basis of time spent
70. Because of Retirement/Death of a partner :
(A) Partnership is dissolved
(B) Partnership firm is dissolved
(C) Partnership and partnership firm both are dissolved
71. After re-issue of forfeited shares the balance of forfeited share account is transferred
to :
(A) General Reserve (B) Profit and Loss A/c
(C) Capital Reserve (D) None of these
72. The debenture holders of a company are companys :
(A) Owners (B) Creditors
(C) Customers (D) All of these
73. Which of the following is not a current asset ?
(A) Land and Building (B) Debtors
(C) Stock (D) Cash at bank
74. The analysis of published accounts benefits :
(A) Shareholders (B) Debenture holders
(C) Employees (D) All of these
75. The object of cost accounting is :
(A) Ascertainment of Cost (B) Valuation of Stock
(C) Cost Control (D) All of these
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/BZL/49004-A 15 300
CET(PG)-2013
Question Booklet Series : AB/C/D Sr. No. :
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Subject : M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BZL-48991-A [2]
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BZL-48991-A [3] [Turn over
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/A
1. The idiom I will be a monkeys uncle means :
(A) To keep a monkey (B) That I have been enlightened
(C) That I have been fooled (D) To express disbelief
2. Choose the most appropriate meaning for the following idiom : To fish in troubled
waters :
(A) To make the situation worse when others do not want it
(B) To make profit when others are in trouble
(C) To create trouble for others
(D) To indulge in evil acts
3. Choose the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship between each other as the
given pair of words :
WRITING : PLAGIARISM
(A) Confidence : Deception (B) Money : Misappropriation
(C) Gold : Theft (D) Germ : Disease
4. Choose the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship between each other as the
given pair of words :
INFLAMMABLE : IGNITED
(A) Fragile : Shattered (B) Flexible : Broken
(C) Famous : Plagiarized (D) Somber : Mourned
5. A sentence has been given in active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives select
the one which best expresses the same sentence in passive (or active) voice :
I know him.
(A) He has been known by me. (B) He was known to me.
(C) He is known by me. (D) He is known to me.
Directions for questions 06, 07 and 08 :
In each of the following questions, choose the most suitable one word for the given
expressions.
6. A Man with prejudiced views against religion :
(A) Orthodox (B) Bigot
(C) Fanatic (D) Profane
7. The School or College in which one has been educated :
(A) Native (B) Alumni
(C) Alma mater (D) Calvin
8. One who deserts his religion :
(A) Deserter (B) Turncoat
(C) Fanatic (D) Apostate
Directions for questions 09 and 10 :
In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with a blank followed by four
alternatives. Choose the word or phrase that most correctly completes the sentences.
9. Nancy did not attend office yesterday. She _______ for a picnic :
(A) will have gone (B) have gone
(C) may have gone (D) would go
10. I dont know where Sonia is. She ______ at home.
(A) would be (B) is
(C) can be (D) could be
11. M.K Gandhi stands for :
(A) Mohanbhai Kishorbhia Gandhi (B) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
(C) Mohandas Keshubhai Gandhi (D) Mohandas Karimchand Gandhi
12. The National Fruit of India is :
(A) Coconut (B) Apple
(C) Grape (D) Mango
13. RGB as used in light theory stands for :
(A) Red, Gold, Black (B) Red, Green, Black
(C) Red, Green, Blue (D) Red, Green, Brown
14. Identify the rupee symbol approved by the Govt. of India :
15. An elevator has a capacity of 12 adults or 20 children. How many adults can board the
elevator with 15 children ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 6
16. Suppose the sum of the seven positive numbers is 21. What is the minimum possible
value of the average of the squares of these numbers ?
(A) 63 (B) 21
(C) 9 (D) 7
17. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?
(A) 10 (B) 16
(C) 12 (D) 8
18. In climbing a round pole of 80 meters height, a monkey climbs 5 meters in a minute and
slips 2 meters in the alternate minute. To get to the top of the pole, the monkey would
take :
(A) 51 minutes (B) 54 minutes
(C) 58 minutes (D) 61 minutes
19. A circle is circumscribed around a square (shown in figure). The area of one of the four
shaded portions is equal to 4/7. The radius of the circle is :
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C)
2
(D)
2
1
20. The missing number in the given figure is :
(A) 44 (B) 48
(C) 40 (D) 50
21. The size of a computer monitor is measured ________.
(A) vertically, from top to bottom (B) horizontally, from side to side
(C) diagonally, from corner to corner (D) regionally, multiplying length by width
22. What does TCP/IP stand for ?
(A) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
(B) Transport Capture Protocol/Inside Packet
(C) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Packet
(D) Telecommunications Connection Protocol/Internet Partitions
23. The process of _______ that is, organizing a disk so that files are stored in contiguous
sectors - speeds up disk access.
(A) destabilization (B) deconstruction
(C) de-fragmentation (D) decentralization
24. Clock speed, the speed at which a computer processor executes instructions, is measured
in ______, which equates to one million ticks of the system clock.
(A) kilobytes (B) milliseconds
(C) gigahertz (D) nanoseconds
25. The acronym DVD stands for :
(A) Dynamic viewable disc (B) Decompressed video disk
(C) Digital versatile disc (D) Digital video drive
26. Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses are examples of :
(A) Hardware (B) Malware
(C) Firmware (D) Freeware
27. The IC Chip used in computer is made of :
(A) Copper (B) Silicon
(C) Steel (D) Plastic
28. In CRT displays, increasing the refresh rate :
(A) Decreases flickering (B) Increases flickering
(C) Decreases the size of image (D) Increases the size of image
29. Match languages to domains : Write the letter corresponding with the application domain
each programming language was designed to support in the space provided. Each letter
should be used exactly once.
Programming Language Application Domain
(i) C (a) Artificial Intelligence
(ii) COBOL (b) System Programming
(iii) FORTRAN (c) Internet Programming
(iv) LISP (d) Scientific Applications
(v) JAVA (e) Business Applications
(A) i-a ii-e iii-d iv-b v-c (B) i-b ii-d iii-e iv-a v-c
(C) i-b ii-e iii-d iv-c v-a (D) i-b ii-e iii-d iv-a v-c
30. Which of the following is not a reason you might want to use CSS and HTML rather than
only HTML when building a website ?
(A) CSS and HTML help reduce duplication/clutter in your pages given that one style sheet can
be applied to many WebPages
(B) CSS and HTML allow you to separate content from presentation
(C) CSS and HTML allow you to open a connection to a database and dynamically alter the
content of a website
(D) CSS and HTML can assist in unifying the theme and appearance of a website easily
31. In the context of Open Source technologies, what is the meaning of OSI and FSF acronyms/
abbreviations ?
(A) Open System Interconnection and Flight Safety Foundation
(B) Open System Interchange and Flight Safety Foundation
(C) Open Source Initiative and Free Software Foundation
(D) Open Source Instrument and Financial Stability Forum
32. The act of deliberately accessing computer systems and networks without authorization
is generally known as :
(A) Computer intrusions (B) Hacking
(C) Cracking (D) Probing
33. Who is original developer of Linux, the free UNIX clone on the PC ?
(A) Bill Gates (B) Linus Torvalds
(C) Dennis Ritchie (D) Richard Stallman
34. Software interoperability is :
(A) The ability of a software system to work on different hardware platforms.
(B) The ability of a software system to work under different operating systems.
(C) The ability of a software system to exchange information with other software systems and to
use the exchanged information.
(D) The ability to replace a software system with another software system that has similar
functionality.
35. 1 Terabyte is :
(A) 100 Gigabytes
(B) 1000 Gigabytes
(C) 10000 Petabytes
(D) 1000 Petabytes
36. Let
50
....... 5 3 1
Y ,
100
100 ....... 3 2 1
X
13 13 13 13 13 13 13
! ! ! !
"
! ! ! !
"
Which of the following is true ?
(A) Y < Z < X (B) X < Y < Z
(C) Y < X < Z (D) Z < X < Y
37. How many squares n
2
,n > 20 are less than 10,000 and end with digit 1 ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 26 (D) 36
38. The value of
15 tan 1
15 tan 1
2
2
!
is :
(A)
3
2
(B)
2
3
(C) 1 (D) 2
39. If A and B are two square matrices such that B = A
1
BA, then (A+B)
2
=
(A) O (Zero matrix) (B) A
2
+ B
2
(C) A + B (D) A
2
+ 2AB + B
2
40. The value of # ## ## satisfying
2 ) sin( 3 ) cos( " # ! #
is :
(A)
3
5$
(B)
(C) (D)
41. If the equation x
2
2x + 4y
2
+ 24 y + 33 = 0 describes an ellipse, then the centre of this
ellipse is :
(A) (1, 3) (B) (2, 5)
(C) (1, 3) (D) (2, 5)
42. If (4, 3) is the midpoint of the line segment connecting (6, -9/2) and (x, y) then the length
of this line segment is :
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
43. The value of the definite integral is :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
44. Suppose f(x) = 2x
3
6x + 1 is defined on all real numbers. The interval where f(x) is
decreasing is given by :
(A) 2 < x < 2 (B) 1 < x < 1
(C) 0.5 < x < 0.5 (D) 1 < x < 2
45. It is known that a real root of a function f(x) is a real number x
0
for which f(x
0
)=0. The
function f(x) = x
3
+ 9x 4 has :
(A) Exactly 1 real root (B) Exactly 2 real roots
(C) Exactly 3 real roots (D) No real roots
46. If f(x) is a polynomial satisfying 28. (3) and
x
1
) (
x
1
) ( "
! "
f f x f f x f Then f(4) is
given by :
(A) 63 (B) 65
(C) 67 (D) 68
47. Consider the circles x
2
+ (y1)
2
= 9 and (x1)
2
+ y
2
= 25. These two circles are such
that :
(A) These touch each other (B) One of these lies entirely inside the other
(C) Each of these lies outside the other (D) These intersect in two points
48. Which of the following equations has the graph given below ?
(A) y = 3 sin
!
2
2

x
(B) y = 3 sin
!
4
x
(C) y = 3 sin % & x 2 (D) y = 3 sin
!
2
2

x
49. If f(x) = x
2
and g(x) = 2
x
then the solution set of f o g(x) = g o f(x) is :
(A) R, the set of real numbers (B) {0}
(C) {0, 2} (D) {1, 2}
50. If x = 2 +5
1
then the value of f(x) = x
3
5x
2
+ 33x 19 is equal to :
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 7 (D) 10
51. Let A and B be events with P(A) = 3 / 8, P(B) = 1/2, and P((A' '' ''B)
C
) = 3/8. What
is P(A ( ( ( ( ( B) ?
(A)
3
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
5
1
(D)
6
1
52. How many license plates can be made using either 2 letters followed by 3 digits or 3
letters followed by 2 digits ?
(A) 2433600 (B) 676000
(C) 1757600 (D) 1489600
53. The term of the expansion
% &
9
2 3
3 4 y x !
that has y-degree 12, is given by :
(A) 9289728 (B) 10450944
(C) 7838208 (D) 3919104
54. Let A = * + {3}} {9, {7}, 3, 2, , and B = * + {6,5} 6,5, be two sets. How many elements does
P (A B), the power set of A B, have ?
(A) 4096 (B) 2048
(C) 1024 (D) 512
55. The relation R in the set of natural numbers N is defined by :
x R y , , , , , x
2
4xy + 3y
2
= 0, where x, y - - - - - N
Then R is :
(A) Reflexive but not Symmetric and not Transitive
(B) Symmetric but not Reflexive and not Transitive
(C) Transitive but not Reflexive and not Symmetric
(D) An Equivalence Relation
56. If f : . .. .. / . / . / . / . / . is defined by f (x) =
5
x
for x - - - - - . .. .., where [y] denotes greatest integer not
exceeding y, then * + 71 | x | : f(x) 0 =
(A) {14, 13, . . . . . ., 0, . . . . . ., 13, 14} (B) {14, 13, . . . . . ., 0, . . . . . ., 14, 15}
(C) {15, 14, . . . . . ., 0, . . . . . ., 14, 15} (D) {15, 14, . . . . . ., 0, . . . . . ., 13, 14}
57. If
(n1)
C
3
+
(n1)
C
4
>
n
C
3
, then the minimum value of n is :
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
58. In how many ways can 3 boys and 3 girls sit in a row if all the boys sit together, and all the
girls sit together ?
(A) 18 (B) 36
(C) 72 (D) 90
59. If a > 0 and b
2
4ac = 0, then the curve y = ax
2
+ bx + c
(A) Cuts the x-axis (B) Touches the x-axis and lies below it
(C) Lies entirely above the x-axis (D) Touches the x-axis and lies above it
60. If
% &
% &
2009
2011
1
1
then , 1
i
i
i
!
" =
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2
61.
x
b a
x x
0 x
1
/
Lim
is equal to :
(A)

a
b
log
(B)

b
a
log
(C) ) log(a (D) ) log(b
62. If y = 2
2x
, then
dx
dy
is equal to :
(A) y(log
10
2)
2
(B) y(log
e
2)
2
(C) y(log
e
2
2
) (D) y(log
e
2)
63. The perimeter of the triangle with vertices at (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1) is :
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C)
2 2
(D)
2 3
64. The point collinear with (1, 2, 3) and (2, 0, 0) among the following is :
(A) (0, 4, 6) (B) (0, 4, 5)
(C) (0, 4, 6) (D) (0, 4, 6)
65. If (1+x)
15
= a
0
+ a
1
x + ............... +
"
"
15
1 1
15
15
then ,
p P
P
a
a
P x a
(A) 110 (B) 115
(C) 120 (D) 135
66. If 2 22 22
1
,2 22 22
2
, 2 22 22
3
, respectively denote the modulus of the complex numbers
) (1
3
1
, i i !
and
1 + i, where i =
1
, then their increasing order is :
(A) 2
1
,2
2
, 2
3
(B) 2
3
,2
2
, 2
1
(C) 2
3
,2
1
, 2
2
(D) 2
2
,2
1
, 2
3
67. The solution of the inequality x
3
+ x
2
< 2x is given by :
(A) (3, 3) ' (0, 1) (B) (3, 2) ' (1, 2)
(C) (3, 2) ' (0, 2) (D) (3, 2) ' (0, 1)
68. Let f(x) =
1
2
3
!
x
. Find f
1
(x).
(A)
1
2
x
(B)
3
1
2
x
(C)
3
2
2
x
(D)
3
1
1
x
69. The x-intercept, y-intercept, Domain, and Range of the function x 5 f(x) 1 " are given
by :
(A) x-intercept = (0, 5); y -intercept = % &; 0 5, Domain = (3, 3); Range = [0, 3)
(B) x-intercept = (0, 5); y -intercept =
% &; 5 0,
Domain = (5, 3); Range = [0, 3)
(C) x-intercept = (5, 0); y -intercept = % &; 0 , 5 Domain = (3, 5]; Range = [5, 3)
(D) x-intercept = (5, 0); y -intercept = % &; , 5 , 0 Domain = (3, 4]; Range = [0, 3)
70. Which of the following is FALSE ?
(A) The function f(x) = x
2
1, for x 5 0, is one-to-one
(B)
0 for 2 1 x 2 6 " x
dx
d
(C) If f(x) = g(x
3
) and g'(x) =
4 2
3
(x) then
1
x
f'
x
"
(D) sin
1
2
1
is most simply written as

6
$
71. Let
"
"
k
B and A
3
9 1

1 1
3 2

. The value of k that will make AB =BA is given by :
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2
72. If A =
1 2
3 1
then the determinant of A
2
2A is :
(A) 5 (B) 25
(C) 5 (D) 25
73. In a series of 2n observations, half of these equal p and remaining equal p. If the standard
deviation of these 2n observations is 2, then |p| equals :
(A)
n
1
(B)
2
(C) 2 (D)
n
2
74. If the vectors
k j i k j i

8 2 and 3 ! ! !
are perpendicular then 7 is :
(A) 14 (B) 7
(C) 14 (D) 1/7
75. If the function f(x) =
"
8
0 x , k
0 x ) x (cos
x
1
is continuous at x = 0, then the value of k is :
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) e
ROUGH WORK
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/BZL-48991-A [16] 492
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Com.(Business Innovation)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Com. (Business Innovation )/BZL-49131-A 2
M.Com. (Business Innovation )/BZL-49131-A 3 [Turn over
M.Com. (Business Innovation)/A
1. Name the Swiss pharma giant whose plea for a patent on cancer drug Glivec was rejected
by Supreme court :
(A) Pfizer (B) Ranbaxy
(C) Novartis (D) Roche
2. Which industry has recently been decontrolled by the government ?
(A) Salt (B) Sugar
(C) Cotton (D) Wheat
3. The Supreme court recently decided to shift some of the Asiatic lions from their only
abode famous Gir sanctuary of Gujarat to which other sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh :
(A) Kuno (B) Sariska
(C) Manas (D) Buxa
4. Who is the present Director General of WTO ?
(A) Pascal Lamy (B) Peter Sutherland
(C) Mike Moore (D) Renato Ruggiero
5. The winners of nobel prize 2012 in Economics are :
(A) Thomas J.Sargent and Christopher A. Sims (B) Oliver Williamson and Peter A. Diamond
(C) Paul Krugman and Elinor Ostrom (D) Alvin E. Roth and Lloyd S.Sharpley
6. BRICS nations includes :
(A) Brazil, Russia, India, Cyprus, Srilanka (B) Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa
(C) Bulgaria, Romania, India, China, Srilanka (D) Bulgaria, Romania, India, Cyprus, Srilanka
7. Name the Chairman of 14
th
Finance Commission :
(A) Dr. Y.V. Reddy (B) Vijay Kelkar
(C) C. Rangarajan (D) N.K.P. Salve
8. Annual meeting of World Economic Forum was held at the Davos. It is in which
country ?
(A) Sweden (B) USA
(C) France (D) Switzerland
9. Name of the world's largest home furniture and accessories retailer firm of Sweden whose
FDI proposal for Rs. 10,500 crore has been approved by FIPB :
(A) Jordan's furniture (B) IKEA
(C) Strarmark (D) Sedus
10. Vedanta Alumina Ltd., a FDI project of International mining giant Vedanta Resources
has decided to shut down its one million tonne per annum alumina refinery at which
place ?
(A) Lanjigarh (B) Jharsuguda
(C) Dibrugarh (D) Jharkhand
11. Name the corporate head who has taken over as chairman of Tata group of Companies :
(A) Ratan Tata (B) Cyrus P. Mistry
(C) JRD Tata (D) Chanda Kochher
12. Name the govt. scheme which aims at creation of "slum free India" :
(A) Indira Gandhi Awas Yojna (B) Mahatama Gandhi Awas Yojna
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Awas Yojna (D) Punarniwas Yojna
13. Name the footballer who has been declared as "world soccer player of the year" for
2012 :
(A) Lionel Messi (B) David Beckham
(C) Paul Robinson (D) Maradona
14. The McMohan Line from the border between which two countries ?
(A) India and Pakistan (B) India and Afganistan
(C) India and China (D) India and Nepal
15. In a global survey of impact of climate change on various cities, which city has been
placed at number one facing highest climate change risk ?
(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(C) Dhaka (D) Lahore
16. Which European country recently suffered almost bankruptcy of its banks due to extreme
liquidity crunch ?
(A) Greece (B) Cyprus
(C) Ireland (D) Finland
17. Who has been appointed as new chairman of Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority ?
(A) T.S. Vijayan (B) Rangarajan
(C) Raghuram Rajan (D) B.N. Srikrishna
18. What is the approximate share of services in the Indian economy ?
(A) 70% (B) 59%
(C) 40% (D) 30%
19. The term GAAR is :
(A) General Auto Avoidance Rules (B) General Auto Avoidance Regulations
(C) General Anti Avoidance Rules (D) General Auto Avoidance Restrictions
20. Which company shot into limelight as a result of a demand of Rs. 11,200 crore from
Income tax department, despite a Supreme court ruling against the same ?
(A) Ranbaxy (B) Tata steel
(C) Vedanta (D) Vodafone
21. Who is the chairman of SBI ?
(A) Mohan Parsaran (B) C. Rangarajan
(C) R.S. Gujral (D) Pratip Chaudhary
22. Who developed the theory Z of management ?
(A) Douglas Mcgregor (B) William G. Ouchi
(C) Chester Barnard (D) Rensis Likert
23. 'Grapevine' in an organization means :
(A) A prolonged meeting (B) Garden of a company
(C) An angry manager (D) Informal gossip
24. Unity of command is practiced in :
(A) Functional organization (B) Staff organization
(C) Project organization (D) Line organization
25. Prepaid rent a/c is :
(A) Nominal a/c (B) Representative personal a/c
(C) Real a/c (D) Expense a/c
26. What does 'blue chip' denotes ?
(A) Shares consistently yielding high returns (B) Shares likely to yield meager returns
(C) Shares listed in the stock exchange (D) Shares guaranteed by the government
27. The speculation activity that seeks a profit from price variations of Securities in the
different market is :
(A) Margin trading (B) Options dealings
(C) Arbitrage (D) Market rigging
28. The document acknowledging the receipt of goods on board a ship is :
(A) Documentary bill (B) Shipping order
(C) Shipping bill (D) Bill of lading
29. This principle states that after the insurer has met the claims of the insured, he steps into
the insured's shoes so far as rights in the subject-matter insured are concerned :
(A) Causa promixa (B) Indemnity
(C) Subrogation (D) Contribution
30. In Garner Vs. Murray, the deficiency of the insolvent partner is borne by the other
partners in :
(A) Profit sharing ratio (B) Ratio of their capitals
(C) Equal ratio (D) As prescribed
31. Which one of the following is not element of marketing mix ?
(A) Promotion (B) Place
(C) Product (D) Plan
32. Which one of the following is a profitability ratio ?
(A) Current ratio (B) Quick ratio
(C) Absolute ratio (D) Return on Investment
33. Theory X and Theory Y was given by :
(A) Taylor (B) Fayol
(C) Herzberg (D) Mcgregor
34. Which bank was known as Imperial Bank of India before its nationalization ?
(A) RBI (B) SBI
(C) PNB (D) Canara Bank
35. Name the Governor of RBI :
(A) C. Rangarajan (B) Bimal Jalan
(C) D Subbarao (D) R. N. Malhotra
36. If the S.P. of Rs. 24 results in a 20% discount on list price, then what S.P. would result in
a 30% discount on list price ?
(A) Rs. 21 (B) Rs. 24
(C) Rs. 18 (D) Rs. 15
37. In a class, 65% of the students are boys. On a particular day 80% of girl students were
present. What was the fraction of boys who were present that day if the total number of
students present that day was 70% ?
(A) 2/3 (B) 28/65
(C) 5/6 (D) 42/65
38. A man's income is Rs. 1,20,000 per annum. His income tax is charged at 15% and his
employer deducts 5% of his gross income for the provident fund. Then his net monthly
income will be :
(A) Rs. 8075 (B) Rs. 8000
(C) Rs. 9500 (D) Rs. 9000
39. The population of a country doubled every 10 years from 1960 to 1990. What was the
percent increase in population during this time ?
(A) 400% (B) 700%
(C) 600% (D) 800%
40. A sum of Rs. 3800 is lent out in two parts in such a way that the interest on one part at
8% for 5 years is equal to that on another part is % for 15 years. Find the sum lent out
at 8% :
(A) Rs. 800 (B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 1300
41. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum of money for
3 years at 5% is Rs. 133
16
7
. The sum is :
(A) Rs. 16000 (B) Rs. 17500
(C) Rs. 17000 (D) Rs. 18000
42. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college of 441 students is 5:4. How many
girls should join the college so that the ratio becomes 1:1 ?
(A) 50 (B) 49
(C) 320 (D) 94
43. A sum of money is divided so that the sum of the shares of A and B, B and C and C and A
are respectively Rs. 12, Rs. 14 and Rs. 16. What is B's share (in Rs.) ?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 21
44. Ram and Sham working together can finish a work in 12 days. If Ram alone can do the
same in 20 days, then in how many days, Sham alone can complete the work ?
(C) 25 days (D) 35 days
45. In a large group of 20 adults, there are 8 males and 9 vegetarians. Find the number of
female non-vegetarians if the group contains 5 male vegetarians.
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 8
46. A sum of Rs. 53 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that A gets Rs. 7 more than B and
B gets Rs. 8 more than C. The ratio of their shares is :
(A) 10:18:25 (B) 18:25:10
(C) 25:18:10 (D) 15:18:20
47. The length, breadth and height of a rectangular box are 3m, 2m and 1m respectively.
How many cubic meters of sand will be needed to fill the box with the depth of 80cm ?
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 48 (D) 4.8
48. The number of bricks, each measuring 25cm 12.5cm 7.5cm, needed to construct a
wall 12m long, 2m high and 46.2cm thick, is :
(A) 4731 (B) 2304
(C) 9216 (D) 6912
49. The ratio of two numbers is 3:8 and their difference is 115. Then the smaller of the two
number is :
(A) 184 (B) 194
(C) 69 (D) 59
50. For how many years, should Rs. 600 be invested at 10% per annum, in order to earn the
same simple interest as is earned by investing Rs. 800 at 12% per annum for 5 years ?
51. Nine added to the thrice a whole number gives 45. Find the number :
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 12
52. The simple interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 8% per annum is Rs. 96 more than
the simple interest on the same sum for 2 years at 9% per annum. Find the sum :
(A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1500
(C) Rs. 1550 (D) Rs. 1575
53. Find the area of triangle in which base = 25cm and altitude = 14cm :
(A) 200 cm
2
(B) 150 cm
2
(C) 175 cm
2
(D) 250 cm
2
54. Find the circumference of a circle of radius 10.5 cm :
(A) 66 cm (B) 55 cm
(C) 60 cm (D) 50 cm
55. x (x3) + 2 for x = 1 :
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0
56. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written
in the same code ?
(A) EOJDJEFM (B) EOJDEJFM
(C) MFEJDJOE (D) MFEDJJOE
57. If FULFNHW is coded for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code for which word ?
(A) PRIDE (B) BRIDE
(C) BLADE (D) BLIND
58. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called sky, sky is called Wall, on which
of the following grows a fruit ?
(A) Water (B) Food
(C) Sky (D) Tree
Choose the one which is different (Q. 59 & 60) :
59. (A) 134 (B) 314
(C) 612 (D) 813
60. (A) 382 (B) 326
(C) 914 (D) 248
Find out the wrong term in the given series (Q. 61& 62) :
61. 3, 10, 27, 4, 16, 64, 5, 25, 125
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 10 (D) 27
62. 5, 27, 61, 122, 213, 340, 509
(A) 27 (B) 61
(C) 122 (D) 509
63. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
(A) SYJ (B) TXI
(C) SXJ (D) SXI
Which belong to same group (Q. 64 & 65) :
64. Potato : carrot : raddish
(A) Tomato (B) Spinach
(C) Sesame (D) Groundnut
65. Patna : Mumbai : Chandigarh
(A) Cochin (B) Trombay
(C) Udaipur (D) Chennai
Choose the pair in which the words are differently related (Q. 66 & 67) :
66. (A) Bottle : Wine (B) Cup : Tea
(C) Pitcher : Water (D) Ball : Bat
67. (A) Broad : Wide (B) Light : Heavy
(C) Tiny : Small (D) Big : large
68. A starts and walks towards south. He then turns to his right and walks 3 km and then
turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the staring point ?
(A) West (B) South
(C) North (D) East
69. A family has a man, his wife, their 4 sons and their wives. The family of every son also
has 3 sons and one daughter. Find out the total number of male members.
(A) 1 (B) 12
(C) 4 (D) 17
70. A and B are sisters. R and S are brothers. A's daughter is R's sister. What is B's relation
to S ?
(A) Mother (B) Grandmother
(C) Aunt (D) Sister
71. Five boys A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a ladder. E is above A, C is below B, B is below
A, and D is above C. Who is at the bottom ?
(A) A (B) C
(C) E (D) B
72. Five boys are sitting in a row. A is to the right of B. E is to the left of B but to the right of
C. If A is to the left of D, who is in the middle ?
(A) E (B) B
(C) A (D) C
73. Moon: Satellite:: Earth :
(A) Sun (B) Galaxy
(C) Planet (D) Asteroid
74. Flower: Bud:: Plant : ?
(A) Seed (B) Fruit
(C) Flower (D) Stem
75. Find the odd man out :
(A) Dull (B) Gloomy
(C) Omnipresent (D) Boring
ROUGH WORK
M.Com. (Business Innovation )/BZL-49131-A 12 196
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Roll No. In Figures In Words
Subject : M.Com. (Honours)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
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Sr. No. :
M.Com. (Honours)/BZL-48976/A 2
1. Which one of the following defines Co-ordination ?
(A) Actuating force which inspires a person to put his best for the fulfillment of a task
(B) Orderly arrangement of group effort to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose
(C) Process of transmitting information from one person to another or from one unit to another
(D) Process of determining what is to be accomplished and what has been accomplished and if necessary
applying corrective measures
2. Consider the following basic steps involved in the process of control :
1. Identifying the strategic control points
2. Establishing the standards
3. Measuring performance against standards
4. Correcting deviations from the standards
The correct sequence of the above steps in the process of control is :
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4
3. Which of the following Accounting Standards relates to accounting for fixed assets ?
(A) AS 3 (B) AS 10
(C) AS 14 (D) AS 16
4. Which of the following is a technology chip that can be implanted in the human body to perform
various physiological functions ?
(A) Biochip (B) Implant chip
(C) Facial recognition software (D) Vision chip
(A) Accounting and Book-keeping are synonymous
(B) Book-keeping and Accounting are complementary to each other
(C) Accounting starts from where Book-keeping ends
(D) Both (B) and (C)
M.Com. (Honours)/BZL-48976/A 3 [Turn over
M.Com. (Honours)/A
6. The Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) aim at :
(A) Uniformity in accounting practices
(B) Uniform accounting practices in all enterprises
(C) Acceptance of globalisation, liberalisation and privatisation in the field of accounting
7. Revenue is realized :
(A) when sales order is received
(B) when goods are sold
(C) when cash is received
(D) when goods are received by the purchaser
8. Which are you using if you visit a specific Web site and request information, services, or products ?
(A) Push technology (B) Pull technology
(C) Biometrics (D) Virtual reality
9. Which type of technology are you experiencing if you receive a personalized pizza message on your
television ?
(A) Push technology (B) Pull technology
(C) Biometrics (D) Virtual reality
10. The cost of erection of an old machine will be posted in the credit side of :
(A) Cash Account (B) Machinery Account
(C) Repairs and Renewal Account (D) None of the above
11. Effective direction does not depend on the :
(A) communication process (B) forces at the subordinate level
(C) ability of the manager (D) deployment of human resources
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Management Thinkers) (Contribution/Work)
a. Elton Mayo 1. Importance of integrating the companys and Employees goal
b. Frederick W. Taylor 2. Social problems of Industrial civilization
c. Henri Fayol 3. General and industrial management
d. Mary Parker Follet 4. Principles of Scientific Management
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
13. An organization structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives of the
enterprise. This is known as :
(A) Scalar principle (B) Principle of functional definition
(C) Principle of unity of objectives (D) None of the above
14. Consider the following four steps of purchasing office supplies :
1. Obtain quotation from vendors
2. Fill out quotation forms indicating requirements
3. Send forms to prospective vendors
4. Catalogue respective quotations
The correct sequence of the above steps is :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4
15. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India was established in the year :
(A) 1947 (B) 1949
(C) 1951 (D) 1956
16. A Public Limited Company may in the general meeting, resolve to capitalize any part of the amount
standing to the credit of any of its reserve accounts, upon the recommendation of the :
(A) Managing Director (B) Board of Directors
(C) Financial Advisers (D) Shareholders
17. Despite the advantages of technology, which of the following is sacrificed in exchange for
convenience ?
(A) Money (B) Privacy
(C) Technology (D) Paper
18. Which of the following can be used to help identify people in a crowd ?
(A) Biochip (B) Implant chip
(C) Facial recognition software (D) Vision chip
19. According to the Companies Act, 1956, a private company must have at least :
(A) seven directors (B) three directors
(C) two directors (D) one director
20. An enterprise incorporated by a Special Act of Parliament or the State Legislature intending to
carry on some business of national importance is called :
(A) public company (B) statutory corporation
(C) registered company (D) registered statutory company
List-I List-II
(Company Issue) (Company Document)
a. Affirmation of compliance with the 1. Certificate of incorporation
registration formalities
b. Classes of shares into which share 2. Statutory declaration
capital is divided
c. Rules of forfeiture of shares 3. Memorandum of Association
d. Name and address of company auditor 4. Articles of Association
5. Prospectus
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 4 3 5
(B) 5 4 3 1
(C) 2 3 4 5
(D) 4 1 5 2
22. A special resolution for the alteration of the objects clause of the Memorandum of Association of a
company having been passed, the alteration is to be confirmed by the :
(A) Court concerned (B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board (D) Creditors of the Company
23. The last page of the record of proceedings of each meeting in minutes book shall be dated and
signed by the Chairman of the same meeting within a period of 30 days of the conclusion of the
meeting or in the event of death or inability of the Chairman within that period by :
(A) the managing Director
(B) a Director
(C) a Director duly authorized by the Board for that purpose
(D) The secretary
24. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Minutes are not required to be read at a sub general meeting.
2. Confirmation of Minutes is not an item of agenda in general meeting.
3. The chairman may disallow any matter which in his opinion is detrimental to the interests of
the company from being included in the minutes.
4. Members cannot obtain copies of minutes though they can inspect them during business hours.
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
25. The agenda of the first Board Meeting of a limited company generally consists of the following
items :
1. Election of chairman
2. Approval of draft prospectus
3. Appointment of officers, viz., The secretary, the manager and the accountant
4. Incorporation of the company and the legal advisor to report on the same
The correct order in which the above items of the agenda usually appear is :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
26. According to Sec. 2 (45) of the Companies Act (as amended in 1974), a Company Secretary must
possess the qualifications prescribed from time to time by the :
(A) Company Law Board (B) Central Government
(C) Registrar of Companies (D) Parliament
27. The Company Secretary files copies of resolutions passed in an Extraordinary General Meeting
with the Registrar of Companies under section :
(A) 173 (B) 192
(C) 193 (D) 208
28. The first annual general meeting of company must be held within :
(A) one month from the date of its incorporation
(B) six months from the date of its incorporation
(C) 12 months from the date of its incorporation
(D) 18 months from the date of its incorporation
29. Which one of the following statements relating to a company secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is not likely to perform duties towards shareholders
(B) He is the mouthpiece of the Board of directors
(C) He may be considered to be the head of the administrative section of a company
(D) He is to arrange for Board meetings
30. Physical verification of fixed assets is the primary responsibility of the :
(A) auditor (B) management
(C) government (D) shareholders
31. Auditing Standards differ from auditing procedures in that the procedures relate to :
(A) measures of performance (B) audit principles
(C) acts to be performed (D) audit judgements
32. What is the correct sequence of the following assignments ?
1. Internal control
2. Test check
3. Internal check
4. Statutory audit
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1
33. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial functions ?
(A) Organizing, planning, directing, staffing, coordination and control
(B) Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordination and control
(C) Planning, directing, organizing, staffing, control and coordination
(D) Organizing, planning, staffing, directing, control and coordination
34. Which one of the following pairs is Not correctly matched ?
(A) Value of any security : The real value of any security is determined by the prior rights to the return of
income.
(B) Debenture : It possesses maximum safety and normally offers regular and fixed income.
(C) Preference share : It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and fixed income by way of dividend.
(D) Equity share : It invites speculative tendency among the investors. There is risk of loss in such a share.
35. Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate Cross Relationship under span of
control ?
(A) n{n 1} (B) n{2n 1}/n
(C) n{2n + n 1}/n (D) None of the above
36. V.A. Graiounasi has identified three sets of superior subordinate relationship, which are Direct
single relationship, Direct Group relationship and Cross relationship. Now if there are two, three,
four and five subordinates respectively under one superior then in this context which one of the
following pairs is correctly matched ?
Number of the subordinates Total Number of relationship
(A) 2 8
(B) 3 18
(C) 4 48
(D) 5 98
37. The main difference between delegation and decentralization is that :
(A) delegation refers primarily to transfer of authority from one individual to another while decentralization
refers to systematic delegation of authority to all units in an organization
(B) delegation of authority can take place without decentralization whereas there cannot be decentralization
without delegation of authority
(C) delegation represents sharing of excessive burden of key managerial personnel while decentralization
refers to division of top managerial operations
(D) delegation may take place due to administrative, technical and routine reasons while decentralization
involves deliberate action for the smooth functioning of the organization
38. Management by exception introduces :
(A) selective, responsibility oriented reporting
(B) reporting of significant variances
(C) requirements of full reports on performance
(D) computation of actuals in different spheres of performance
39. Statutory auditor of a company in the case of a casual vacancy may be appointed by the :
(A) Board of Directors (B) Managing Director
(C) Extraordinary General meeting (D) Government concerned
40. Which of the following are included in the Statutory Books for the purpose of company audit ?
1. Register of charges
2. Minutes Books for the Board meetings
3. Articles of Association
4. Minutes Book for the shareholders meeting
5. Register of members
6. Memorandum of Association
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(C) 1, 3, 5 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 5 and 6
List-I List-II
(a) Duties of auditors (1) Access to Books of company
(b) Rights of auditors (2) Penalty for non-compliance with sections 227 to 229
(c) Liabilities of auditors (3) Company in general meeting
(d) Removal of auditors (4) To make a report
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
42. Consider the following functions of a stock exchange :
1. Providing a ready market for securities
2. Helping capital formation
3. Regulating the capital structure of a company
4. Regulating the public deposits with companies
Of the above functions :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct (D) None is correct
43. Consider the following statements :
A statutory auditor of a public limited company claims that he has the following legal rights in
relation to his duties :
1. Right to refuse to make a report
2. Right of access to books of accounts and registers
3. Right to seek explanation from directors and officers
4. Right to make statement in the general meeting
Of the above statements :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
List-I List-II
a. Minimum issued capital for being 1. One crore
listed on a stock exchange
b. Exemption from the consent of controller 2. Three crores
of capital issues for issue of shares
c. Amount payable on shares to be called 3. Issued capital of less than Rs. 3 crores
only in installments and not in one
stroke
d. Listing in OTC exchange 4. Issued capital of Rs. 50 crores and above
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
45. Bill of lading is issued by :
(A) Indian commercial banks (B) Foreign banks
(C) Shipping company (D) Exporters
46. In stock exchange operations, when the speculator buys the right to sell a certain number of shares
on an agreed amount at a specified time it is known as :
(A) No option (B) Put option
(C) Call option (D) Double option
47. Modernization of industries can be achieved by :
(A) ensuring proper enforcement of the provisions of BIFR Act
(B) permitting PSUs to disinvest
(C) strictly implementing the provisions of industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(D) creating consciousness among the industrialists about the need for modernization
48. Complete consolidation as a class of business combination may include :
(A) Mergers and Amalgamations (B) Pools and Cartels
(C) Trusts and holding companies (D) Trade associations and chambers of commerce
49. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied in a claim for loss by fire ?
1. There must be actual fire.
2. Fire must be accidental.
3. Cause of fire must be ascertainable.
4. The goods must have been destroyed, not damaged by fire.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
50. A mixed marine policy means :
(A) combination of fire and marine losses coverage
(B) combination of voyage and time policies
(C) combination of all types of risk on the sea
(D) combination of export credit insurance and marine insurance
51. Every person has insurable interest in his own life upto :
(A) a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000
(B) twenty times his net salary drawn
(C) an unlimited extent provided the premium payable does not exceed 20% of his sales salary
(D) an unlimited extent
52. Plate-Glass is typical type of accident insurance and it is mainly applicable to :
(A) personal accident (B) motor cars
(C) retail trade (D) house burglary
The Exim Bank plays an active role in boosting exports in :
1. civil construction contract abroad
2. providing long term-finance for export of capital goods
3. providing short-term finance for import of capital goods
4. providing short-term finance for export of quality goods
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 3 and 4 are correct
54. A building worth five lakhs of rupees is insured for one lakh rupees. There is an average clause in
the policy. A portion of the building valued one lakh of rupees is destroyed by fire. The owner can
claim and recover :
(A) One lakh rupees
(B) Twenty thousand rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
(C) Five lakh rupees
(D) One lakh rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
55. Outstanding Wages is a :
(A) Nominal Account (B) Real Account
(C) Personal Account (D) Current Account
56. Adjustment Entry for rent received in advance would be :
(A) Cash A/c Dr.
(B) Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
(C) Rent A/c Dr.
(D) Advance Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
57. Accounting treatment of a Capital Expenditure as a Revenue Expenditure creates :
(A) General Reserve (B) Revenue Reserve
(C) Capital Reserve (D) Secret Reserve
58. Partnership comes into existence through :
(A) Introduction (B) Promotion
(C) Contract (D) Situation
59. Partnership Deed is always :
(A) Written (B) Oral
(C) Written or Oral (D) Written and Oral
60. At the time of admission of a new partner the capital brought by him is shared among Existing
partners :
(A) equally (B) on the basis of capital of the older partners
(C) on the basis of sacrifice done (D) untrue statement
61. Because of Retirement/Death of a partner :
(A) Partnership is dissolved
(B) Partnership firm is dissolved
(C) Partnership and partnership firm both are dissolved
62. After re-issue of forfeited shares, the balance of forfeited share account is transferred to :
(A) General Reserve (B) Profit & Loss A/c
(C) Capital Reserve (D) None of these
63. Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion ?
(A) Standard Deviation (B) Variance
(C) Coefficient of Variation (D) None of the above
64. Which of the following is not a current asset ?
(A) Land and Building (B) Debtors
(C) Stock (D) Cash at Bank
65. The object of cost accounting is :
(A) Ascertainment of Cost (B) Valuation of Stock
(C) Cost Control (D) All of these
66. Direct costs are those which vary directly with :
(A) Sales (B) Profit
(C) Production (D) Time
67. Transmission of shares takes place in the following case :
(A) Sale of shares (B) Theft of shares
(C) Operation of any law (D) All of these
68. The audit of a Joint Stock Public Company is done :
(A) compulsorily (B) voluntarily
(C) at the direction of Government (D) on demand of shareholders
69. The audit aims at :
(A) Examination of correctness of books of accounts
(B) Examination of truthfulness of books of accounts
(C) Examination of the authenticity of books of account
70. The status of the auditor in a company is that of :
(A) an employee (B) a trustee
(C) an independent professional (D) all of these
71. To submit the audit report is :
(A) Right of Auditor (B) Liability of Auditor
(C) Duty of Auditor (D) All of these
72. F.W. Taylor is known as the father of :
(A) Scientific Management (B) Management by Objectives
(C) Human Relation based Management (D) Management by Motivation
73. The person who propounded Theory X and Theory Y in Management, is :
(A) Abraham Maslow (B) Henry Fayol
(C) Elton Mayo (D) Douglas McGregor
74. Which of the following is a non-verbal communication ?
(A) Body language (B) Letter
(C) Speech (D) Poem
75. A share certificate is required to be signed by :
(A) Company Secretary (B) Two Directors
(C) Two Directors and Company Secretary (D) All Directors and Company Secretary
76. Mutual Funds Performance can be measured with the help of :
(A) Sharpes Index (B) Treynors Index
(C) Jensons Index (D) All of them
77. The books of accounts of a company should be preserved for :
(A) 3 Years (B) 5 Years
(C) 8 Years (D) 10 Years
78. If opening stock is Rs. 40,000 and closing stock is Rs. 60,000; sales are Rs. 5,00,000 with gross profit
ratio of 25% on cost, stock turnover ratio would be :
(A) 10 times (B) 08 times
(C) 7.5 times (D) 12.5 times
79. Public Ltd. Company which do not have its own Article of Association, may adopt :
(A) Table A which contains a model set of Articles
(B) Table B which contains a model set of Articles
(C) Table C which contains a model set of Articles
(D) Table D which contains a model set of Articles
80. Company Auditor is removed by :
(A) General Body in a meeting (B) Managing Director
(C) Any Director (D) Board of Control
81. During the assessment year 2012-13, Income tax is assessed for the income earned during :
(A) From 1.4.2012 to 31.3.2013 (B) From 1.4.2011 to 31.3.2012
(C) From 1.1.2012 to 31.12.2012 (D) From 1.1.2011 to 31.12.2011
82. The present value of future cash inflows is Rs. 1,20,000 and cash outflow in initial year is
Rs. 1,00,000, and the life of the project is 5 years, then profitability index would be :
(A) 0.24 (B) 1.20
(C) 1.10 (D) 0.83
83. When life of the project is very long, then reciprocal of payback is approximately equal to :
(A) Cost of Capital (B) Internal Rate of Return
(C) Profitability Index (D) Average Rate of Return
84. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The preamble to the Industrial Development and Regulation Act, 1951 is to provide for the development
and regulation of certain industries.
(B) The Central Government has the power to add any new undertakings to the first schedule
(C) Regulation of industries specified in the first schedule to the Act is sought to be achieved by means
of :
(i) regulation of existing industrial undertakings,
(ii) licensing of new industrial undertakings and
(iii) licensing for producing new articles
(D) The new industrial policy was announced by the government on July 24, 1991
The EXIM Bank plays an active role in boosting exports in :
1. civil construction contract abroad
2. providing long term finance for export of capital goods
3. providing short term finance for import of capital goods
4. providing short term finance for export of quality goods
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 3 and 4 are correct
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ROUGH WORK
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and Answer Sheet.
Paper : I Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.E.(Instrumentation and Control)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)/BZL/49002-A 2
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M.E.(Instrumentation and Control)/A
1. A silicon diode measures a low value of resistance with the meter leads in both positions.
The trouble, if any, is :
(A) The diode is open (B) The diode is shorted to ground
(C) The diode is internally shorted (D) The diode is working correctly
2. Which of the following has the greatest mobility ?
(A) Positive ion (B) Negative ion
(C) Electron (D) Hole
3. Consider the given circuit :
In this circuit, the race around :
(A) Does not occur (B) Occurs when CLK = 0
(C) Occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1 (D) Occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0
4. The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2-bit input A is greater than the
2-bit input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1, is :
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
5. A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other
one at the first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one
of the switches irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the
bulb resembles :
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate
(C) an XOR gate (D) A NAND gate
6. In a forward biased PN junction diode, the sequence of events that best describes the
mechanism of current flow is :
(A) Injection, and subsequent diffusion and recombination of minority carriers
(B) Injection, and subsequent drift and generation of minority carriers
(C) Extraction, and subsequent diffusion and generation of minority carriers
(D) Extraction, and subsequent drift and recombination of minority carriers
7. In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (V
out
) if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used ?
(A) 15V (B) 0.7 V
(C) +0.7 (D) +15 V
8. For 8085 microprocessor, the following program is executed :
MVI A, 05H;
MVI B, 05H;
PTR : ADD B;
DCR B;
JNZ PTR;
ADI 03H;
HLT;
At the end of program, accumulator contains :
(A) 17H (B) 20H
(C) 23H (D) 05H
9. In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the chennel length modulation effect
causes :
(A) An increase in the gate-source capacitance
(B) A decrease in the transconductance
(C) A decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency
(D) A decrease in the output resistance
10. The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right-most bit first) into a 4-bit parallel out
shift register that is initially clear. What are the Q outputs after two clock pulses ?
(A) 0000 (B) 0010
(C) 1000 (D) 1111
11. In a 6-bit Johnson counter sequence there are a total of how many states, or bit patterns ?
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 24
12. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when :
(A) The sum is more than 16 bit
(B) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation
(C) Carry and Sign flag are set
(D) Zero flag is set
13. In 8086 the following has the highest priority among all the interrupts :
(A) NMI (B) DIV 0
(C) TYPE 255 (D) OVERFLOW
14. In 8085 are of the following statements is not true :
(A) Co processor is interfaced in max mode
(B) Co processor is interfaced in min mode
(C) Co processor is interfaced in max/min mode
(D) Supports pipelining
15. 8088 differs 8086 in :
(A) Data width on the output (B) Supports of Coprocessor
(C) Address capability (D) Supports of max/min mode
16. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is :
(A) Faster
(B) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O
(C) Require a bigger address decoder
17. In 8255, under the I/O mode of operation, we have _______ modes.
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 1
18. The internal RAM memory of the 8051 is :
(A) 32 bytes (B) 64 bytes
(C) 128 bytes (D) 256 bytes
19. In 8051, MOV A, @ R1 will copy :
(A) R1 to the accumulator
(B) The accumulator to R1
(C) The contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the accumulator
(D) The accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in R1
20. The 8051 has _________ 16-bit counter/timers.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
21. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20A thyristor is :
(A) 5.0 (B) 2.0
(C) 1.0 (D) 0.5
22. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases :
(A) The mobility decreases (B) The transconductance increases
(C) The drain current increases (D) None of the above
23. The ripple frequency from a full wave rectifier is :
(A) Twice that from a half wave circuit
(B) The same as that from a half wave circuit
(C) Half that from a half wave circuit
(D) 1/4 that from a half wave circuit
24. The best rectifier circuit for the power supply designed to provide high power at low
voltage is :
(A) Half wave arrangement (B) Full wave, center tap arrangement
(C) Quarter wave arrangement (D) Voltage doubler arrangement
25. Which of the following statements are true about VI characteristic of SCR ?
I. Holding current is more than Latching current
II. SCR will trigger if the applied voltage exceeds forward break over voltage
III. SCR can be triggered without gate current
IV. When the SCR is in reverse biased, small leakage current will flow
Options :
(A) I, II and III (B) All are true
(C) II, III, IV (D) III, IV
26. Which of the following statements are true about BJT ?
(i) It has more power handling capability than MOSFET
(ii) Has higher switching speed than IGBT and MOSFET
(iii) Has low on state conduction resistance
(iv) Has second breakdown voltage problem
Options :
(A) All are true (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
27. N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because :
(A) They have higher input impedance
(B) They have high switching time
(C) They consume less power
(D) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
28. The MOSFET has :
(i) Higher Power handling capability than BJT
(ii) Faster switching speed than BJT
(iii) High on state resistance
(iv) Secondary breakdown voltage problem
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?
Options :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii)
(C) All of the above (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
29. Which of the following is called as uncontrolled semiconductor device ?
(A) Diode (B) Thyristor
(C) GTO (D) MOSFET
30. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off.
The motor will :
(A) Come to stop
(B) Continue to run at synchronous speed
(C) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed
(D) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed
31. The emf induced in the primary of a transformer :
(A) Is in phase with the flux (B) Lags behind the flux by 90 degree
(C) Leads the flux by 90 degree (D) Is in phase opposition to that of flux
32. The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load
speed is about :
(A) 50 Hz (B) 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz (D) Zero
33. The two windings of a transformer is :
(A) Conductively linked (B) Inductively linked
(C) Not linked at all (D) Electrically linked
34. The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because :
(A) At no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed
(B) It will fail to start
(C) It will not develop high starting torque
(D) All are true
35. Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency
is :
(A) Electric arc heating (B) Induction heating
(C) Electric resistance heating (D) Dielectric heating
36. In a stepper motor the angular displacement :
(A) Can be precisely controlled
(B) It cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller
(C) The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled
(D) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines
37. The generation voltage is usually :
(A) Between 11 KV and 33 KV (B) Between 132 KV and 400 KV
(C) Between 400 KV and 700 KV (D) None of the above
38. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
produces ?
(A) Damping torque (B) Eddy current torque
(C) Torque aiding the developed torque (D) No torque
39. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, its output
voltage will be :
(A) A square wave (B) A sine wave
(C) A triangular wave (D) A pulse wave
40. In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is :
(A) Stationary w.r.t. armature (B) Rotating w.r.t. field
(C) Stationary w.r.t. field (D) Rotating w.r.t. brushes
41. The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110V, 60 Hz
supply. The secondary output voltage will be :
(A) 3.6 V (B) 2.5 V
(C) 3.0 V (D) 6.0 V
42. The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit
through :
(A) Slip rings (B) Commutator segments
(C) Solid connections (D) Carbon brushes
43. A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors
is the :
(A) Squirrel cage induction motor (B) Wound rotor induction motor
(C) Synchronous motor (D) DC shunt motor
44. The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the :
(A) Operating voltage (B) Power factor
(C) Current to be carried (D) Type of insulation used
45. Which loss is not common between a transformer and rotating machines ?
(A) Eddy current loss (B) Copper loss
(C) Windage loss (D) Hysteresis loss
46. No load test on a transformer is carried out to find :
(A) Copper loss (B) Magnetising current
(C) Magnetising current and loss (D) Efficiency of the transformer
47. Sumpner's test is conducted on transformers to find :
(A) Temperature (B) Stray losses
(C) All-day efficiency (D) None of the above
48. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when :
(A) Copper losses = Hysteresis losses (B) Hysteresis losses = Eddy current losses
(C) Eddy current losses = Copper losses (D) Copper losses = Iron losses
49. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to :
(A) Provide support to windings
(B) Reduce hysteresis loss
(C) Decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(D) Reduce eddy current losses
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is :
(A) To protect against internal fault
(B) To reduce copper as well as core losses
(C) To cool the transformer oil
(D) To take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of temperature
of surroundings
51. Cross over windings are used in :
(A) Low voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
(B) Current transformers
(C) High voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
(D) High voltage side of low kVA rating transformers
52. During light loads, the transformer efficiency is low because :
(A) Secondary output is low (B) Transformer losses are high
(C) Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output (D) Cu loss is small
53. The open circuit test is carried out in a transformer to find the :
(A) Cu loss (B) Core loss
(C) Total loss (D) Insulation resistance
54. The equivalent resistance of the primary of the transformer having K = 5, R1 = 0.1 ohm
when referred to secondary becomes _______ ohm.
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.02
(C) 0.004 (D) 2.5
55. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is :
(A) Zero (B) Unity
(C) Leading (D) Legging
56. A transformer has 1000 primary turns, connected to 250 V ac supply. To get 400 V
secondary voltage the no. of secondary turns should be :
(A) 1600 (B) 250
(C) 400 (D) 1250
57. In operating a 400 Hz transformer at 50 Hz :
(A) Only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(B) Only KVA rating is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(C) Both voltage and KVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as frequency
58. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is :
(A) Zero (B) 1!
(C) 1000! (D) Infinite
59. A balanced RYB-sequence, Y-connected(Star Connected) source with V
RN
= 100 volts is
connected to a "-connected (Delta connected) balanced load of (8+j6) ohms per phase.
Then the phase current and line current values respectively, are :
(A) 10A; 30A (B) 10#3A; 30A
(C) 10A;10A (D) 10#3A; 10#3A
60. Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum
power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is :
(A) 0.8! (B) 1.4!
(C) 2! (D) 2.8!
61. The voltage gain A
V
of the circuit shown below is :
(A) |A
V
| $ 200 (B) |A
V
| $ 100
(C) |A
V
| $ 20 (D) |A
V
| $ 10
62. If V
A
V
B
= 6V, then V
C
V
D
is :
(A) 5V (B) 2V
(C) 3V (D) 6V
63. The circuit shown is a :
(A) Low pass filter with f
3db
= [1(R
1
+ R
2
)C] rad/s
(B) High pass filter with f
3db
= [1/(R
1
C)] rad/s
(C) Low pass filter with f
3db
= [1/(R
1
C)] rad/s
(D) High pass filter with f
3db
= [1/(R
1
+R
2
)C] rad/s
64. In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S operated at 100 kHz with a duty ratio or 50%.
Given that "i
c
. 1.6A peak-to-peak and I
o
is 5A dc, the peak current in S is :
(A) 6.6A (B) 5.0 A
(C) 5.8 A (D) 4.2A
65. The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are
i = {[V0.7/500]A, V > or = 0.7 V
0A, V< 0.7 V
The current in the circuit is :
(A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA
(C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA
66. In the following figure, C
1
and C
2
are ideal capacitors. C
1
has been charged to 12V before
the ideal switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is :
(A) Zero (B) A step function
(C) An exponentially decaying function (D) An impulse function
67. The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is :
(A) 50 ! (B) 100 !
(C) 5 K! (D) 10.1 K!
68. In the circuit given below, the current through the inductor is :
(A) (2/1+j)A (B) (1/1+j)A
(C) (1/1+j)A (D) 0A
69. What are gain and phase angle of a system having the transfer function of a system
having the transfer function G(s) = (s +1) at a frequency of 1 rad/sec ?
(A) 0.41 and 0
o
(B) 1.41 and 45
o
(C) 1.41 and 45
o
(D) 2.41 and 90
o
70. The characteristic equation of control system is given as :
s
4
+ 8s
3
+ 24s
2
+ 32s + K = 0
What is the value of K for which the system is unstable ?
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 60 (D) 100
71. The time constant of the system represented by 40(dx/dt) + 2 x = f(t), is :
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 1/10 (D) 4
72. The number of individual loci in a root locus plot is equal to :
(A) The number of open loop poles
(B) The number of open loop zeroes
(C) The difference of the number of open loop poles and the number of open loop zeroes
(D) The number of open loop poles or zeroes whichever is greater
73. For the Bode plot of the system : G(s) = 10 / (0.66s
2
+ 2.33s + 1), the corner frequencies
are :
(A) 0.66 and 0.33 (B) 0.22 and 2.00
(C) 0.30 and 2.33 (D) 0.50 and 3.00
74. A hot-wire ammeter :
(A) Can measure ac as well as dc (B) Registers current changes very fast
(C) Can indicate very low voltages (D) Measures electrical energy
75. The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is :
(A) Electrometer (B) Galvanometer
(C) Voltmeter (D) Coulometer
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)/BZL/49002-A 15 108
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)/BZL-49002-A 16
ROUGH WORK
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)/BZL-49002-A 17
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.E.(Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)/BZL/48995-A ! !! !!2! !! !!
M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)/BZL/48995-A ! !! !!3! !! !! [Turn over
M.E.(Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology)/A
1.
(n) O
n k 1
" "
where O(n) stands for order n is :
(A) O(n)
(B) O(n
2
)
(C) O(n
3
)
(D) O(1.5n
2
)
2. Let A and B be real symmetric matrices of size n n, then which one of the following is
true ?
(A) AA' =1 (B) A=A
-1
(C) AB = BA (D) (AB)' = BA
3. The maximum number of binary trees that can be formed with three unlabelled nodes
are :
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
4. The no. of equivalence relations of the set {1,2,3,4} is :
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 4
5. A die is rolled three times. The probability that exactly one odd number turns up among
the three outcomes is :
(A) 1/6 (B) 3/8
(C) 1/8 (D) 1/2
6. Number of perfect matching in a complete graph of 6 vertices :
(A) 15 (B) 24
(C) 30 (D) 60
7. The set {1,2,4,7,8,11,13,14) is a group under multiplication modulo 15. The inverses of 4
and 7 are respectively :
(A) 3 and 13 (B) 2 and 11
(C) 4 and 13 (D) 8 and 14
8. What is the number of vertices in an undirected connected graph with 27 edges, 6 vertices
of degree 2, 3 vertices of degree 4 and remaining of degree 3 ?
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 18 (D) 19
9. A grammer that is both left and right recursive for a non-terminal is :
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Unambiguous
(C) Information is not sufficient to decide its type
(D) None of these
10. Given an arbitrary non-deterministic finite automata (NFA) with N states, the maximum
number of states in an equivalent minimized DFA is at least :
(A) N
2
(B) 2
N
(C) 2N (D) N!
11. Consider the regular language L = (111 + 11111)*. The minimum no. of states in any DFA
accepting this language is :
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 8 (D) 9
12. The lexical analyzer for Java language needs the power of one of the following machine
models in a necessary and sufficient sense :
(A) Finite state automata (B) Deterministic push down automata
(C) non-Deterministic push down automata (D) Turing machine
13. Which one of the following regular expression is not NOT equivalent to the regular
expression (a+b+c)* ?
(A) (a*+b*+c*)* (B) (a*b*c*)*
(C) ((ab)*+c*)* (D) (a*b*+c*)*
14. All digital circuits can be realized only :
(A) Ex-OR gates (B) Multiplexers
(C) Half adders (D) OR gates
15. The number of machine cycles required for RET instruction in 8085 microprocessor is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
16. A microprogram control unit is required to generate a total of 25 control signals. Assume
that during any micro instruction; at most two control signals are active. The minimum
no. of bits required in the control word to generate the required control signals are :
(A) 2 (B) 10
(C) 2.5 (D) 12
17. Which of the following addressing modes permits relocation without any change in the
code ?
(A) Indirect addressing (B) Indexed addressing
(C) Base-register addressing (D) PC relative addressing
18. Sign extension is a step in :
(A) Floating point multiplication
(B) Signed 16 bit integer addition
(C) Arithmetic left shift
(D) Converting a signed integer from one size to another
19. The decimal value 0.25 :
(A) Is equivalent to binary value 0.1 (B) Is equivalent to binary value 0.01
(C) Is equivalent to binary value 0.00111 (D) Can not be represented precisely in binary
20. Assuming all numbers are in 2's complement representation, which of the following is
divisible by 11111011 ?
(A) 11100111 (B) 11100100
(C) 11010111 (D) 11011011
21. A 4-stage pipeline has the stage delays as 150, 120, 160 and 140 nanoseconds respectively.
Registers that are used between the stages have a delay of 5 nanoseconds each. Assuming
constant clocking rate, the total time taken to process 1000 data items on this pipeline
will be :
(A) 120.4 nanoseconds (B) 160.5 nanoseconds
(C) 165.5 nanoseconds (D) 590.0 nanoseconds
22. Consider a 4-way set associative cache consisting of 128 lines with a line size of 64
words. The CPU generates a 20-bit address of a word in main memory. The number of
bits in the TAG, LINE and WORD fields are respectively :
(A) 9,6,5 (B) 7,7,6
(C) 7,5,8 (D) 9,5,6
23. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executing an ISR :
(A) As soon as interrupt is raised
(B) By checking the interrupt register at the end of fetch cycle
(C) By checking the interrupt register after the execution of current instruction
(D) By checking the interrupt register at regular time intervals
24. The postfix expression for the Infix expression A+B*(C+D)/F+D*E is :
(A) AB+CD+*F/D+E* (B) ABCD+*F/+DE*+
(C) A*B+CD/F*DE++ (D) A+*BCD/F*DE++
25. If one uses straight two-way merge sort algorithm to sort the following elements in
ascending order :
20, 47, 15, 8, 9, 4, 40, 30, 12, 17
Then the order of these elements after second pass of the algorithm is :
(A) 8, 9, 15, 20, 47, 4, 12, 17, 30, 40 (B) 8, 15, 20, 47, 4, 9, 30, 40, 12, 17
(C) 15, 20, 47, 4, 8, 9, 12, 30, 40, 17 (D) 4, 8, 9, 15, 20, 47, 12, 17, 30, 40
26. In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a singly linked list of
length n for a given element is :
(A) log
2
n (B) n/2
(C) log
2
n-1 (D) n
27. Which of the following algorithm solves the all-pair shortest path problem ?
(A) Dijkstra's algorithm (B) Floyd's algorithm
(C) Prim's algorithm (D) Warshall's algorithm
28. The concatenation of two lists is to be performed on O(1) time. Which of the following
implementation of a list should be used ?
(A) Single linked list (B) Doubly linked list
(C) Circularly double linked list (D) Array implementation of list
29. Heap allocation is required for languages :
(A) that supports recursion (B) that supports dynamic data structures
(C) that uses dynamic scope rules (D) none of these
30. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model,
what is usally used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the
retransmission of missing data ?
(A) IP
(B) UDP
(C) a connectionless acknowledgement
(D) an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service
31. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP
address 172.30.0.0 ?
(A) 255.255.0.0 (B) 255.255.248.0
(C) 255.255.252.0 (D) 255.255.254.0
32. A goal of data mining includes which of the following ?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
33. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following ?
(A) At least one data mart
(B) Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
(C) Near real-time updates
(D) Both B and C
34. A sorting technique is called stable if :
(A) It takes O(n log n) time
(B) it maintains the relative order of occurrence of non-distinct elements
(C) uses divide and conquer paradigm
(D) it takes O(n) space
35. What are the minimum number of stacks of size n required to implement a queue of size
n ?
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
36. The number of leaf nodes in a routed tree of n nodes with each node having 0 or 3
children is :
(A) (2n+1)/3 (B) n/2
(C) (n-1)/2 (D) (n-1)/3
37. Let M be a node that represents a if-then-else node in a Program Graph. Let the number
of paths from its 'if ' part to end part node is 'b', and from 'else' part to the end node is 'c'.
If the number of paths from the start node to node M is 'a', then total number of paths
through M is :
(A) ab + c (B) ac + b
(C) a + b +c (D) a(b + c)
38. The fourth normal form (4NF) is concerned with dependencies between the elements of
compound keys composed of :
(A) one attribute (B) two attributes
(C) three or more attributes (D) any number of attributes
39. In a heap with n elements with the smallest element at the root, the 7
th
smallest element
can be found in time :
(A) O(n log n) (B) O(n)
(C) O(log n) (D) O(1)
40. In a depth first traversal of a graph G with n vertices, k edges are marked as tree edges.
The number of connected components in G are :
(A) k (B) k+1
(C) n-k+1 (D) n+k
41. If the following program is executed and user entered number 4 as input, then output is
#include <stdio.h>
void main( )
{
int a, b=8;
scanf("%d", &a);
if (a = 0)
b* = 2;
else
b/=2;
printf("%d", b++);
}
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 5
42. Which of following is not a keyword in C++ ?
(A) mutable (B) protect
(C) const (D) static
43. Disk scheduling involves deciding :
(A) Which disk should be accessed next
(B) The order in which disk access requests must be serviced
(C) The physical location where files should be accessed in the disk
(D) None of these
44. In E-R diagram, ellipses represent :
(A) entity sets (B) relationship among entity sets
(C) attributes (D) link between attributes and entity sets
45. Consider a program P that consists of two modules M1 and M2 contained in two different
files. If M1 contains a reference to a location defined in M2, the reference will be resolved
at :
(A) Edit time (B) Compile time
(C) Link time (D) Load time
46. Which exception is thrown when a memory allocation fails ?
(A) abort (B) unexpected
(C) bad_alloc (D) bad_alloc_exception
47. Which one of the following is top-down parser ?
(A) recursive descent parser (B) operator precedence parser
(C) An LR (k) parser (D) An LALR (k) parser
48. Consider a system having m resources of the same type. These resources are shared by
the 3 processes A, B, C which have peak demands of 3, 4 and 6 respectively. For what
value of m, the deadlock will not occur ?
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 13
49. A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very early and is
in constant use is removed when :
(A) LRU page replacement algorithm is used (B) FIFO page replacement algorithm is used
(C) LFU page replacement algorithm is used (D) None of the above
50. Principle of locality justifies the use of :
(A) interrupts (B) cache memory
(C) DMA (D) polling
51. A 1000 Kbytes memory is managed using variable partitions put to compaction. It currently
has two partitions of sizes 200 Kbytes and 260 Kbytes respectively. The smallest allocation
request in Kbytes that could be denied is for :
(A) 541 (B) 231
(C) 181 (D) 151
52. A counting semaphores was initialized to 10. Then 6 P (wait) operations and 4 V (signal)
operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is :
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
53. Which of the following disk scheduling strategies is likely to give the best throughput ?
(A) Farth cyclinder nextest (B) Nearest cylinder next
(C) First come first served (D) Elevator algorithm
54. Which are the advantages of virtual memory ?
(A) faster access to memory on an average
(B) linker can assign addresses independent of where the program will be loaded in physical
memory
(C) program larger than the physical memory can be run
(D) both B and C
55. A hard disk system has the following parameters : Number of tracks = 500, no. of sectors
per track = 100, no. of bytes per sector = 500, the time taken by the head to move from
one track to adjacent track = 1 ms and rotation speed = 600 rpm. What is the average
time taken for transferring 250 bytes from the disk ?
(A) 300.5 ms (B) 255.5 ms
(C) 255 ms (D) 300 ms
56. Relation R with an associated set of functional dependencies, F is decomposed into BCNF.
The redundancy (arising out of functional dependencies) in the resulting set of relations
is :
(A) zero
(B) more than zero but less than that of an equivalent 3NF decomposition
(C) proportional to size of F
(D) indetermined
57. With regard to the expressive power of the formal relational query language, which of
the following statement is true ?
(A) Relational algebra is more powerful than relational calculus
(B) Relational algebra has same power as relational calculus
(C) Relational algebra is less powerful than relational calculus
(D) None of these
58. Which of the following can lead to unrecoverable error in a database system ?
(A) A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
(B) A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
(C) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by a committed transaction
(D) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted transaction
59. Which of the following is not a correct template definition in C++ ?
(A) template <class T> (B) template <class T, class T>
(C) template <class T, int x> (D) template <class T1, class T2>
60. Which of the following devices has a relative origin ?
(A) Joystick (B) Trackball
(C) Mouse (D) None of above
61. The maximum data rate of a channel for a noiseless 2-kHz binary channel is :
(A) 2000 bps (B) 4000 bps
(C) 1000 bps (D) None of these
62. Which of the following is not a client-server application ?
(A) Internet Chat (B) Ping
(C) E-mail (D) Web browsing
63. According to Brooks, if n is the number of programmers in a project team, then the
number of communication path is :
(A) n(n-1)/2 (B) n log n
(C) n (D) n(n+1)/2
64. A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail
40% times, then P can fail :
(A) 50% (B) 60%
(C) 10% (D) 70%
65. The method of network routing where every possible path between transmitting and
receiving DTE is used is called :
(A) random routing (B) packet flooding
(C) directory routing (D) message switching
66. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200bps terminals and 'N' 300bps terminals connected to
it. The outgoing line is 9600bps. What is the maximum value of 'N' ?
(A) 4 (B) 16
(C) 8 (D) 28
67. Choose the incorrect statement :
(A) Go-Back-N method requires more storage at receiving end
(B) selective repeat has better line utilization
(C) selective repeat involves complex logic than Go-Back-N
(D) None of these
68. A network with CSMA/CD protocol in the MAC layer is running at 1 Gbps over a 200m
cable. The signal speed in the cable is 210
8
m/sec. The minimum frame size for this
network should be :
(C) 500 bytes (D) 500 bits
69. Count to infinity is a problem associated with :
(A) Link state routing protocol (B) Distance vector routing protocol
(C) DNS while resolving host name (D) TCP for congestion control
70. A program on machine X attempts to open a UDP connection to port 5376 on a machine
Y and a TCP connection to port 8632 on machine Z. However, there are no applications
listening at the corresponding ports on Y and Z. An ICMP port unreachable error will be
generated by :
(A) Y but not Z (B) Z but not Y
(C) Neither Y nor Z (D) Both Y and Z
71. How many bytes of data can be sent in 15 seconds over a serial link with baud rate of
9600 in asynchronous mode with odd parity and two stop bits in the frame ?
(A) 10,000 bytes (B) 12,000 bytes
(C) 15,000 bytes (D) 27,000 bytes
72. An error correcting code has the following code words :
00000000 00001111 01010101 10101010 11110000
What are the maximum no. of bits errors that can be corrected ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
73. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between
processes ?
(A) General purpose registers (B) Program counter
(C) Translation look aside buffer (D) All of the above
74. Which of the following algorithm is non-preemptive ?
(A) Round robin (B) FIFO
(C) Multilevel queue scheduling (D) Multilevel queue scheduling with feedback
75. In a system with 32 bit virtual addresses and 1 KB page size, use of one level page tables
for virtual to physical address translation is not practical because of :
(A) The large amount of internal fragmentation
(B) The large amount of external fragmentation
(C) The large memory overhead in maintaining page tables
(D) The large computation overhead in the translation process
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M.E. (Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)/BZL/48995-A ! !! !!15! !! !! 227
CET(PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Subject : M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.E.(Electronics & Communication Engineering)/BZL/49003-A *2*
M.E.(Electronics & Communication Engineering)/BZL/49003-A *3* [Turn over
M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/A
1. A silicon sample A is doped with 1018 atoms/cm
3
of boron. Another sample B is doped
with 1018 atoms/cm
3
of phosphorus. The ratio of electron to hole mobility is 3. The ratio
of conductivity of sample A to B is :
(A) 3 (B) 1/3
(C) 2/3 (D) 3/2
2. Which of the following has the lowest doping concentration in BJT ?
(A) Base (B) Emitter
(C) Substrate (D) Buried Collector
3. For a constant VGS greater than threshold voltage, JFET behaves as _______ for small
value of VDS and as _______ for large values of VDS.
(A) Ordinary Capacitor, Constant Current Source
(B) Ordinary Resistor, Constant Voltage Source
(C) Ordinary Capacitor, Constant Voltage Source
(D) Ordinary Resistor, Constant Current Source
4. Determine the range of input voltage for which Zener is in on state :
(A) 20V to 36.87V (B) 23.67V to 36.87V
(C) 23.67V to 36.87V (D) 20V to 16.87V
5. For an Op-amp integrator given R1 = 10 KO OO OO, RF = 100 KO, O, O, O, O, CF = 10nF. Determine the
lower frequency limit of integration.
(A) 15.9 Hz (B) 1.59 Hz
(C) 159 Hz (D) 100 KHz
6. The cascade amplifier is composed of direct coupled :
(A) CE-CB configuration (B) CC-CC configuration
(C) CC-CB configuration (D) CB-CE configuration
7. Cascaded differential amplifier requires level translator because of :
(A) Impedance matching (B) Isolating each stage
(C) D.C shift (D) Amplification
8. In forward biased photo diode with increase in incident light intensity the diode current :
(A) Increases
(B) Remains constant
(C) Decreases
(D) Remains constant voltage drop across diode increases
9. The overall current gain of Darlington amplifier with =200 is :
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 1000 (D) 40,000
10. In a negative feedback amplifier using voltage series feedback :
(A) R
i
decreases and R
o
decreases (B) R
i
decreases and R
o
increases
(C) R
i
increases and R
o
decreases (D) R
i
increases and R
o
increases
V
in
+
R
1
R
OM
= R
1
+
R
F
R
L
+V
CC
V
EE
C
F
~
351
11. A circuit has inputs A, B and C. Its K-Map is as shown in Fig. 1. The output of the circuit
is given by :
Fig. 1
(A) (AB+AB)C (B) (AB+AB)C
(C) ABC (D) A XOR B XOR C
12. The most preferred high power output for a hi-fi AF amplifier is of the :
(A) Class B push pull type (B) Class B single ended
(C) Class A type (D) Class C type
13. Combinational logic circuit shown in Fig. 2 has an output Q which is :
Fig. 2
(A) ABC (B) A+B+C
(C) A XOR B XOR C (D) A XNOR B XNOR C
1 1
AB
C
C
1
1
1
Q
A B
I
0
I
1
I
2
14. The shift register shown in Fig. 3 is initially loaded with bit pattern 1010. Shift register is
clocked and with each pulse the pattern gets shifted by one bit position to the right. With
each shift, the bit at the serial input is pushed to left most position (MSB). After how
many clock pulses with the contents of shift register become 1010 again ?
Fig. 3
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 11 (D) 15
15. The circuit of 555 timer IC is connected as astable multivibrator. The value of the capacitor
c is 10nF. The values of resistor R
A
and R
B
for a frequency of 10 kHz and duty cycle of
0.75 for the output voltage waveform are :
(A) R
A
= 3.62 KO and R
B
= 3.62 KO (B) R
A
= 3.62 KO and R
B
= 7.25 KO
(C) R
A
= 7.25 KO and R
B
= 3.57 KO (D) R
A
= 7.25 KO and R
B
= 7.25 KO
16. In a 4 bit counter the output of a JK flip flop from MSB downward are connected to the
NAND gate whose output is connected to clear ?
(A) It is a MOD-14 counter (B) It is a MOD-13 counter
(C) It is a divide by 13 counter (D) It is a divide by 14 counter
17. Address bus width of a memory of size 10248 bits is :
(A) 10 bits (B) 8 bits
(C) 13 bits (D) 18 bits
18. In a 4 bit weighted resistor digital to analog converter the resistor value correspond to
LSB is 32 KO OO OO. The resistor value corresponding to MSB is :
(A) 32 KO (B) 16 KO
(C) 8 KO (D) 4 KO
19. Number of comparators in a parallel converter type 8 bit ADC is :
(A) 8 (B) 1
(C) 255 (D) 256
20. An 8085 microprocessor based system drives a multiplexed 5 digit 7 segment display.
The digits are refreshed at a rate of 500 hz. The ON time for each digit is :
(A) 4 m sec (B) 0.4 m sec
(C) 10 m sec (D) 25 m sec
21. Determine the value voltage across each current source in figure shown :
(A) V
3A
= 5.23V, V
7A
= 11.47A (B) V
3A
= 5.23V, V
7A
= 11.47A
(C) V
3A
= 5.23V, V
7A
= 11.47 V (D) V
3A
= 5.23V, V
7A
= 11.47A
22. Find V
x
:
(A) 5V (B) 2V
(C) 5 V (D) 2V
23. Find Req in circuit shown :
(A) (159/71) O (B) (71/159) O
(C) (183/35) O (D) (35/183) O
3 O
4 O
5 O
2 O
1 O
+ v
x
10 O
3 O
10 V
+
2 O
10 O
+
!
!
1 O
2 O
4 O
3 O 5 O 3 A 7 A
24. Find the current i(t) in the circuit shown :
(A) i(t)= 25 + 25(1e
0.5t
)u(t) A (B) i(t)= 25 + 25(1 e
0.5t
)u(t) A
(C) i(t)= 25 25(1e
0.5t
)u(t) A (D) i(t)= 25 + 25(1e
0.5t
)u(t) A
25. Consider parallel RLC resonant circuit having inductance L=10mH, C =100F. Determine
the resistor value for which the circuit gives underdamped response ?
(A) R < 5O (B) R > 5O
(C) R = 5 O (D) R >10O
26. Determine Y parameters for the circuit shown :
(A)
- -
- -
ab b ab
ab ab a
Y Y Y
Y Y Y
(B)
- -
- -
ab b ab
ab ab a
Y Y Y
Y Y Y
(C)
-
-
ab b ab
ab ab a
Y Y Y
Y Y Y
(D)
-
-
ab a ab
ab ab b
Y Y Y
Y Y Y
27. Average power absorbed by purely reactive components is :
(A) Maximum (B) Cannot be determined
(C) Zero (D) Equal to resistive elements
Y
a
Y
b
Y
a b
50 u(t) V
i(t)
6 O
3 H
2 O
50 V
+
28. Find v(0) and v(2ms) :
(A) 50V, 14.33V (B) 50V, 14.33V
(C) 50V, 14.33V (D) 50V, 14.33 V
29. The voltage response of the network to unit step input is Vo(s) =
) 16 s 8 s ( s
10
2
- -
:
(A) Under damped (B) Over damped
(C) Critically damped (D) Can't be determined
30. In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to
quantization noise ratio improves by the factor :
(A) 8/6 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 8
31. The input to a coherent detector is DSBSC signal plus noise. The noise at the detector
output is :
(A) The in-phase component (B) The quadraturecomponent
(C) Zero (D) The envelope
32. The noise at the input to an ideal frequency detector is white. The detector is operating
above threshold. The power spectral density of the noise at the output is :
(A) Risedcosine (B) Flat
(C) Parabolic (D) Gaussian
33. Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum transmitted power
and minimum channel bandwidth ?
(A) VSB (B) DSBSC
(C) SSB (D) AM
732 O
50 V 800 O
2 F
v
+
t = 0
34. At a given probability of error, binary coherent FSK is inferior to binary coherent PSK
by :
(A) 6 dB (B) 3 dB
(C) 2 dB (D) 0 dB
35. A random variable X with uniform density in the interval 0 to 1 is quantized as follows :
0 X , 3 . 0 X 0 If
q
s s
7 . 0 X , 1 X 3 . 0 If
q
s <
where X
q
is the quantized value of X. The rootmean square value of the quantization
noise is :
(A) 0.573 (B) 0.198
(C) 2.205 (D) 0.266
36. Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz and 600 Hz, are sampled at
their respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and time division multiplexed.
The bit rate for the multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is :
(A) 115.2 kbps (B) 28.8 kbps
(C) 57.6 kbps (D) 38.4 kbps
37. A DSBSC signal is to be generated with a carrier frequency f
c
= 1 MHz using a non
linear device with the input-output characteristic V
0
= a
0
v
i
+ a
1
v
i
3
where a
0
and a
1
are
constants. The output of the nonlinear device can be filtered by an appropriate
band-pass filter. Let V
i
= A
C
cos( 2r rr rrf
c
t) + m(t) is the message signal. Then the value of
f
c
(in MHz) is :
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.333
(C) 0.5 (D) 3.0
38. A superheterodyne receiver is to operate in the frequency range 550 kHz 1650 kHz,
with the intermediate frequency of 450 kHz. Let R = C
max
/C
min
denote the required
capacitance ratio of the local oscillator and l denote the image frequency(in kHz) of the
incoming signal. If the receiver is tuned to 700 kHz, then :
(A) R = 4.41, l = 1600 (B) R = 2.10, l = 1150
(C) R = 3.0, l = 600 (D) R = 9.0, l = 1150
39. A sinusoidal signal with peak-to-peak amplitude of 1.536 V is quantized into 128 levels
using a midrise uniform quantizer. The quantizationnoise power is :
(A) 0.768 V (B) 48 10
6
V
2
(C) 12 10
6
V
2
(D) 3.072 V
l
40. If E
b
, the energy per bit of a binary digital signal, is 10
5
watt-sec and the onesided
power spectral density of the white noise, N
0
= 10
6
W/Hz, then the output SNR of the
matched filter is :
(A) 26 dB (B) 10 dB
(C) 20 dB (D) 13 dB
41. A sequence x(n) with the ztransform X (z) = z
4
+ z
2
2z + 2 3z
4
is applied as an input to
a linear, timeinvariant system with the impulse response,
h(n) = 2o 2o 2o 2o 2o(n 3) where
otherwise 0,
0 n , 1
) n (
The output at n = 4 is :
(A) 6 (B) Zero
(C) 2 (D) 4
42. Let P be linearity, Q be timeinvariance, R be causality and S be stability. A discrete
time system has the inputoutput relationship,
- s -
1 n , ) 1 n ( x
, 0 n
1 n , ) n ( x
0 ) n ( y
where x(n) is the input and y(n) is the output. The above system has the properties :
(A) P, S but not Q, R (B) P, Q, S but not R
(C) P, Q, R, S (D) Q, R, S but not P
43. The value of the intergral
: is dx
8
x
exp
2
1
I
0
2
-
(A) 1 (B) r
(C) 2 (D) 2r
44. Let X(t) be a random process with a constant mean value of 2 and the autocorrelation
function ( ) ( ) 1 e 4 R
| | 2 . 0
xx
-
-
. If Y and Z be the random variable obtained by sampling
X(t) at t = 2 and t = 4 respectively. Let W = Y Z. The variance of W is :
(A) 13.32 (B) 9.36
(C) 2.64 (D) 8.00
l
45. Let
) (e Y and ) n ( x ) n ( y , ) (n u
2
1
N) ( x
j 2
n

be the Fourier transform of y(n) then

Y (e
j0
) :
(A)
4
1
(B) 2
(C) 4 (D)
3
4
46. In what range should Re(s) remain so that the Laplace transform of the function
e
(a + 2) t + 5
exists ?
(A) Re(s) > a + 2 (B) Re(s) > a + 7
(C) Re(s) < 2 (D) Re(s) > a + 5
47. A rectangular pulse train s (t) as shown in the figure is convolved with the signal
cos
2
(4p 10
3
t). The convolved signal will be a :
(A) DC (B) 12 kHz sinusoid
(C) 8 kHz sinusoid (D) 14 kHz sinusoid
48. The impulse response h[n] of a linear timeinvariant system is given by
h[n] = u[n + 3] + u[n 2] 2n[n 7] where u[n] is the unit step sequence. The above
system is :
(A) Stable but not causal (B) Stable and causal
(C) Causal but unstable (D) Unstable and not causal
49. A random variable X with uniform density in the interval 0 to 1 is quantized as follows :
0.7 x , 1 X 0.3 If
0 x 0.3, X 0 If
q
q
s <
s s
where x
q
is the quantized value of X.
The rootmean square value of the quantization noise is :
(A) 0.573 (B) 0.198
(C) 2.205 (D) 0.266
0.1msec
t
x(t)
0.1 msec
50. The minimum sampling frequency (in samples/sec) required to reconstruct the following
signal from its samples without distortion :
: be would
t
t 100 2 sin
7
t
100t 2 sin
5 ) t ( X
2 3
(A) 2 10
3
(B) 4 10
3
(C) 6 10
3
(D) 8 10
3
51. The driving point impedance Z(s) of a network has the polezero locations as shown in
the figure. If Z (0) = 3, then Z(s) is :
(A)
) 3 s 2 s (
) 2 s ( 3
2
- -
-
(B)
) 2 s 2 s (
) 2 s ( 2
2
- -
-
(C)
) 2 s 2 s (
) 2 s ( 3
2
- -
-
(D)
) 3 s 2 s (
) 2 s ( 2
2
- -
-
52. The signal flow graph of a system is shown in Fig. below. The transfer function C(s)/R(s)
of the system is :
R(s) 1
s
1
6
s
1
3
(A)
) 6 s 29 s (
6
2
- -
(B)
) 6 s 29 s (
s 6
2
- -
(C)
) 6 s 29 s (
) 2 s ( s
2
- -
-
(D)
) 6 s 29 s (
) 27 s ( s
2
- -
-
O
1
1
1
l m
Re
2
s-plane
53. A linear system is equivalently represented by two sets of state equations :
U D W C W and U B X A X - - -
& &
. The eigen values of the representations are also
computed as [/] /] /] /] /] and []. ]. ]. ]. ]. Which One of the following statements is true ?
(A) [/] = [] and X = W (B) [/] = [] and X W
(C) [/] [] and X = W (D) [/] [] and X W
54. Despite the presence of negative feedback, control systems still have problems of
instability because the :
(A) Components used have non-linearities
(B) Dynamic equations of the subsystem are not known exactly
(C) Mathematical analysis involves approximations
(D) System has large negative phase angle at high frequencies
55. The gain margin for the system with openloop transfer function :
: is ,
s
) s 1 ( 2
) s ( H ) s ( G
2
-
(A) (B) 0
(C) 1 (D)
56. In the derivation of expression for peak percent overshoot
Which one of the following conditions is NOT required ?
(A) System is linear and time invariant
(B) The system transfer function has a pair of complex conjugate poles and no zeroes
(C) There is no transportation delay in the system
(D) The system has zero initial conditions
57. Consider the Bode magnitude plot shown in the fig. The transfer function H(s) is :
(A)
) 100 s ( ) 1 s (
) 10 s (
- -
-
(B)
) 100 s ( ) 10 s (
) 1 s ( 10
- -
-
(C)
) 100 s ( ) 10 s (
) 1 s ( 10
2
- -
-
(D)
) 10 s ( ) 1 s (
) 100 s ( 10
3
- -
-
58. A causal system having the transfer function H(s) = 1/(s + 2) is excited with 10u(t). The
time at which the output reaches 99% of its steady state value is :
(A) 2.7 sec (B) 2.5 sec
(C) 2.3 sec (D) 2.1 sec
59. Let,
-
-
) b (a Then
b 0
a
2
1
A and
3 0
0.1 2
A
1
(A) 7/20 (B) 3/20
(C) 19/60 (D) 11/20
60. A double integrator plant G(s) = K/s2, H(s) = 1 is to be compensated to achieve the
damping ratio = 0.5 and an undamped natural frequency, c cc cc
n
= 5 rad/sec which one of
the following compensator Gc(s) will be suitable ?
(A)
99 s
3 s
-
-
(B)
3 s
99 s
-
-
(C)
33 . 8 s
6 s
-
-
(D)
s
6 s -
61. The phase velocity of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a hollow metallic rectangular
waveguide in the TE
10
mode is :
(A) Equal to its group velocity
(B) Less than the velocity of light in free space
(C) Equal to the velocity of light in free space
(D) Greater than the velocity of light in free space
20 log H ( jc)
20 dB/dec
100 10
1
c
0
20
62. Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of +6 dB. If 1 mW of power is fed to it
the total power radiated by the antenna will be :
(A) 4 mW (B) 1 mW
(C) 7 mW (D) 1/4 mW
63. A parallel plate airfilled capacitor has plate area 10
-4
m
2
and plate separation of 10
-3
. It
is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is
( ) F/m 10 1/36
9 -
:
(A) 10 mA (B) 100 mA
(C) 10 A (D) 1.59 mA
64. In a microwave test bench, why is the microwave signal amplitude modulated at 1kHz ?
(A) To increase the sensitivity of measurement
(B) To transmit the signal to a faroff place
(C) To study amplitude modulations
(D) Because crystal detector fails at microwave frequencies
65. At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish antenna of 1 meter and 70% efficiency is :
(A) 15 dB (B) 25 dB
(C) 35 dB (D) 45 dB
66. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in free space is incident normally on a large
slab of loss-less, non-magnetic, dielectric material with .
o
> Maxima and minima are
observed when the electric field is measured in front of the slab. The maximum electric
field is found to be 5 times the minimum field. The intrinsic impedance of the medium
should be :
(A) O r 120 (B) O r 60
(C) O r 600 (D) O r 24
67. A lossless transmission line is terminated in a load which reflects a part of the incident
power. The measured VSWR is 2. The percentage of the power that is reflected back
is :
(A) 57.73 (B) 33.33
(C) 0.11 (D) 11.11
68. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic wave in a medium having conductivity o o o o o at
a frequency of 1 MHz is 25 cm. The depth of penetration at a frequency of 4 MHz will
be :
(A) 6.25 dm (B) 12.50 cm
(C) 50.00 cm (D) 100.00 cm
69. Medium 1 has the electrical permittivity
o 1
5 1 . farad/m and occupies the region to the
left of X = 0 plane. Medium 2 has the electrical permittivity
o 1
12.5 farad/m and occupies
the region to the right of X = 0 plane. If E
1
in medium 1 is
E
1
= (2u
x
3u
y
+ 1u
z
) volt/m, then E
2

in medium 2 is :
(A) (2.0u
x
7.5u
y
+ 2.5u
z
) volt/m (B) (2.0u
x
2.0u
y
+ 0.6u
z
) volt/m
(C) (2.0u
x
3.0u
y
+ 1.0u
z
) volt/m (D) (2.0u
x
2.0u
y
+ 0.6u
z
) volt/m
70. If the electric field intensity is given by E = (xu
x
+ yu
y
+ zu
z
)volt/m, the potential difference
betweenX(2,0,0) and Y(1,2,3) is :
(A) +1 volt (B) 1 volt
(C) +5 volt (D) +6 volt
71. A uniform plane wave travelling in air is incident on the plane boundary between air and
another dielectric medium with 4
r
. The reflection coefficient for the normal incidence,
is :
(A) Zero (B) 0.5 < 180
(C) 0.333 < 0 (D) 0.333 < 180
72. If the electric field intensity associated with a uniform plane electromagnetic waves
travelling in a perfect dielectric medium is given by m z)V/ 0.1 t 10 2 ( cos 10 ) t E(z,
7
- ,
then the velocity of the travelling wave is :
(A) 3.00 10
8
m/sec (B) 2.00 10
8
m/sec
(C) 6.28 10
7
m/sec (D) 2.00 10
7
m/sec
73. A rectangular metal wave guide filled with a dielectric material of relative permittivity
4
r
has the inside dimensions 3.0 cm 1.2 cm. The cutoff frequency for the dominant
mode is :
(A) 2.5 GHz (B) 5.0 GHz
(C) 10.0 GHz (D) 12.5 GHz
74. The magnetic field intensity vector of a plane wave is given by
H(x, y, z, t) = 10 sin (50000t + 0.004x + 30) at
y
, where at
y
, denotes the unit vector in y
direction. The wave is propagating with a phase velocity :
(A) 5 10
4
m/s (B) 3 10
8
m/s
(C) 1.25 10
7
m/s (D) 3 10
8
m/s
75. Refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find the wavelength of a beam of light with frequency of
10
14
Hz in glass. Assume velocity of light is 3 10
8
m/s in vacuum :
(A) m 3 (B)
(C) m 2 (D)
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
154
CET(PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Subject : M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BZL-49005-A 2
M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/BZL-49005-A 3 [Turn over
M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/A
Directions for Q. 1 to Q. 4 : In each of the following questions, there are four choices (A-D).
Three of them are alike and one different. Find the odd-man out.
1. (A) Sit (B) Hit
(C) Kit (D) Knit
2. (A) Sanskrit (B) Ashu Lipi
(C) Sanket Lipi (D) Shorthand
3. (A) aBC (B) BaC
(C) abC (D) BCa
4. (A) ppp TTA (B) ooo GGH
(C) hhh TOY (D) iii OOW
Directions for Q. 5 to Q. 7 : Figure given in each question follows a set pattern. Determine the
pattern and find the correct answers.
5. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, ?, ?
(A) 11, 13 (B) 10, 11
(C) 8, 9 (D) 7, 11
6. 5, 2, 6, 4, 7, 8, 8, ?, 9
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 18
7. 12, 32, 72, 152, ?, 632
(A) 515 (B) 613
(C) 815 (D) 312
Directions for Q. 8 to Q. 11 : Supply the right letters for question (?) marks in the following
questions :
8. BD, EH, IM, NS, ?
(A) UY (B) UZ
(C) TY (D) TZ
9. AM BN EI FJ CO DP GK _________
(A) PQ (B) QR
(C) QT (D) HL
10. C E I K O Q ?
(A) R (B) S
(C) T (D) U
11. Which of A to D makes the best comparison for the following :
TOMATO : MTOOTA :: 123412 : ?
(A) 312214 (B) 123456
(C) 321124 (D) 213314
Directions for Q. 12 to Q. 17 : In each of the questions below, a related pair of words in capital
letters is followed by four pair of words (A-D). Select that lettered
pair that expresses the relationship that is MOST similar to that of
the capitalised pair :
12. BARREL : VIAL :: _________: _________.
(A) Length : height (B) Low : high
(C) Brochure : compiler (D) Book : pamphlet
13. OVERLOOK : TREACHERY ::_________: _________.
(A) Punish : criminal (B) Mitigate : penitence
(C) Overlook : abberation (D) Ignore : betrayal
14. EMBARRASS : HUMILIATE :: _________: _________.
(A) Difficult situation : Painful (B) Annoy : exasperate
(C) Gamble : investment (D) Embezzle : speculate
15. PORTFOLIO : SECURITIES :: _________ : _________.
(A) Silo : convert (B) Corsage : box
(C) Panel : jurors (D) Bureau : commission
16. Writer : TEXT BOOK :: _________ : _________.
(A) Building : architect (B) Book : publisher
(C) Tailor : wedding suit (D) Book : book-binder
17. OPAQUE : TRANSPARENT :: _________ : _________.
(A) Turbid : swollen (B) Tepid : seething
(C) Imprisoned : incarcerated (D) Concentrated : dissipated
18. A tourist drives 10 kms towards east and turns to the right hand and drives 3 kms. Then
he drives towards west (turning to his right) 3 kms. He then turns to his left and drives
2 kms. Finally he turns to his right and travels 7 kms. How far is he from his starting
point and in which direction would he be ?
(A) 10 kms, East (B) 9 kms, North
(C) 8 kms, West (D) 5 kms, West
19. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two
of whom, F and G are girls, A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer
married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child.
Who is C ?
(A) Gs father (B) Fs father
(C) Es daughter (D) As son
20. When in the International Migrants Day observed ?
(A) December 18 (B) January 25
(C) October 24 (D) November 20
21. Which waves are used in sonography ?
(A) Microwaves (B) Sound waves
(C) Infrared waves (D) Ultrasonic waves
22. The blue colour of sky is due to the phenomenon of :
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Dispersion (D) Scattering
23. Who of the following is the author of the book Imaging India Ideas for the New
Century ?
(A) Arvind Adiga (B) M J Akbar
(C) Nandan Nilekani (D) Shashi Tharoor
24. The famous Palmed Or (Golden Palm) is awarded to the best :
(A) Sculptor (B) Painter
(C) Travel writer (D) Film director
25. Who gave the first evidence of Big-bang theory ?
(A) Edwin Hubble (B) Stephen Hawking
(C) S. Chandrasekhar (D) Albert Einstein
26. The rusting of iron nail :
(A) Decreases it weight (B) Increases its weight
(C) Does not affect weight but iron is oxidised (D) Does not affect weight but iron is reduced
27. Nail polish remover contains :
(A) Benzene (B) Cetric acid
(C) Acetic acid (D) Acetone
28. The richest source of vitamin A are :
(A) Green peas and beans (B) Pepper and potato
(C) Tomato and onion (D) Pumpkin and carrots
29. Cloves are actually :
(A) Seeds (B) Fruits
(C) Floral buds (D) Bark of a tree
30. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar (B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal (D) Bhagawan Das
31. TRIPS AND TRIMS are the terms associated with :
(A) IMF (B) WTO
(C) IBRD (D) IDA
32. The Nobel Prize is not given in the field of :
(A) Literature (B) Economics
(C) Chemistry (D) Mathematics
33. Knesset is the name of Parliament of :
(A) Bosnia (B) Israel
(C) France (D) Japan
34. The permanent headquarters of SAARC secretariat are located at :
(A) Kathemandu (B) Dhaka
(C) New Delhi (D) Islamabad
35. Where is National Institute of Nutrition located ?
(A) Bengalulru (B) Hyderabad
(C) Mysore (D) Pune
36. Which one of the following is not a part of Hindustani Music ?
(A) Dhrupad (B) Khayal
(C) Kriti (D) Dadra
37. Professor Muhammad Yunus is renowned in which one of the following areas ?
(A) International Economics (B) Human Rights
(C) Freeodom of Press (D) Microcredit Concept
38. How is Kishori Amonkar well-known as ?
(A) Classical dancer (B) Classical signer
(C) Poet (D) Theatre personality
39. The 2014 Winter Olympics will be hosted by :
(A) Sochi (B) Oslo
(C) Paris (D) Stockholm
40. Which one of the following animals was not represented on the seals and terracotta art of
the Harapan Culture ?
(A) Cow (B) Elephant
(C) Rhinoceros (D) Tiger
Directions for Q. 41 to Q. 44 : The statement given below is the receipts and expenditure of a firm
manufacturing soaps and detergents. Study the data given in the
statement and answer the questions 41 to 44 :
Gross Receipts Gross Expenses (Rs. In 000)
Item Rs. % Item Rs. %
Sales Proceeds : Direct manufacturing
Expenses :
Washing soap 112,390 40.0 Raw materials 121,662 43.3
Toilet soap 55,352 19.7 Packing materials 73,054 26.0
Detergents 62,095 22.1 Labour costs 23,321 8.3
Scrap / unusable 24,164 8.6 Indirect
items manufacturing costs :
Refunds :
Excise duty 13,206 4.7 Staff welfare 4,777 1.7
Loans 13,768 4.9 Pension Fund 6,743 2.4
Sales Tax 8,991 3.2
Excise duty 12,925 4.6
Marketing Exp. 11,801 4.2
General Overheads 10,677 3.8
Total Receipts 280,975 100 Total Expenses 280,975 100
41. The average yearly combined expenditure on packing materials, marketing expenditure
and general over-heads was approximately what fraction of the total annual expenditure
of the film ?
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/3
(C) 1/2 (D) 2/1
42. If the income from the sale of toilet soap during the given year is x, then the total
income during the said period is about ?
(A) x
5
(B) 5x
(C) 1/2x (D) x
2
43. What is the difference between excise duty refund and the excise duty paid in terms of
money ?
(A) 0.1 % (B) 281/-
(C) Rs. 200/- (D) both are equal
44. What is relation between refund of loans and the expenditure on staff welfare and sales
tax ?
(A) Both are directly related in nature
(B) Both are equal in terms of percentage and total sum
(C) Difference of 0.001
(D) There is no relation at all
Directions for Q. 45 to Q. 53 : Labour welfare budget of a company is of Rs. 300.4 lac and
percentage of its various allocations is given as under. Answer
questions 45 to 53 on the basis of given information.
Canteen expenses 40%
Recreation and entertainment 18%
Health and accidents 09%
Social security and insurance 25%
Contingencies 08%
45. How much money is actually ear-marked for recreation and entertainment expenses ?
(A) Rs. 5.4 lac (B) Rs. 54 lac
(C) Rs. 45 lac (D) Rs. 4.5 lac
46. How much money is ear-marked for health and social security ?
(A) Rs. 120 lac (B) Rs. 102 lac
(C) Rs. 125 lac (D) Rs. 75 lac
47. If there is a 10% inflation during the year, how much money would have been spent on
canteen expenses ?
(A) Rs. 330 lac (B) Rs. 120 lac
(C) Rs. 132 lac (D) Rs. 300 lac
48. If 50% of contingencies funds are used towards health and accidents, what will be the
expenditure in rupees under this head, keeping the total budget unchanged ?
(A) Rs. 39 lac (B) Rs. 150 lac
49. From the total budget, if the canteen and social security heads are reduced by 25% and
10% respectively, what saving could be achieved ?
(A) Rs. 170 lac (B) Rs. 157.71 lac
(C) Rs. 37.55 lac (D) Rs. 35 lac
50. How much amount is saved if contingency fund is not utilized, and 11.25% of recreation
budget is over-spent ?
51. If insurance premiums during the year amount to 6.8% of the social security and insurance
budget, how much amount is left for spending on social security ?
(C) Rs. 75 lac (D) 20 lac
52. By increasing the total budget 3 times, how much amount will be increased on canteen
expenses ?
(A) Rs. 360 lac (B) Rs. 361 lac
(C) Rs. 240 lac (D) Rs. 359 lac
53. Consider the following :
(1) Fringe Benefit Tax (2) Interest Tax
(3) Securities Transaction Tax (4) Sales Tax
Which of the above mentioned is/are indirect tax/taxes ?
(A) Only 1 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 4
54. Most important source of capital formation in India has been :
(A) Household savings (B) Public sector savings
(C) Government revenue surpluses (D) Corporate savings
55. Index' Residex' is associated with :
(A) Share Prices (B) Mutual Fund Prices
(C) Price Inflation Index (D) Land Prices
56. Companies pay corporation tax on their :
(A) Investments (B) Incomes
(C) Production (D) Sales proceeds
57. Excise duties are taxes on :
(A) Sale of commodities (B) Import of commodities
(C) Export of commodities (D) Production of commodities
58. Development is :
(A) Synonymous with economic growth (B) Narrower than economic growth
(C) Wider than economic growth (D) Not related to economic growth
59. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by :
(A) The Reserve Bank of India
(B) The Planning Commission
(C) The Finance Ministry
(D) The Securities and Exchange Board of India
60. Name the first commercial bank of limited liability managed by Indians.
(A) Punjab National Bank (B) Oudh Commercial Bank
(C) State Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
61. Where are the headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) ?
(A) Manila (B) Tokyo
(C) Singapore (D) Hongkong
62. Expand the term LIBOR :
(A) London Inter Bank Offered Rate (B) London Inter Bank Operational Rate
(C) London inter Bank Offsite Rate (D) London Inter Bank Onsite Rate
63. Absolute poverty means :
(A) Poverty in terms of the prevailing price level
(B) Poverty in terms of the absolute level of unemployment
(C) Poverty in terms of the basic minimum calorie requirements
(D) Poverty in terms of absolute number of people
64. TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered
by :
(A) United National Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTD)
(B) United National Organisation (UNO)
(C) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(D) World Bank (WB)
65. Who among the following served as the Chief Economist of the International Monetary
Fund ?
(A) Ashok Lahiri (B) Sumantra Ghoshal
(C) Saumitra Chaudhuri (D) Raghuram Rajan
66. The gilt-edged market deals in :
(A) Worn and torn currency notes (B) Bullion
(C) Government securities (D) Corporate bonds
67. When was Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) passed ?
(A) 1984 (B) 1980
(C) 1986 (D) 1995
68. The first Modern industry to develop in India was :
(A) Iron and steel Industry (B) Cement Industry
(C) Cottage Industry (D) Engineering Industry
69. Bhoodan Yojana as a measure of gifting land by the rich landlords to the landless labourers
was started by :
(A) Acharya Vinoba Bhave (B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) Raj Narain (D) Medha Pulkar
70. What is the major function of NABARD ?
(A) Deals in government securities
(B) Provides loans to the public
(C) Accepts deposits from the public
(D) Provides loans to Commercial Banks and Regional Rural for the development of the rural
sector
71. Which one of the following companies started a rural marketing network called
e-chaupals ?
(A) ITC (B) Dabur
(C) Proctor and Gamble (D) Hindustan Lever
72. The period of 12
th
Five Year Plan is :
(A) 2007-2012 (B) 2012-2017
(C) 2009-2014 (D) 2010-2015
73. Currency notes and coins of one rupee and lower denominations are issued by the :
(A) SBI (B) Government of India
(C) RBI (D) Ministry of Finance
74. Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India ?
(A) Morarji Desai (B) John Mathai
(C) TT Krishnamachari (D) R.K. Shanmukham Chetty
75. The Father of Economics is :
(A) Max Muller (B) Karl Marx
(C) Adam Smith (D) Paul
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Words
Subject : M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)
INSTRUCTIONS
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9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
allowed.
candidate only.
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M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BZL/48977-A 2
M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/BZL/48977-A 3 [Turn over
M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)/A
1. The following belong together except which one ?
(A) Head (B) Arm
(C) Trunk (D) Neck
2. The __________ membranes surround the lungs.
(A) Pericardial (B) Mediastinal
(C) Pleural (D) Peritoneal
3. The larynx is a term in the __________ system.
(A) Respiratory (B) Nervous
(C) Cardiovascular (D) Digestive
4. The purpose of games analysis is to :
(A) Identifies the energy systems, fitness components and muscle groups required for the activity
so that performance can be improved
(B) Assists in planning pre- and post-game diets
(C) Assists in planning pre-game warm-up and post-game recovery
5. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher ?
(A) Authority on subject (B) Social
(C) Attractive personality (D) Richness
6. What is advantage to students of participating in team sports ?
(A) Presentation of discipline
(B) Development of leadership qualities
(C) Enjoyment of sports and play
(D) Presentation of strength
7. Which one of the following is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Carrot (B) Pea
(C) Rice (D) Spinach
8. Which one of the following is a function of proteins as part of a balanced diet ?
(A) Helps to repair tissues in the body
(B) Helps to rehydrate the body
(C) Helps to supply fibre to the body
(D) Helps to break down carbohydrates
9. Which one of the following is the most appropriate method of training to improve your
flexibility ?
(A) Circuit training (B) Weight training
(C) Yoga (D) Aerobics
10. Which one of the following fundamental motor skills is a main feature in playing golf ?
(A) Throwing (B) Hitting
(C) Catching (D) Running
11. Which of the following line is related to volleyball ?
(A) Bonus line (B) Baulk line
(C) Attack line (D) Service line
12. 'Prince of Wales Cup' is associated with the game of :
(A) Polo (B) Basketball
(C) Golf (D) Volleyball
13. The winner of Copa America cup (football) is :
(A) Germany (B) Paraguay
(C) Japan (D) Uruguay
14. FINA is the governing body of what amateur sport :
(A) Swimming (B) Archery
(C) Netball (D) Korfball
15. A Lady Paramount judges at what sport :
(A) Tennis (B) Archery
(C) Mountaineering (D) Paragliding
16. Iron a sports term is associated with :
(A) Golf (B) Track and field
(C) Rowing (D) Triathlon
17. Which of the following years were both the Summer and Winter Olympics were held in
the same country ?
(A) 1944 (B) 1980
(C) 1952 (D) 1936
18. In Combined Events how many false start shall be allowed ?
(A) One false start per race (B) One false start per athlete
(C) No false start (D) Two false start per race
19. The periods for which the wind velocity shall be measured from the flash/ smoke of the
Starter's gun in the 110 M Hurdles event is :
(A) 10 Sec (B) 15 Sec
(C) 13 Sec (D) 20 Sec
20. 'Synthetic track' in athletics was used for the first time in :
(A) 1968 (Mexico Olympics) (B) 1948 (London Olympics)
(C) 1896 (Athens Olympics) (D) 1996 (Atlanta Olympics)
21. Who was appointed as the head of Rajiv Khel Ratna Awards committee ?
(A) Yogeshwar Dutt (B) Sushil Kumar
(C) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (D) Milkha Singh
22. Who was the first male sprinter to win US championship in 200 m and 400 m races at the
same time, in 20th century ?
(A) Michael Johnson (B) Carl Lewis
(C) Colin Jackson (D) Jesse Owens
23. The final recommendation for Arjuna Awards is given by :
(A) Ministry of H. R. D. (B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) Sports Minister of India (D) The President of India
24. A common mistake made by many concerned parents is likely to be :
(A) Deliberately creating high levels of stress for their child
(B) Unintentionally creating high levels of stress for their child
(C) Attempting to protect their children from all stress
(D) Unintentionally rewarding their children for creating stress
25. The cool down after exercise is important because it :
(A) Improves oxygen uptake (B) Regulates breathing
(C) Speeds the removal of lactic acid (D) Decreases adrenaline
26. Which of the following is a performance goal in physical activity ?
(A) To win a tournament in golf (B) To score the best in a strength test
(C) To improve your technique in tennis (D) To get a personal best time in 100 m
27. Which one of the following is an example of an important role of an official in physical
activities ?
(A) To help performers' fitness levels
(B) To ensure that rules are followed correctly
(C) To make money
(D) To ensure that the right tactics are used
28. To show competence in Physical Education, which one of the following would be most
applicable ?
(A) To select the right skill at the right time
(B) To maintain physical health
(C) To regularly participate
(D) To understand the aims of physical activity
29. Which one of the following is an example of a food high in carbohydrates ?
(A) Fish (B) Bananas
(C) Meat (D) Eggs
30. Which one of the following describes why skilled performers in Physical Education are
different from unskilled performers ?
(A) They try harder (B) They are more outgoing
(C) They are more co-ordinated (D) They interact with spectators
31. Chest muscles used in the tennis forehand are the :
(A) Trapezius (B) Pactorals
(C) Latissimus (D) Romboids
32. Reaction time takes place between stimulus and :
(A) Movement (B) Understanding
(C) Making a decision (D) Running
33. In aerobic training, muscles have :
(A) Too much Oxygen (B) Insufficient Oxygen
(C) Sufficient Oxygen (D) Lots of Oxygen
34. The percentage of oxgyen in exhaled air is about :
(A) 36% (B) 16%
(C) 26% (D) 20%
35. Which of the following activities best facilitates the development of controlled breathing
by beginning swimmers ?
(A) Bobbing (B) Sculling
(C) Finning (D) Gliding
36. Which one of the following best describes the role of tendons ?
(A) They attach muscle to bone (B) They attach muscle to muscle
(C) They attach bone to bone (D) They attach ligaments to bones
37. Test Cricket celebrated 100 years in the year :
(A) 1877 (B) 1977
(C) 1875 (D) 1774
38. Which type of joint is formed by the ATLAS and AXIS at the neck ?
(A) Hinge (B) Ball and socket
(C) Ball (D) Pivot
39. Athlete's foot is caused by :
(A) An increase in foot size during training
(B) A virus
(C) A fungus
(D) An injury associated with 100 m runners
40. If a student is good at sports but not interested in studies, what will be your action as a
teacher ?
(A) Advise him to leave the sports
(B) Inform his parents
(C) Encourage him and convince about importance of education
(D) Avoid him
41. The champion of Vijay Hazare Cricket Trophy in 2012 is :
(A) Mumbai (B) Punjab
(C) Karnataka (D) West Bengal
42. What is the official name for the 2012 Olympic Games ?
(A) 2012 Summer Olympic Games
(B) Summer Olympics Games of the XXIV Olympiad
(C) Games of the XXX Olympiad
(D) Summer Olympics Games of the XXXI Olympiad
43. Of which Olympic Games was Misha the mascot ?
(A) 1976 Summer Olympics (Montreal) (B) 1984 Summer Olympics (Los Angeles)
(C) 1980 Summer Olympics (Moscow) (D) 1988 Summer Olympics (Seoul)
44. Which of the following is Spain's IOC country code ?
(A) ESP (B) SPN
(C) ESN (D) SPA
45. The XVI Pan American Games was an international multi-sport event that was held at :
(A) Guadalajara, Jalisco, Mexico (B) Santo Domingo, Dominican Republic
(C) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (D) Toronto, Canada
46. Booster is a term related to :
(A) Basketball (B) Volleyball
(C) Football (D) Hockey
47. The Finals of the Uber Cup and Thomas Cup 2014 is to be held at :
(A) New Delhi (B) Bangkok
(C) Lancashire (D) Sydney
48. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (RGKR) is India's highest honour given for achievement
in sports, it carries a medal, a scroll of honour and a substantial cash of :
(A) Rs. 5,00,000 (B) Rs. 7,50,000
(C) Rs. 7,00,000 (D) Rs. 8,50,000
49. Hunch back' is also known as :
(A) Back pain (B) Scoliosis
(C) Lordosis (D) Kyphosis
50. ___________ is called Boxer's muscle.
(A) Trapezius anterior (B) Serratus
(C) Abdominal (D) Deltoid
51. 'Neck joint' is an example of :
(A) Pivot joint (B) Hinge joint
(C) Saddle joint (D) Condyloid joint
52. Number of bones in the axial skeleton is :
(A) 60 (B) 80
(C) 40 (D) 20
53. Study of bones is called :
(A) Osteoporosis (B) Osteoclast
(C) Osteology (D) Anthology
54. Which artery carries the supply of blood towards heart ?
(A) Carotid artery (B) Coronary artery
(C) Pulmonary artery (D) Radial artery
55. Pankaj Adwani is associated with :
(A) Billiards (B) Cricket
(C) Golf (D) Chess
56. 'Boat' is related to 'Oar' in the same way as 'Bicycle' is related to :
(A) Road (B) Wheel
(C) Seat (D) Paddle
57. 'Sports' is related to 'Logo' in the same way as 'Nation' is related to ?
(A) Emblem (B) Animal
(C) Ruler (D) Anthem
58. Shuttle : Badminton : : Puck : ?
(A) Hockey (B) Ice Hockey
(C) Water polo (D) Golf
59. Monday : April :: Friday : ?
(A) July (B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday (D) August
60. How many athletes may be used as substitutes in Relay race event in Athletics ?
(A) One athlete (B) Two athlete
(C) Three athlete (D) None of these
61. In Athletics, Time shall be taken from the :
(A) Sound of Gun (B) Flash smoke
(C) Whistle (D) None
62. 'Scapula' bone is situated in :
(A) Legs (B) Hips
(C) Upper backs (D) Hand
63. Shriram Singh is associated with :
(A) Volleyball (B) Weight lifting
(C) Swimming (D) Athletics
64. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(A) Basketball : Cagers (B) Boxing : Pulgists
(C) Table tennis : Peddlers (D) Kabaddi : Grapplers
65. Which of the following term is used in more than one game ?
(A) Caddie (B) Grand master
(C) Love (D) Silly point
66. Velodrome is an arena for which sporting event ?
(A) Ice Hockey (B) Lawn Tennis
(C) Track Cycling (D) Sumo-wrestling
67. How much is width of the tennis court for singles ?
(A) 25 feet (B) 26 feet
(C) 27 feet (D) 28 feet
68. What is the height of Ball Badminton net ?
(A) 1.80 M (B) 1.81 M
(C) 1.82 M (D) 1.83 M
69. Deepika Kumari the Sports Person from India, won Silver at Recurve World Cup on
23 September 2012 in Tokyo. Recurve World Cup is related to which Sports Event ?
(A) Archery (B) Shooting
(C) Disc Throwing (D) Volleyball
70. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Volleyball ?
(A) India Swarn Cup (B) Ramanujam Trophy
(C) Lincoln Trophy (D) Dhyanchand Trophy
71. 'Green Park', where test cricket is played, is located in :
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Kanpur
(C) Chennai (D) Johannesburg
72. The term 'Beamer' is associated with :
(A) Football (B) Hockey
(C) Cricket (D) Chess
73. Height of the Lawn tennis Post is :
(A) 1.09 M (B) 1.08 M
(C) 1.07 M (D) 1.06 M
74. What is the distance between the hurdles at 400m hurdles for men ?
(A) 35 m (B) 40 m
(C) 45 m (D) 30 m
75. Free hand exercises generally done in a group is called :
(A) Drill and marching (B) Calisthenics
(C) Circuit training (D) Fartlek
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Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)Geology
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M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Geology/BZL/48987-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)Geology/A
1. The Moho discontinuity is considered to be a boundary between :
(A) Sial and Sima (B) Crust and mantle
(C) Mantle and Core (D) Inner core and Outer core
2. A Crescentshaped dune with horns pointing downwind is known as :
(A) Barchan (B) Monadnock
(C) Pedestal rock (D) Loess
3. A coral platform connected to the coast is called :
(A) Fringing reef (B) Barrier reef
(C) Atoll (D) Lagoon
4. A pelagic deposit rich in organic material and present in deep ocean zone is :
(A) Ooze (B) Terrigenous deposit
(C) Loess (D) Reef
5. Submerged Valleys having downcutting below the sea level are designated as :
(A) Gorges (B) Antecedent
(C) Fjords (D) Braided
6. The crystal system having three unequal axes at right angles constitutes :
(A) Cubic (B) Hexagonal
(C) Orthorhombic (D) Tetragonal
7. The symmetry of the Tetrahedrite class is :
(A) 6 planes, 7 axes, no centre (B) 3 planes, 7 axes, a centre
(C) 5 planes, 5 axes, no centre (D) 9 planes, 13 axes, no centre
8. A series of faces on a crystal whose intersection lines are mutually parallel to each other
comprises a :
(A) Form (B) Zone
(C) Zone axis (D) Face
9. Which one of the following is known as Brittle mica :
(A) Chlorite (B) Lepidolite
(C) Asbestos (D) Chloritoid
10. Chemically the difference between feldspars and feldspathoids is that the former contains
more of :
(A) Na
2
O (B) SiO
2
(C) K
2
O (D) Al
2
O
3
11. The function of polariser in the petrological microscope is to :
(A) Increase the intensity of light (B) Convert the vibration of light in one plane
(C) Enable better focussing (D) Filter the light
12. A metallic mineral shows a greyish black colour, hardness 56, sp. gravity about 5 and
cherry-red streak. The mineral may be identified as :
(A) Pyrrhotite (B) Magnetite
(C) Hematite (D) Galena
13. The mineral allanite belongs to/is a variety of :
(A) Sphene (B) Epidote
(C) Garnet (D) Corundum
14. Jasper is a form of silica which is :
(A) Crystalline (B) Amorphous
(C) Cryptocrystalline (D) Fibrous
15. The diastrophic processes are best explained by :
(A) Intrusion of magma (B) Metamorphism
(C) Plate tectonics (D) Continental drift
16. An acidic magma is one which is saturated with :
(A) Acid vapours (B) Chlorides
(C) Alumina (D) Silica
17. The eutectic proportion for Orthoclase : Quartz pair of minerals is :
(A) 45 : 55 (B) 70 : 30
(C) 42.5 : 57.5 (D) 72.5 : 27.5
18. (C.P : Calcic plagioclase; C.A. P, : Calcalkali plagioclase; A.P : Alkali plagioclase;
A.C.P : AlkaliCalc plagioclase and P.F : potash feldspar)
The sequence of Bowen's continuous reaction series is :
(A) P.F C.A.P AP ACP CP (B) CP ACP CAP PF AP
(C) CAP CP PF AP ACP (D) CP CAP ACP AP PF
19. Which of the following is comparatively regional high grade metamorphic rock ?
(A) Marble (B) Schist
(C) Slate (D) Phyllite
20. Manganese ore deposits in India are largely found in :
(A) M.P (B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar (D) Haryana
21. When groundwater flows from gravel into sand, its rate of flow will :
(A) Decrease (B) Increase
(C) Remain unchanged (D) Difficult to comment
22. A rock containing about 50% pyroxene and 50% olivine may be designated as :
(A) Gabbro (B) Peridotite
(C) Amphibolite (D) Diorite
23. In ocean, the manganese nodules are generally located in the :
(A) Ocean floor (B) Continental shelf
(C) Continental slope (D) Bathyal zone
24. Mark the odd one out :
(A) Iceberg (B) Scree
(C) Marine (D) Cirque
25. A toposheet has a scale of 1 : 50,000. This scale can be stated as :
(A) 1 cm to 1 km (B) 2 cm to 1 km
(C) 3 cm to 1 km (D) 4 cm to 1 km
26. A nonconformity is a kind of unconformity in which the older rock is of :
(A) Metamorphic origin (B) Sedimentary origin
(C) Plutonic origin (D) Volcanic origin
27. The earth was dominated by reptiles during the Mesozoic era which is about ?
(A) 60 170 m.y. back (B) 5000 10,000 y. back
(C) 170 500 m.y. back (D) Over 600 m.y. back
28. Who said : "Present is the key to the past" ?
(A) Sutton (B) Newton
(C) Medlicott (D) Hutton
29. Graben structure is related to which river of India ?
(A) Satluj (B) Indus
(C) Narmada (D) Ghaggar
30. The Punjab and Kumaon Himalayas are separated by river :
(A) Satluj (B) Ganges
(C) Indus (D) Chenab
31. Which of the following does not come under the principles of stratigraphy ?
(A) Lithification (B) Lithology
(C) Fossil content (D) Order of superposition
32. In terms of geological time which are in the correct order of longer to shorter duration ?
(A) PeriodEraEpochAge (B) Era EpochAgePeriod
(C) EraPeriodEpochAge (D) EpochAgePeriodEra
33. Kioto Limestone belongs to which geological system ?
(A) Jurassic (B) Permian
(C) Cretaceous (D) Devonian
34. A granite occurring in the Nilgiri massif has distinct character and contains an ortho
pyroxene and is known as :
(A) Singhbhum Granite (B) Charnockite
(C) Closepet Granite (D) Peninsular Gneiss
35. Of the following, which one is considered to be the youngest ?
(A) Erinpura Granite (B) Delhi System
(C) Peninsular Gneiss (D) Closepet Granite
36. Which of the series of the Vindhyan System contains good quality limestone and supports
the cement industry ?
(A) Bhander (B) Rewa
(C) Kaimur (D) Semri
37. The diamond bearing conglomerates separating the rock units in Panna, belong to :
(A) Upper Vindhyans (B) Lower Vindhyans
(C) Cuddapahs (D) Aravallies
38. The Caledonian Orogeny marks the end of :
(A) Cambrian (B) Ordovician
(C) Silurian (D) Devonian
39. The term Adamellite is used for a rock containing :
(A) Plagioclase in excess of orthoclase
(B) Plagioclase and orthoclase in equal amounts
(C) Plagioclase is far less than Orthoclase
(D) Plagioclase and felspathoids
40. The range of fine sand is between :
(A) 0.51.00 mm (B) 1.00 2.00 mm
(C) 0.1 0.25 mm (D) 0.01 0.1 mm
41. Rudaceous rocks consist chiefly of :
(A) Clay grade material (B) Gravels to cobbles etc.
(C) Sand grade material (D) Silt grade material
42. Tillite is hardened boulder clay and is indicative of depositional environment of :
(A) Wind (B) river
(C) Glacier (D) Lake
43. The rock consisting of minute spherical or ellipsoidal grains of calcium carbonate is
called :
(A) Oolite (B) Pisolite
(C) Marble (D) Carbonatite
44. The organosedimentary structures may occur in :
(A) Coral reefs (B) Limestones
(C) Radiolarian ooze (D) Coal seams
45. Which one of the following rocks belongs to higher grade of metamorphism ?
(A) Glaucophane schist (B) Sericiteepidote phyllite
(C) Cordierite gneiss (D) Garnetmica schist
46. The contact metamorphism of siliceous limestone may produce :
(A) Wollastonite (B) Dolomite
(C) Muscovite (D) Glauconite
47. The line of maximum curvature in a folded structure is designated as :
(A) Limp (B) Dip
(C) Hinge (D) Axialplane
48. Fenestella fossil occurring in Devonian of Spiti is a :
(A) Brachiopod (B) Trilobite
(C) Bryozon (D) Graptolite
49. Spirifer, a brachiopod is characterized by a hinge line which is :
(A) Straight and short (B) Curved and short
(C) Straight and long (D) Curved and long
50. The living representative of brachiopod is :
(A) Productus (B) Lingula
(C) Derbiya (D) Athyris
51. In the twofold classification of Gondwana Group, the upper Gondwana is characterized
by the flora :
(A) Ptilophyllum (B) Glossopteris
(C) Gangamopteris (D) Schizoneura
52. In which one of the following leaf plant fossils, mid sib is present ?
(A) Glossopteris (B) Gangamopteris
(C) Sphenophyllum (D) Schizoneura
53. The classification of Lamellibranchia is based on :
(A) Dentition (B) Umbo
(C) Adductor impression (D) Pallial line
54. The living cephalopoda is :
(A) Baculites (B) Ceratites
(C) Goniatites (D) Nautilus
55. The volcanic equivalent of plutonic rock granodiorite is :
(A) Andesite (B) Phyolite
(C) Trachyte (D) Dacite
56. The increasing grade of metamorphism of shale will give rise to which sequence of
metamorphism rocks ?
(A) Phylliteschistslategneiss (B) Gneissslateschistphyllite
(C) Slateschistphyllitegneiss (D) Slatephylliteschistgneiss
57. Which of the following minerals develop under high pressure and low temperature
conditions of metamorphism ?
(A) Tremolite (B) Kyanite
(C) Hornblende (D) Glaucophene
58. The rocks affected by contact metamorphism are termed as :
(A) Hornfels (B) Hornstones
(C) Honestones (D) Mylonites
59. The trilobites are the characteristic fossils of the strata belonging to the :
(A) Palaeozoics (B) Merozoics
(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternaries
60. Which of the following minerals shows resinous lusture :
(A) Satinspar (B) Diamond
(C) Galena (D) Opal
61. The bearing of point B from A is 130. The bearing of A from B will be :
(A) S 50 E (B) S 40 W
(C) N 40 E (D) N 50 W
62. New crust is generated at :
(A) Midoceanic ridge (B) Subduction zone
(C) Island arc (D) Plume
63. Which one of the following has good porosity and is impermeable ?
(A) Sandstone (B) Clay
(C) Granite (D) Conglomerate
64. The net slip of a fault is parallel to the strike of the fault. The fault may be designated
as :
(A) Normal fault (B) Wrench fault
(C) Reverse fault (D) Thrust fault
65. In terms of plate tectonics the Indian plate boundary lies near :
(A) Main Boundary Fault (B) Satluj river
(C) Indus river (D) Main Central Thrust
66. Which of the following gastropods shows sinisteral coiling ?
(A) Bellerophon (B) Conus
(C) Murex (D) Physa
67. Ophitic texture is a kind of :
(A) Felsitic texture (B) Granitic texture
(C) Directive texture (D) Poiklitic texture
68. A crystal belonging to holohedral class has one plane of symmetry, one axis of symmetry
and a centre of symmetry, it belongs to :
(A) Isometric system (B) Triclinic system
(C) Tetragonal system (D) Monoclinic system
69. In a biaxial optically positive mineral :
(A) Z forms acute bisectrix (B) X forms acute bisectirx
(C) Optic axial angle large (D) Optic axial angle small
70. Diamond occurs in the rock of :
(A) Hydrothermal origin (B) Magmatic origin
(C) Sedimentary origin (D) Metamorphic origin
71. The mineral used for the manufacture of fireproof cloth, insulators and points :
(A) Barites (B) Gypsum
(C) Fluorspar (D) Asbestos
72. The texture generally observed in lamprophyres is described as :
(A) Hypidiomorphic (B) Panidiomorphic
(C) Allotriomorphic (D) Vitrophyric
73. Which of the following is the ratio of Si : Al in cyclosilicates ?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 4 : 11 (D) 2 : 5
74. In which of the following zones of the earth, P and S seismic waves attain maximum
velocities ?
(A) Crust (B) Upper Mantle
(C) Lower Mantle (D) Core
75. Which of the following minerals is the most predominant in syenite ?
(A) Ouartz (B) Nepheline
(C) Plagioclase (D) Alkali Feldspar
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Geology/BZL-48987/A 11
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Geology/BZL/48987-A 12 36
CET(PG)-2013
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology
INSTRUCTIONS
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M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 2
1. Larvae of which of the following parasites can be demonstrated in muscle biopsy ?
(A) Brugia malayi (B) Wuchereria bancroftia
(C) Trichinella spiralis (D) Dracunculus medinensis
2. A 28-year old woman suffered severe trauma to the head in a horseback riding accident that re-
sulted in the complete transection of the pituitary stalk. The plasma levels of which hormone would
be expected to increase as a result of this accident ?
(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
(C) Growth hormone (D) Prolactin
3. Marys father has haemophilia, an X-linked recessive trait, but her husband does not. What is the
chance that her son will have the disease ?
(A) 0% (B) 25%
(C) 50% (D) 100%
4. Within the endocrine system, specificity of communication is determined by :
(A) The chemical nature of the hormone
(B) The distance between the endocrine cell and its target cell(s)
(C) The presence of specific receptors on target cells
(D) Anatomical connections between the endocrine and target cells
5. Remiges and rectrices are types of :
(A) Tendons in birds (B) Feathers in birds
(C) Bones in all vertebrates (D) Vertebrae
6. Which of the following hormones does not act by a second messenger system ?
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone (D) Testosterone
7. Most peptide and protein hormones are synthesized as :
(A) A secretagogue (B) A pleiotropic hormone
(C) Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) (D) A preprohormone
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Zoology/A
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 3 [Turn over
8. Triiodothyronine (T3) :
(A) Is produced in greater amounts by the thyroid gland than T4
(B) Is bound by the thyroid receptor present in the cytosol of target cells
(C) Has a half-life of a few minutes in the bloodstream
(D) Can be produced by the deiodination of T4 in pituitary thyrotrophs
9. Parasite which may be transmitted by sexual contact is :
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis (B) Trypanosoma cruzi
(C) Leishmania donovani (D) Entamoeba histolytica
10. The best palaeontological evidence in support of organic evolution is given by phylogeny of :
(A) Horse (B) Camel
(C) Elephant (D) Man
11. Major function of the epididymis is :
(A) Storage and transport of mature sperm
(B) Initiating the development of spermatozoa
(C) Secretion of estrogens
(D) Secretion of fluids that contribute to semen
12. Successful fertilization is most likely to occur when the oocyte is in :
(A) The oviduct and has entered the second meiotic division
(B) The uterus and has completed the first meiotic division
(C) Metaphase of mitosis
(D) The graafian follicle, which then enters the oviduct
13. The second messengers cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP :
(A) Activate the same signal transduction pathways
(B) Are generated by the activation of cyclases
(C) Activate the same protein kinase
(D) Are important only in sensory transduction
14. Which statement is NOT true about nucleic acid hybridization ?
(A) It depends on complementary base pairing
(B) A polysaccharide can hybridize with a DNA strand
(C) Double strand DNA denatures at high temperature
(D) An RNA strand can hybridize with a DNA strand
15. Inhibin is an ovarian hormone that :
(A) Inhibits the secretion of LH and PRL
(B) Is produced by granulosa cells and inhibits the secretion of FSH
(C) Only has local ovarian effects and no effect on the secretion of FSH
(D) Has two forms, A and B, with the same ! subunits but distinct # subunits
16. Which of the following Phylum also known as Ectoprocta ?
(A) Cnidaria (B) Bryozoa
(C) Annelida (D) Rotifera
17. Which statement is true according to biological species concept ?
(A) The different species can breed with each other
(B) Individuals of same species interbreed and produce fertile offsprings
(C) Species is man made concept
(D) Species are not formed from preexisting species
18. Tribe is a taxonomic category which falls between ?
(A) Family and Genus (B) Class and Cohort
(C) Class and Order (D) Phylum and Class
19. Which of the following is true ?
(A) The apneustic center contributes to exhalation and pneumotaxic centre prolongs inhalation
(B) The apneustic center prolongs inhalation and pneumotaxic centre contributes to exhalation
(C) The apneustic center stops inhalation
(D) The pneumotaxic centre increases the tidal volume
20. Which of the following are very closely associated in their origin and are derived from extraembry-
onic somatopleure in a developing bird ?
(A) Amnion and serosa (B) Serosa and allantois
(C) Allantois and yolk sac (D) Amnion and allantois
21. Which of the following arises as a diverticulum from the ventral wall of the hindgut ?
(A) Allantois (B) Serosa
(C) Amnion (D) Yolk sac
22. What is the mechanism through which catecholamines stabilize blood glucose concentration in
response to hypoglycemia ?
(A) Catecholamines inhibit glycogenolysis in the liver
(B) Catecholamines stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas
(C) Catecholamines stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver
(D) Catecholamines inhibit the release of lactate from muscle
23. The skull of birds :
(A) is monocondylar (B) is dicondylar
(C) has perforated condyles (D) lacks condyles
24. Cardiac output is equal to :
(A) Stroke volume X pulse (B) Stroke volume/pulse
(C) Stroke volume
2
X pulse (D) Stroke volume/pulse
2
25. Raptorial feet are found in :
(A) Parrots (B) Herons
(C) Hawks (D) Swifts
26. Pernicious anemia is seen in :
(A) Diphyllobothriasis (B) Malaria
(C) Hookworm disease (D) Phyllariasis
27. Which of the following birds will you find in columbiformes ?
(A) Psittacula krameri-the rose ringed parrot
(B) Corvus splendens-the House crow
(C) Streptopelia decaocto-the ring dove
(D) Pavo cristatus-the peafowl
28. Epitaenia in mollusks is :
(A) Another name for gill
(B) A ridge like structure dividing the mantle cavity
(C) Olfactory organ
(D) Siphon for passage of water current
29. Which treatment would provide the greatest therapeutic benefit in patients with acromegaly ?
(A) Glucocorticoid (B) Somatostatin
(C) Growth hormone (D) Thyroid hormone
30. Which of the following in star fish can turn inside out ?
(A) Madreporite (B) Stone canal
(C) Tube feet (D) Cardiac stomach
31. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ?
(A) Mammals (B) Birds
(C) Reptiles (D) Fishes
32. The chitinous hooks of a hexacanth embryo of Taenia are secreted by :
(A) Hexacanth membranes (B) Embryophore
(C) Onchoblasts (D) Basement membrane
33. In bird species where both parents contribute equally to parental care, generally :
(A) Males are larger than females
(B) Females are more colorful than females
(C) Females are larger than males
(D) Both sexes are morphologically similar
34. Organ of Bojanus are :
(A) Respiratory organs of starfish (B) Chemoreceptors of Peripatus
(C) Excretory organs of Unio (D) Endocrine organs of Insects
35. Weberian ossicles are found in :
(A) Frogs (B) Birds
(C) Fishes (D) Snakes
36. In general, independent assortment of chromosomes in a cell with n pairs of chromosomes yields
how many different kinds of gametes ?
(A) n (B) n
2
(C) 2
n
(D) n+2
37. Concology is the study of :
(A) Mollusca (B) Shell of Mollusca
(C) Foot of Mollusca (D) Behaviour of Mollusca
38. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ?
(A) Sacred groves (B) National park
(C) Wildlife sanctuary (D) Seed bank
39. Which aortic arch modifies to form systemic arch :
(A) V
th
Aortic arch (B) IV
th
Aortic arch
(C) VI
th
Aortic arch (D) I
st
Aortic arch
40. Adaptive radiation refers to :
(A) Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(B) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
(C) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(D) Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
41. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is :
(A) Random creation of new species (B) No change in the isolation faunax
(C) Preventing Speciation (D) Speciation through reproductive isolation
42. Which of the following is absent in ophiuroidea ?
(A) Anus (B) Mouth
(C) Stomach (D) Madreporite
43. A dicentric chromosome is unstable because :
(A) it cannot resynthesise its telomeres during replication
(B) it pairs with non-homologous chromosomes in meiosis
(C) it pairs with non-homologous chromosomes in mitosis
(D) it is often simultaneously drawn to opposing spindle poles in mitosis
44. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.
(A) Sunderbans-Bengal tiger
(B) Dachigam National Park-Snow leopard
(C) Rann of Kutch-Wild Ass
(D) Periyar-Elephant
45. Which of the following characteristics best applies to an allosteric effector ?
(A) Competes with substrate for the catalytic site
(B) Changes the nature of the product formed
(C) Binds to a site on the enzyme molecule distinct from the catalytic site
(D) Changes the substrate specificity of the enzyme
46. Four chambered heart is found in :
(A) Cobra (B) Tortoise
(C) Salamander (D) Crocodile
47. Thermogenin, the natural uncoupler in brown fat mitochondria, generates heat based on its ability
to :
(A) Allow protons to re-enter into the mitochondrial matrix
(B) Inhibit electron transport by binding to b-type cytochromes
(C) Inhibit ATP production by binding to the ATP synthesis
(D) Block electron transport to flavoproteins
48. A bivalent consists of :
(A) Two chromatids and one centromere
(B) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(C) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(D) Four chromatids and four centromeres
49. Urey and Miller created the primitive environment in the Spark chamber and used Hydrogen,
Ammonia, Methane and Water vapor to simulate the chemical origin of life. The surprising mol-
ecule they obtained after the experiment was :
(A) Proteins (B) Lipids
(C) Amino acids (D) Polysaccharides
(E) Fatty acids
50. Paneth cells are found in :
(A) Hepatic lobules (B) Pancreatic islets
(C) Crypts of Liberkuhn (D) Payers patches
51. Pribnow box contains the nucleotide sequence :
(A) 5 TATAAT 3 (B) 5 TAA TAT 3
(C) 5 GCC CCG 3 (D) 5 AAT TTA 3
52. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of :
(A) Nucleus (B) Plastids
(C) Acrosome (D) Vacuoles
53. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period :
(A) Silurian (B) Devonian
(C) Triassic (D) Jurassic
54. Interferon-gamma is a multifunctional cytokine produced by :
(A) Eosinophils and Basophils (B) Osteoclasts
(C) B Lymphocytes (D) Th l cells and NK cells
55. When two or more non allelic gene pairs affect the same character in the same way, this is called :
(A) Polygenic inheritance (B) Pleiotropy
(C) Multiple alleles (D) Additive expressivity
56. Australian lungfish is called :
(A) Lepidosiren (B) Lepidosteus
(C) Protopterus (D) Neoceratodus
57. A bacterium adds methyl group to its DNA in order to :
(A) Clone its DNA (B) Turn its gene on
(C) Transcribe many genes simultaneously (D) Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme
58. Which of the following is the largest protozoal parasite inhabiting the large intestine of man ?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Entamoeba coli
(C) Balantidium coli (D) Giardia lambia
59. The use of biotinylated secondary antibody in ELISA :
(A) Increases the sensitivity of the assay but compromises the specificity
(B) Increases the sensitivity of the assay without compromising the specificity
(C) Does not alter either sensitivity or specificity
(D) Decreases both sensitivity or specificity
60. The G+C content of bacteriophage 13 double stranded DNA is 68%. What would you expect the
G+C content of its mRNA ?
(A) About 68% (B) About 34%
(C) About 32% (D) About 86%
61. Select the true statement about membrane phospholipids :
(A) A phospholipid contains cholesterol
(B) Phospholipids move rapidly in the plane of the bilayer
(C) Specific phospholipids are always present in equal proportions in the two halves of the bilayer
(D) Phospholipids form ion channels through the membrane
62. Assume that an animal generates heat at a rate proportional to its volume and radiate heat at a rate
proportional to its body surface. Which of these animals would be best at maintaining its body
temperature in a cold climate ?
(A) Mouse (B) Rabbit
(C) Fox (D) Bear
63. Which one of the following statements about morula in human is correct ?
(A) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(B) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(C) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(D) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
64. Effects of glucagon include :
(A) Inhibition of insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells
(B) Primary actions in adipose tissue
(C) Promotion of gluconeogenesis and urea synthesis in liver cells
(D) Indirect stimulation of ketogenesis in liver cells by the inhibition of pancreatic somatostatin
secretion
65. Nilgiri Tahr is restricted only to upper heights (1200 to 2600 meters) of western ghat. The major
reason is :
(A) Habitat preferences
(B) Habitat shrinkage
(C) Urbanization in other part of habitat
(D) Pressure of tiger predation at lower height
66. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to replication in eukaryotes ?
(A) Single origin and continuous replication
(B) Multiple origin and continuous and discontinuous replication
(C) Multiple origin and continuous replication
(D) Single origin and continuous and discontinuous replication
67. Bohr effect in haemoglobin refers to the :
(A) Reduced affinity for oxygen at lower pH
(B) Higher pH in actively metabolizing tissues
(C) Increased affinity for oxygen at lower pH
(D) Low pH in actively metabolizing tissues
68. As we move from one geographical region to the next region, species diversity tend to change. It is
termed as :
(A) alpha-diversity (B) beta-diversity
(C) gamma-diversity (D) delta-diversity
69. In a hybridization experiment a plant shows phenotypic ratio of 15:1. How many genes control the
trait for observed phenotypic ratio ?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Two (D) Polygene
70. Which of the following is a steroid hormone ?
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Aldosterone (D) Thyroxine
71. Crab may transmit :
(A) Diphyllobothrium latum (B) Clonorchis sinensis
(C) Paragonimus westermani (D) Enterobius vermicularis
72. The correct sequence in which water flows into the body of Sycon and comes out of it is :
(A) Ostia, apopyles, osculum, prosopyles
(B) Ostia, apopyles, prosopyles, osculum
(C) Ostia, prosopyles, apopyles, osculum
(D) Apopyles, ostia, prosopyles, osculum
73. Mammalian jaw has evolved from :
(A) Pharyngeal arches (B) Temporal bone
(C) Frontal bone (D) Dentary and squamosal bones
74. In signal transduction trimeric G protein with #$ ! #$ ! #$ ! #$ ! #$ ! and % is involved. Which subunit will activate
adenylate cyclase ?
(A) # subunit (B) # ! subunit
(C) ! subunit (D)
%
subunit
75. During the early origin of earth oxygen was absent in environment. Later on the oxygen increased
and reached to present level. The main source of oxygen was :
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Released from CaCO
3
(C) Escape of CO
2
to environment (D) Escape of oxygen from internal sources
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 16 94
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School)Biochemistry
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Biochemistry/BZL-48996-A 2
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Biochemistry/BZL-48996-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons. School)Biochemistry/A
1. How much stock solution is required to make 100 ml of 25 MM solution of NaCl from a
1 M stock ?
(A) 2.5 ml
(B) 0.25 ml
(C) 25 ml
(D) 50 ml
2. For the ion product of water; which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Is independent of temperature
(B) Has a numerical value of 1 10
-14
at 25C
(C) Is the equilibrium constant for the reaction H
2
O H + + OH
(D) Is an approximation that fails to take into account the presence of the hydronium ion (H
3
O
+
)
3. The HandersonHasselbalch equation is described as :
(A)
] HA [
] A [ log pH
pKa
!
"
#
(B)
] HA [
] A [ log pKa
pH
!
"
#
(C)
] A [
] HA [ log pKa
pH
!
"
#
(D)
] A [
] HA [ log pH
pKa
!
"
#
4. Enzyme glucokinase is a :
(A) Transferase (B) Isomerase
(C) Oxidoreductase (D) Hydrolase
5. The electron transport chain is located predominantly in :
(A) Outer part of the mitochondria
(B) Intermembrane space of the mitochondria
(C) Inner membrane of the mitochondria
(D) Matrix of mitochondria
6. An uncouple of oxidative phosphorylation such as dinitrophenol :
(A) Inhibits respiration and ATP synthesis
(B) Allows electron transport to proceed without ATP synthesis
(C) Inhibits respiration without impairment of ATP synthesis
(D) Specifically inhibits cytochrome b
7. The most abundant carbohydrate found in nature is :
(A) Starch (B) Glycogen
(C) Cellulose (D) Chitin
8. Proteins contain :
(A) Only Lamino acids (B) Only Damino acids
(C) DLAmino acids (D) Both (A) and (B)
9. Each turn of $ $$ $$helix contains the amino acid residues (number) :
(A) 3.2 (B) 3.6
(C) 4.4 (D) 4.5
10. Proteins are detected at this wavelength :
(A) 280 nm (B) 260 nm
(C) 240 nm (D) 340 nm
11. Glucose and Galactose are two isomeric monosaccharides known as :
(A) Anomers (B) Epimers
(C) Enantiomers (D) Conformers
12. This hormone is a modified amino acid :
(A) Progesterone (B) Prostaglandin
(C) Epinephrine (D) Estrogen
13. Which of the following is not a component of histone octamer ?
(A) H2A (B) H1
(C) H2B (D) H3
14. An amino acid with 6 codons is :
(A) Proline (B) Alanine
(C) Serine (D) Glycine
15. The active part of immunoglobulin is :
(A) Fab (B) Fc
(C) Fd (D) Feb
16. The ribosome is involved in all the following EXCEPT :
(A) Peptide bond formation (B) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(C) Binding of protein factors during elongation (D) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to mRNA
17. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are :
(A) Actin and troponin (B) Actin and myosin
(C) Troponin and tropomyosin (D) Actin and tropomyosin
18. The enzyme DNA ligase :
(A) Introduces superhelical twists (B) Connects the end of two DNA chains
(C) Unwinds the double helix (D) Synthesises RNA primers
19. Competitive inhibitors :
(A) Decrease the Km (B) Decrease the Vmax
(C) Increase the Km (D) Increase the V max
20. What is the property of C
4
plants but not C
3
plants ?
(A) Initially fix CO
2
in mesophyll cells as 4carbon long compounds
(B) Initially fix CO
2
in bundle sheath cells as 3carbon long compounds
(C) Initially fix CO
2
in mesophyll cells as 3carbon long compounds
(D) Initially fix CO
2
in bundle sheath cells as 4carbon long compounds
21. Which of the following antibiotic resembles the 3'end of charged tRNA molecule ?
(A) Puromycin (B) Streptomycin
(C) Tetracyclin (D) Kanamycin
22. Which of the following fatty acid is NOT synthesized in humans ?
(A) Stearic acid (B) Oleic acid
(C) Palmitic acid (D) Linoleic acid
23. Animals fed high cholesterol diet exhibit decreased cholesterol synthesis by liver because
of the inhibition of the following enzymes :
(A) HMGCoA synthetase (B) HMGCoA lyase
(C) HMGCoA reductase (D) Mevalonate kinase
24. When lactose is digested, it yields two monosaccharides called :
(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Maltose and glucose
(C) Glucose and Glucose (D) Glucose and galactose
25. The distinguishing test between monosaccharides and dissaccharide is :
(A) Bial's test (B) Seliwanoff's test
(C) Barfoed's test (D) Hydrolysis test
26. Cyclic AMP binds to :
(A) Catalytic subunits of protein kinase
(B) Regulatory subunits of protein kinase
(C) Catalytic subunits of phosphorylase kinase
(D) Regulatory subunits of phosphorylase kinase
27. The pK values for aspartic acid are 2.0, 3.9 and 10.0, the isoelectric (pH) of aspartic acid
is :
(A) 3.0 (B) 3.9
(C) 5.9 (D) 6.0
28. 5metylcytocines are common sites for mutations because they :
(A) Are not recognized by the proofreading activity of DNA polymerase
(B) Can mispair with adenine
(C) Can deaminate to thymidine
(D) Prevent discrimination between the daughter and parental strand can deaminate to uracil
29. The actual synthesis of DNA in E.coli is the function of :
(A) Polymerase I (B) Primase
(C) Polymerase III (D) DNA ligase
30. The basic Ig unit is composed of :
(A) 2 identical heavy and 2 identical light chains
(B) 2 identical heavy and 2 different light chains
(C) 2 different heavy and 2 identical light chains
(D) 2 different heavy and 2 different light chains
31. Recombination of V, D and J Ig gene segments :
(A) Only occurs in light chains (B) Is effected by recombinase enzymes
(C) Only occurs in mature Bcells (D) Only occurs in mature Bcells
32. When does DNA synthesis occur during the cell cycle ?
(A) G
1
(B) G
2
(C) G
0
(D) S
33. What sequence is a palindrome ?
(A) 5' AGGCCT 3' (B) 5' CCAGG 3
(C) 5' CCATT 3 (D) 5' ACGGATTCGC 3'
34. In an SDSPAGE experiment proteins are separated on the basis of their :
(A) Chargetomass ratio (B) Molecular weight
(C) Different isoelectric points (D) Positively charged side chains
35. Weak acids :
(A) generally have pKa values greater than 7
(B) generally have pKa values between 2 and 10
(C) are another name for dilute acids
(D) cannot be used to buffer the pH of a solution
36. A feature in common among all serine proteases is :
(A) a hydrophilic specificity pocket
(B) a cluster of reactive serine residues
(C) a single reactive serine residue
(D) their amino acid sequence and tertiary structure
37. The standard free energy (DG') of ATP hydrolysis to ADP + Pi is about :
(A) +30 kJ/mol (B) +14 kJ/mol
(C) 14 kJ/mol (D) 30 kJ/mol
38. The peptidyl transferase reaction is catalyzed :
(A) solely by nucleotides in 23S RNA
(B) solely by nucleotides in 16S RNA
(C) by amino acid side chains of proteins, L1 and L 11
(D) by amino acid side chains of proteins, S2 and S12
39. The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA :
(A) can be hydrolyzed by OH
-
(B) are free to rotate over about 180
(C) are restricted to one of four possible orientations
(D) connect the sugar to the base
40. The principal intracellular cation is :
(A) Na
+
(B) Ca
2+
(C) K
+
(D) Cl
41. AN allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme usually :

(A) Binds to the active site (B) Participates in feedback regulation
(C) Denatures the enzyme (D) Causes the enzyme to work faster
42. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(A) Axoplasm (B) Microglia
(C) Schwann cell (D) Astrocytes
43. The strong conclusion from Anfinsen's work on RNaseA was that :
(A) 100% enzyme activity corresponds to the native conformation
(B) Disulfide bonds (SS) in proteins can be reduced in vitro
(C) CysSH groups are not found in vivo
(D) The native conformation of a protein is adopted spontaneously
44. The 'rho' (% %% %%) factor is involved :
(A) To increase the rate of RNA synthesis
(B) In binding catabolite repressor to the promoter region
(C) In proper termination of transcription
(D) To allow proper initiation of transcription
45. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolism of :
(A) Pyrimidine (B) Purine
(C) Alanine (D) Phenylalanine
46. Selenium is a constituent of :
(A) Glutathione reductase (B) Glutathione peroxidase
(C) Catalase (D) Superoxide dismutase
47. Prothrombin time is prolonged by administering :
(A) Vitamin K (B) Dicoumarol
(C) Calcium (D) Prothrombin
48. A protein rich in hydroxyproline is :
(A) Prolamin (B) Procollagen
(C) Collagen (D) Proinsulin
49. The number of double bonds in arachidonic acid is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
50. The major lipid chylomicrons is :
(A) Triglycerides (B) Phospholipids
(C) Cholesterol (D) Free fatty acids
51. Saponification number indicates :
(A) Unsaturation in fat (B) Average M.W. of fatty acid
(C) Acetyl number (D) Acid number
52. Calcitriol synthesis involves :
(A) Both liver and kidney (B) Intestine
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscle
53. Targeting of a protein for degradation is accomplished by :
(A) Transcriptional silencing (B) mRNA editing
(C) Ubiquitination (D) Methylation
54. Which sequence is most likely to be a eukaryotic promoter ?
(A) GTACAGTCATCCCGTC (B) CTTGCTATACCATTCG
(C) AAATCTACTACGATTAG (D) CGGTATATATCGTACG
55. Which of the following methods of regulation is NOT present in prokaryotes ?
(A) DNAbinding proteins (B) Attenuation
(C) Repressor proteins (D) Chromatin remodelling
56. is the premature termination of transcription .
(A) Induction (B) Attenuation
(C) Repression (D) Catabolite repression
57. What is the maximum Rf value for any molecule in paper chromatography ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 1.0
(C) 10.0 (D) Infinity
58. Which objective provides the greatest field of view ?
(A) High (B) 100X
(C) Low (D) This depends on if the specimen is stained
59. The signalling molecules that travel the farthest are :
(A) Endocrine (B) Autocrine
(C) Paracrine (D) Neurotransmitter
60. In a resting cell, the resting membrane potential is between 70mV and 90mV. This
occurs because :
(A) There are extra Na
+
ions outside the plasma membrane, and extra Cl
ions inside the plasma

membrane
(B) Na
+
ions move with the concentration gradient to the outside of the cell
(C) Some K
+
ions diffuse to immediately outside the plasma membrane
(D) Large protein ions diffuse to immediately outside the plasma membrane
61. Which is not a metabolic intermediate used in amphibolic pathways ?
(A) Glyceraldehyde3phosphate (B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Fructose1, 6bisphosphate (D) Oxaloacetic acid
62. What is the most common electron carrier in biological systems ?
(A) FAD (B) Coenzyme A
(C) NAD
+
(D) NADP
+
63. Digestion in the lumen of the stomach is limited to :
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins
(C) Fats (D) All kinds of food are digested there
64. Which one of the following contains cobalt ?
(A) B
1
(B) B
2
(C) B
6
(D) B
12
65. What enzyme is responsible for coiling the chromosome into a tight bundle by introducing
a reversible series of twists into the DNA molecule ?
(A) DNA gyrase (B) Helicase
(C) Ligase (D) Primase
66. In proteins, elements of secondary structure combine to form :
(A) Domain (B) Motif
(C) Alpha helix (D) Beta sheet
67. Which of the following growth media would you expect to result in synthesis of high
levels of mRNA for the enzymes of the E.coli lac operon ?
(A) No glucose, high lactose (B) High glucose, high lactose
(C) No glucose, no lactose (D) High glucose, low lactose
68. Transcription occurs along a template forming an mRNA in the direction.
(A) 5' to 3'; 5' to 3' (B) 5' to 3'; 3' to 5'
(C) 3' to 5'; 5' to 3' (D) 3' to 5'; 3' to 5'
69. A peptide bond :
(A) is ionized at physiological pH
(B) is stable to heating in strong acids
(C) has a partial double bond character
(D) occurs most commonly in cis configuration
70. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always :
(A) TAC (B) UAA
(C) UAG (D) AUG
71. Cells use upto 40% of their daily energy expenditure engaged in what important
process ?
(A) Active transport (B) Endocytosis
(C) Exocytosis (D) Facilitated diffusion
72. When a muscle is at rest, what blocks myosin from binding to actin ?
(A) ATP (B) Ca
++
(C) Troponin (D) Tropomyosin
73. When liver glycogen levels are inadequate to supply glucose, especially to the brain,
amino acids and glycerol are used to produce in a process called .
(A) glycogen; glycogenesis (B) glucose; gluconeogenesis
(C) lipids; lipogenesis (D) glucose6phosphate; glycogenolysis
74. Cystic fibrosis results from defective ion channels for :
(A) Na
+
(B) Cl
(C) Ca
++
(D) H
+
75. In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain
elongation ?
(A) The incorporation of a regular DNA nucleotide
(B) The incorporation of a dideoxynucleotide
(C) Denaturation of the doublestranded test fragments
(D) When the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Biochemistry/BZL-48996-A 12 92
CET (PG)2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School)Computer Science
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Computer Science/BZL/48988-A 2
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Computer Science/BZL/48988-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Computer Science/A
1. The binary addition of 1+1+1+1 is :
(A) 111 (B) 100
(C) 101 (D) 110
2. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 is :
(A) 00011001 (B) 00011010
(C) 00110110 (D) 01101010
3. The decimal number 15.6782 can be represented in the floating point notation as :
(A) 0.156782E-02 (B) -0.156782E02
(C) -0.156782E-02 (D) 0.156782E02
4. The speed of CPU in personal computers today is about :
(A) 2 GHz (B) 2 KHz
(C) 10 MHz (D) 500 Hz
5. What is the Hamming distance among the following code words ?
0011 1100 1111 0000
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
6. Which of the following is a positive number represented in the signed magnitude
notation ?
(A) 1000 0110 (B) 1111 0011
(C) 0100 0000 (D) 1110 0000
7. RAID is :
(A) Virtualization of hard disks (B) An operating system
(C) A programming language (D) A processor
8. The time complexity to find a specific element in a linked list with n nodes is :
(A) O(1) (B) O(n
2
)
(C) O(log n) (D) O(n)
(A) Records stored in a random access file must be the same size
(B) The data on a tape can be accessed with sequential and random access
(C) In a hash table the cost for each look up is dependent on the number of elements stored in the
table
(D) Indexes are not used in relational databases
10. A hash table associates keys to values using :
(A) Constant function (B) Algorithm
(C) Predefined table values (D) Randomly generated values
11. Which of the following is an intelligent peripheral interface standard ?
(A) AGP (B) SCSI
(C) RS-232 (D) RJ25
12. Latency is measured in :
(A) Mbps (B) Gigabyte
(C) GHz (D) Milliseconds
13. IEEE 802.11 standard is used for :
(A) Wireless local area network (B) Mobile broadband wireless access
(C) Ethernet (D) Broadband wireless access
14. The protocol used to retrieve email from a remote server is :
(A) FTP (B) UDP
(C) POP3 (D) HTTP
15. Which of the following is not a part of software maintenance ?
(A) Improving the performance of the software (B) Correcting errors
(C) Validating the software (D) Enhancing the software
16. In MS-PowerPoint presentation software, the slide sorter view allows to :
(A) view slides (B) delete slides
(C) interchange slides (D) all or any of view, cut, copy and paste slides
17. A circle if scaled in only one dimension becomes :
(A) Parabola (B) Ellipse
(C) Hyperbola (D) Sphere
18. Which of the following is the largest in size ?
(A) Petabyte (B) Terabyte
(C) Gigabyte (D) Megabyte
19. What is the full form of USB ?
(A) Universal server bus (B) Universal service bus
(C) Universal serial bus (D) Unlimited serial bus
20. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) A single sided, single-layer, 12 cm diameter DVD disc typically holds 4.7 GB of data
(B) A smart card contains a chip and other circuitry into which data can be stored
(C) A computer with a C drive and a D drive must have two physical hard drives
(D) External hard drives can be connected using USB port
21. Which display technology is more commonly used in portable computers ?
(A) Touch screen (B) CRT
(C) LED (D) LCD
22. Which of the following is a pen based input device ?
(A) Keyboard (B) Stylus
(C) Joystick (D) Mouse
23. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) Linux can be used on PCs, mainframe and supercomputers
(B) Operating system is a software that manages the resources of a computer
(C) UNIX cannot be used for networking computers
(D) Grep command in UNIX is used to find the matching text in a file
24. A widely used communications protocol for local area networks is :
(A) SMTP (B) Ethernet
(C) IMAP (D) TCP/IP
25. Internet service that transmits data over standard telephone network is :
(A) DSL (B) ISDN
(C) Cable (D) Satellite
26. (5, 8) is a point on the circle with centre at the origin. Which of the following points is also
on the circle ?
(A) (8, 5) (B) (8, 5)
(C) (5, 8) (D) (10, 16)
27. The clarity of an image displayed on a monitor depends on :
(A) Aspect ratio (B) Frame buffer size
(C) Input image (D) Resolution
28. Let r be the radius of a circle. The angle made by an arc of length r at the centre of the
circle is :
(A) 30 degrees (B) 45 degrees
(C) one radian (D) one degree
29. Given three non collinear points, which of the following can be drawn touching the three
points ?
(A) Straight line (B) Circle and triangle
(C) Only circle (D) Only triangle
30. The column of a table is referred to as :
(A) Attribute (B) Tuple
(C) Entity (D) Relation
31. Which of the following relationships is true for employees and manager ?
(A) One to one (B) One to many
(C) Many to many (D) Many to one
32. The data-flow diagram depicts :
(A) Only flow of data (B) Only processing aspects
(C) Only storage aspects (D) Both processing aspects and flow of data
33. Which of the following is not a compressed file format ?
(A) JPG (B) MP3
(C) WAV (D) GIF
34. If integer needs two bytes of storage, the maximum value of an unsigned integer is :
(A) 2
16
(B) 2
16
1
(C) 2
15
1 (D) 2
15
35. If A is an integer type, then the expression 2 * (A 7) / 9 and (A 7) / 9 * 2 results in :
(A) same value (B) different value
(C) may or may not be the same (D) error
36. The statement printf ( %f , 9/5); prints :
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.8
(C) 2.0 (D) garbage
37. What is the result of the following program segment ?
for (i=1; i<5; i++)
if (i= =3) continue;
else printf (%d, i);
(A) 1 2 4 (B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 3 4 5 (D) 1 2 4 5
38. 5 << 3 is evaluated in C language to :
(A) 15 (B) 40
(C) 1.66 (D) 0.625
39. In object oriented programming, a class derived from more than one of the existing classes
is known as :
(A) Multilevel inheritance (B) Overloading
(C) Multiple inheritance (D) Data hiding
40. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C ++ ?
(A) + = (B)
(C) * = (D) : :
(A) A Java program is converted into class file called Byte code
(B) A Java source file must have Java extension
(C) A variable in Java can be an unsigned integer
(D) goto and const are the two reserved keywords in Java
42. Which method in Java is invoked by a thread to return to the waiting state ?
(A) yield ( ) (B) sleep ( )
(C) run ( ) (D) start ( )
43. Consider the following array declaration in C language.
int A[4][2] = {231, 67, 265, 22, 781, 288, 145, 89}
The element 288 is at location :
(A) row 2 and column 2 (B) row 2 and column 3
(C) row 2 and column 1 (D) row 3 and column 2
44. In C language, if S is an array of size 5, the address of third location is :
(A) S+3 (B) S+2
(C) S+5 (D) S+1
45. If p is a pointer variable, the expression to increment the value pointed to by p is :
(A) *p (B) (*p) ++
(C) p+1 (D) p
46. If p is pointing to a linked list with link as the link field, the address of the fourth node in
the linked list in terms of p and link is :
(A) p!link!link!link (B) p!link
(C) p!link!link (D) p!link!link!link!link
47. The initial configuration of a stack is (a, b, c, d) where a is the top element of the stack.
To get the configuration (c, a, b, d), the number of deletions and additions required
respectively are :
(A) (3, 2) (B) (2, 3)
(C) (3, 4) (D) (3, 3)
48. Suppose A is a linear array (5:60) and the base address is 500. The address of AA(20)
is :
(A) 514 (B) 525
(C) 515 (D) 516
49. Worst case complexity of quick sort algorithm to sort n numbers is :
(A) n*n (B) n*log n
(C) n (D) log n
50. Best case complexity of binary search algorithm to search for an element in N numbers
is :
(A) log n (B) 1
(C) n (D) n log n
51. Assuming root is at level 1, the number of nodes in a binary tree of depth k is :
(A) 2
k
(B) 2
k1
(C) 2
k
+ 1 (D) 2
k
1
52. In Java which keyword is used to enable one class to inherit from another class ?
(A) Inherit (B) Extends
(C) Derived (D) Import
53. Which of the following operators cannot be performed on pointers in C ?
(A) Subtraction of a number from the pointer (B) Subtraction of one pointer from another
(C) Addition of two pointers (D) Addition of a number to a pointer
54. Which of the following is not a header file in C ?
(A) ctype.h (B) string.h
(C) stdlib.h (D) type.h
55. Consider the operation of addition. For two numbers the operation would produce a sum.
If the operands are strings, the same operation would produce a concatenated string.
This feature is known as :
(A) Polymorphism (B) Encapsulation
(C) Inheritance (D) Dynamic binding
56. In OSI network model, routing is done in which layer ?
(A) Session (B) Network
(C) Data link (D) Transport
57. In OSI network model, encryption and decryption are functions which layer ?
(A) Data link (B) Network
(C) Presentation (D) Transport
58. Which of the following is not a filter in UNIX ?
(A) cat (B) grep
(C) sort (D) wc
59. Which UNIX command writes arguments to the standard output of the shell ?
(A) cat (B) echo
(C) nice (D) ls
60. The purpose of time command in UNIX is :
(A) Display current date and time (B) Display current time
(C) Display execution time of a command (D) Display execution time of a C program
61. What will be the output of the following C language statement ?
printf (%c, 100);
(A) 100 (B) Garbage
(C) Hexadecimal value of 100 (D) ASCII value of 100
62. What will be the output of the following C code ?
for (i=3; i<15; i+ = 3);
printf (%d, i);
(A) 15 (B) A syntax error
(C) 3 6 9 12 (D) Execution error
63. What will be printed as a result of the following C code ?
int a =8, *b = &a;
printf (%d, a * b);
(A) 64 (B) Error message
(C) Garbage (D) 8
64. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Every function is a relation
(B) Every relation is a function
(C) Function and relation are independent
(D) Function and relation are synonyms
65. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Prototyping is adopted if information requirements are not well defined
(B) Data dictionary contains data about data
(C) Data dictionary and data store are the same
(D) Economic feasibility is part of the feasibility study phase
66. TRUNCATE TABLE statement in SQL belongs to :
(A) DML (B) DDL
(C) DCL (D) DML and DDL
67. Which of the following is not a measure of software quality ?
(A) Reliability (B) Maintainability
(C) Security (D) Accessibility
68. While editing a document, another document is being printed. This is an example of :
(A) Multiprocessing (B) Multiprogramming
(C) Multitasking (D) Timesharing
69. Which of the following is a DOS internal command ?
(A) SORT (B) PRINT
(C) XCOPY (D) MEM
70. The postfix equivalent of the infix expression P*Q(R+S) is :
(A) PQ * RS + (B) PQ RS * +
(C) PQ* + RS (D) PQ* RS +
71. Let S be the standard deviation of N numbers. If each of the N numbers is multiplied by
a constant C, then the new standard deviation will be :
(A) S (B) C * S
(C) S/C (D) C*C *S
72. Suppose A is a square matrix of order N with determinant value 5. If all the elements are
multiplied by 2, its determinant value becomes 40. The value of N is :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 5
73. The maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph with n vertices is :
(A) n (B) n+1
(C) 2n1 (D) n1
74. Which of the following commands can be used to print a file in UNIX ?
(A) print (B) lp
(C) prn (D) pr
75. Which of the following traversal techniques lists the nodes of a binary search tree in
ascending order ?
(A) Post-order (B) Any order
(C) Pre-order (D) In-order
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Computer Science/BZL/48988-A 12 248
CET(PG)-2013
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/DSr. No. :
Roll No.
Subject : M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
allowed.
candidate only.
duty.
the examination.
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/BZL-48980-A 2
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/BZL-48980-A 3 [Turn Over
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/A
1. E. coli DNA Polymerase III replicates ColEI plasmid DNA :
(A) Unidirectionally at the rate of 50 kb per min
(B) Bidirectionally at the rate of 50 kb per min
(C) Unidirectionally at the rate of 40 bp per second
(D) Bidirectionally at the rate of 40 bp per second
2. Agar is a polymer of :
(A) D-galactose and 3,6-anhydro-L-galactopyranose
(B) L-galactose and 3,6-anhydro-D-galactopyranose
(C) Galacturonic acid
(D) Alginic acid
3. A bacterial population growing exponentially at a specific growth rate of 1.5/ h will have
a generation time of :
(A) 0.46 h (B) 0.64 h
(C) 0.85 h (D) 1.55 h
4. Which of the following is not a precursor metabolite ?
(A) Fructose-1, 6-diphosphate (B) Glyceraldehydes -3-phosphate
(C) Alpha-ketogluarate (D) acetyl CoA
5. Antibiotic that does not inhibit cell wall synthesis is :
(A) Cycloserine (B) Vancomycin
(C) Rifampicin (D) Ristocetin
6. In E. coli, fructose is transported through cell membrane by :
(A) active proton symport (B) facilitated diffusion
(C) group translocation system (D) active binding protein transport
7. The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on :
(A) 18S rDNA sequence analysis (B) DNA-RNA hybridization
(C) 16S rDNA sequence analysis (D) G+C % content of DNA
8. Which of the following is a case of bioremediation ?
(A) use of oil degrading bacteria in case of oil spills
(B) use of nitrogen fixing bacteria in fields to convert ammonia to nitrogen
(C) use of bacteria in the sewage treatment and disposal
(D) use of disinfectants in the removal of microbial load
9. In a variable volume fed batch culturing, with time :
(A) Both dilution rate and growth rate will increase
(B) Both dilution rate and growth rate will decrease
(C) Substrate concentration will increase but biomass concentration will decrease
(D) Biomass concentration will increase but substrate concentration will decrease
10. Which of the following microbes does NOT have Entner Duodoroff pathway to metabolize
glucose ?
(A) Pseudomonas Syringae (B) Rhizobium meliloti
(C) Thermus aquaticus (D) Azotobacter vinelandii
11. trp operon is regulated mainly by :
(A) catabolite repression (B) allosteric feed back inhibition
(C) attenuation (D) end product inhibition
12. Which of the following is NOT a phagemid ?
(A) pUC118 (B) pET 28a
(C) pBluescript SK (+) (D) pSC 101
13. Upon infection of E. coli with ! !! !! phage, cI repressor is produced during :
(A) immediate early transcription (B) delayed early transcription
(C) late transcription (D) DNA synthesis phase
14. SmaI is a restriction enzyme belonging to the Type :
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) IV
15. Thermophilic bacteria have more of the following in their cell membrane :
(A) unsaturated fatty acids (B) saturated fatty acids
(C) sterols (D) glycerides
16. A polypeptide of 99 kDa will be coded by a gene of the size :
(A) 0.27 kb (B) 2.7 kb
(C) 27kb (D) 1.7 kb
17. pBR322 contains the origin of replication taken from :
(A) p15A (B) pSC101
(C) R1 (D) pMB1
18. TspMI, a restriction endonuclease recognizing hexameric sequence CCCGGG, will cut a
genomic DNA, which has 50% GC content, after every :
(A) 4
2
bp (B) 4
4
bp
(C) 4
6
bp (D) 4
8
bp
19. Which of the following nucleic acid amplification techniques can be used for quantization
of sample DNA ?
(A) TaqMan PCR (B) Nested PCR
(C) RT PCR (D) Multiplex PCR
20. Bacteria artificial chromosome can accommodate foreign DNA fragments of the size :
(A) 1-10 kb (B) 30-300 kb
(C) 250-900 kb (D) 10-100 Mb
21. Which of the following mutagen causes oxidative deamination of cytosine ?
(A) HNO
2
(B) HONH
2
(C) Methyl Nitro Nitroso Guanidine (D) Ethyl Methane Sulphonate
22. Which of the following is an archaebacterium containing unsaturated branched fatty
alcohols in cell membrane ?
(A) Thermococcus (B) Rheinheimera
(C) Thermotoga (D) Thermus
23. For error-free PCR, the DNA polymerase used is :
(A) Taq (B) Klenow
(C) T4 (D) Pfu
24. The gene responsible for septum formation in bacteria is :
(A) rpoD (B) filF
(C) ftsZ (D) lexA
25. Which of the following is NOT an expression vector ?
(A) ! gt10 (B) ! gt11
(C) pUC18 (D) pET28a
26. Which phage has terminally redundant, circularly permuted genome ?
(A) P1 (B) !
(C) T2 (D) M13
27. For recombinant microbes, which type of culturing you will NOT prefer ?
(A) Continuous (B) Batch
(C) Fixed volume fed batch (D) Variable volume fed batch
28. Which of the following viruses is NOT transmitted from animals to humans ?
(A) Rabies (B) Hanta
(C) Lassa Fever (D) H5N1
29. Genes for immunoglobulins (antibodies) are unlike other human genes in that :
(A) antibody genes are composed of introns and exons
(B) DNA for antibody molecules is inherited from only one parent
(C) gene segments must be spliced together to make each unique antibody molecule
(D) several exons encode each antibody molecule
30. Vaccination protects us from infectious disease by generating memory :
(A) antigen (B) lymphocytes
(C) macrophages (D) PMNs
31. Interleukin-2 produced by which immune cells
(A) T
H
(B) T
C
(C) TB (D) Plasma
32. In CD-4 T cells, CD stands for :
(A) Cluster of Differentiation (B) Clonal Differentiation
(C) Cell Dendrites (D) Cellular Differentiation
33. Freunds complete adjuvant CANNOT do :
(A) Prolong antigen persistence (B) Induce granuloma formation
(C) Stimulate lymphocytes non-specifically (D) Activate macrophages
34. Which statement is FALSE ?
(A) All myeloma protein molecules derived from a single myeloma clone have the same idiotype
and allotype
(B) A rabbit immunized with human IgG3 will produce antibodies that react with all subclasses of
IgG in humans
(C) All Ig molecules on the surface of a given B cell have the same isotype
(D) All Ig molecules on the surface of a given B cell have the same idiotype
35. Which statement is FALSE ?
(A) Indirect immunofluorescence is a more sensitive technique than direct
(B) Most antigens induce a polyclonal response
(C) For precipitation to occur, both antigen and antibody must be multivalent
(D) Precipitation tests are more sensitive than agglutination tests
36. Cell mediated immune response does not apply to :
(A) Involvement of Class I MHC molecules (B) Response to viral infections, generally
(C) Response to bacterial infections, generally (D) Response to organ transplant, generally
37. Which of the following does not belong to Enterovirus group ?
(A) Poliovirus (B) Coxsachie virus
(C) Echovirus (D) Rhinovirus
38. Which are not common flora of skin ?
(A) Staphylococcus (B) Mycobacteria
(C) Corynebacteria (D) Bacteroides
39. Widal test is a serological test to detect :
(A) Specific agglutinins against O-Ag of Samonella typhi
(B) Specific precipitins against H-Ag of Samonella typhi
(C) Specific agglutinins against both O-Ag and H-Ag of Samonella typhi
(D) Specific precipitins against both O-Ag and H-Ag of Samonella typhi
40. What is false about Ig G ?
(A) has a molecular weight of 150000
(B) is the principal immunoglobulin in secondary immune response
(C) is important in mucosal immunity
(D) is the only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta
41. What is NOT true ? Type IV hypersensitivity responses ?
(A) are mediated through antibody-antigen complexes
(B) typically occur 72 hours after contact with the antigen
(C) occur in Kveims test
(D) occur in contact dermatitis
42. With regard to interferons what is false ?
(A) IFN beta is produced by cells infected with virus
(B) IFN gamma increases MCH class I and II expression in antigen presenting cell
(C) IFN alpha is produced by fibroblasts
(D) they have anti-tumour activity
43. What is not true about the Fc regions of an immunoglobulins ?
(A) they can be cleaved from the Fab regions by papain
(B) they are responsible for antibody binding
(C) they are involved in mast cell binding
(D) they are involved in the activation of the complement cascade
44. What can be used effectively for skin disinfection ?
(A) glutaraldehyde (B) chlorhexidine
(C) ethylene oxide (D) chloramphenicol drops
45. Which of the following is not positive for Staphylococcus aureus ?
(A) Lancefield group serology (B) Phosphatase positivity
(C) Coagulase positivity (D) fermentation of mannitol
46. Erythrogenic toxin is produced by :
(A) Group A lysogenic Streptococci (B) beta-hemolytic Staphylococci
(C) Yersinia pestis (D) alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
47. In the Kauffmann White classification, Salmonella typhi O-antigen is of the type :
(A) 2, 12 (B) 9, 12
(C) 6, 8 (D) 3, 10
48. Cholera toxin consists of :
(A) 5 A and 1 B chains (B) 1 A and 5 B chains
(C) 1 A and 1 B chain (D) 5 A and 5 B chains
49. Which is not a member of the family Enterobacteriaceae ?
(A) Citrobacter (B) Edwardsiella
(C) Providencia (D) Pseudomonas
50. Delayed hypersensitivity to PPD is measured by :
(A) Dick text (B) Schick test
(C) Montoux test (D) HPV test
51. Which of the following is not included in Lactic Acid Bacteria ?
(A) Pediococcus (B) Vagococcus
(C) Weissella (D) Rheinheimera
52. The commercial drink YAKULT contains the Lactic Acid Bacteria :
(A) Lactobacillus casei (B) Lactobacilus plantarum
(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides (D) Streptococcus lactis
53. The largest bacterium is :
(A) Thiomargarita namibiensis (B) Epulopiscium fishelsoni
(C) Achromatium oxaliferum (D) Lyngbya majuscule
54. Configuration of Fo component of E. coli A TPase is :
(A) ab
2
c
12
(B) abc
(C) a
12
b
2
c
12
(D) a
12
b
12
c
12
55. Archaebacteria were discovered by :
(A) Carl Woese (B) Karl Stetter
(C) Thomas Brock (D) Craig Venter
56. In E. coli, K + is transported across the cell membrane by :
(A) Uniport (B) Symport
(C) Antiport (D) Passive diffusion
57. Proton motive force in bacteria is NOT utilized for :
(A) ATP synthesis (B) Flagellar locomotion
(C) Transport of certain nutrients (D) Glucose metabolism
58. The first bacterium whose genome was sequenced was :
(A) E. coli (B) H. influenzae
(C) Mycoplasma genitalium (D) Methanococcus janaschii
59. The first recombinant vaccine to hit the market was :
(A) Influenza (B) Hepatitis B
(C) Polio (D) Cholera
60. Prokaryotes that have cell walls without peptidoglycan fall in the division :
(A) Gracilicutes (B) Firmicutes
(C) Tenericutes (D) Mendosicutes
61. A bacterial cell starts growing exponentially with g=30 min and reaches 10
6
cfu/ml in
10 h. If 16 cells start growing similarly, how much time will they take to reach the same
cell density ?
(A) 16 h (B) 8 h
(C) 160 h (D) 30 h
62. Generalized transduction was first studied in which bacterium/phage system :
(A) Salmonella/P22 (B) Salmonella/lambda
(C) E. coli/P1 (D) E.coli/lambda
63. In Gram Negative bacteria, which ring is not part of the basal body of flagellum ?
(A) L (B) P
(C) MS (D) O
64. Which test CANNOT differentiate Salmonella from Shigella, generally ?
(A) H2S (TSI) (B) VP
(C) Motility (D) Gas from glucose
65. HTST pasteurization is done at :
(A) 71.6 C / 15 sec (B) 71.6 C / 30 min
(C) 62.9 C / 15 sec (D) 62.9 C / 30 min
66. Vodka is made by the fermentation of :
(A) Barley (B) Molasses
(C) Potatoes (D) Fruit Juice
67. Which is a star shaped prosthecate bacterium ?
(A) Stella (B) Caulobacter
(C) Rhodopseudomonas (D) Gallionella
68. Which group ciprofloxacin antibiotic belongs to ?
(A) Aminoglycoside (B) beta-lactam
(C) Macrolides (D) Fluoro-4-quinolones
69. Which is the smallest eubacterial genome ?
(A) Mycoplasma genitalium (B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(C) Deinococcus radiodurans (D) Aquifex aeolicus
70. For which bacterial disease toxoid is NOT used as vaccine ?
(A) Anthrax (B) Diphtheria
(C) Tetanus (D) Cholera
71. Which microbe does not cause food infection ?
(A) Campylobacter jejuni (B) Yersinia enterocolitica
(C) Giardia lamblia (D) Borrelia burgdorferi
72. For the detection of coliforms in potable water, the confirmed test employs :
(A) MacConkey agar (B) Lactose broth
(C) EMB agar (D) Sabourods agar
73. Selective media for the isolation of Salmonella from environment DO not contain :
(A) Brillian Green (B) Tetrathionate
(C) Selenite (D) Benzalkonium chloride
74. Elephantiasis is caused by :
(A) Trypanosome brucei (B) Toxoplasma gondii
(C) Trypanosoma cruzi (D) Wuchereria bancrofti
75. Which amino acid is NOT used in food industry ?
(A) Glutamate (B) Lysine
(C) Aspartate (D) Alanine
ROUGH WORK
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/BZL-48980-A 12 140
CET (PG)2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Bioinformatics
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Bioinformatics/BZL/48981-A 2
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Bioinformatics/BZL/48981-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Bioinformatics/A
1. How many significant figures are present in the number 0.0010L ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2. Naturally occurring amino acid that is an essential amino acid with an aromatic ring :
(A) Phe (B) Tyr
(C) His (D) All of the above
3. Inferential statistics refers to :
(A) how people can be differentiated from each other
(B) things like predicting one's next electricity bill
(C) the confidence with which we can generalise from samples
(D) relying on philosophers
4. Data exploration techniques are :
(A) methods designed to help us make sense of large amounts of data
(B) nothing to do with statistics
(C) computer programs which cut out the need for a psychologist
(D) ways of finding support for our ideas
5. A frequency is :
(A) a variable which occurs often
(B) a score
(C) the number of individuals in a particular category
(D) a set of scores
6. Temperature is most like :
(A) interval data (B) ordinal data
(C) frequency (D) nominal data
7. The number of questions that members of a class get right on this multiple choice test is
an example of :
(A) a score (B) ordinal data
(C) nominal data (D) ranking
8. The production of therapeutic agents by the manipulation of genetic material characterises
which drug development era ?
(A) The age of Aquarius (B) The age of natural substances
(C) The age of synthetic substances (D) The age of biotechnology
9. Polypharmacology involves :
(A) the presence of a large number of pharmacies in a particular area
(B) the availability of medications without a prescription
(C) the number of prescriptions written for a client per year
(D) the excessive or unnecessary use of medications
10. The two repeating units present in the backbone of a peptide are :
(A) peptide bonds and !-carbon and CH groups
(B) peptide bonds and side chains
(C) peptide bonds and amino groups
(D) !-amino groups and !-carboxylic groups
11. Which of the following levels of protein structure is not disrupted when protein
denaturation occurs ?
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
12. In which of the following pairs of proteins are both members of the pair fibrous
proteins ?
(A) -Keratin and collagen (B) Collagen and hemoglobin
(C) Hemoglobin and myoglobin (D) -Keratin and hemoglobin
13. What is the shape of a plot of enzyme activity (y-axis) versus temperature (x-axis) with
other variables constant ?
(A) Straight line with an upward slope
(B) Line with an upward slope and a long flat top
(C) Line with an upward slope followed by a downward slope
(D) Straight horizontal line
14. Beta-carotene is a precursor for which of the following vitamins ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
15. The genetic code is a listing that gives the relationships between which of the following ?
(A) Codons and anticodons (B) Codons and amino acids
(C) Anticodons and amino acids (D) Codons and genes
16. In a DNA double helix, the base pairs are which of the following ?
(A) Part of the backbone structure (B) Located inside the helix
(C) Located outside the helix (D) Covalently bonded to each other
17. The number of kinds of RNA nucleotides is which of the following ?
(A) The same as the number of kinds of DNA nucleotides
(B) Double the number of kinds of DNA nucleotides
(C) Less than the number of kinds of DNA nucleotides
(D) Greater than the number of kinds of DNA nucleotides
18. Which of the following is true for a mitochondrion ?
(A) The inner membrane separates the matrix from the inter membrane space
(B) The inner membrane is more permeable than the outer membrane
(C) The outer membrane has ATP-synthase complexes attached to it
(D) The outer membrane has a highly folded structure
19. At how many protein complex sites in the electron transport chain does proton pumping
occur ?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
20. What is the name of the process in which glycogen is converted to glucose ?
(A) Glycolysis (B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Glycogenesis (D) Glyconeogenesis
21. Lactate fermentation can occur in which of the following ?
(A) Humans, animals and microorganisms
(B) Humans and animals but not in microorganisms
(C) Microorganisms but not in humans and animals
(D) Microorganisms and animals but not in human
22. Which of the following compounds is a ketone body ?
(A) Carnitine (B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Acetoacetate (D) Acetyl CoA
23. In the oxidation of fatty acids, what is the molecule that shuttles the activated fatty acid
across the inner mitochondrial membrane ?
(A) CoA (B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Carnitine (D) Citrate
24. In which of the following pairs of amino acids are both members of the pair nonstandard
amino acids ?
(A) Arginine and citrulline (B) Arginine and ornithine
(C) Citrulline and ornithine (D) Aspartate and glutamate
25. Amino acid metabolism differs from that of carbohydrates and triacylglycerols in what
way ?
(A) There is no storage from for amino acids in the body
(B) Amino acids cannot be used for energy production
(C) Amino acids cannot be converted to acetyl CoA
(D) All metabolic intermediates contain the element nitrogen
26. A resistor in a circuit dissipates energy at a rate of 1 W. If the voltage across the resistor
is doubled, what will be the new rate energy dissipation ?
(A) 4 W (B) 0.5 W
(C) 1 W (D) 2 W
27. De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive
particle are related by which of the following constants ?
(A) Planck's constant (B) Boltzmann's constant
(C) The Rydberg constant (D) The speed of light
28. An atom has filled n = 1 and n = 2 levels. How many electrons does the atom have ?
(A) 2 (B) 10
(C) 6 (D) 8
29. In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbours of each C atom lie
at the corners of a :
(A) square (B) hexagon
(C) octahedron (D) tetrahedron
30. Which of the following lasers utilizes transitions that involve the energy levels of free
atoms ?
(A) Diode laser (B) Dye laser
(C) Free-electron laser (D) Gas laser
31. Which of the following ions cannot be used as a dopant in germanium to make an n-type
semiconductor ?
(A) B (B) P
(C) Sb (D) As
32. The number 0.127 is how much greater than 1/8 ?
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/10
(C) 1/50 (D) 1/500
33. If a and b are both positive and a " "" "" b, which of the following is a simplification of the
expression
b a
b a
2 2
#
$
?
(A) a
2
+ b
2
+ 1 (B) a + b
(C) a b (D) ab
34. The number of degrees that the hour hand of a clock moves through between noon and
2.30 in the afternoon of the same day is :
(A) 180 (B) 75
(C) 65 (D) 60
35. In the figure, what is the slope of line
l
?
(A) 3
(B) 1/3
(C) 0
(D) 1/3
36. AB and DE are parallel. Angle BAC = 30, angle CDE = 50. What is the measure of angle
ACD ?
(A) 100
(B) 90
(C) 80
(D) 70
37. Dead cells in adult plant occur in :
(A) xylem (B) cambium
(C) leaf mesophyll (D) parenchyma
Y
X
(0, a)
(3a, 0)
Line
l
A
D
C
B
E
38. The ratio of number of molecules present in one mole of substances A (MW 60) and
B (MW 120) is :
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1
(C) 1:4 (D) 1:1
39. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at a pH equal to :
(A) 1/2pK (B) pK + 1
(C) pK (D) 2pK
40. Osmotic pressure of pure water is :
(A) 10 (B) 1
(C) 100 (D) 0
41. The class of protein to which haemoglobin belongs is :
(A) ! (B) %
(C) !-%-!-% (D) !-%-%-!
42. The distance between donor and acceptor groups in a hydrogen bond is of the order :
(A) 1A (B) 3A
(C) 6A (D) 9A
43. C
4
plants are more productive than C
3
plants because they :
(A) are efficient in photosynthesis (B) have more photorespiration
(C) can use nutrients from the soil (D) have less mumber of stomata
44. Which of the following is the first immunoglobulins to appear following an infection ?
(A) IgG (B) IgM
(C) IgD (D) IgE
45. Which of the following leads to memory cells ?
(A) T-cells (B) Macrophages
(C) B-cells (D) Neutrophils
46. The following method is used to determine the evolutionary relationship of organisms :
(A) Monogamy tree (B) Phylogenetic tree
(C) Organogram (D) Paternity tree
47. In blast database, Blastn is used to search for :
(A) Protein sequences (B) Aminoacid sequences
(C) Nucleotide sequences (D) All of the above
48. Multiple sequence alignment is used to :
(A) Predict nucleotide similarity (B) Predict bacterial identity
(C) Predict protein sequence (D) None of the above
49. Run Time Memory Allocation is :
(A) Static memory allocation (B) Physical memory allocation
(C) Dynamically allocating memory (D) Virtual memory allocation
50. In the process of DNA replication, genetic information of the cell is carried by :
(A) tRNA (B) sRNA
(C) mRNA (D) All of the above
51. The restriction enzymes that digest the DNA sequences from the terminal ends
(3 or 5 end) are called as :
(A) Exonucleases (B) Endonucleases
(C) Polymerases (D) Rnase
52. Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of
which structures ?
(A) A % sheet with mostly polar side chains
(B) A % sheet with mostly nonpolar side chains
(C) An ! helix with mostly polar side chains
(D) An ! helix with mostly nonpolar side chains
53. What buffer system is predominantly used in the blood ?
(A) Phosphate (B) Bicarbonate
(C) Citrate (D) Tris
54. A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of existing or hypothetical
systems is :
(A) Data transmission (B) Data flow
(C) Data capture (D) Data processing
55. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist :
(A) 34 (B) 35
(C) 24 (D) 70
56. Bt Cotton is :
(A) Cloned plant (B) Transgenic plant
(C) Hybrid plant (D) Mutated plant
57. Sequencing of genomic DNA is included under :
(A) Structural genomics (B) Functional genomics
(C) Proteomics (D) Transgenesis
58. Biopatents are ______.
(A) Right to use invention (B) Right to use biological entities
(C) Right to use products (D) Right to use process
59. Three dimensional shape of tRNA is :
(A) L-shaped (B) Clover leaf-like
(C) X-shaped (D) Y-shaped
60. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of
nucleotides present in the segment is :
(A) 120 (B) 240
(C) 60 (D) 480
61. Anticodon occurs in :
(A) tRNA (B) mRNA
(C) mtRNA (D) rRNA
62. Nitrogen bases of DNA are :
(A) ATUC (B) UTGC
(C) ATGC (D) AUGC
63. Which is not true about a photon ?
(A) It is a packet of light energy
(B) The shorter the wavelength, the greater the energy of the photons
(C) It is trapped by photosynthetic unit
(D) It donates electron to reduce carbon dioxide to glucose
64. Which cell type is likely to have the most mitochondria ?
(A) Fast-twitch muscle (B) Slow-twitch muscle
(C) Liver cells (D) Adipose cells
65. The Universe tends towards maximum disorder is stated by :
(A) first law of thermodynamics (B) second law of thermodynamics
(C) third law of thermodynamics (D) none of the above
66. Cellular metabolism is an example of :
(A) equilibrium metabolism
(B) steady-state metabolism
(C) a series of reactions occurring under standard conditions
(D) a series of reactions that defy the second law of thermodynamics
67. The composition of the inner mitochondrial membrane is most like that of :
(A) the outer mitochondrial membrane (B) the cell's plasma membrane
(C) some bacterial plasma membranes (D) the nuclear membrane
68. In plant cells, which of the following is not a function of the large central vacuoles of plant
cells ?
(A) Storage of food (B) Support
(C) Contractile regulation of (D) Waste storage water content
69. In MS-DOS what command you will use to display system date ?
(A) Date command (B) Ver command
(C) Disk command (D) Format command
70. If you need to duplicate the entire disk, which command will you use ?
(A) Copy (B) Diskcopy
(C) Chkdsk (D) Format
71. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called :
(A) flowchart (B) sequential design
(C) procedure (D) algorithm
72. The name of the first protein sequence data base developed by Margaret Dayhoff is :
(A) SWISS PROT (B) Atlas of protein sequence and structure
(C) Protein sequence databank (D) PDB
73. The first secondary database developed was :
(A) PRINTS (B) PROSITE
(C) PDB (D) PIR
74. One kilobyte is :
(C) 1020 bytes (D) 1024 bytes
75. A dot matrix printer :
(A) is an input-output device (B) is an input device only
(C) is an output device only (D) None of these
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Bioinformatics/BZL-48981-A 12 84
ROUGH PAGE
CET(PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 2
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/A
1. The term homozygous refers to a gene pair in which :
(A) Paternal and maternal genes are different
(B) Paternal and maternal genes are similar
(C) Paternal and maternal genes are identical
(D) Paternal and Maternal genes are mosaic
2. One amino acid among following usually breaks an alpha helix :
(A) Proline (B) Glycine
(C) Leucine (D) Valine
3. Pschyrophilic bacteria are bacteria which are found in :
(A) Hot springs (B) In acidic solutions
(C) In high salt concentration (D) In cold temperatures
4. A trait that appears in F
1
progeny is called :
(A) Recessive (B) Phenotype
(C) Dominant (D) Genotype
5. Sugar in DNA is :
(A) Ribose (B) Dideoxy ribose
(C) Deoxyribose (D) Deoxyribulose
6. Meselson and Stahl used density gradient centrifugation technique to demonstrate :
(A) Separation of complementary strands during DNA replication
(B) Separation of complementary strands during DNA recombination
(C) Separation of complementary strands during DNA crossing over
(D) Separation of complementary strands during transcription
7. Which of the following is not required during DNA sequencing ?
(A) Dideoxy-dNTPs (B) Template
(C) A thermostable DNA polymerase (D) dNTPs
8. Dielectric constant of water is approximately :
(A) 8 (B) 800
(C) 80 (D) 18
9. Upper limit of cell size is probably set by :
(A) Rate of diffusion of solute molecules in aq solution
(B) Cell membrane
(C) Genes
(D) Genome
10. Archea is an :
(A) Organism (B) Phylum
(C) Genus (D) Kingdom
11. The Adaptor hypothesis by Crick is :
(A) About adaptation (B) About evolution
(C) About tRNA (D) About electric circuits
12. The term rRNA stands for :
(A) regulatory RNA (B) ribosomal RNA
(C) repressor RNA (D) rolling RNA
13. Lithotrophs oxidize :
(A) Inorganic fuels (B) Organic fuels
(C) Bioorganic fuels (D) Proteins
14. A sequence that can be several thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of a
eukaryotic promoter and which increases gene expression as much as 200-fold is :
(A) CAAT Box (B) TATA Box
(C) Enhancers (D) Insulators
15. Most abundant element in living organisms is :
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
16. One among following is not an allosteric protein :
(A) GPCRs (B) Aspartate transcabamylase
(C) Immunoglobins (D) Haemoglobin
17. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves :
(A) First, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation
(B) First, transcription of the RNA, then its transport, then processing, then translation
(C) First, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation
(D) First, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation
18. Inside a cell, calcium is stored in :
(A) Nucleus (B) Lysosomes
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Golgi body
19. Heat shock proteins are :
(A) Proteolytic sites (B) Peptides
(C) Chaperones (D) Polyproteins
20. Informational macromolecules in a cell are :
(A) Proteins and nucleic acids (B) Lipids, carbohydrates
(C) Fats and lipids (D) Fats, lipids and carbohydrates
21. One of these is a nonsense codon :
(A) UUU (B) UGA
(C) UGG (D) UGC
22. Water has :
(A) No pole (B) Mono pole
(C) Dipole (D) Tripole
23. van der Waal radius of hydrogen atom is :
(A) ~1.2 (B) ~1.0
(C) ~1.5 (D) ~0.5
24. The DNA double helix has :
(A) No grooves (B) Major and Minor grooves
(C) Only major grooves (D) Only minor grooves
25. DNA in cells is :
(A) Fragmented (B) Fused
(C) Negatively supercoiled (D) Sheared
26. DNA cannot :
(A) Complex with proteins (B) Form tertiary structures
(C) Unwind (D) Denature
27. Kinetochore is :
(A) An elaborate protein complex (B) An enzyme
(C) A step in reaction (D) A kinetic constant
28. Histones are :
(A) Negatively charged proteins (B) Neutral proteins
(C) Very large proteins (D) Positively charged
29. H1 histone is :
(A) Part of core histones (B) Highly conserved across species
(C) Part of nucleosome (D) Part of replicon
30. Structure of DNA Polymerase resembles a :
(A) Bucket containing primer : template junction
(B) Hand that grips primer : template junction
(C) Chainsaw acting on primer : template junction
(D) tong holding primer : template junction
31. Gibbs free energy is :
(A) True criteria for spontaneity of a reaction in living systems
(B) False criteria for spontaneity of a reaction in living systems
(C) Measure for release energy during a reaction
(D) Measure of total energy
32. Which one is correct for living systems ?
(A) Pressure, volume and pH is variable (B) Amount of matter variable
(C) Pressure, temp, pH is constant (D) Pressure, temp, pH is variable
33. If one has to think of conducting a charge, which polymer is useful ?
(A) Proteins (B) DNA
(C) Polysaccharides (D) Lipids
34. In lysogeny, bacteriophage genome is :
(A) Replicated in bacterial cell (B) Degraded in bacterial cell
(C) Integrated into the bacterial genome (D) Expelled from bacterial cell
35. ChIP stands for :
(A) Chromosomal integrated plasmid (B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation
(C) Chloroplast integrated protein (D) Chromatography-isoelectricfocussing
36. Coomissie brilliant blue binds to :
(A) Proteins specifically (B) Nucleic acids non specifically
(C) Proteins nonspecifically (D) Nucleic acids specifically
37. Stochasticity indicates that a process is :
(A) Characterized to some degree by randomness
(B) Characterized totally by randomness
(C) Characterized by total order
(D) Uncontrolled
38. Ubx is a gene which controls :
(A) Transport of glucose (B) Development of thoracic segment
(C) Development of eyes (D) Development of brain
39. Imprinting involves :
(A) DNA polymerization (B) DNA phosphorylation
(C) DNA methylation (D) DNA fragmentation
40. Operons are :
(A) Present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes (B) Present in eukaryotes only
(C) Present in prokaryotes only (D) Present only in mammals
41. Tryptophan has :
(A) Two codons (B) Three codons
(C) Four codons (D) One codon
42. At physiological pH, a typical amino acid will be :
(A) A cation (B) A zwitterion
(C) An anion (D) A divalent cation
43. According to Beer-Lamberts law, absorbance of a solute is not dependent upon :
(A) Concentration (B) Density of the medium
(C) Length of the light path (D) Extinction coefficient
44. Evolution is :
(A) Directed to a goal (B) An intelligent design
(C) A random ongoing process (D) Over now
45. Tetracycline inhibits :
(A) DNA synthesis in prokaryotes (B) Protein synthesis in prokaryotes
(C) RNA synthesis in prokaryotes (D) Cell membrane synthesis in prokaryotes
46. Amphipathic molecules contain :
(A) A polar group (B) A nonpolar group
(C) A polar and a nonpolar group (D) An alkyl group
47. EF-Tu is involved in :
(A) Replication (B) Translation
(C) Transcription (D) Splicing
48. DEAE-cellulose is a :
(A) A cation exchange matrix (B) An anion exchange matrix
(C) Gel for electrophoresis (D) Component of cell wall
49. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except :
(A) Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane
(B) Sites for biochemical reactions
(C) Release of protons when damaged
(D) Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes
50. SDS-PAGE separates proteins on the basis of :
(A) Charge (B) Mass
(C) Charge and Mass (D) Density
51. Micro RNAs (miRNAs) are :
(A) Microscopic RNA molecules
(B) Short single stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(C) Double stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(D) Large RNA molecules
52. Glycine sidechain has :
(A) An aryl group (B) A phenyl group 10%
(C) A hydrogen atom (D) A hydroxyl group
53. Which one among following is not a true amino acid ?
(A) Glycine (B) Histidine
(C) Glutamic acid (D) Proline
54. DNA molecules can be separated according to mass by :
(A) Isoelectric focussing (B) Ion exchange chromatography
(C) SDS-PAGE (D) Agarose gel electrophoresis
55. Peptide bond displays :
(A) Tautomerism (B) Resonance
(C) Convergence (D) Divergence
56. Ice has :
(A) Hexagonal cage like structure (B) Tetrahedral cage like structure
(C) Closed cage like structure (D) Fluid structure
57. 1 Calorie is :
(A) 4184 joules (B) 4.184 joules
(C) 4000 joules (D) 1484 joules
58. Absolute zero is
(A) 0
o
C (B) 0
o
K
(C) 0
o
F (D) 0
o
T
59. A transversion mutation is :
(A) Substitution of a purine/pyrimidine with purine/pyrimidine
(B) Substitution of a purine with pyrimidine or vice versa
(C) Insertion of one or two bases into the DNA chain
(D) Always is a missense mutation
60. Catalysts reduce :
(A) !G (B) !S
(C) !H (D) !T
61. Acid-base catalysis in biological systems occurs :
(A) By carbon transfer (B) By proton transfer
(C) By nitrogen transfer (D) By sulphur transfer
62. The pathway from a gene to a protein in prokaryotic cells involves :
(A) First, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation
(B) Transcription of the RNA, coupled with translation
(C) First, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation
(D) First, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation
63. Ribosome is not made up of :
(A) Subunits (B) RNA
(C) Proteins (D) Glycoprotein
64. Tamiflu is a :
(A) Anti malarial drug (B) Anti bacterial drug
(C) Anti viral drug (D) Anti filarial drug
65. Acetylcholine is a :
(A) Poison (B) Vitamin
(C) Neurotransmitter (D) Trace element
66. Acetaminophen is :
(A) A hormone (B) A peptide
(C) Analgesic and antipyretic (D) A neurotransmitter
67. Somatostatin is secreted by :
(A) " cells of pancreatic islet (B) # cells of pancreatic islet
(C) % cells of pancreatic islet (D) Brain
68. In serine proteases, catalytic triad consists of :
(A) Serine, Glycine, Histidine (B) Serine, Histidine, Aspartate
(C) Serine, Proline, Histidine (D) Serine, Leucine, Aspartate
69. An enzyme :
(A) Stabilizes the transition state
(B) Binds very tightly to the substrate
(C) Binds very tightly to the product
(D) Prevent the reaction from proceeding in the reverse direction
70. Cell membranes are :
(A) Permeable (B) Impermeable
(C) Selectively permeable (D) Rigid
71. Calmodulin is a :
(A) Membrane protein (B) Protein that bind calcium
(C) Kinase (D) Second messenger
72. Intercellular signaling in which one cell can communicate with other over long distances
is called :
(A) Paracrine (B) Autocrine
(C) Juxtacrine (D) Endocrine
73. Protein synthesizing machinery in cell is known as :
(A) Dyneins (B) Myosins
(C) Ribosomes (D) Kinesins
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL-48982-A 10
74. Gout is caused by excess of :
(A) Citric acid (B) Uric acid
(C) Acetic acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
75. Rifampicin is :
(A) RNA polymerase inhibitor (B) DNA polymerase inhibitor
(C) Protein synthesis inhibitor (D) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL-48982-A 11
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 12 136
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Microbial Biotechnology
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Microbial Biotechnology/BZL-48984-A 2
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Microbial Biotechnology/BZL-48984-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Microbial Biotechnology/A
1. In general, microbial population of human skin is around :
(A) 10
1
10
4
per sq. inch
(B) 10
3
10
7
per sq. inch
(C) 10
5
10
8
per sq. inch
(D) 10
7
10
49
per sq. inch
2. Lab benches are cleaned with :
(A) Absolute alcohol (B) 90% alcohol
(C) 70% alcohol (D) 50% alcohol
3. The principal effect of tetanus toxin of Clostridium tetani is on :
(A) Kidneys (B) Heart
(C) Lungs (D) Nervous system
4. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of Moist Heat sterilization is :
(A) Bacillus pumilis (B) Bacillus sterlilous
(C) Bacillus stearothermophilus (D) Bacillus subtilis
5. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of Dry Heat sterilization is :
(A) Bacillus subtilis (B) Bacillus megaterium
(C) Sporobacillus subtilis (D) Sporobacillus subtilis
6. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of Radiation Sterilization is :
(A) Bacillus subtilis
(B) Bacillus radiater
(C) Bacillus pumilis
(D) Bacillus polymixa
7. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of 0.22u filter is :
(A) Pseudomonas diminuta (B) E.coli
(C) Staphylococcus aureus (D) Serratia marcescens
8. The biological indicator to check the efficiency of 0.45u filter is :
(A) Pseudomonas diminuta (B) E.coli
(C) Staphylococcus aureus (D) Serratia marcescens
9. The preferred method of sterilization of Laminar Flow Cabinet is :
(A) Xrays
(B) UVrays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) IR rays
10. The preferred method of sterilization of oil is :
(A) UV Rays (B) Moist heat
(C) Dry heat (D) IR Rays
11. The preferred method of sterilization of glass syringes is :
(A) UV Rays (B) Moist heat
(C) Dry heat (D) IR Rays
12. In an autoclave containing water at the bottom, if the temperature is 100C, the pressure
of the steam will be :
(A) 0 lb per sq. inch (B) 1 lb per sq. inch
(C) 5 lbs per sq. inch (D) 10 lbs per sq. inch
13. In spectrophotometers, in general, the optical path in a cuvette is :
(A) 0.5 cm (B) 1.0 cm
(C) 2.0 cm (D) 3.0 cm
14. In colorimeters, if the color of the solution is yellow, the color of the filter will be :
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Orange (D) Blue
15. If a solution containing proteins, lipids and nucleic acids is mixed with phenolchloroform
and then centrifuged, the upper aqueous phase, middle inter-phase and lower organic
phase will contain :
(A) Proteins, lipids and nucleic acids respectively
(B) Nucleic acids, proteins and lipids respectively
(C) Nucleic acids, lipids and proteins respectively
(D) Lipids, proteins and nucleic acids respectively
16. If the equivalent weight of an acid is 49 and its basicity is 2, the molecular weight of the
acid will be :
(A) 51 (B) 47
(C) 98 (D) 24.5
17. Molarity (M) of the solution can be calculated by the formula :
(A) M = weight of the solute in g/L of solution divided by molecular weight of the solute
(B) M = weight of the solute in g/100ml of solution divided by molecular weight of the solute
(C) M = weight of the solute in mg/L of solution divided by molecular weight of the solute
(D) M = weight of the solute in mg/100L of solution divided by molecular weight of the solute
18. The pH range of Phosphate buffer is :
(A) 5.0 9.0 (B) 5.0 8.0
(C) 5.7 8.0 (D) 5.1 9.0
19. The pH range of TrisHCI buffer is :
(A) 7.2 9.0 (B) 6.0 10.0
(C) 6.5 11.0 (D) 7.2 11.0
20. The chemical composition of agar, used in culture media preparation, comprises of complex
polysaccharide made up of :
(A) 1, 4 anyhydro L galactose and D galactopyranose
(B) 3, 6 anyhydro L galactose and D galactopyranose
(C) D anhydrogalactose and 3,6 galactopyranose
(D) 3,6 anhydro L galactose and 1, 5 D galactopyranose
21. The agar used in the preparation of microbiological media :
(A) Liquefies at 96C and hardens into jelly on cooling to 4045C
(B) Liquefies at 80C and hardens into jelly on cooling to 4045C
(C) Liquefies at 96C and hardens into jelly on cooling to 5055C
(D) Liquefies at 96C and hardens into jelly on cooling to 3540C
22. The word Electrophoresis is derived from two word meaning :
(A) current + movement (B) amber + movement
(C) amber + bearers (D) amber + movement
23. The enzyme, Lysozyme acts on :
(A) beta 1, 4 glycosidic bonds (B) alpha 1, 4 glycosidic bonds
(C) beta 2, 3 glycosidic bonds (D) alpha 2,3 glycosidic bonds
24. In Sucrose the glycosidic linkage is between :
(A) C-1 of Glucose and C-4 of Fructose
(B) C-1 of Glucose and C-2 of Fructose
(C) C-2 of Glucose and C-1 of Fructose
(D) C-4 of Glucose and C-1 of Fructose
25. Molisch Test is a general test for detection of all types of carbohydrates. This test
involves :
(A) Con. H
2
SO
4
and beta-naphthol (B) Dil. H
2
SO
4
and beta-naphthol
(C) Con. H
2
SO
4
and alpha-naphthol (D) Con. H
2
SO
4
and alpha-naphthol
26. Reducing sugars have :
(A) Free aldehyde and hydroxyl groups (B) Free hydroxyl and keto groups
(C) Free aldehyde and ether groups (D) Free aldehyde and keto groups
27. The Biuret Test used for the estimation of proteins give :
(A) Green color after reacting with proteins
(B) Yellow color after reacting with proteins
(C) Blue color after reacting with proteins
(D) Purple color after reacting with proteins
28. The O.D. value of a solution of DNA increases linearly up to :
(A) 1.8 (B) 2.1
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.2
29. Which ratio value indicates that a given sample contains fairly pure DNA, which is free
of protein contamination ?
(A) 1.0 1.5 (B) 1.5 2.5
(C) 1.8 2.0 (D) 0.8 2.0
30. Which of the following method is most sensitive for assaying protein in a given sample :
(A) UV absorption method (B) Lowry method
(C) Biuret method (D) Bradford protein assay
31. In SDS-gel electrophoresis, the :
(A) Proteins are charged positively and move from cathode to anode
(B) Proteins are charged negatively and move from cathode to anode
(C) Proteins are charged positively and move from anode to cathode
(D) Proteins are charged negatively and move from anode to cathode
32. Mitotic division is absent in :
(A) Giardia lamblia (B) Aspergillus
(C) Penicillium (D) Staphylococci
33. The length of most of bacteria varies between :
(A) 1.5 5.0u (B) 0.1 5.0u
(C) 0.2 100u (D) 5 100u
34. Which group of organisms are mainly responsible for decomposition of organic matter in
nature ?
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Bacteria (D) Viruses
35. Who gave the statement that 'Dust carries germs' ?
(A) R Koch (B) L Pasteur
(C) F Kohn (D) J Tyndall
36. Who was the first person on whom rabies vaccine was successfully tested ?
(A) James Phillips (B) James Meister
(C) Joseph Meister (D) Joseph Phillips
37. Disease 'whooping cough' is caused by :
(A) Bacillus pertusis (B) Bordetella coughy
(C) Bacillus coughy (D) Bordetella pertusis
38. N
2
fixing bacteria were discovered by :
(A) E Metchnikoff (B) S N Winogradsky
(C) R Koch (D) P Ehrlich
39. Maximum magnification achieved with Bright Field microscopes used in Microbiology
laboratories is :
(A) 100x (B) 400x
(C) 800x (D) 1000x
40. Majority of bacteria found in nature are :
(A) rod shaped (B) cocci shaped
(C) filamentous (D) spiral shaped
41. Which bacteria has peritrichous flagella ?
(A) Peribacillus (B) Salmonella
(C) Shigella (D) Mycobacterium
42. Which component of bacteria is responsible for anti-phagocytic property ?
(A) Flagella (B) Peptidoglycan
(C) Capsule (D) Pili
43. Which of the following bacteria is hard to grow in a solid nutrient medium ?
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Mycobacterium smegmitis
(C) Mycobacterium bovis (D) Mycobacterium leprae
44. The optimal growth of Thermus aquaticus is at a temperature (C) of :
(A) 50 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 80
45. A glass tube contains 5ml of nutrient broth. A facultative anaerobe bacteria will show
what types of growth pattern ?
(A) Maximal growth at the bottom, minimal at top
(B) Maximal growth at the top, minimal at bottom
(C) Uniform growth throughout the medium
(D) Growth only in the middle portion of the medium
46. The colonies of Staphylococcus aureus on Nutrient Agar are :
(A) White in color (B) Yellow in color
(C) Pink in color (D) Red in color
47. In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose yields :
(A) 2 Pyruvic acid + 2ATP + NAD(P)H
2
+ NADH
2
(B) 2 Pyruvic acid + ATP + NAD(P)H
2
+ NADH
2
(C) 2 Acetic acid + 2ATP + NAD(P)H
2
+ NADH
2
(D) 2 Acetic acid + ATP + NAD(P)H
2
+ NADH
2
48. Wine production involves the :
(A) Winis vinifera (B) Winis fermenta
(C) Vitis vinifera (D) Vitis fermenta
49. Which toxin exists in crystalline form inside the bacteria ?
(A) Cholera toxin (B) Crystal toxin
(C) BT toxin (D) Tetanus toxin
50. In edible mushrooms, the percentage of protein, on dry weight basis, is around :
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50
51. The phenomenon of biological fixation of atmospheric Nitrogen is called :
(A) Diazotrophy (B) Nitrotrophy
(C) Biotrophy (D) Biodiazotrophy
52. By profession A. Fleming was a :
(A) Physician (B) Botanist
(C) Geneticist (D) Chemist
53. Swan neck flask experiment was carried out by :
(A) Louis Paster (B) Lewy Paster
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Lewy Pasteur
54. Koch postulates were laid down using :
(A) Bacillus koch (B) Bacillus megaterium
(C) Bacillus anthracis (D) Bacillus subtilis
55. The oldest microbial fermentation process is considered to be :
(A) Wine (B) Beer
(C) Sherry (D) Chivas
56. Which term is associated with Nirenberg, Holley and Khorana ?
(A) Central Dogma of biology (B) Genetic code
(C) tRNA structure (D) DNA amplification
57. The vector, pBR322 lacks :
(A) MCS (B) Antibiotic markers
(C) oriC (D) Promoter
58. The B-cells of Immune system originate from :
(A) CFUEO (B) CFUBASO
(C) CFUNM (D) CFULy
59. MHC class II molecule is composed of :
(A) Variable alpha chain (2629 kDa) and Variable beta chain (3034 kDa)
(B) Variable alpha chain (3034 kDa) and Variable beta chain (2629 kDa)
(C) Variable alpha chain (2629 kDa) and Constant beta chain (3034 kDa)
(D) Constant alpha chain (2629 kDa) and Variable beta chain (3034 kDa)
60. Sterilization of 100ml nutrient medium by autoclaving requires following conditions :
(A) 15 lbs. per square inch, 121C, 15 min
(B) 10 lbs. per square inch, 121C, 15 min
(C) 15 lbs. per square inch, 100C, 15 min
(D) 15 lbs. per square inch, 121C, 30 min
61. Interleukin10 (IL10) is responsible for :
(A) Deactivation of macrophages (B) Activation of macrophages
(C) Stimulation of Fibroblast proliferation (D) Destimulation of Fibroblast proliferation
62. The bacterium Salmonella is :
(A) Gram positive, sporulating, short rods and motile, lactose fermenter
(B) Gram negative, non-sporulating, short rods and motile, lactose fermenter
(C) Gram positive, non-sporulating, long rods and motile, lactose fermenter
(D) Gram negative, short rods and motile, non lactose fermenter
63. Which term is associated with Ti plasmids ?
(A) Nopaline (B) Proline
(C) Lysine (D) Arginine
64. Group II allergic response involves :
(A) IgE antibodies (B) IgG antibodies
(C) IgE and IgM antibodies (D) Sensitized TCells
65. Spectrophotometer works on the principle of BeerLambert's law. According to Beer
Lambert's law intensity of transmitted light is :
(A) Directly proportional to thickness of the tube
(B) Inversely proportional to the length of tube
(C) Inversely proportional to the square of length of tube
(D) Independent to the thickness and length of the tube
66. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Lipase is produced only by microbes
(B) LPS is a pyrogen
(C) Peptidoglycan is made up of only glucosamine and muramic acid derivatives
(D) Dipocolinic acid is an amino acid
67. On an average adult human being contains :
(A) 10
19
cells (B) 10
13
cells
(C) 10
06
cells (D) 10
16
cells
68. The word ELISA stands for :
(A) Enzyme Like Immuno Sorbent Activity
(B) Enzyme Like Immuno Sorbent Assay
(C) Enzyme Linked Indirect Sorbent Activity
(D) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
69. The Western Blotting technique normally involves :
(A) Primary antibodies (IgG), Secondary antibodies (IgE)
(B) Conjugated Primary antibodies (IgG), Secondary antibodies (IgE)
(C) Primary antibodies (IgG), Conjugated Secondary antibodies (IgG)
(D) Primary antibodies (IgG), Conjugated Secondary antibodies (IgE)
70. 3D structures of proteins cannot be determined by :
(A) Xray crystallography (B) NMR
(C) FPLC (D) In silico softwares
71. Which of the following is a virulent plasmid ?
(A) pUC18 plasmid (B) pBR322 plasmid
(C) Ti plasmid (D) To1 plasmid
72. According to Watson and Crick Model of DNA, the adjacent nitrogenous bases are
separated by :
(A) 2.0A (B) 3.0A
(C) 3.4A (D) 4.4A
73. Fully extended E.coli chromosome is approximately :
(A) 1.0u in length (B) 5.0u in length
(C) 500u in length (D) 900u in length
74. Which type of RNA has shortest half life in Bacteria ?
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA
(C) tRNA (D) Satellite RNA
75. An Fprime strain of E.coli contains :
(A) A plasmid with a fragment of bacterial RNA.
(B) A plasmid with a phage genome inserted
(C) A plasmid with a transposable element inserted
(D) A plasmid with a fragment of bacterial chromosome.
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Microbial Biotechnology/BZL-48984-A 12 236
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M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/A
1. Which region of the brain is responsible for spatial navigation ?
(A) Pituitary (B) Thalamus
(C) Hypothalamus (D) Hippocampus
2. Fourier transformation technique is not applied during :
(A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (B) CT imaging
(C) Rectilinear scanner imaging (D) SPECT
3. During coagulation protein kinase C is activated by which element ?
(A) Manganese (B) Selenium
(C) Potassium (D) Calcium
4. Which of the following radiations are used for hyperthyroid treatment ?
(A) Alpha rays (B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays (D) X rays
5. The normal glomerular filtration rate is approximately :
(A) 120-130ml/min (B) 130-140ml/min
(C) 140-150ml/min (D) 150-160ml/min
6. Linear energy transfer is maximum for :
(A) Alpha rays (B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays (D) UV rays
7. Which of the following types of transition requires lowest energy ?
(A) Vibrational (B) Rotational
(C) Electronic (D) Nuclear Spin
8. 2 D electrophoresis is performed to :
(A) Observe RNA fragments (B) Separate DNA fragments
(C) Separate different proteins (D) Observe proteins in two dimensions
9. Which of the following is a type of natural suture ?
(A) Keratin (B) Gelatin
(C) Catgut (D) Propylene
10. The Gall bladder ejection fraction can be estimated by using :
(A) Dobutamine (B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Heparin (D) Gelatin
11. The renal plasma flow in a normal adult is, approximately :
(A) 700ml/min (B) 500ml/min
(C) 300ml/min (D) 100ml/min
12. In which phase of the cell cycle, replication of DNA occurs ?
(A) S phase (B) M phase
(C) G 1 phase (D) G 2 phase
13. Which of the following does not occur in the nucleus ?
(A) Translation (B) Mutation
(C) Transcription (D) Replication
14. Radionuclide K40 present in the human body emits radiations at a dose rate of :
(A) 0.01mSv/year (B) 0.05mSv/year
(C) 0.1mSv/year (D) 0.2mSv/year
15. Neutrons do not transfer energy by :
(A) Elastic scattering (B) Spallation
(C) Inelastic scattering (D) Compton scattering
16. Bremsstrahlung radiations are :
(A) Beta rays with fixed energy (B) Beta rays with variable energy
(C) X rays with fixed energy (D) X rays with variable energy
17. In water, Cerenkov radiations travel at a speed of :
(A) Sound waves (B) Higher than sound waves
(C) Speed of light (D) Higher than speed of light
18. Elements with which atomic number exibit Auger effect :
(A) Greater than 50 (B) Lesser than 50
(C) Greater than 25 (D) Lesser than 25
19. The value of one atomic mass unit is :
(A) 1.6610
-27
kg (B) 1.6610
-28
kg
(C) 1.6610
-29
kg (D) 1.6610
-30
kg
20. Mutation is caused by :
(A) Radiowaves (B) Microwaves
(C) Infrared rays (D) Ultraviolet rays
21. Positron and electron differ on the basis of :
(A) Ionization (B) Charge
(C) Mass (D) Mass and Charge
22. The variation in the whole genome is observed by using :
(A) Number of transposons (B) Frequency of tandem clusters
(C) Structural DNA (D) Single nucleotide polymorphisms
23. How many MBq shall correspond to 70 microcurie of radioactivity ?
(A) 0.0259 (B) 0.259
(C) 2.59 (D) 25.9
24. Which of the following is measured in millimeters ?
(A) Full width half wavelength (B) Spatial resolution
(C) Energy resolution (D) Intrinsic efficiency
25. The principal energy in Kev of gamma photons from Cs137 is :
(A) 6.62 (B) 66.2
(C) 166.2 (D) 662
26. The half life of radioisotope Iodine 131 is :
(A) 0.8 Days (B) 1.8 Days
(C) 8.1 Days (D) 18.1 Days
27. 10 mCi of Lutetium after 14 shall be :
(A) 9.21mCi (B) 9.41mCi
(C) 9.61mCi (D) 9.81mCi
28. What energy range in Kev shall be used for 10% window of 1131 photons ?
(A) 316-362 (B) 326-372
(C) 336-382 (D) 346-392
29. Which of the following radioisotopes is used during autoradiographic studies ?
(A)
18
F (B)
51
Cr
(C)
65
Zn (D)
14
C
30. Which macrophage like cells exist in the connective tissue ?
(A) Mesoglial cells (B) Micriglial cells
(C) Histocytes (D) Thyrocytes
31. EPR spectrum is due to :
(A) Change in mass state of an electron
(B) Change in spin state of an electron
(C) Change in L-K transition of an electron
(D) Change in both mass and L-K transition of an electron
32. The side chain of which amino acid is optically active ?
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine
(C) Glycine (D) Methionine
33. The site of oxidation of glucose in a cell is :
(A) Nucleus (B) Lysosome
(C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondria
34. Which of the following radiations have longest wavelength ?
(A) Infra red (B) Microwaves
(C) Gamma rays (D) Radiowaves
35. The proteins that run fast in SDS-PAGE are :
(A) Negatively charged (B) Positively Charged
(C) Large size (D) Small size
36. In Mass Spectrometry, we measure :
(A) Charge (B) Mass
(C) Charge to Mass ratio (D) Mass to Charge ratio
37. Xray crytallography uses which component of the atom under study ?
(A) Neutrons (B) Protons
(C) Electrons (D) Bosons
38. The nuclei of which of the following elements is used during NMR study ?
(A)
12
C (B)
13
C
(C)
14
C (D)
32
p
39. Which of these is not a connective tissue ?
(A) Muscle (B) Bone
(C) Blood (D) Cartilage
40. Which is not a gamma emitter ?
(A)
99m
Tc (B)
131
I
(C)
3
H (D)
60
Co
41. While doing atomic absorption spectroscopy which of the following elements require
hydride generator for estimating the concentration ?
(A) Selenium (B) Zinc
(C) Calcium (D) Iron
42. Physical half life of radioisotope
14
C is close to " :
43. The unit of exposure is :
(A) Sievert (B) Rad
(C) Roentgen (D) Curie
44. Radioactivity is measured in which of the following units ?
(A) Gray (B) RBE
(C) Becquerel (D) Rad
45. Fission occurs in :
(A) Linear Accelerator (B) Nuclear Reactor
(C) Radioisotope Generator (D) Cyclotron
46. Which of the following is used for thyroid function tests ?
(A)
131
I (B)
127
I
(C)
132
I (D)
125
I
47. The material used for absorbing excess neutrons in a nuclear reactor is :
(A) Thallium (B) Zinc
(C) Cadmium (D) Indium
48. The binding energy of nucleons in an atom is in the range :
(A) 5-8 Mev (B) 0.5-0.8 Mev
(C) 5-8 Kev (D) 0.5-0.8 Kev
49. The non dividing phase between two mitotic divisions is called :
(A) Interphase (B) Prophase
(C) Metaphase (D) Telophase
50. EDTA is used as a :
(A) Chelating agent (B) Oxidising agent
(C) Alkylating agent (D) Reducing agent
51. Micro array analysis is used to :
(A) Identify new genes
(B) Check the quality of gene expression
(C) Quantization of gene expression
(D) Measuring the copy number
52. Facilitated diffusion :
(A) Requires energy expenditure
(B) Requires a carrier molecule
(C) Requires no carrier molecule
(D) Moves molecules against a concentration gradient
53. Gamma rays are :
(A) Deflected by magnetic field
(B) Deflected by electric field
(C) Deflected both by electric and magnetic field
(D) Not deflected by electric and magnetic field
54. Cellular immunity is due to :
(A) Eosinophils (B) Basophils
(C) T Lymphocytes (D) B Lymphocytes
55. Northern Blotting is used to detect :
(A) Protein molecule (B) Hormones
(C) DNA molecules (D) RNA molecules
56. Organelle not present in animal cell is :
(A) Golgi (B) ER
(C) Plastid (D) Mitochondria
57. Cross section a measure of nuclear reaction probability is measured in :
(A) microns (B) ergs
(C) Barn (D) Ev
58. Which of the following has lowest pH ?
(A) Bile (B) Gastric juice
(C) Pancreatic juice (D) Salivary gland secretion
59. Annual effective does from all the natural and other background sources, is :
(A) 1.5 mSv (B) 2.5 mSv
(C) 3.5 mSv (D) 4.5 mSv
60. Nurse cells present in testes are :
(A) Spermatocyte (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Spermatozoa (D) Interstitial cells
61. Energy of thermal neutron is :
(A) 0.025 ev (B) 0.25 ev
(C) 2.5 ev (D) 25 ev
62. The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with :
(A) Control of movement (B) Short term memory
(C) Long term memory (D) Hormone control
63. What are molecular scissors in genetic engineering ?
(A) DNA Ligase (B) Endonuclease
(C) Exonuclease (D) Primase
64. Zinc finger proteins and helix proteins are :
(A) Involved in the control of DNA replication
(B) Involved in the control of translation
(C) Involved in DNA binding
(D) Involved in transcription
65. A region that binds RNA polymerase and helps initiate transcription is called :
(A) Operator (B) Repressor
(C) Promoter (D) Sustainer
66. Which of the following is used to determine GFR by non radioisotopic method ?
(A) Glucose (B) DTPA
(C) Inulin (D) Hippuran
67. Who discovered radioactivity ?
(A) Bacquerel (B) Roentgen
(C) Rutherford (D) Curie
68. The isoelectric point of a protein is :
(A) pH when net charge is 2 (B) pH when net charge is 1
(C) pH when net charge is +1 (D) pH when net charge is 0
69. Which acts as an adapter molecule during protein synthesis ?
(A) RNA (B) rRNA
(C) tRNA (D) mRNA
70. The life span of platelets is :
(A) 10 sec (B) 10 min
(C) 10 hrs (D) 10 days
71. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(A) Dendrites (B) Synapse
(C) Schwann cell (D) Myocytes
72. Confirmation of proteins is indicated by :
(A) Sephadex chromatography (B) Paper chromatography
(C) Circular Dichroism (D) Gel electrophoresis
73. Annihilation of electron and positron produces :
(A) One 511 Kev photon (B) One 511 Mev photon
(C) Two 511 Kev photons (D) Two 511 Mev photons
74.
3
H emits which type of radiations ?
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma
(C) Beta (D) Positron
75. Which of the following radiations are required for imaging ?
(A) UV (B) Alpha
(C) Gamma (D) Beta
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Subject : M.Sc.(Environment Science)
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candidate only.
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M.Sc. (Environment Science)/BZL/48998-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc. (Environment Science)/A
1. Every year, World Environment Day is celebrated on :
(A) March 5 (B) April 22
(C) June 5 (D) March 22
2. The first UN conference on Environment and Development was held at :
(A) Rio de Janeiro (B) Rome
(C) Stockholm (D) Los Angeles
3. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy source ?
(A) Hydrothermal (B) Kerosene
(C) Wind (D) Tidal
4. DDT was discovered by :
(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Rachel Carson
(C) Robert Koch (D) Paul Mller
5. Ozone in the stratosphere :
(A) is a friend (B) is a foe
(C) is a pollutant (D) is a contaminant
6. Which of the following states of India lacks National Park ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat (D) Arunachal Pradesh
7. Which of the following is the state animal of Punjab ?
(A) Peacock (B) Black Buck
(C) Eagle (D) Pigeon
8. Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in :
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Gujarat
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Kerala
9. Which of the following type of foods is also known as Franken food ?
(A) GM food (B) Junk food
(C) Raw food (D) Organic food
10. Who among the following relates to Chipko movement ?
(A) Vandana Shiva (B) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(C) Medha Patekar (D) Baba Amte
11. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in :
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Himachal Pradesh
12. Which of the following is an air-borne disease ?
(A) Diarrhoea (B) AIDS
(C) Amoebiasis (D) Influenza
13. Conserving biodiversity outside the natural evolutionary range of a species is known
as :
(A) In-vitro conservation (B) In-vivo conservation
(C) In-situ conservation (D) Ex-situ conservation
14. Which amongst the following trees is known as Biodiesel plant ?
(A) Neem (B) Mango
(C) Jatropha (D) Teak
15. Which amongst the following metals has been liked to mental retardation in children ?
(A) Arsenic (B) Lead
(C) Selenium (D) Chromium
16. Which of the following terms define the place on the earth where life exists ?
(A) Biosphere (B) Biome
(C) Biocenosis (D) Biogenesis
17. Which of the following soil horizon is the richest in organic matter ?
(A) O (B) A
(C) B (D) C
18. The secretariat of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is located in :
(A) Iraq (B) Switzerland
(C) Israel (D) Turkey
19. Kaziranga National Park is famous for :
(A) One-horned rhino (B) Asian Lion
(C) Royal Bengal Tiger (D) Elephants
20. COD stands for :
(A) Chemical Oxygen Depletion (B) Chemical Oxygen Decomposition
(C) Chemical Oxygen Demand (D) Compound's Oxygen Demand
21. Which of the following is the most abundant compound on earth's surface ?
(A) Water (B) Methane
(C) Ammonia (D) Carbon monoxide
22. Which of the following is most potent in disinfecting water ?
(A) Chlorine (B) Bromine
(C) Fluorine (D) Iodine
23. Ozone is a pollutant in :
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere (D) Thermosphere
24. Which of the following relates to sustainable development ?
(A) Brundtland commission (B) Kyoto protocol
(C) Montreal protocol (D) Convention on Biological diversity
25. Which amongst the following upon burning releases harmful / toxic dioxins ?
(A) Paper (B) Sawdust
(C) Plastics (D) Dried sewage sludge
26. Which of the following is a national animal of India ?
(A) Lion (B) Elephant
(C) Peacock (D) Royal Bengal Tiger
27. The ecomark logo of India is :
(A) Earthern pot (B) Dolphin
(C) Butterfly (D) Vector
28. Which of the following gases constitutes 9340 ppmv of the earth's atmosphere ?
(A) Helium (B) Neon
(C) Argon (D) Ammonia
29. How much percentage of water on Earth's surface is fresh water ?
(A) 2.1 (B) 2.7
(C) 3.3 (D) 3.9
30. Which of the following is commonly known as laughing gas ?
(A) Ammonia (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitric oxide (D) Nitrous oxide
31. World Water Day is celebrated every year on :
(A) March 20 (B) March 22
(C) March 24 (D) March 26
32. Which of the following is the most common unit for measuring ozone concentration ?
(A) Decibel (B) ppmv
(C) Dobson (D) Hertz
33. Bt cotton contains a gene from :
(A) Virus (B) Dolphin
(C) Daffodil (D) Bacterium
34. Kyoto protocol relates to :
(A) Ozone Depletion (B) Biodiversity loss
(C) Climate Change (D) Sustainable development
35. Earth summit 2012 was held at :
(A) Rio de janeiro, Brazil (B) Montreal, Canada
(C) Johannesburg, South Africa (D) Stockholm, Sweden
36. The Motor Vehicle Act of India came into force in :
(A) 1986 (B) 1988
(C) 1996 (D) 2000
37. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of India was enacted in the year :
(A) 1977 (B) 1981
(C) 1985 (D) 1989
38. The Environment (Protection) Act of India was enacted in the year :
(A) 1986 (B) 1996
(C) 2002 (D) 2006
39. The influenza caused by H5N1 is a _______ disease.
(A) Endemic (B) Epidemic
(C) Pandemic (D) Cosmopolitan
40. The family planning programme in India was officially launched in the year :
(A) 1952 (B) 1956
(C) 1960 (D) 1964
41. Which of the following terms describe the practice of involving moral human values and
consciousness for protecting environment ?
(A) Environmental Ethics (B) Environmental Consciousness
(C) Environmental Perseverance (D) Environmental Awareness
42. The world biodiversity day is celebrated on :
(A) March 22 (B) April 22
(C) May 22 (D) June 22
43. Which of the following treatments is given to water to prevent dental caries ?
(A) Chlorination (B) UV radiation
(C) Ozone treatment (D) Fluoridation
44. Incineration is generally done at a temperature of around :
(A) 300
o
C (B) 500
o
C
(C) 600
o
C (D) 800
o
C
45. Which of the following substances is most commonly used as food preservative ?
(A) Sodium benzoate (B) Aspartame
(C) Agenomoto (D) Monosodium glutamate
46. Convention on biological diversity is an outcome of :
(A) Kyoto protocol (B) Johannesburg summit
(C) Stockholm summit (D) Earth Summit 1992
47. WWF stands for :
(A) Worldwide Fund for Nature (B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) World Wild Foundation (D) World Wildlife Federation
48. Kitchen waste can be managed in an eco-friendly manner using :
(A) Vermicomposting (B) Open dumping
(C) Landfilling (D) Burning
49. World AIDS Day is celebrated on :
(A) December 1 (B) December 2
(C) December 3 (D) December 4
50. Which of the following is not a non-renewable source of energy ?
(A) Coal (B) Natural gas
(C) Petroleum (D) Solar
51. Which of the following parts of the atmosphere is ionized by the solar radiations ?
(A) Troposphere (B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere (D) Exosphere
52. Which amongst the following is the most severe type of erosion caused by water ?
(A) Splash erosion (B) Sheet erosion
(C) Rill erosion (D) Gully erosion
53. World Summit on Sustainable Development was held at :
(A) Stockholm (B) Johannesburg
(C) Kyoto (D) Cancun
54. Which amongst the following forest types have the maximum biodiversity ?
(A) Tropical Dry forests (B) Temperate forests
(C) Tropical Rainforests (D) Taiga forests
55. Wildlife Institute of India is located at :
(A) Nagpur (B) Kanpur
(C) Dehradun (D) Kolkata
56. Which amongst the following is responsible for acid rain ?
(A) Nitric oxides (B) Sulphur oxides
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Both sulphur and nitric oxides
57. Who amongst the following wrote the book Population Bomb ?
(A) Paul Muller (B) Thomas Malthus
(C) Rachel Carlson (D) Paul Ehrlich
58. Which of the following Indian states has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Kerala (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Manipur (D) Meghalaya
59. The Biodiversity Act of India was enacted in the year :
(A) 1992 (B) 1998
(C) 2002 (D) 2006
60. Which of the following is the name of common liver fluke ?
(A) Entameoba histolytica (B) Ascaris lumbricoides
(C) Taenia solium (D) Fasciola hepatica
61. Which of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria ?
(A) Pertussis (B) Cholera
(C) Anthrax (D) AIDS
62. Which of the following states have maximum number of wildlife sanctuaries ?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh
63. Which of the following is very serious indoor pollutant ?
(A) Asbestos (B) SO
2
(C) Hydrocarbons (D) Ozone
64. Aflatoxins are produced by :
(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi
(C) Virus (D) Algae
65. Which of the following is not a contagious disease ?
(A) Hepatitis (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Small pox (D) Influenza
66. Which of the following is an antioxidant ?
(A) Sucralose (B) BHA
(C) Acrylamide (D) MSG
67. Pampas, a type of grassland, are found in :
(A) South Africa (B) Argentina
(C) Russia (D) North America
68. IUCN was established in :
(A) 1948 (B) 1947
(C) 1946 (D) 1945
69. Liquid nitrogen boils at :
(A) 196
o
C (B) 192
o
C
(C) 190
o
C (D) 194
o
C
70. Ranthambore National Park is situated in :
(A) Orissa (B) West Bengal
(C) Rajasthan (D) Karnataka
71. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is situated in :
(A) Manipur (B) Assam
(C) Tripura (D) Meghalaya
72. Which of the following UTs of India has the maximum population density ?
(A) Puducherry (B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep (D) Chandigarh
73. UNEP headquarters is located in :
(A) Nairobi (B) Los Angeles
(C) New York (D) Chicago
74. Which of the following is the largest desert ?
(A) Thar (B) Sahara
(C) Kalahari (D) Antarctica
75. Which of the following is the most effective greenhouse gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Water vapours (D) Methane
ROUGH WORK
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Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany
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candidate only.
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M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/A
1. Saprolegnia belongs to kingdom :
(A) Fungi (B) Chromista
(C) Protozoa (D) Animalia
2. Zoospores are produced in :
(A) Gleba (B) Ascogonium
(C) Zoosporangium (D) Zygosporangium
3. Fucoxanthin is a characteristic pigment of :
(A) Chlorophyta (B) Phaeophyta
(C) Rhodophyta (D) Cyanophyta
4. Carpogonium is present in :
(A) Spirogyra (B) Batrachospermum
(C) Ulothrix (D) Oedogonium
5. Rocella tinctoria is employed for producing :
(A) Cotton Blue (B) Melzer's reagent
(C) Congo red (D) Orchil
6. Hydrilla is a :
(A) Xerophyte (B) Halophyte
(C) Mesophyte (D) Hydrophyte
7. Xanthophylls are soluble in :
(A) Chloroform (B) Water
(C) Potassium hydroxide (D) Saline
8. In a lichen food is synthesized by :
(A) Fungus (B) Alga
(C) Both of them (D) Tree on which they grow
9. Syngamy is the fusion of :
(A) isogametes (B) anisogametes
(C) sperm and egg (D) macro and micro gametes
10. Black rust of wheat is caused by :
(A) Puccinia graminis tritici (B) Puccinia recondita
(C) Puccinia striformis (D) Ustilago tritici
11. Hormones control sexual reproduction in :
(A) Ustilago avenae (B) Synchytrium endobioticum
(C) Achlya bisexualis (D) Pythium species
12. Hydrosere starts in :
(A) rocks (B) aquatic conditions
(C) xerophytic conditions (D) group of plants
13. Bast fibre is obtained from :
(A) Linum usitatissimum (B) Argemone maxicana
(C) Punica granatum (D) Calotropis sp.
14. Solanum nigrum is a :
(A) Hydrophyte (B) Halophyte
(C) plant which produces under ground tubers (D) medicinal plant
15. Medicine employed for curing Malaria is obtained from :
(A) Cinchona Caligaya (B) Cinnamomum Zeylanicum
(C) Solanum sp. (D) Crocus sp.
16. Agar is manufactured from :
(A) Ulothrix (B) Gelidium
(C) Chlorella (D) Oedogonium
17. The sporophyte of Funaria begins development within the :
(A) Antheridium (B) Capsule
(C) Archegonium (D) Protonema
18. Riccia thallus is :
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
19. The spores of moss germinate to form :
(A) Rhizoids (B) Capsule
(C) Protonema (D) Leafy gametophyte
20. Zygote alone represents sporophytic generation in :
(A) Selaginella (B) Funaria
(C) Pinus (D) Chlamydomonas
21. The number of neck canal cells in archegonium of Funaria are :
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Five (D) Six or more
22. Pteridophytic spores are :
(A) Diploid (B) Haploid
(C) Tetraploid (D) Triploid
23. Pteridophytes are differentiated from Bryophytes in having :
(A) Archegonia (B) Vascular tissue
(C) Motile antherozoids (D) Alternation of generations
24. Sporocarp is a part of reproduction in :
(A) All fungi (B) All algae
(C) All bryophytes (D) All aquatic pteridophytes
25. The gametophyte in ferns does not have :
(A) Sex organs (B) Tracheids
(C) Rhizoids (D) Chlorophyll
26. The dehiscence of sporangia in Dryopteris is controlled by :
(A) Annulus (B) Stomium
(C) Stomium and Annulus both (D) Peristome
27. Meiosis occurs in ferns before the formation of :
(A) Gametes (B) Protonema
(C) Spores (D) Prothallus
28. Endosperm in Pinus is :
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
29. Winged pollen grains are present in :
(A) Pinus sp. (B) Solanum sp.
(C) Triticum sp. (D) Aspergillus sp.
30. 'Sago' is obtained from :
(A) Cedrus (B) Pinus
(C) Taxas (D) Cycas
31. The ovule is naked in gymnosperms because :
(A) Integument is absent (B) Perianth is absent
(C) Nucellus is absent (D) Ovary wall is absent
32. Ovule of cycas is :
(A) Orthotropus unitegmic (B) Anatropous unitegmic
(C) Orthotropus bitegmic (D) Orthotropus tritegmic
33. Sessile ovules are present in :
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Cycas
34. Neck canal cells are absent in the archegonium of :
(A) Funaria (B) Cycas
(C) Sphagnum (D) Dryopteris
35. Which of the following is a parasite ?
(A) Acacia (B) Parthenium
(C) Cuscuta (D) Calotropis
36. Bentham and Hooker divided plants into :
(A) Dicots and monocots (B) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
(C) Cryptogams and phanerogams (D) Angiosperms and fungi
37. Which of the following is a Polycarpic Angiosperm ?
(A) Bamboo (B) Pea
(C) Agave (D) Pear
38. Nucellar polyembryony is common in :
(A) Citrus (B) Corchorus
(C) Zea (D) Carthemus
39. The embryo in sunflower has :
(A) One cotyledon (B) No cotyledon
(C) Two cotyledons (D) Many cotyledons
40. In which of the following non-zygotic seeds are formed ?
(A) Cucumber (B) Pea
(C) Cereals (D) Wheat
41. Scutellum in maize is called :
(A) Cotyledon (B) Coleorhiza
(C) Coleoptile (D) Hypocotyl
42. Double fertilization is exceptional to :
(A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms (D) Bryophytes
43. Camellia sinensis is the botanical name of :
(A) Apple (B) Tomato
(C) Zinger (D) Tea
44. Haustorial roots are formed in :
(A) Cactus (B) Maize
(C) Cuscuta (D) Zea mays
45. Aquatic plants have :
(A) well developed root system (B) well developed vascular system
(C) well developed leaves (D) well developed stem
46. In Opuntia, the spines are modifications of :
(A) Stem (B) Leaves
(C) Roots (D) Flower
47. Hymenium is exposed in :
(A) Agaricus (B) Clavatia
(C) Geastrum (D) Lycoperdon
48. Tylosis are more pronounced in :
(A) Wilt diseases (B) Leaf spot diseases
(C) Soft rot diseases (D) Scab diseases
49. Endemic diseases are :
(A) Localised (B) Wide spread
(C) Only soil borne (D) Only air borne
50. The terminal and axillary buds arise from :
(A) Apical meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) Parenchyma
51. Lignin is present in :
(A) Parenchyma (B) Xylem
(C) Phloem (D) Bundle sheath
52. Which of the following is not a component of the Xylem ?
(A) Vessel (B) Tracheids
(C) Medullary rays (D) Vascular rays
53. The cohesive force existing between molecules of water contributes to :
(A) ascent of sap (B) osmosis
(C) plasmolysis (D) translocation
54. The shrinking of protoplasm in plant cell is due to :
(A) Plasmolysis (B) Deplasmolysis
(C) Turgidity (D) Flaccidity
55. The most accepted theory for stomatal opening and closing is :
(A) transpiration (B) guar cell photosynthesis
(C) k + efflux and influx (D) starch glucose interconversion
56. Main function of Lenticels is :
(A) Transpiration (B) Guttation
(C) Gaseous exchange (D) Translation
57. Which of the following elements play an important role in opening of stomata ?
(A) Na (B) K
(C) Mg (D) Co
58. The root nodules of Leguminosae contains :
(A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium
(C) Nostoc (D) Aspergillus
59. Chlorophyll absorbs light at a wavelength of :
(A) 400 nm (B) 500 nm
(C) 600 nm (D) 660 nm
60. Glycolysis is the conversion of :
(A) glucose to glycogen (B) glycogen to glucose
(C) glucose to pyruvic acid (D) glucose to citric acid
61. The horse shoe shaped ovule is :
(A) Orthotropus (B) Circinotropus
(C) Hemianatropus (D) Campylotropus
62. The coloured part of Bougainvillea flower is :
(A) Corolla (B) Calyx
(C) Bracts (D) Androecium
63. Cruciform corolla is present in :
(A) Pisum (B) Radish
(C) China rose (D) Sunflower
64. The embryo sac in an angiosperm is a :
(A) Megasporangium (B) Megaspore mother cell
(C) Megagametophyte (D) Megaspore
65. A plant triploid and sexually sterile gives :
(A) no embryo but fruit (B) no fruit
(C) Hexaploid fruits (D) embryo but no fruit
66. Development of fruit without fertilization is :
(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Sporogamy
(C) Autogamy (D) Parthenogenesis
67. Seed dormancy is due to the :
(A) I.A.A (B) Ethylene
(C) Starch (D) A.B.A.
68. Self dispersal mechanism is called :
(A) Explosive mechanism (B) Zoochory
(C) Forced zoochory (D) Hydrochory
69. Allium cepa belongs to :
(A) Apiaceae (B) Moraceae
(C) Poaceae (D) Liliaceae
70. Chromosomes are arranged along the equator during :
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase (D) Telophase
71. Genetic material of TMV is :
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) Protein coat (D) DNA and protein coat
72. DNA nucleotide sequence gets distorted by the process of :
(A) Mutation (B) Recombination
(C) Culturing (D) Translation
73. The basic unit of life is :
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Lipo protein
(C) Protein (D) Nucleoprotein
74. Cleistothecium is the fructification of :
(A) Fungi (B) Algae
(C) Bacteria (D) Bryophytes
75. Systemic fungicides act :
(A) on the site of infection (B) on whole of the plant
(C) on roots only (D) only on the mycelium
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 12 432
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Chemistry
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course)Chemistry/BZL/49000-A ! !! !!2" "" ""
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course)Chemistry/BZL/49000-A ! !! !!3" "" "" [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course)-Chemistry/A
1. In a perchlorate anion :
(A) one Cl-O bond length is longer than the other three
(B) two Cl-O bond lengths are same but differ from other two which are equal
(C) one Cl-O bond length is shorter than other three
(D) all Cl-O bond lengths are equal
2. Aqueous iodine solution for iodimetric titrations is prepared by dissolving :
(A) Iodine in water (B) Iodine in KI solution
(C) Iodine in dilute KOH solution (D) Iodine in ten percent ethanol-water solution
3. As the temperature is increased from 0C to 50C, the ratio of ortho-hydrogen to para-
hydrogen :
(A) Decreases gradually and remains constant (B) increases continuously
(C) increases gradually and becomes constant (D) first increases and then decreases
4. The brown vapours formed in the reaction of solid NaCl with K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and concentrated
H
2
SO
4
is :
(A) CrO
2
Cl
2
(B) Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
(C) SO
2
(D) SO
3
5. The symmetry elements of H
2
O are :
(A) Two C
2
axis, two #
u
planes and E (identity)
(B) One C
2
axis, two #
u
planes and E
(C) Two C
2
axis, one #
u
plane and E
(D) One C
2
axis, one #
u
plane and E
6. The paramagnetic contribution to susceptibility $ $$ $$
p
:
(A) does not vary with temperature (B) varies linearly with temperature, $
p
% T
(C) varies with temperature, $
p
% T
2
(D) varies with temperature, as $
p
% (1/T)
7. The complex K
4
[Mn(NCS)
6
] should have spin only magnetic moment of :
(A) 5 B.M. (B)
. M . B 35
(C) . M . B
2
5 (D)
. M . B 30
8. The number of P-O-P bonds in P
4
O
10
is :
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
9. Compounds used as primary standards are better if they have high equivalent weights.
This is because :
(A) their purification is much easier (B) such compounds are generally hygroscopic
(C) weighing errors are minimized (D) they generally react with 1 : 1 stoichiometry
10. A three fold rotational axis is not present in :
(A) ClF
3
(B) CH
4
(C) NH
3
(D) CClF
3
11. Given the following, predict which is the strongest Bronsted acid in aqueous solutions :
(A) HClO
3
(B) HClO
2
(C) HOCl (D) HOI
12. In which of the following solvent, HF behaves as a base :
(A) NH
3
(l) (B) CH
3
COOH (l)
(C) H
2
SO
4
(l) (D) 0.25 M aqueous NaOH
13. Identify the reaction, which does not represent a Lewis acid-base adduct formation :
(A) H
2
O + H
+
' H
3
O
+
(B) PF
3
+ F
2
' PF
5
(C) (CH
3
)
3
N + BF
3
' (CH
3
)
3
NBF
3
(D) SnCl
2
+ Cl
' SnCl
3
14. The wave like character of electrons is best demonstrated from the :
(A) Photoelectric Effect
(B) Ionization of Na atoms
(C) Deflection of an electron beam by electrical plates
(D) Diffraction pattern of electrons observed from crystalline solid
15. If the dipole moment of NH
3
and NF
3
are compared, it is found that the dipole moment of
NH
3
is :
(A) Greater than NF
3
(B) Lesser than NF
3
(C) Equal to NF
3
(D) Exactly 1/3 of NF
3
16. PCl
5
when heated with finely divided Ag produces a liquid. This liquid reacts with water to
produce :
(A) PH
3
(B) HNO
3
(C) AgOH (D) HCl
17. The probability that a particle in a box will be found at the centre of box is :
(A) Zero (B) Minimum
(C) Maximum (D) Cannot be determined
18. The least square fitting of a data into a straight line evaluates :
(A) intercept and slope of the line
(B) only intercept of the line
(C) only slope of the line
(D) neither intercept nor slope of the line
19. Which of the following has center of inversion ?
(A) NH
3
(B) CH
4
(C) SO
2
Cl
2
(D) C
2
H
2
20. Cu
1+
disproportionates to :
(A) Cu only (B) Cu
2+
and Cu
3+
(C) Cu
2+
and Cu
0
(D) Cu and Cu
1
21. Which of the following compound contains a quadruple bond ?
(A) C
2
H
2
(B) [Re
2
Cl
9
]
(C) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(D) Cr
2
(CH
3
COO)
4
. 2H
2
O
22. The main reason for the larger number of oxidation states exhibited by actinides when
compared to lanthanides is :
(A) 4f orbitals are more diffused than 5f orbitals
(B) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(C) more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(D) more reactive nature of the actinides than the lanthanides
23. H
3
PO
2
and H
4
P
2
O
7
are respectively :
(A) Tribasic and Tetrabasic acids (B) Monobasic and Tetrabasic acids
(C) Dibasic and Tetrabasic acids (D) Monobasic and Dibasic acids
24. Methylation of diborance can proceed upto :
(A) Me
6
B
2
(B) Me
5
B
2
H
(C) Me
4
B
2
H
2
(D) Me

B
2
H
5
25. The total number of lone pairs in hydrazine (N
2
H
4
) molecule is :
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 0
26. A catalyst is a substance which does following to a chemical reaction's rate :
(A) alter (B) no role
(C) increase (D) decrease
27. The product nucleus after decay of 238 U by emitting 8 alpha and 4 beta particles is :
(A) 234 Th (B) 239 Pu
(C) 226 Ra (D) 206 Pb
28. The number of protons in a alpha particle is :
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 2
29. The axes of a unit cell representing orthorhombic crystal system can be expressed as :
(A) a = b = c (B) a ( b ( c
(C) a = b ( c (D) a = 2b = 2c
30. Heat capacity at constant volume is expressed as :
(A) ()U / )T)
V
(B) ()E / )T)
P
(C) ()H / )T)
P
(D) ()S / )T)
V
31. The * ** **U value for the reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas at
300 K from a volume of 100 dm
3
to 200 dm
3
is :
(A) 100 (B) 200
(C) 0 (D) 300
32. The molecularity of the following reaction 2 NO
(g)
+ O
2 (g)
' 2NO
2(g)
is :
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
33. The adsorption of a gas on a solid adsorbent at high pressure has the following order :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 3
34. The rate constant for second order reaction is 20 10
2
dm
3
/mol/sec. If the initial
concentration of reactant is 0.01 mol/dm
3
the half life in seconds is :
(A) 200 (B) 20
(C) 1 (D) 500
35. The catalyst used to convert glucose to ethyl alcohol is called :
(A) diastase (B) maltase
(C) zymase (D) urease
36. The signs of * ** **H and * ** **S respectively for the reaction 2 Br
(g)
' '' '' Br
2(g)
are :
(A) + (B) +
(C) + + (D)
37. A solution containing 5g of a solute dissolved in 100 g of water boiled at 100.52C. If Kb
for water is equal to 0.52C the molar mass of solute in g/mol is :
(A) 5 (B) 100
(C) 50 (D) 0.52
38. What is the EMF of the cell Zn + Fe
2+
' '' ''Zn
2+
+ Fe if the approximate standard electrode
potential for :
Zn ' '' ''Zn
2+
+ Ze + 0.8 V
Fe ' '' ''Fe
2+
+ Ze + 0.4 V
(A) + 0.8 (B) + 0.4
(C) + 1.2 (D) 0.8
39. The half life of a radioisotope of Iron is 25 years. If its initial activity was observed as
3200 dpm today, its activity after 100 years in dpm would be :
(A) 4200 (B) 1000
(C) 200 (D) 750
40. A Carnot Engine operates between 750 K and 1000 K. It absorbs 3360 Joules from the
source per cycle. The work done per cycle in calories is :
(A) 1000 (B) 750
(C) 200 (D) 3360
41. The wave function in quantum mechanics is related to :
(A) energy of system (B) state of system
(C) probability of system (D) shape of system
42. An experimenter observes that in a reaction A ' products the concentration of [A] as a
function of time has exponential nature. The order of the reaction is :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
43. The entropy of vaporisation of a solvent is 100 JK
1
mol
1
and the enthalpy of vaporisation
is 20,000 J mol
1
. The boiling point of solvent is :
(A) 1000 K (B) 200 K
(C) 20 K (D) 100 K
44. N.M.R. Spectrometry is based on the principle of change in :
(A) orientation (B) nuclear charge distribution
(C) spin (D) electronic charge distribution
45. The product of electrolysis of dilute H
2
SO
4
using inert electrodes at cathode will be :
(A) O
2
(B) S
(C) SO
2
(D) H
2
46. Ruby Laser contains trace of ions of the following element :
(A) Zn (B) Cr
(C) Al (D) Fe
47. The magnitude of Nuclear magneton in Joules/Tesla is :
(A) 5.05 10
-27
(B) 9.27 10
-24
(C) 6.02 10
23
(D) 1.38 10
-31
48. The cell constant of a conductivity cell is given by the following relation :
(A) Length/breadth
(B) Molar Conductance/Specific Conductance
(C) Equivalent Conductance/Molar Conductance
(D) Specific Conductance/Measured Conductance
49. The frequency shift due to Doppler effect in case of Fe-57 recoiling at 100 m/sec and
emitting radiation at 3.0 10
18
Hz while carrying out Mossbauer Spectroscopy is :
(A) 10
18
(B) 10
12
(C) 10
2
(D) 10
23
50. The statistics obeyed by particles having half integral spin is called :
(A) Bose-Einstein (B) Fermi-Dirac
(C) Maxwell-Boltzmann (D) Fermi-Bose
51. A number of known carcinogens modify DNA in such a way that disrupts :
(A) sugar group (B) phosphate group
(C) complementary H-bonding (D) sugar-phosphate backbone
52. Electrophilic substitution reaction of pyridine-N-oxide occurs at position :
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 4
53. The treatment of compound (M) with one equivalent of sodium ethoxide followed by
acidification gives :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54. The initial species formed in reaction of (S)-1-chloro-1-phenyl ethane with sodium acetate
in acetie acid to give a mixture of (R)-phenyl ethylacetate (58%) and (S)-phenyl ethyl
acetate (42%) is called :
(A) 2 carbocation (B) Carbanion
(C) Ion pair (D) 1 carbocation
55. When 1, 3-cyclopentadiene reacts with methyl acrylate, the favorable formation of endo
product rather than exoproduct occurs due to :
(A) pericyclic transition state (B) [4+2] cycloaddition
(C) its stability (D) its formation at faster rate
56. Isopropyl phenyl ketone can be prepared by the reaction of 2-methyl propomoyl chloride
with :
(A) phenyl lithium (B) lithium diphenyl cuprate
(C) benzene (D) phenyl magnesium bromide
57. The energies of hybrid atomic orbitals relative to s and p atomic orbitals is :
(A) p > sp
3
> sp
2
> sp > s (B) sp
3
> sp
2
> sp > s > p
(C) s > sp > sp
2
> sp
3
> p (D) sp > sp
2
> sp
3
> p > s
58. The order of pK
a
values of conjugated acid of 3 alkeyl amine(1), pyridine(2), acetone(3)
and ethyl alcohol(4) is :
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (B) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2
(C) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 (D) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
59. The C-H stretching frequency (cm
-1
) of alkane (1), aldehyde (2)alkyne (+ ++ ++CH)
(3) and alkene (=
1
C
H) (4) appears in the following order in their IR spectra :
(A) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 (B) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
(C) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (D) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2
60. The chemical shift (, ,, ,,) values for the methyl protons adjacent to functional groups (G) of
CH
3
G (G = ph, R
C
1
=O, Cl, Br) are :
(A) 2.1, 2.3, 2.7, 3.0 (B) 3.0, 2.7, 2.3, 2.1
(C) 2.3, 2.1, 2.7, 3.0 (D) 2.3, 2.1, 3.0, 2.7
COOEt
CH
3
O
(M)
COOEt
H
3
C
O
CH
3
O
CH
3
O
COOH
O
CH
2
OH H
3
C
H
= O C
1
61. The assignment of R or S to each stereo-center in (N) is :
(A) 1 R 6 R (B) 1 R 6 S
(C) 1 S 6 S (D) 1 S 6 R
62. One of the following statements is correct about elimination mechanism of organic
reactions :
(A) E2 competes with S
N
1 (B) E1 favors antiperiplanar stereochemistry
(C) E1 competes with S
N
1 (D) E2 is favored by weak bases
63. The absorption for the hydrogens of benzene appears at 444 Hz down field from standard
(TMS) on an NMR instrument that operates at 60 MHz. The position of this absorption
in 8 ppm is :
(A) 6.0 (B) 7.4
(C) 0.0 (D) 4.44
64. In the reaction of cyclohexene with NBS in presence of radical initiator (R), the actual
brominating agent is thought to be Br
2
which is produced in low concentration by the
reaction of :
(A) NBS and HBr (B) NBS with cyclohexene
(C) N-bromosuccinamide (NBS) with (R) (D) (R) with cyclohexene
65. The uv/visible spectroscopy of organic compounds is useful in providing information
about :
(A) functional group (B) conjugation part(s)
(C) molecular mass (D) structure formula
66. D-mannose on reaction with bromine water followed by calcium hydroxide and oxidation
with hydrogen peroxide in presence of ferric salt gives :
(A) D-Glucose (B) D-Fructose
(C) D-Arabinose (D) D-Ribose
67. Chlorohydroquinone is formed by the addition of HCl on :
(A) ortho quinone (B) para quinone
(C) phenol (D) para benzoquinone
68. The coupling constant (H
z
) for the hydrogens in (E)-3-Chloropropene nitrile is :
(A) 7.0 (B) 0.0
(C) 3.0 (D) 14.0
69. Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene with carbon tetrachloride gives :
(A) Triphenyl methane (B) Benzene trichloro methane
(C) Triphenyl methyl chloride (D) Chlorobenzene
OH
CH
3
(N)
70. The reduction of 3, 5-dimethoxybenzoic acid with lithium aluminium hydride occurs to
give :
(A) 3, 5-dimethoxy benzyl alcohol (B) 3, 5-dimethoxy benzaldehyde
(C) 3, 5-dimethoxy phenol (D) 3, 5-dimethoxy benzene
71. The oxidation of 3, 5-dimethyl cyclohexanone with nitric acid at 100C gives :
(A) 3, 5-dimethyl cyclohexanol (B) 1, 3-dimethyl cyclopentane
(C) 2, 4-dimethyl pentanoic acid (D) 2, 4-dimethyl hexanedioic acid
72. The mass spectrum of 4-methyl-2-pentanone (C
6
H
12
O) shows a peak at m/z 58 (C
3
H
6
O).
It is due to :
(A) molecular ion (B) Mclatterty ion
(C) alpha cleavage (D) beta hydrogen abstraction
73. Imidazole is an aromatic compound with six electrons in aromatic sextet by taking :
(A) 4 - e of ring and 2e on N-1 (B) 4 - e of ring and 2e on N-3
(C) 2 - e of C=N and 2e on each N (D) 2 - e of C=C and 2e on each N
74. The reaction of an acyl chloride with one equivalent of diazomethane gives :
(A) %-diazoketone (B) ester
(C) pyrazole (D) chloromethyl ketone
75. The rate of reduction of cyclohexanone (1) with metal hydride is 300 times faster than
acetone (2). It is due to the relief of following interaction in the transition state of the
reaction :
(A) gauche in (2) (B) gauche in (1)
(C) eclipsed in (1) (D) 1, 3-diaxial in product (s)
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course)Chemistry/BZL/49000-A ! !! !!12" "" "" . . . . .. . . . . .. .. .
CET (PG)2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Biotechnology
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Biotechnology/BZL/49006-A 2
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Biotechnology/BZL/49006-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Biotechnology/A
1. Gram negative bacteria do not contain :
(A) Lipopolysaccharides
(B) Peptidoglycan
(C) Porins
(D) Teichoic acid
2. What is not true for bacterial endotoxins ?
(A) Endotoxins are proteins released by the lysis of bacteria
(B) Endotoxins stimulate macrophages to produce interleukin 1
(C) Endotoxins are responsible for fever
(D) Endotoxins from different organisms produce same response in the body
3. 8 bacterial cells start growing exponentially with g = 20 min and reach 10
6
cfu/ml in 8 h. If
one cell starts growing similarly, how much time will it take to reach the same cell
density ?
(A) 7 h (B) 9 h
(C) 16 h (D) 160 h
4. In a steady state continuous culturing of Streptomyces griseus :
(A) Both biomass and substrate concentrations remain constant
(B) Biomass concentration decreases, substrate concentration increases
(C) Substrate concentration decreases, biomass concentration increases
(D) Both biomass and substrate concentrations increase
5. Which of the following does not generate ATP ?
(A) Light independent reactions of CO2 fixation
(B) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Non cyclic photophosphorylation
(D) Substrate level phosphorylation
6. Which type of fermentation will be suitable for the production of cellulase by Trichoderma
resei if it shows catabolite repression ?
(A) Fed batch culture (B) Continuous culture
(C) Batch culture (D) Continuous profusion culture
7. Microbial spoilage of canned food is likely to be caused by :
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Bacillus cereus
(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Salmonella enterica
8. Cyanobacteria differ from purple and green bacteria as they :
(A) Produce oxygen during photosynthesis (B) Do not require light
(C) Use H2S as the electron donor (D) Have membrane enclosed nucleus
9. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Elie Metchnikoff (i) Phagocytosis
(B) Emil Von Behring (ii) Antitoxins
(C) Paul Ehrlich (iii) Tuberculosis
(D) Cesar Milstein (iv) Monoclonal antibodies
10. Resolving power of a microscope is independent of :
(A) Wavelength of light (B) Refractive index of the medium
(C) Aperture of the objective (D) Magnification
11. What is true for conjugation in bacteria ?
(A) Cross between F
+
and F

yields recombinants with high frequency
(B) F factor DNA can integrate into the bacterial chromosome
(C) F
+
can not revert back to F
state
(D) Conversion of F
+
to Hfr is irreversible
12. Which of the following is not responsible for horizontal gene transfer ?
(A) Transposon integration (B) Conjugation
(C) Transduction (D) Cloning of the gene
13. Which vector has the highest cloning capacity ?
(A) Cosmid (B) pBR322
(C) YAC (D) BAC
14. All the statements are incorrect except :
(A) Clones isolated from cDNA libraries will carry their own promoter
(B) Coding region of a gene present in genomic library may be absent in the cDNA library
prepared from the same sample
(C) cDNA cannot be used for PCR
(D) cDNA library represents all the genes encoded by the genome
15. Plasmids and transposons have similar characteristics except the plasmids :
(A) Can integrate into the chromosomal
(B) Carry genes for antibiotic resistance
(C) Contain independent origin of replication
(D) Can move from one organism to another
16. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sites that are always located between the genes
(B) Bacterial DNA is not cleaved by its own restriction enzymes as they are bound by proteins
(C) HaeIII cleaved genomic DNA will produce more fragments that EcoRI cut DNA
(D) Restriction enzymes are produced by eubacteria only
17. Proof reading by DNA polymerase is associated with :
(A) 5 3 polymerase activity (B) 5 3 exonuclease activity
(C) 3 5 exonuclease activity (D) 3 5 phosphatase activity
18. What is incorrect with regard to Xeroderma pigmentosum ?
(A) It is a genetic disorder that is not inherited
(B) Sun light exposure causes mutations in the DNA
(C) DNA repair enzymes are not functional
(D) Patients are prone to skin cancer
19. Which virus type does not involve DNA synthesis ?
(A) Single stranded RNA virus
(B) RNA virus with reverse transcriptase
(C) DNA virus with reverse transcriptase
(D) Double stranded DNA virus
20. Mark the wrong pair :
(A) Photochemical Smog CO
2
(B) Acid rain NO
2
(C) Ozone depletion CFC (D) Global warming CH
4
21. Bioaugmentation means :
(A) Removal of pollutants by plants
(B) Removal of pollutants by adding exogenous bacteria
(C) Removal of pollutants by indigenous flora
(D) Stimulating removal of pollutants by adding nutrients
22. Which of the following has the lowest permeability across lipid bilayer cell membrane ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Water
(C) Glycerol (D) Glucose
23. Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be efficiently used to produce transgenics in :
(A) Corn (B) Soyabean
(C) Rice (D) Wheat
24. With regard to a eukaryotic cell, all are correct except :
(A) Ribosomal RNA is synthesised in the nucleolus
(B) Nucleosome core is 146 bp DNA and histone pentamer
(C) Histone 1 is involved in the packing of nucleosome
(D) In females one of the X chromosomes is highly condensed
25. If chromosomes lacked telomeres, it will lead to :
(A) Loss of essential genes (B) Limit the rate of DNA replication
(C) Increase the rate of cell division (D) Decrease in the number of chromosomes
26. How many helical turns does a protein make if it contains Leu-lys-arg-ile-val-asp-ile-leu-
ser-arg-leu-phen-lys-val ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
(A) The active site of an enzyme usually occupies only a small fraction of protein
(B) Catalysis by some enzymes involves covalent bond formation between amino acid side chain
and the substrate
(C) Allostric enzymes have two or more binding sites
(D) Feed back inhibition is an irreversible negative regulation of an enzyme
28. If an enzyme is phosphorylated and its Km increases by a factor of 3 without changing its
Vmax. It means the enzyme has been :
(A) Activated (B) Inhibited
(C) Denatured (D) Unaffected
29. Competitive inhibition of an enzyme shows all the features except :
(A) The inhibitor competes directly with the substrate for the binding site
(B) The inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration
(C) The inhibitor decreases the Vmax of the reaction
(D) The inhibitor increases the Km value
30. Which does not happen in E.coli cells showing catabolite repression ?
(A) The level of cAMP in the cell increases when glucose is scarce
(B) High level of cAMP is required for lactose utilization
(C) Transcription of lac operon is independent of cAMP level in the cell
(D) Lactose is not metabolised in the presence of glucose
31. Which statement is incorrect with regard to a protein containing amino acids : Ser, Leu,
Lys, Gln, His, Phen, Val, Ile, Met, Cys-s-s-Cys and Glu ?
(A) Ser, Lys Gln, His, Glu will be found on the surface of the protein
(B) Leu, Phen, Val, Ile, Met will be form the interior of the protein
(C) Cys-s-s-cys will be on the surface of the protein
(D) N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids will be found on the surface of the protein
32. At a pH below isoelectric point, an amino acid will exist as :
(A) Cation (B) Anion
(C) Zwitterion (D) Undissociated molecule
33. On a reducing SDS-polyacrylamide gel, a pentameric IgM molecule will show how many
bands ?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Five (D) Ten
34. In a given species the genetic variation between individuals involving different alleles at
a locus is :
(A) Isotypic variation (B) Idiotypic variation
(C) Allotypic variation (D) Haplotypic variation
35. In a population of 500 individuals at equilibrium, the frequency of allele is 0.11. The
expected frequency of heterozygous individuals will be :
(A) 0.842 (B) 0.890
(C) 0.0979 (D) 0.1958
36. MHC class I proteins in conjugation with antigens are recognized by :
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells
(C) Suppressor T cells (D) Dendritic cells
37. In humans most common form of organ transplant is :
(A) Xenograft (B) Allograft
(C) Autograft (D) Isograft
38. Mark the correct statement :
(A) CD8 molecules are expressed on the surface of cytotoxic T cells
(B) Cytotoxic T cells have CD4 molecules on their surface
(C) Helper cells express CD8 molecules
(D) Helper cells display IgG molecule on their surface
39. Phospholipase C mediated increase in intracellular inositol triphosphate results in the
release of Ca
2+
from :
(A) Lysosome (B) Mitochondria
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Golgi body
40. Which of the following cells remain in G
0
state for the entire life of an organism ?
(A) Skeletal muscle cells (B) Squamous epithelial cells
(C) Skin fibroblasts (D) Stem cells
41. Most of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in the _____ of the _____.
(A) cytosol; cell (B) matrix; mitochondria
(C) lumen; smooth ER (D) cristae; mitochondria
42. Chromatin consists of :
(A) histones only (B) DNA and histones only
(C) histones and other proteins only (D) DNA, histones and other proteins
43. The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called :
(A) synapsis (B) chiasma
(C) crossing-over (D) recombination
44. If two genes are linked, then by definition they :
(A) are alleles of the same gene
(B) occur on the same chromosome
(C) occur on different chromatids of the same chromosome
(D) will segregate independently
45. Consider a chromosome represented as ABCDEFG , where indicates the centromere.
Suppose ultraviolet light causes the chromosome to change to ACBDEFG . What type of
mutation has occurred ?
(A) Duplication (B) Inversion
(C) Deletion (D) Translocation
46. A codon consists of _____ nucleotides in a(n) _____ molecule.
(A) three; DNA (B) four; DNA
(C) three; RNA (D) four; RNA
47. Which of the following molecules contains an anticodon ?
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA
(C) rRNA (D) protein
48. The O
2
evolved in photosynthesis comes from :
(A) carbon dioxide (B) water
(C) glucose (D) (CH
2
O)
49. Which pigment occurs in all photosynthetic eukaryotes ?
(A) Chlorophyll a (B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Chlorophyll c (D) Bacteriochlorophyll
50. In the reaction of photosynthesis. The _____ complex links photosystems I and II.
(A) light-harvesting (B) oxygen-evolving
(C) water photolysis (D) cytochrome b
6
/f
51. Apomixis is a type of :
(A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Hybridization (D) Outcrossing
52. The term phylum is nomenclaturally equivalent to :
(A) Class (B) Division
(C) Order (D) Kingdom
53. Karyogamy is the :
(A) Fusion of protoplasts (B) Formation of a dikaryon
(C) Fusion of nuclei (D) Formation of rhizoids
54. In yeasts, meiosis occurs within the :
(A) Antheridium (B) Crozier
(C) Basidium (D) Ascus
55. The food reserve in brown algae is :
(A) Floridean starch (B) Chrysolaminarin
(C) Laminarin (D) Glycogen
56. The fertile parts of a flower are the :
(A) Sepals and stamens (B) Petals and stamens
(C) Sepals and carpels (D) Carpels and stamens
57. In flowers with sepals, petals and stamens attached below the ovary, the ovary is said to
be :
(A) hypogynous (B) epigynous
(C) perigynous (D) superior
58. In most angiosperms, the primary endosperm nucleus is :
(A) n (B) 2n
(C) 3n (D) 4n
59. The red, orange and yellow pigments of flowers are :
(A) Anthocyanins (B) Flavonoids
(C) Carotenoids (D) Betacyanins
60. The Haber-Bosch process is important in the :
(A) Reduction of soil erosion (B) Development of pesticides
(C) Manufacture of fertilizers (D) Development of efficient irrigation systems
61. The three tissue systems of vascular plants are :
(A) The dermal, vascular and ground tissue systems
(B) Protoderm, procambium and ground meristem
(C) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
(D) Epidermis, periderm and protoderm
62. Stomata are the _____ between _____.
(A) cells; subsidiary cells (B) cells; guard cells
(C) pores; guard cells (D) pores; subsidiary cells
63. A succulent leaf is one that is specialized for :
(A) growth in aqueous habitats (B) chemical defense
(C) protection against predators (D) water storage
64. In trees, heartwood is different from sapwood in that heartwood :
(A) has a lighter colour (B) is nonconducting
(C) contains living cells (D) is found closer to the vascular cambium
65. Light with a wavelength of about _____ nanometers is the most effective for interrupting
the dark period of both short-day and long-day plants.
(A) 220 (B) 340
(C) 440 (D) 660
66. The chief reservoir of nitrogen is :
(A) the ocean (B) living organisms
(C) dead organic material (D) the atmosphere
67. Nitrite is oxidized to nitrate by :
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter
(C) ammonifying bacteria and fungi (D) denitrifying bacteria
68. _____ is the principal source of nitrogen available to crop plants.
(A) Organic nitrogen (B) Nitrate
(C) Ammonium (D) Glutamine
69. Mutualism is an interaction between two species in which :
(A) one species benefits and the other is harmed
(B) both species benefit
(C) both species are harmed
(D) one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped
70. Folke Skoog and his colleagues found that _____ stimulated cells of tobacco to divide in
culture.
(A) coconut milk (B) a sugar
(C) a salt (D) a vitamin
71. When tobacco pith callus is treated with higher concentrations of auxin than kinetin,
_____ is (are) formed.
(A) more callus (B) roots
(C) leaves (D) vascular tissue
72. Because meristems lack _____ tissues, meristem culture results in plants that lack _____.
(A) vascular; viruses (B) vascular; fungi
(C) epidermal; viruses (D) epidermal; fungi
73. It was not until the discovery of _____ that organ and tissue culture became feasible.
(A) hydroponics
(B) plant hormones
(C) the importance of sucrose in nutrient solutions
(D) the essential mineral elements
74. Crown-gall tumors are produced by a(n) :
(A) virus (B) bacterium
(C) fungus (D) alga
75. By definition, hydroponics is the technique for growing :
(A) isolated leaf pieces (B) isolated roots
(C) plant embryos (D) plants without soil
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)Biotechnology/BZL/49006-A 12 440
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School)Biophysics
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Biophysics/BZL/48997-A 2
M.Sc. (Hons. School)Biophysics/BZL/48997-A 3 [Turn over
M.Sc.(Hons. School)Biophysics/A
1. Which ionizing radiation shall cause the least biological effect ?
(A) Alpha rays (B) Diagnostic X-rays
(C) Beta rays (D) 10 Mev X-rays
2. Which statistical model can be helpful in case of background counts while using a GM
counter ?
(A) Poisson distribution (B) Gaussian distribution
(C) Poisson and Gaussian distribution (D) Normal distribution
3. Which of the following elements require hydride generator for its estimation using atomic
absorption spectrometer ?
(A) Zinc (B) Iron
(C) Selenium (D) Aluminium
4. Deficiency of which hormone causes diabetes insipidus :
(A) Oxytocin (B) Antidiuretic hormone
(C) Aldosterone (D) Prolactin
5. The number of hydrogen bonds formed by a single water molecule is :
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
6. The source of siderophores is :
(A) Kupfer cells (B) Bacteria
(C) Leukocytes (D) Monocytes
7. In case of X-rays :
(A) Soft tissue is more opaque than Bone (B) Bone is more opaque than soft tissue
(C) Bone and soft tissue both are opaque (D) Bone and soft tissue both are not opaque
8. Who discovered X-rays ?
(A) Madam Curie (B) Bacquerel
(C) Roentgen (D) Einstein
9. Which is not the store house of iron ?
(A) Reticuloendothelial system (B) Bone Marrow
(C) Gall Bladder (D) Spleen
10. Which of the following does not cause mutation ?
(A) X-rays (B) Visible rays
(C) Gamma rays (D) UV rays
11. 10 micro Curie is :
(A) 0.37 GBq (B) 0.37 MBq
(C) 0.37 KBq (D) 0.37 Bq
12. During Auger effect :
(A) Single vacancy is created in the L shell
(B) Single vacancy is created in the M shell
(C) No vacancy is created in either L or M shell
(D) Two vacancies are created either L or M shell
13. The cross bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal muscle are components of :
(A) Gelatin (B) Keratin
(C) Actin (D) Myosin
14. One Bacquerel is :
(A) 27.03 pico Curies (B) 27.03 nano Curies
(C) 27.03 micro Curies (D) 27.03 mili Curies
15. Which of the following leukocytes express more in hypersensitivity reactions ?
(A) Basophils (B) Acidophils
(C) Neutrophils (D) Eosinophils
16. Which of the following does not require injection of radioisotope for investigation ?
(A) MRI (B) PET
(C) SPECT (D) Rectilinear Scanner
17. Which of the following enzymes is used for dissolution of blood clots ?
(A) Lipase (B) Amylase
(C) Streptokinase (D) Peroxidase
18. Perchlorate discharge test is used for the diagnosis of :
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Thyroiditis
(C) Ectopic thyroid (D) Organification defect
19. How much energy is required for pair production ?
(A) 1.02 eV (B) 1.02 KeV
(C) 1.02 MeV (D) 1.02 GeV
l
20. Centrosomes are present in :
(A) In plants cells only (B) In animal cells only
(C) In both plant and animal cells (D) Neither in plant cells nor in animal cells
21. Which photon processes are dominant in radiological investigations ?
(A) Photoelectric effect (B) Compton effect
(C) Pair production (D) Photoelectric effect and Compton effect
22. Epinephrine and nor epinephrine are :
(A) Polypeptides
(B) Amino acids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Activate alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
23. When Sound waves and ultrasound waves travel from space station towards earth ?
(A) Ultrasound waves shall reach first (B) Sound waves shall reach first
(C) Both shall reach at the same time (D) Both shall not reach the earth
24. Involuntary muscles are controlled by :
(A) Pons (B) Cerebrum
(C) Cerebellum (D) Medulla Oblongata
25. Collagen exists as :
(A) Single helix (B) Double helix
(C) Triple helix (D) Beta Stranded
26. Which is the weakest bond ?
(A) Vander Waa l (B) Hydrogen
(C) Ionic (D) Coordinate
27. Phosphorescence decay time of Na (TI) detector is :
(A) 0.25 nano sec (B) 0.25 micro sec
(C) 0.25 mili sec (D) 0.25 sec
28. Velocity of propagation of action potential :
(A) Dependent on diameter of axon
(B) Independent of diameter of axon
(C) Dependent on thickness of myelin around axon
(D) Independent of thickness of myelin around axon
l
29. Which of the following exhibits Lowest Energy Transfer (LET), in biological tissues ?
(A) Xrays (B) Beta rays
(C) Alpha rays (D) Neutrons
30. The distance between oppositely charged atoms in an optimal electrostatic interaction
is :
(A) 0.8 angstrom (B) 1.8 angstrom
(C) 2.8 angstrom (D) 3.8 angstrom
31. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to :
(A) Production of ATP through citric acid cycle (B) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
(C) Alcoholic fermentation (D) Anaerobic production of ATP
32. Annual effective does from radiation exposure for the general public is :
(A) 1 mSv (B) 2 mSv
(C) 3 mSv (D) 4 mSv
33. Late effects of radiation are called :
(A) Random effects (B) Threshold effects
(C) Stochastic effects (D) Non stochastic effects
34. Full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a photopeak is a measure of :
(A) Intrinsic efficiency (B) Sensitivity
(C) Energy resolution (D) Geometric efficiency
35. Pepsin is secreted by :
(A) Acinar cells (B) Ccells
(C) Parietal cells (D) Chief cells
36. Electroencephalogram of normal awake person shows :
(A) Alpha waves (B) Beta waves
(C) Theta waves (D) Delta waves
37. Sperms from seminiferous tubules, first move to :
(A) Epididymis (B) Vas deferens
(C) Urethra (D) Seminal vesicle
38. Boundary between the outer and middle ear is formed by :
(A) Basilar membrane (B) Organ of Corti
(C) Tectorial membrane (D) Tympanic membrane
39. Sarcomas are :
(A) Cancer of bone marrow (B) Cancer of follicular cells
(C) Cancer of neural cells (D) Cancer of endothelial cells
40. During DNA replication, bonds are broken between :
(A) Pentose sugars (B) Sugar and phosphate
(C) Phosphate groups (D) Nitrogenous bases
41. One Gray is equal to :
(A) 100 J/Kg (B) 10 J/Kg
(C) 1 J/Kg (D) 0.1 J/Kg
42. SI unit of radioactivity is :
(A) Sv (B) C i
(C) Bq (D) Gy
43. Which of the following hormones related to thyroid function is present in maximum
Concentration in systemic circulation :
(A) TRF (B) TSH
(C) T
4
(D) T
3
44. Epinephrine is a derivative of :
(A) Phenyl alanine (B) Tyrosine
(C) Lysine (D) Glycine
45. Physical half life of
99m
TC is :
(A) 0.6 hours (B) 1.6 hours
(C) 6 hours (D) 16 hours
46. Gamma ray energy of
51
Cr is :
(A) 120 KeV (B) 220 KeV
(C) 320 KeV (D) 420 KeV
47.
32
P is a :
(A) Alpha emitter (B) Beta emitter
(C) Gamma emitter (D) Positron emitter
48. Which of the following is needed for erythrocytes ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin B
12
49.
89
Sr is used to treat :
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Polycythemia Vera
(C) Leukaemia (D) Bone pain
50. Which of the following is boiled during preparation for radiolabeling ?
(A) Phytic acid (B) DTPA
(C) Sulphur Colloid (D) Albumin Colloid
51. Red blood cells appear normal in :
(A) Hypertonic solution (B) Hypotonic solution
(C) Isotonic solution (D) Hyperosmotic solution
52. The radius of an atom is nearly :
(A) 10
8m
(B) 10
10 m
(C) 10
12 m
(D) 10
14 m
53. Which of the following has highest frequency ?
(A) Gamma rays (B) UV rays
(C) Microwaves (D) Infrared waves
54. Water has maximum density at :
(A) 10 degree (B) 0 degree
(C) 4 degree (D) 10 degree
55. Increase in pressure :
(A) Increase the volume of ice (B) Increases the melting point of ice
(C) Decreases the melting point of ice (D) Does not cause any effect
56. Which of the following amino acids is hydrophobic ?
(A) Arginine (B) Lysine
(C) Histidine (D) Valine
57. Which of the following is not a saturated fatty acid ?
(A) Myrstic acid (B) Oleic acid
(C) Palmitic acid (D) Stearic acid
58. Which of the following cells take up Mebrofenin ?
(A) Hepatocytes (B) Kupfer cells
(C) Sinusoids (D) Tcells
59. Radiation does delivered to soft tissues is measured in :
(A) Watt (B) Calorie
(C) Ev (D) Gy
60. Radiocolloids are cleared from the systemic circulation by :
(A) Hepatocytes (B) Kupffer cells
(C) Leukocytes (D) Neutrophlis
61. Single Hb molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
62. The type of antibody that can cross the placenta :
(A) IgM (B) IgA
(C) IgG (D) IgD
63. An electron in conduction band :
(A) Is located near the Compton edge
(B) Does not have charge
(C) Has higher energy than electron in valence band
(D) Has lower energy than electron in valence band
64. Protein part of the enzyme is called :
(A) Coenzyme (B) Apoenzyme
(C) Prosthetic group (D) Holoenzyme
65. Which of the following is used in a well-type counter ?
(A) KI (B) NaI
(C) NaI (TI) (D) BaF
2
66. The unit of magnetic flux in Sl system is :
(A) Weber (B) Tesla
(C) Maxwell (D) Gauss
67. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of :
(A) Magnetic field (B) Electrical field
(C) Dielectric strength (D) Both electrical and magnetic field
68. The shape of equipotential surface due to a point charge is :
(A) Ellipsoid (B) Sphere
(C) Plane (D) Straight line
69. Which of the following stains can detect amino acids in ng ?
(A) Giemsa (B) Bendict
(C) Flourescamine (D) Ninhydrin
70. When does a chromosome reveal maximum coiling ?
(A) During anaphase of meiosis I (B) During telophase of meiosis II
(C) During pachytene of meiosis (D) During metaphase of mitosis
71. Positron and negatron differ on the basis of :
(A) Origin (B) Mass
(C) Charge (D) Ionization
72. Thyrotropin is produced from :
(A) Thyroid (B) Thymus
(C) Pituitary (D) Choroid Plexus
73. The division of nucleus is called :
(A) Cytokinesis (B) Karyokinesis
(C) Meiosis (D) Mitosis
74. Zinc figure proteins and helixturnhelix proteins are :
(A) Types of DNA binding proteins (B) Components of lysosomes
(C) Components of ribsomes (D) Are involved during translation
75. ATP is synthesised during :
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Cellular respiration
(C) Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis
(D) Glyconeogenesis
ROUGH WORK
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M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/BZL-48985/A 2
+
1. A Force acting on a particle is conservative if :
(A) it is not a frictional force
(B) it obeys Newtons second law
(C) it obeys Newtons third law
(D) its work depends only on the end points of the motion
2. An object moving at constant velocity in an inertial frame must :
(A) have a net force acting on it
(B) have zero net force acting on it
(C) have no frictional force acting on it
(D) eventually stop due to gravity
3. The centre of mass of the Earths atmosphere is :
(A) near the centre of the earth
(B) near the surface of the earth
(C) near the outer boundary of the atmosphere
(D) a little less than half way between the earths surface and the outer boundary of the atmosphere
4. An inelastic collision is one in which :
(A) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
(B) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
(C) neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved
(D) total mass is not conserved but momentum is conserved
5. An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft feels weightless because he :
(A) is beyond the range of gravity
(B) is pulled outwards by centrifugal force
(C) has not acceleration
(D) has the same acceleration as the spacecraft
Physics & Electronics/BZL-48985/A 3 [Turn over
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6. The speed of a sinusoidal wave on a string depends on :
(A) the frequency of the wave (B) the wavelength of the wave
(C) the length of the string (D) the tension in the string
7. According to the second law of thermodynamics :
(A) heat cannot be completely converted to work
(B) work cannot be completely converted to heat
(C) for all cyclic processes we have dQ/dT < 0
(D) the efficiency of heat engine is less than 100% due to friction, which is unavoidable
8. Radio receivers are usually tuned by adjusting the capacitor of an LC circuit. If C = C
1
for a frequency
of 600 kHz, then for a frequency of 1200 kHz one must adjust C to :
(A) C
1
/2 (B) C
1
/4
(C) 2C
1
(D) 4C
1
9. In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is U. The maximum energy stored in the capacitor
during one cycle is :
(A) U/2 (B)
2 / U
(C) U (D) U/!
10. Iron, rather than copper, is used in the core of transformers because :
(A) iron can withstand a high temperature (B) iron has greater resistivity
(C) iron has a very high permeability (D) iron makes a great permanent magnet
11. Maxwells equations predict that the speed of light in free space is :
(A) an increasing function of frequency (B) a decreasing function of frequency
(C) independent of frequency (D) a function of the distance from the source
12. An electromagnetic wave is generated by :
(A) any moving charge (B) any accelerating charge
(C) only a charge with changing acceleration (D) only a charge moving in a circle
13. For an electromagnetic wave the direction of the vector B E
r r
" gives :
(A) the direction of the electric field
(B) the direction of the magnetic field
(C) the direction of the wave propagation
(D) the direction of the emf induced by the wave
+
14. A wave front is a surface of constant :
(A) phase (B) frequency
(C) wavelength (D) speed
15. In a Newtons ring pattern, as one approaches the patterns edge, the dark rings :
(A) get closer and thinner
(B) get closer but remain of equal thickness
(C) are equally spaced but get thinner
(D) get further apart and thinner
16. If two light waves are coherent :
(A) their amplitudes are the same (B) their frequencies are the same
(C) their wavelengths are the same (D) their phase difference is constant
17. Radio waves are readily diffracted around buildings whereas light waves are negligibly diffracted
around buildings. This is because radio waves :
(A) are plane polarized
(B) have much longer wavelengths than light waves
(C) have much shorter wavelengths than light waves
(D) are amplitude modulated (AM)
18. No fringes are seen in a single-slit diffraction pattern if :
(A) the screen is far away
(B) the slit width is greater than a wavelength
(C) the slit width is less than a wavelength
(D) the wavelength is less than the distance to the screen
19. The dispersion of a diffraction grating indicates :
(A) the resolution of the grating
(B) the separation of lines of the same order
(C) the number of ruling in the grating
(D) the width of the lines
+
20. A meter stick moves at 0.95c in the direction of its length through a laboratory. According to
measurements taken in the laboratory, its length is :
(A) 3.0 m (B) 0.31 m
(C) 0.098 m (D) 0
21. Light from some stars shows an apparent change in frequency because of :
(A) relative motion (B) interference
(C) diffraction (D) refraction by layers of air
22. A particle with rest mass m moves with speed 0.6 c. Its kinetic energy is :
(A) mc
2
(B) 0.25 mc
2
(C) 0.22 mc
2
(D) 0.18 mc
2
23. If the mass of a particle is zero its speed must be :
(A) c (B) infinite
(C) 0 (D) any speed less than c
24. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the greatest energy ?
(A) blue light (B) microwave
(C) x-rays (D) radio-waves
25. In Compton scattering from scattering electrons the largest change in wavelength occurs when the
photon is scattered through :
(A) 0 (B) 45
(C) 90 (D) 180
26. Which of the following is not evidence for the wave nature of matter ?
(A) the photoelectric effect
(B) the diffraction pattern obtained when electron pass through the slit
(C) electron tunneling
(D) the validating of the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
27. The significance of |# ## ##|
2
is :
(A) probability (B) energy
(C) probability density (D) energy density
+
28. The principle of complementarity is due to :
(A) Bohr (B) Einstein
(C) Maxwell (D) Schrdinger
29. If the wave function # # # # # is spherically symmetric then the radial probability density is given by :
(A) |#|
2
(B) 4!r
2
#
(C) 4!r
2
|#|
2
(D) 4!r|#|
2
30. The magnitude of the orbital angular momentum of an electron in an atom is what multiple of
h
?
(
l
is a positive integer)
(A)
2 / l
(B)
1 2 % l
(C)
2
l
(D) ) 1 ( % l l
31. Total number of electron states with n = 2 and l = 1 for an atom is :
(A) two (B) four
(C) six (D) eight
32. To observe the Zeeman effect one uses :
(A) a strong uniform magnetic field
(B) a strong non-uniform magnetic field
(C) a strong uniform electric field
(D) mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields
33. Characteristics k x-radiation of an element is caused by :
(A) stoppage of electrons by the nucleus
(B) ejection of an electron from an outer shell
(C) transition of an electron to the innermost orbit
(D) scattering of the incident radiation with a change of wavelength
34. The Pauli exclusion principle is obeyed by :
(A) all particles
(B) all charged particles
(C) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1/2
(D) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1
+
35. Which of the following subshells cannot exist ?
(A) 3p (B) 2p
(C) 3d (D) 2d
36. A LASER must be pumped to achieve :
(A) a metastable state (B) stimulated emission
(C) population inversion (D) fast response
37. The purpose of the mirrors at the ends of a helium-neon LASER is :
(A) to ensure that no LASER light leaks out
(B) to absorb some of the photons
(C) to increase the number of stimulated emissions
(D) to double the effective length of the LASER
38. LASER beam can be sharply focused because it is :
(A) highly coherent (B) highly directional
(C) intense (D) plane polarized
39. The electron can not be considered as constituent of nucleus because :
(A) positrons are also emitted out from the nucleus
(B) the electron interacts through Coulombic interaction only
(C) the beta ray energy is more than that the electron can have inside the nucleus
(D) the magnetic moment of nucleus is less than that of electron
40. The total binding energy of a nucleus is proportional to :
(A) A
1/3
(B) A
(C) A(A1)/2 (D) A
2/3
41. Which one of the following statement is not true for the magic nuclei ?
(A) binding energy per nucleon is more as compared to that of neighboring nuclei
(B) neutron capture cross-section is small
(C) there are more number of isotopes or isotones as compared to the neighbors
(D) quadrupole moment is maximum
+
42. Which one of the nuclei, C , C , H , Ca
35
17
13
6
2
1
40
20
will have zero angular momentum in the ground state ?
(A)
H
2
1
(B)
Ca
40
20
(C)
C
13
6
(D)
C
37
17
43. What type of interaction between neutron, electron and antineutron is responsible for the
transformation of neutron into a proton ?
(A) Gravitational (B) Electromagnetic
(C) Weak (D) Strong
44. Proton and alpha particles of the same energy, 4 MeV, are moving in air. The stopping power of
alpha particle as compared to that of proton will be :
(A) same (B) two times
(C) three times (D) four times
45. In a G.M. counter working in the plateau region, the total charge per event collected at the anodes
is :
(A) proportional to the energy of the particle
(B) is independent of the energy of incoming particle
(C) proportional to the potential difference between anode and cathode
(D) dependent on the material of the anode wire
46. Which one of the following detectors can not be used for the measurement of energy of the nuclear
radiations ?
(A) Proportional counter (B) G.M. counter
(C) Scintillation counter (D) Semiconductor detector
47. Which one of the following quantities is not conserved in weak interaction ?
(A) Angular momentum (B) Baryon number
(C) Lepton number (D) Strangeness
48. Quarks are the constituents of :
(A) all particles (B) all leptons
(C) all strongly interacting particles (D) only mesons
+
49. A certain nucleus, after absorbing a neutron, emits electron and then splits onto two alpha particles.
The (A, Z) of the original nucleus must have been :
(A) 6, 2 (B) 6, 3
(C) 7, 2 (D) 7, 3
50. Stable nuclei generally :
(A) have a greater number of protons than neutrons
(B) have a greater number neutrons than protons
(C) have low mass numbers
(D) have high mass numbers
51. A Bravais lattice can not have :
(A) 2-fold rotational symmetry (B) 3-fold rotational symmetry
(C) 4-fold rotational symmetry (D) 5-fold rotational symmetry
52. The atomic density of a diatomic bcc structure is :
(A) one atom/primitive cell (B) two atom/primitive cell
(C) three atom/primitive cell (D) four atom/primitive cell
53. X-ray diffraction pattern of a crystal structure is a direct map of :
(A) the space lattice (B) the reciprocal lattice
(C) the phonon spectrum (D) the band structure
54. Polarization experiments provide evidence that light is :
(A) longitudinal wave (B) nearly monochromatic
(C) a transverse wave (D) a stream of particles
55. Which one of the following properties of metals can not be explained based on the free-electron
model ?
(A) Ohms law
(B) Heat capacity of conduction electrons
(C) Paramagnetic susceptibility of conduction electrons
(D) Difference between insulators and conductors
56. Following the Kronig-Penny model of solids, the width of an allowed band depends on :
(A) number of electrons in solids (B) binding energy of electrons
(C) temperature of solids (D) mass of nucleus
57. The Fermi energy of a metal depends mainly on :
(A) the temperature
(B) the volume of the sample
(C) total number of electrons in the sample
(D) the number density of conduction electrons
58. The energy gap (in eV) between the valence and conduction bands of an insulator is of the order :
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.1
(C) 10 (D) 100
59. A beam of X-rays of wavelength 1 is found to diffract in second order from the face of the LiF
crystal at a Bragg angle of 30. The distance between adjacent crystal planes, in mm, is about :
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.20
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.30
60. A 50 Hz signal is rectified by a full-wave rectifier. The output waveform will have the ac component
of frequency :
(A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz
(C) 100 Hz (D) 200 Hz
61. Which of the following characteristics does not correspond to JFET ?
(A) It is a unipolar device
(B) It has low input impedance
(C) It is a voltage controlled device
(D) Current is less affected by noise
62. In a phase-shift oscillator, the phase shift produced by one RC-section is :
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 90 (D) 180
+
63. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to :
(A) reduce the bandwidth of transmission
(B) separate differing transmissions
(C) ensure that information may be transmitted over long distances
(D) allow the practicable antennas
64. Indicate which one of the following is the disadvantage of FM over AM ?
(A) Better noise immunity is provided
(B) High bandwidth is required
(C) The transmitted power is more useful
(D) Less modulating power is required
65. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on :
(A) their frequency
(B) their distance from the transmitter
(C) the polarization of waves
(D) the polarization of atmospheres
66. A light emitting diode emits light when :
(A) electrons are excited from the valence to the conduction band
(B) electrons are accelerated by the electric field in the depletion region
(C) electrons from the conduction band recombine with holes from the valence band
(D) electrons collide with atoms
67. For a pure semiconductor the Fermi level is :
(A) in the conduction band
(B) in the valence band
(C) well below the valence band
(D) near the centre of the gap between the valence and conduction band
68. A hole refers to :
(A) a proton
(B) a positively charged electron
(C) a microscopic defect in a solid
(D) the absence of an electron in an otherwise filled band
+
69. In a purely capacitive circuit the current :
(A) leads the voltage by one-fourth of a cycle
(B) leads the voltage by one half of a cycle
(C) lags the voltages by one-fourth of a cycle
(D) lags the voltage by one half of a cycle
70. A magnetic field exists between the plates of a capacitor :
(A) when the capacitor is fully charged (B) while the capacitor is being charged
(C) always (D) never
71. A paramagnetic substance is placed in a weak magnetic field and its absolute temperature T is
increased. As a result, its mangetization :
(A) increases proportional to T (B) increases proportional to T
2
(C) increases proportional to 1/T (D) remains the same
72. If an electron has zero orbital angular momentum, the magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment
equals to :
(A) zero (B) half the Bohr magneton
(C) a Bohr magneton (D) twice a Bohr magneton
73. A cyclotron operates with a given magnetic field and at a given frequency. If R denotes the radius of
the final orbit, the final particle energy is proportional to :
(A) 1/R (B) R
(C) R
2
(D) R
3
74. A magnetic field can not :
(A) exert a force on a charge (B) accelerate a charge
(C) change the momentum of a charge (D) change the kinetic energy of a charge
75. Meissner effect in metals is associated with the :
(A) paramagnetic state (B) ferromagnetic state
(C) superconducting state (D) electron tunneling through insulator layer
+
+
ROUGH WORK
+
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
Physics & Electronics/BZL-48985/A 16 425
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Subject : M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)
INSTRUCTIONS
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Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BZL/48994-A 2
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BZL/48994-A 3 [Turn Over
M.Sc.(Industrial Chemistry)/A
1. The following type of bonding is strongly directional in solids :
(A) Vander Waal's (B) Ionic
(C) Metallic (D) Covalent
2. Spherical shape of mercury droplets is due to its :
(A) High viscosity (B) Low surface tension
(C) High density (D) High surface tension
3. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure range
is the ______ work.
(A) Isothermal (B) Adiabatic
(C) Isentropic (D) None of these
4. The internal energy of the system over one complete cycle in a cycle process is :
(A) Zero (B) +ve
(C) ve (D) Dependent on the path
5. The partial molal free energy of an element A in solution is same as its :
(A) Chemical potential (B) Activity
(C) Fugacity (D) Activity coefficient
6. Free energy change at equilibrium is :
(A) Zero (B) Positive
(C) Negative (D) Indeterminate
7. A solution when diluted with H
2
O and boiled, it gives a white precipitate. On addition of
excess NH
4
Cl/NH
4
OH. The volume of precipitate decreases leaving behind a white
gelatinous precipitate. Identify the precipitate which dissolves in NH
4
OH/NH
4
Cl :
(A) Zn (OH)
2
(B) Al (OH)
3
(C) Mg(OH)
2
(D) Ca(OH)
2
8. The increasing order of boiling points of below mentioned alcohols is :
I. 1,2dihydroxy benzene
II. 1,3dihydroxy benzene
III. 1,4dihydroxy benzene
IV. Hydroxy benzene
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) I < II < IV < III
(C) IV < I < II < III (D) IV < II < I < III
9. MgSO
4
on reaction with NH
4
OH and Na
2
HPO
4
forms a white crystalline precipitate.
What is its formula ?
(A) Mg(NH
4
)PO
4
(B) Mg
3
(PO4)
2
(C) MgCL
2.
MgSO
4
(D) MgSO
4
10. The coordination number of Ni
2 +
is 4 :
NiCl
2
+ KCN (excess) ! ! ! ! ! A (cyano complex)
NiCl
2
+ Conc. HCl (excess) ! ! ! ! ! B (chloro complex)
The IUPAC names of Compounds A and B are :
(A) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II), Potassium tetrachloronickelate(II)
(B) Tetractabioitassuynbuckelate (II), teterachlorpotassiumnickelate (II)
(C) Tetracyanonickel (II), tetrachloronickel (II)
(D) Potassium tetracyanonickel (II), potassium tetrachloronickel (II)
11. Predict the magnetic nature of A and B in Ques 10 :
(A) Both are diamagnetic
(B) Compound A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron
(C) Compound A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
(D) Both are paramagnetic
12. The mechanism of catalysis is explained by the :
(A) Activated complex theory (B) Collision theory
(C) Thermodynamics (D) None of these
13. A catalyst :
(A) Initiates a reaction
(B) Lowers the activation energy of reacting molecules
(C) Is capable of reacting with any one of the reactants
(D) Can not be recovered chemically unchanged at the end of a chemical reaction
14. Activity co-efficient is a measure of the :
(A) Departure from ideal solution behaviour
(B) Departure of gas phase from ideal gas law
(C) Vapour pressure of liquid
(D) None of these
15. A photochemical reaction is ______ light.
(A) Initiated by (B) Accompanied by emission of
(C) Catalysed by (D) Used to convert heat energy to
16. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure and temperature, if
the free energy is :
(A) Zero (B) Positive
(C) Negative (D) None of these
17. The relative volatility for separation of a nonideal binary mixture by distillation should
be :
(A) Zero (B) 1
(C) > 1 (D) < 1
18. The crystal field stabilization energy for a d
7
ion in octahedral ligand field in low spin
state is :
(A) 20Dq (B) 18 Dq
(C) 18 Dq + 3 P (D) 6 Dq + P
19. Particulates (< 1# ## ##m size) remaining suspended in air indefinitely and transported by
wind currents are called :
(A) Fumes (B) Smoke
(C) Mist (D) Aerosols
20. In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied ?
(A) NaCl (B) CaF
2
(C) ZnS (D) Na
2
O
21. Which of the following is not an explosive ?
(A) TNT (B) CMC
(C) RDX (D) Lead azide
22. Which of the following is the most suitable abrasive for grinding high tensile strength
materials ?
(A) Silicon carbide (B) Corundum
(C) Aluminium oxide (D) Boron carbide
23. Air is best heated with steam in a heat exchanger of :
(A) Plate type (B) Double pipe type with fin on steam side
(C) Double pipe with fin on air side (D) Shell and tube type
24. Fourier's law applies to the heat transfer by :
(A) Convection (B) Radiation
(C) Conduction (D) All of the above
25. Match the process in Group I with the catalyst in Group II
Group I Group II
P. FischerTropsch synthesis I. Nickel
Q. Formaldehyde from methanol II. Fe
2
O
3
R. Hydrogenation of vegetable oils III. Silver
S. Dehydrogenation of ethylbenzene IV. Cobalt
(A) PIII, QIV, RI, SII (B) PIV, QII, RI, SIII
(C) PIV, QIII, RI, SII (D) PIII, QIV, RII, SI
26. Laminar flow of a Newtonion fluid ceases to exist, when the Reynolds number exceeds :
(A) 4000 (B) 2100
(C) 1500 (D) 3000
27. Plasticisers are added to synthetic plastics to :
(A) Impart flexibility
(B) Improve workability during fabrication
(C) Develop new improved properties not present in the original resin
(D) All (A) , (B) and (C)
28. The Lewis number of a mixture is described by the relation :
(A)
c S N
N
r P
(B)
c S r P
N N
(C)
r P
c S
N
N
(D)

r P
c S
S
N
N
C
29. Which of these is an addition polymer :
(A) Nylon (B) Bakelite
(C) Polythene (D) None of these
30. Bakelite is :
(A) Same as polytetra flouro ethylene (PTFE) (B) An inorganic polymer
(C) Same as thermoset phenol formaldehyde (D) Not a polymer
31. While dissolving a gas into a liquid at a constant temperature, the ratio of the concentration
of the gas in the solution phase and in the gaseous phase is :
(A) Infinity (B) Unity
(C) Constant (D) Negative
32. Heating of water under atmospheric pressure is an ______ process.
(A) Isochoric (B) Isobaric
(C) Adiabatic (D) Isothermal
33. Entropy is a measure of the ______ of a system.
(A) Disorder (B) Orderly behaviour
(C) Temperature changes only (D) None of these
34. In a solution containing 0.3 Kg mole of solute and 600 Kg of solvent, the molality is :
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.60
(C) 1.00 (D) 2.00
35. When the liquid phase and vapour phase of a binary system obeys Raoult's and Dalton's
law respectively, the relative volatility is the ratio of :
(A) Vapour pressure of component A to that of component B
(B) Vapour pressure of component A to the total pressure
(C) Vapour pressure of component A to the total partial pressure of A
(D) Partial pressure of component A to the total pressure
36. Azeotropic distillation is employed to separate :
(A) Constant boiling mixture (B) High boiling mixture
(C) Mixture with very high relative volatility (D) Heat sensitive materials
37. Ammonia synthesis gas is produced from natural gas by :
(A) Thermal cracking (B) Steam reforming
(C) Partial oxidation (D) Hydrogenation
38. Gases having reduced temperatures and reduced pressures :
(A) Deviate from ideal gas behaviour to the same degree
(B) Have nearly the same compressibility factor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) and nor (B)
39. A very dilute solution is prepared by dissloving 'x
1
'

mole of solute in 'x
2
'

of a solvent. The
mole fraction of solute is approximately equal to :
(A) x
1
/x
2
(B) x
2
/x
1
(C) 1 (x
1
/x
2)
) (D) 1/x
2
40. The value C
P
of equals C
V
at :
(A) 0C (B) 0K
(C) 0F (D) 0R
41. The zeroth law of thermodynamics allows us to define :
(A) Work (B) Pressure
(C) Temperature (D) Thermal equilibrium
42. Evidence that molecules of a gas are in constant motion is :
(A) Two gases interdiffuse quickly (B) Heat is needed to vaporize a liquid
(C) Gases are easily compressed (D) Winds exert pressure
43. An electrical insulator is a material :
(A) Containing no electron (B) Through which electrons do not flow easily
(C) Cannot be a pure chemical element (D) Must be a crystal
44. Of the three chief kinds of magnetic materials (diamagnetic, paramagnetic and
ferromagnetic), which are used to make permanent magnets ?
(A) Only diamagnetic (B) Only ferromagnetic
(C) Only paramagnetic (D) Only paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
45. The Pauli exclusion principal is obeyed by :
(A) All neutral particles
(B) All charged particles
(C) All particles with spin quantum numbers of 1/2
(D) All particles with spin quantum numbers of 1
46. The "E" in LASER stands for :
(A) Entropy (B) Electric
(C) Energy (D) Emission
47. Which of the following nuclei can not be used for the NMR analysis :
(A)
1
H (B)
12
C
(C)
19
F (D)
31
P
48. Absorption of light in the ultraviolet region is because of the :
(A) Electronic transitions only (B) Vibrational level transitions only
(C) Rotational level transitions only (D) Rotational and the vibrational transitions
49. Which of the following crystal structures has closed packing of atoms ?
(A) Simple cubic structure (B) Body centered cubic structure
(C) face centered cubic structure (D) Hexagonal close packed (hcp) structure
50. The "triple point" is that point for which the temperature and pressure are such that :
(A) Only solid and liquid are in equilibrium (B) Only liquid and Vapor are in equilibrium
(C) Only solid and Vapor are in equilibrium (D) Solid, liquid and Vapor are all in equilibrium
51. Maxwellian speed distribution provides a direct explanation of :
(A) The ideal gas law (B) Evaporation
(C) Thermal expansion (D) Boiling
52. During a slow adiabatic expansion of a gas :
(A) The pressure remains constant (B) Heat is added
(C) Work is done on the gas (D) No heat enters or leaves
53. The magnetic properties of materials stem chiefly from :
(A) Particles with north poles (B) Particles with south pole
(C) Motion of protons with in nuclei (D) Electron magnetic dipole moments
54. All fluids are :
(A) Gases (B) Liquids
(C) Gases or Liquids (D) Transparent
55. In air a solid sphere falls down with some terminal velocity. When falling in vacuum it will
have :
(A) Same terminal velocity (B) Less terminal velocity
(C) More terminal velocity (D) No terminal velocity
56. The bulk modulus is a proportionality constant that relates the pressure acting on an
object to :
(A) The shear (B) The fractional change in volume
(C) The fractional change in length (D) Young's modulus
57. The size of the particle can be determined using the following phenomena of light :
(A) Absorption (B) Refraction
(C) Scattering (D) Polarization
58. Mercury is a convenient liquid to use in a barometer because :
(A) It is a metal (B) It has a high boiling point
(C) It has a high density (D) It looks very silvery
59. Metal pipes, used to carry water, sometimes burst in the winter because :
(A) Metal contracts more than water (B) Metal becomes brittle when cold
(C) Ice expands when it melts (D) Water expands when it freezes
60. Light from any ordinary source (such as a flame) is usually :
(A) Unpolarized (B) Plane polarized
(C) Circularly polarized (D) Monochromatic
61. Integrating factor of the differential equation
is
2
x 2 sin
x cos y x /d y d $ % :
(A)
e
Sin
2
x (B)
e
Sin
3
x
(C)
e
Sin x (D) Sin x
62. P.I. of d
2
y/dx
2
+ dy/dx = x
2
+ 2x + 4 is :
(A) x 4
3
x
2
% (B)
4
3
3 x
%
(C)
x 4
3
3 x
%
(D)
2
x 4
3
3 x
%
63. The series
. . .
5 log
1
4 log
1
3 log
1
2 log
1
% & % &
(A) Oscillatory (B) Convergent
(C) Divergent (D) Neither convergent nor divergent
64. Which of the following series is not convergent ?
(A)
. .. .
4
1
3
1
2
1
4 3 2
% % %
' (B)
(C)
' % & % & . . .
5
1
4
1
3
1
2
1
(D) 1 | x | where . . . . x x x x
4 3 2
( ' % % %
65. The value of
C
Z d tanZ
where C is the circle |Z| = 2 is :
(A) 2 (B) )
(C) 2 i (D) 4 i
66. The only function that is analytic from the following is :
(A) f(z) = sin Z (B) f(z) =
(C) f(z) = In (z) (D) R (iz)
67. [u (ta)] where u(ta) is a unit step function, is :
(A)
s
e
as &
(B)
s
e
as
(C)
2
as
s
e
&
(D)
2
as
s
e
68. Laplace transform of
t a 4
e t
&
is :
(A) 4
) a s (
! 4
%
(B) 5
) a s (
! 4
%
(C) 4
) a s (
! 4
&
(D) 5
) a s (
! 5
&
69. The S.D. of the Binomial distribution is :
(A) q p n (B) p n
(C) npq (D) pq
70. As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the
following equations, this method is called :
(A) Gauss Jordan method (B) Gauss Seidal method
(C) Jacobi's method (D) Relaxation method
71. The curve ) cos 1 ( / a r % $ intersects orthogonallty with the curve :
(A)
) cos 1 ( / b r * & $
(B)
) sin 1 ( / b r * % $
(C)
) sin 1 ( / b r
2
* % $
(D) ) cos 1 ( / b r
2
* % $
72. The triangle of maximum area inscribed in a circle of radius r :
(A) Is a right angled
+
with hypotenuse zr (B) Is an equilateral
+
(C) Is an isosceles
+
of height r (D) Does not exist
73. The angle between the planes x y + 2z 9 = 0 and 2x + y + z = 7 is :
(A) 30 (B) 90
(C) 60 (D) 120
74. If ,
&
$
0 1
1 0
B
&
$
cos sin
sin cos
C and :
(A) * & * $ sin B cos A C (B) * % * $ cos B sin A C
(C) * & * $ cos B sin A C (D) * % * $ sin B cos A C
75. If every minor of order r of a matrix A is zero then rank of A is :
(A) Greater than r (B) Equal to r
(C) Less than or equal to r (D) Less than r
ROUGH WORK
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/BZL/48994-A 14 100
ROUGH WORK
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Tech.(Polymer)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Tech. (Polymer)/BZL/48993-A 2
M.Tech. (Polymer)/BZL/48993-A 3 [Turn Over
M.Tech.(Polymer)/A
1. Which of the following is the undesirable characteristics of an instrument ?
(A) reproducibility (B) dead zone
(C) time lag (D) accuracy
2. Molecular arrangement in polymers can not be :
(A) Branched (B) Linear
(C) Cross linked (D) Sea of electrons
3. Glass transition temperature is not influenced by the following factor :
(A) Internal mobility of chains (B) Melting point
(C) Free volume (D) Attractive forces between molecules
4. Hydrolytic degradation of polymers takes place due to :
(A) Molecular oxygen (B) Vulcanisation
(C) Mechanical stress (D) Fire
5. For laminar flow conditions, the value of fanning friction factor(f) is given by :
(A) 16/N
Re
(B) 24/N
Re
(C) 32/N
Re
(D) 64/N
Re
6. Following can be categorised as natural polymers :
(A) Shellac (B) PMMA
(C) PVC (D) PP
7. The ratio of weight-average molecular weight to number average molecular weight is
known as :
(A) z-average (B) viscosity average
(C) poly dispersity index (D) unknown value
8. If weight-average molecular weight is equal to number molecular weight then :
(A) polymer has linear chains
(B) polymer has equal sized molecules
(C) polymer has no molecules
(D) polymer hasn't formed out of the monomers
9. The osmotic pressure method is suitable for the number average molecular weight of
given ranges :
(A) 100-200 (B) 6000-10000
(C) 50000-1000000 (D) 3000-5000
10. Poly-dispersity index generally lies in the following ranges :
(A) 1-20 (B) 0-1
(C) 80-100 (D) 110-200
11. Which of the following are condensation products ?
(A) PET (B) PE
(C) PS (D) PTFE
12. The parameters; temperatures of 140-170C, oxide of Chromium as catalyst and pressure
of 500 psi pertains to the HDPE manufacturing process named as :
(A) Ziegler (B) Indiana
(C) Philips (D) None
13. With increase in temperature, the viscosity of liquids usually :
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains constant (D) can't be predicted at all
14. The reaction between the following produces Novolac resin :
(A) Urea and formaldehyde (B) Phenol and formaldehyde
(C) Polyester and urethane (D) Isocyanate and polyol
15. Polyurethanes generally do not find applications in the following products :
(A) Foams (B) Paints
(C) Tiles (D) Coatings
16. The state of polymer in Casting and impregnation is :
(A) Liquids (B) Granules
(C) Solid flakes (D) Powders
17. Mixing and compounding is a process involving following forces :
(A) Chemical (B) Photolytic
(C) Laminar (D) Catalytic
18. The glass transition temperature for PP is usually around this temperature :
(A) 20C (B) 100C
(C) 200C (D) 100C
19. Pitot tube is used to measure :
(A) point velocity (B) average velocity
(C) pressure (D) temperature
20. In rheology the term 'n' is referred to as :
(A) shear stress (B) flow behaviour index
(C) zero shear viscosity (D) number of molecules
21. In extractive distillation, solvent is :
(A) of high viscosity
(B) present in overhead stream
(C) added to alter the relative volatility of the mixture
(D) not required
22. 'Clearance' in extruder is best defined by :
(A) pressure in shaft (B) diameter of shaft
(C) gap between shaft and screw threads (D) radius of shaft
23. Hume Rothery rules refer to :
(A) Solid solutions (B) Gases
(C) Fumes (D) Flue gases
24. Following property can be measured from the DSC machine :
(A) glass transition temperature (B) heat deflection temperature
(C) tensile strength (D) boiling point
25. Maxwell and Voigt models explain the properties of polymers for :
(A) flow (B) degradation
(C) mechanical strength (D) thermal transitions
26. Polymer usually have a tensile failure best defined by :
(A) brittle fracture (B) ductile fracture
(C) dragging (D) cracking
27. Material used for making moulds in polymer products is :
(A) steel (B) wood
(C) carbon (D) magnesium
28. LMTD in case of counter current is :
(A) > LMTD in case of parallel current (B) = LMTD in case of parallel current
(C) < LMTD in case of parallel current (D) Zero
29. IUPAC is the convention followed in organic compounds for :
(A) rating (B) ranking
(C) testing (D) naming
30. A universal testing machine is used to determine the properties of polymers :
(A) Optical (B) Chemical
(C) Mechanical (D) Rheological
31. A glue bottle can be manufactured with the following techniques :
(A) Extrusion (B) Injection moulding
(C) Blow moulding (D) Calendaring
32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by :
(A) attrition (B) compression
(C) impact (D) cutting
33. Heat flux through a 50mm thick slab, if a temperature drop across the slab is 5C and its
thermal conductivity is 0.1 Watts/m C, is :
(A) 0.01W/m
2
(B) 0.10 W/m
(C) 10 W/m
2
(D) 100 W/m
2
34. Metallic finish in car interiors can be given by :
(A) spray coating paints (B) sheeting plastics
(C) none (D) dip coating
35. Masticating in rubbers implies :
(A) vulcanisation (B) to grind
(C) giving shape (D) fabricating a product
36. The famous fibre Nylon is named after the :
(A) discoverers (B) cities
(C) chemical source (D) raw material
37. Corrosion in polymers is mainly evaluated by the following :
(A) discolouration (B) swelling
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) rusting
38. Izod and Charpy tests for polymers is relevant to calculate the :
(A) Impact strength (B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength (D) Tensile strength
39. The S-N curve in materials is relevant to the following :
(A) Fatigue failure (B) Tensile testing
(C) Impact testing (D) Compressive testing
40. Prepeg technology is used to manufacture composites from :
(A) Thermoplastics (B) Thermosetting plastics
(C) Recycle plastics (D) Natural plastics
41. "Dry ice", often used at concerts, is really solid carbon dioxide. The solid carbon dioxide
sublimates and forms gas that then floats above the ice. What do we see when we look at
the "fog" produced by dry ice machines ?
(A) We are looking at carbon dioxide gas
(B) We are looking at water gas, formed by the carbon dioxide
(C) We are looking at small droplets of liquid water, condensed by the carbon dioxide gas
(D) None
42. Materials made from a single type of atom that cannot be broken down any further are
called :
(A) substances (B) elements
(C) molecules (D) compounds
43. Which person listed below first contributed to a scientific understanding of modern atomic
theory ?
(A) Democritus (B) John Dalton
(C) James Clerk Maxwell (D) Francis Crick
44. ASTM standards have been developed to universalise testing in :
(A) Cells (B) Plants
(C) Animals (D) Materials
45. Diffusivity of gasses varies as :
(A) D ! T (B) D ! T0
.5
(C) D ! T
1.5
(D) D ! T
2
46. Spectroscopic techniques like FTIR helps us to investigate the properties of polymers :
(A) Optical properties (B) Thermal properties
(C) Mechanical properties (D) Chemical properties
47. Components used in the under-the-hood in automobiles are best evaluated with the
following technique :
(A) Viscometer (B) Rheometer
(C) HDT (D) UTM
48. PC-ABS is used in the cell phone battery covers to make it impact resistant and maintain
the long term uniformity in shape; PC-ABS can be classified as :
(A) Composite (B) Blend
(C) Alloy (D) Metal
49. Viscoelasticity in polymers is a unique property combination represented by Maxwell
and Voigt models through a combination of :
(A) Spring and pump (B) Dashpot and pump
(C) Spring and dashpot (D) Dump and pump
50. A continuous product like the sheathings of metallic wires is easily managed with the
processing technique of polymers :
(A) Injection moulding (B) Compression moulding
(C) Thermoforming moulding (D) Extrusion moulding
51. Match the following :
P. Newton-Raphson method 1. Integration
Q. Runge-Kutta 2. Root finding
R. Gauss-Seidel 3. Ordinary Differential equations
S. Simpson's Rule 4. Solution of system of Linear Equations
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
52. The convergence of which of the following method is sensitive to starting value ?
(A) False position (B) Gauss Seidal method
(C) Newton-Raphson method (D) Bi-section value
53. The order of error in the Simpson's rule for numerical integration with a step size h is :
(A) h (B) h
2
(C) h
3
(D) h
4
54. Where the density difference of the two liquid phase to be separated is very small, the
most suitable separator is :
(A) disc bowl centrifuge (B) sharples supercentrifuge
(C) hatch basket centrifuge (D) sparkler filter
55. Screen capacity is not a function of :
(A) opening size (B) screening mechanism
(C) screening surface (D) atmospheric humidity
56. Euler number is defined as ratio of pressure forces to :
(A) gravity forces (B) elastic forces
(C) inertial forces (D) viscous forces
57. Reynold number is ratio of inertial force to :
(A) pressure forces (B) gravity forces
(C) elastic forces (D) viscous forces
58. A black body is the one which has absorptivity equal to :
(A) 50% (B) 100%
(C) 70% (D) 0%
59. Raoult's law applies to :
(A) all liquid solutions (B) only non-ideal solution
(C) non volatile solute (D) solvents
60. Desorption is also called :
(A) leaching (B) extraction
(C) stripping (D) elutriation
61. Ratio of partial pressure of the vapour in equilibrium to vapour pressure of its liquid is :
(A) low humidity (B) saturated humidity
(C) relative humidity (D) no humidity
62. Instrument which measures vapour pressure is called :
(A) hygrometer (B) thermometer
(C) weight-meter (D) mass-meter
63. The weak intermolecular forces of attraction that are caused by induced dipoles are :
(A) ionic (B) ligancy
(C) hydrogen bonding (D) van der Waals
64. Potassium has bcc structure in solid metal, how many atoms has it in its unit cell ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
65. Shift in atomic energy levels caused by an external electric field is called :
(A) Zeeman effect (B) Compton effect
(C) Stark effect (D) Kerr effect
66. Schottky defects lead to following change in density of crystal :
(A) increase (B) decrease
(C) no change (D) abrupt increase
67. Destruction of the biological activity of an enzyme by heat or chemical agent is called :
(A) denaturation (B) dehydration
(C) disruption (D) disturbance
68. Vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A = 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is
added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. What is mole fraction of
component B in the solution ?
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.25 (D) 1.0
69. Micelles from ionic surfactants can be formed over a certain temperature called :
(A) Kraft (B) Kelvin
(C) Fahrenheit (D) Boyles
70. Isotonic solution have equal :
(A) Surface tension (B) Osmotic pressure
(C) Boiling point (D) Freezing point
71. One ml of 0.1 N HCl is added to one litre solution of NaCl. The pH of the resulting
solution is :
(A) 7 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 3
72. A solution of pH=2 is more acidic than a solution with pH=6 by a factor of :
(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 10000 (D) 1
73. Which of the following is a chain growth polymer ?
(A) starch (B) nucleic acid
(C) polystyrene (D) protein
74. Solve the equations :
x
2
+y
2
=34 ; x
4
y
4
=544;
values of x and y are :
(A) 4, 3 (B) 5, 3
(C) 3, 5 (D) 3, 4
75. The number of real solutions of cos x = x is/are :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) "
ROUGH WORK
M.Tech. (Polymer)/BZL/48993-A 12 44
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M. Tech. (Microelectronics)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)/BZL/49130-A 2
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)/BZL/49130-A 3 [Turn over
M.Tech.(Microelectronics)/A
1. LDD MOSFET :
(A) Is used for low voltage applications
(B) Is used for high voltage applications
(C) Has a highly doped drain
2. Holes are :
(A) Heavier than electrons (B) Lesser mobile than electrons
(C) Present in valence band (D) All of the above
3. Trench and stack are types of :
(A) Inductor (B) Capacitor
(C) Transistor (D) Diode
4. Silicon nitride is a :
(A) Dielectric (B) Metal
(C) Semiconductor (D) None of the above
5. Uniaxial and biaxial in microelectronic devices are types of :
(A) Strain (B) Capacitors
(C) Inductors (D) Oscillators
6. Inversion in an NMOSFET refers to :
(A) Creation of n type layer in a P type substrate
(B) Creation of p type layer in an N type substrate
(C) Creation of p type layer in a P type substrate
(D) Creation of n type layer in an N type substrate
7. Capacitance in depletion region (C
d
) and inversion region (C
i
) in a MOSFET compare
as :
(A) C
d
> C
i
(B) C
d
< C
i
(C) C
d
= C
i
(D) None
8. The substrate of an NMOS is usually kept at :
(A) Ground voltage (B) The most negative voltage
(C) The most positive voltage (D) None
9. DRAM is :
(A) Static memory (B) Non volatile memory
(C) Volatile memory (D) None of the above
10. BSIM and SEM are :
(A) MOSFET model and Analytical instrument
(B) Capacitor model and MOSFET model
(C) SPICE Level 1 model and SPICE level 2 model
(D) HiSIM model and Analytical instrument
11. Process Simulator is :
(A) Simulator for designing circuits (B) Simulator for devices
(C) Simulator for characterization (D) Simulator for IC processes
12. Channel length for short channel MOSFETs is usually :
(A) Smaller than the gate length (B) Larger than the gate length
(C) Same as gate length (D) None
13. Flash term is referred to :
(A) MOSFET Model and oxidation process
(B) Metallization process and a memory
(C) Oxidation process and a memory
(D) Some type of lithographic technique
14. At gate voltage greater than threshold voltage of an NMOSFET :
(A) Accumulation starts (B) Inversion starts
(C) NMOSFET stops conducting (D) None
15. Cu and Al are used as metals for :
(A) Interconnects in MOSFETs (B) Fabricating the gate oxide
(C) Fabricating the source material (D) Lithographic purpose
16. High k and low k are types of :
(A) Metals (B) Semiconductors
(C) Dielectrics (D) BJTs
17. p-MOSFET and n-MOSFET differ in doping polarity of :
(A) Drain (B) Source
(C) Body (D) All of the above
18. Surface potential in a long channel MOSFET is :
(A) Maximum at the semiconductor and dielectric interface
(B) Minimum at the semiconductor and dielectric interface
(C) Equal to the Fermi potential during strong inversion
(D) Half the Fermi potential during strong inversion
19. Inverse mode of operation occurs in :
(A) MOSFETs (B) BJTs
(C) Diodes (D) JFETs
20. Klystron, magnetron and TWT are :
(A) Microwave tubular devices (B) Solid state devices
(C) Liquid crystal displays (D) None of the above
21. GUNN diode is a :
(A) Negative resistance device (B) Uses transit time effect
(C) Made of compound semiconductor (D) All of the above
22. NMOS and PMOS when used in parallel make a :
(A) CMOS inverter (B) NAND gate
(C) Transmission gate (D) NOR gate
23. PMOS is slower than NMOS because :
(A) Carriers are electrons in PMOS (B) Carriers are holes in PMOS
(C) Carriers are holes in NMOS (D) None
24. Al
2
O
3
, La
2
O
3
, HfO
2
are :
(A) Gate oxide dielectrics (B) Semiconductors
(C) Source and drain material (D) Low k materials
25. EGS is :
(A) Highly pure silicon material (B) Impure silicon
(C) Pure Germanium (D) Impure Germanium
26. Tunnel diode is based on :
(A) Tunneling in reverse bias conditions
(B) Tunneling in forward bias conditions
(C) Tunneling in both forward biased and reverse biased conditions
(D) No tunneling action
27. MESFET is a :
(A) High speed transistor (B) Low speed transistor
(C) Low speed diode (D) None
28. Crystal growth takes place using :
(A) Oxidation process (B) CZ method
(C) MBE process (D) None
29. 4 probe, 2 probe, vander paw methods are for :
(A) Capacitance measurement (B) Inductance measurement
(C) Resistance measurement (D) Voltage measurement
30. Capacitance in Inversion (C
i
) and in accumulation (C
a
) in a long channel MOSFET compare
as :
(A) C
i
very large than C
a
(B) C
i
very small than C
a
(C) C
i
nearly equal to C
a
(D) None
31. SEM, TEM, XRD are :
(A) MOSFET models (B) VLSI Design tools
(C) Analytical Instruments (D) BJT models
32. Debroglie law relates :
(A) Momentum and frequency (B) Momentum and wavelength
(C) Frequency and wavelength (D) Energy and frequency
33. Wet and dry are the terms associated with :
(A) Oxidation and Etching (B) Oxidation and metallization
(C) Lithography (D) Crystal growth
34. Plasma
(A) Is same as liquid (B) Has zero electrical resistance
(C) Has infinite electrical resistance (D) Is same as a solid
35. Ions are associated in IC fabrication as :
(A) Diffusion and oxidation (B) Implantation and lithography
(C) Crystal growth and epitaxy (D) All of the above
36. CMP is a type of :
(A) Oxidation process (B) Etching process
(C) Slow oxidation (D) Over metallization
37. GST is a material used in :
(A) DRAM (B) SRAM
(C) Phase change RAM (D) FRAM
38. X rays are used in :
(A) Lithography (B) Determining crystalline nature
(C) Surface imaging (D) All of the above
39. To achieve large voltage gain of a MOSFET :
(A) Gate voltage should be close to threshold voltage
(B) Gate voltage should be very high than threshold voltage
(C) Gate voltage should be very low than threshold voltage
(D) None
40. ! ! ! ! ! and # # # # # are types of :
(A) Diode (B) MOSFET
(C) BJT (D) Capacitor
41. Frontend and backend are :
(A) MOSFET models (B) VLSI design strategies
(C) IC Processes (D) None
42. Static and dynamic in a CMOS inverter refer to :
(A) Delay (B) Power
(C) Gain (D) Sizes
43. lT-lC is a type of :
(A) DRAM (B) SRAM
(C) Capacitor (D) IC process
44. C
2
MOS is :
(A) Carrier CMOS (B) Clocked CMOS
(C) Carrier cell MOS (D) None
45. PE logic is :
(A) Preface and enable logic (B) Precharge and enable logic
(C) Prechange and Evaluate logic (D) Preface and Evaluate logic
46. HBT compares with BJT as :
(A) HBT provides higher current gain than BJT
(B) HBT provides lower current gain than BJT
(C) HBT acts as a MOSFET whereas BJT does not
(D) None
47. Depletion NMOSFET has :
(A) Extra layer of n type (B) Negative threshold voltage
(C) Costly than enhancement MOSFET (D) All of the above
48. Wilson is a type of :
(A) Adder (B) Multiplier
(C) Current mirror (D) Subtractor
49. Which of the following is not a solid state device ?
(A) Tunnel diode (B) Zener diode
(C) IMPATT (D) None
50. Hartley and Crystal are types of :
(A) Transistors (B) Amplifiers
(C) Diodes (D) None
51. Sense amplifiers are mainly used in :
(A) STEM (B) SEM
(C) TEM (D) Semiconductor memories
52. TAB is a :
(A) Device (B) BJT model
(C) Die attach material (D) Testing equipment
53. DIBL and body effect cause threshold voltage (V
T
) :
(A) DIBL decreases V
T
and body effect increases V
T
(B) DIBL and body effect decrease V
T
(C) DIBL and body effect increase V
T
(D) DIBL increases V
T
and body effect decreases V
T
54. Lambda rules are associated with :
(A) MOSFET models (B) Layout design
(C) Frontend (D) None
55. 4 input NAND and 4 input NOR gate have in total :
(A) 32 transistors (B) 8 transistors
(C) 4 transistors (D) 16 transistors
56. The following is a process simulator :
(A) PROMIS (B) MINIMOS
(C) TANNER (D) Microwind
57. Wirebonding is done in :
(A) Oxidation (B) IC testing
(C) IC packaging (D) Etching
58. Colouring agents are used in :
(A) Ceramic packages (B) Plastic packages
(C) Thin film packages (D) None
59. Stress and electro migration occur in :
(A) IC testing (B) IC packages
(C) IC interconnects (D) None
60. MOSIS and TSMC are :
(A) Capacitor types (B) MOSFET models
(C) Resistor types (D) Semiconductor foundries
61. Rent's rule is used for :
(A) Determining the pins of an IC (B) Estimation of transistors
(C) Minimizing short channel effects (D) None
62. Barkhausen principle is for :
(A) Determine the condition when the diode will conduct
(B) Determine the condition when the transistor will amplify
(C) Determine the condition when the transistor will oscillate
(D) Determine the condition when the diode will not conduct
63. DFT is :
(A) Demand for time (B) Design for testability
(C) Demand for transistor (D) None
64. White and flicker are types of :
(A) Noise (B) Models
(C) Processes (D) Designs
65. Absorption and interference are :
(A) Resistance measurement techniques
(B) Capacitance measurement techniques
(C) Thickness measurement techniques
(D) None
66. CVD and MBE are :
(A) Lithography processes (B) Crystal growth techniques
(C) Epitaxy techniques (D) None of the above
67. IGBT and GTO are :
(A) Power semiconductor devices (B) Defects in semiconductors
(C) Models (D) None
68. SiC and GaN are :
(A) High bandgap materials (B) Low bandgap materials
(C) Metals (D) None
69. Placement, Routing and Compaction are associated with :
(A) Frontend (B) Layout design
(C) MOSFET models (D) None
70. VHDL and Verilog are :
(A) Hardware description languages
(B) Testing hardware tools
(C) Packaging materials
(D) None
71. Electronic and Spontaneous are associated with :
(A) Languages (B) Polarization
(C) Images (D) None
72. Solar cells use :
(A) Metals (B) Dielectrics
(C) Amorphous semiconductors (D) None
73. SiGe is a :
(A) Semiconductor (B) Metal
(C) Dielectric (D) None
74. FAMOS and MNOS are :
(A) Capacitor types (B) CMOS inverter
(C) Semiconductor memories (D) None
75. LEDs use :
(A) Metals (B) Indirect band gap materials
(C) Dielectrics (D) None
ROUGH WORK
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)/BZL/49130-A 12 260
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : M.Tech.(Nano Science and Nano Tech.)
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BZL/49001-A 2
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BZL/49001-A 3 [Turn over
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/A
1. The talk 'There is plenty of room at the bottom ______' in 1959 was delivered by.
(A) KE Drexler (B) SJ Fonash
(C) V Vogel (D) R Feynman
2. Carbon nanotubes belong to family of :
(A) Glycerols (B) Polyanilines
(C) Fullerenes (D) Amines
3. All of the following are examples of computer input units except :
(A) Scanner (B) Speaker
(C) Bar code reader (D) Keyboard
4. In Microsoft PowerPoint, each new document is called :
(A) A worksheet (B) A text page
(C) A rich format text (D) A blank presentation
5. In computer terminology CPU means :
(A) Central Processing Unit (B) Computer Providing Unit
(C) Combined Printer Unit (D) Computational Practical Unit
6. Law of conservation of linear momentum is a consequence of :
(A) homogeneity of space (B) homogeneity of time
(C) homogeneity of mass (D) isotropy of space
7. Central force is said to be conservative if the force is :
(A) zero (B) dependent on time explicitly
(C) does not depend on time explicitly (D) is infinity
8. Effective potential of a particle is positive :
(A) if it moves under attractive potential (B) if it moves under repulsive potential
(C) if it doesn't get effected by any potential (D) no effect of repulsion and attraction
9. Which of the following plastic is quite popularly used in packaging ?
(A) Polyethylene (B) Polyaniline
(C) Polyphosphazene (D) Polythiophene
10. Conduction in metals takes place due to :
(A) cross motion of nuclei (B) zigzag motion of protons
(C) up down movement of neutrons (D) sea of electrons
11. This machine is used to characterize thermal transitions in materials :
(A) TEM (B) DSC
(C) FTIR (D) XRD
12. Grizzlies are used for separating :
(A) coarse solids (B) fine solids
(C) any sized solids (D) liquids
13. Ultra-centrifuge are used for the separation of :
(A) coarse solids (B) fine solids
(C) colloidal solid particles (D) dissolved solids
14. To get a fine talc from granules this machine is employed :
(A) roller crusher (B) ball mill
(C) jaw crusher (D) gyratory crusher
15. Bakelite is a :
(A) Metal (B) Ceramic
(C) Polymer (D) Rubber
16. An AFM is based on the principle of :
(A) ! rays (B) # rays
(C) X rays (D) piezoelectric
17. This material is used as an insulator :
(A) Steel (B) Copper
(C) Iron (D) Porcelain
18. Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called :
(A) Active transport (B) Osmosis
(C) Passive transport (D) Diffusion
19. Pollination is best defined as :
(A) transfer of pollen from anther to stigma (B) germination of pollen grains
(C) growth of pollen tube in ovule (D) visiting flowers by insects
20. Photosynthesis generally takes place in which parts of the plant ?
(A) Leaf and other chloroplast bearing plants (B) Stem and leaf
(C) Roots and chloroplast bearing plants (D) Bark and leaf
21. Process of cell division can take place by :
(A) heterosis (B) diffusion
(C) fusion (D) mitosis
22. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named :
(A) haemoglobin (B) keratin
(C) collagen (D) myoglobin
23. Most abundant tissues of our body are :
(A) epithelial (B) connective
(C) muscular (D) nervous
24. Photosynthesis is a process which is :
(A) reductive and exergonic (B) reductive and catabolic
(C) reductive, endergonic and catabolic (D) reductive, endergonic and anabolic
25. Plant have ______ while animals lack it.
(A) glycogen (B) cellulose
(C) keratin (D) collagen
26. Our skin, when exposed to excess sunlight, becomes dark. This is because our skin
pigments called :
(A) flavoxanthin (B) xanthophyll
(C) carotene (D) melanin
27. Myopia is connected with :
(A) legs (B) ears
(C) eyes (D) nose
28. If d
p
is the equivalent diameter of a non-spherical particle, V
p
its volume and S
p
its surface
area, then its sphericity is $ $$ $$
s
is defined by :
(A) $
s
= 6V
p
/d
p
S
p
(B) $
s
= V
p
/d
p
S
p
(C) $
s
= 6d
p
S
p
/V
p
(D) $
s
= d
p
S
p
/V
p
29. Which of the following is not categorised as a "mechanical operation" ?
(A) Agitation (B) Filtration
(C) Size enlargement (D) Humidification
30. What is the order of a chemical reaction,
C
K
2B A %& % '
, if the rate of formation of 'C',
increases by a factor of 2.82 on doubling the concentration of 'A' and increases by a
factor of 9 on trebling the concentration of 'B' ?
(A) 7/2 (B) 7/4
(C) 5/2 (D) 5/4
31. For every 10C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30 to 70C, the rate of reaction increases :
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 32
32. The two basic types of signals are analog and :
(A) digilog (B) sine wave
(C) digital (D) vetilog
33. A data conversion system may be used to interface a digital computer system to :
(A) an analog output device (B) a digital output device
(C) an analog input device (D) a digital printer
34. In genetic engineering, a chimera is :
(A) an enzyme that links DNA molecules (B) a plasmid that contains foreign DNA
(C) a virus that infects bacteria (D) a fungi
35. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence ?
(A) FORTRAN (B) PROLOG
(C) C (D) COBOL
36. An OR gate can be imagined as :
(A) switches connected in series (B) switches connected in parallel
(C) MOS transistors connected in series (D) switches not connected at all
37. A positive AND gate is also a negative :
(A) NAND gate (B) NOR gate
(C) AND gate (D) OR gate
38. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated the side of 3 cm to form a cone.
The volume of the cone so formed is :
(A) 12
(
cm
3
(B) 15
(
cm
3
(C) 16
(
cm
3
(D) 20
(
cm
3
39. The de Broglie hypothesis is associated with :
(A) wave nature of electrons only (B) wave nature of alpha particles only
(C) wave nature of radiations (D) wave nature of all material particles
40. The mean translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is :
(A) kT (B) 1/2kT
(C) 3/2kT (D) 2/3kT
41. An optical source of U-V radiation is :
(A) Mercury (B) Incandescent lamp
(C) He-Ne laser (D) Sodium lamp
42. Frequency can be measured using :
(A) Maxwell's bridge (B) Schering bridge
(C) Heaviside Compbell bridge (D) Wien's bridge
43. Amount of energy emitted or absorbed by an oscillator is directly :
(A) proportional to its wavelength
(B) proportional to its frequency
(C) proportional to both its frequency and wavelength
(D) independent of its frequency and wavelength
44. According to Bohr's theory the radius of quantum number (n) is :
(A) directly proportional to quantum number (n)
(B) inversely proportional to square of quantum number (n)
(C) directly proportional to square of quantum number (n)
(D) inversely proportional to quantum number (n)
45. A wave packet corresponding to a moving particle :
(A) has velocity equal to light (B) has same speed as particle
(C) is dependent on speed of particle (D) can't be predicted and estimated
46. Phase diagrams help to study :
(A) thermal transitions (B) optical properties
(C) magnetic properties (D) electrical properties
47. Miller indices specify :
(A) Forces (B) Electric field
(C) Magnetic field (D) Planes and directions
48. For a perfect gas, its internal energy is :
(A) independent of pressure (B) independent of volume
(C) independent of temperature (D) unpredictable
49. Hardness of a material can be defined as :
(A) resistance to indentation (B) ability to draw into wires
(C) ability to draw into sheets (D) resistance to stretching
50. For a given material the true stress is always _______ engineering stress.
(A) less than (B) greater than
(C) equal to (D) unpredictable to
51. Elasticity of a material is characterized by :
(A) Hooke's modulus (B) Young's modulus
(C) Elastic constant (D) Spring constant
52. The buoyant force on an object submerged in a liquid depends on :
(A) objects mass (B) mass of the liquid
(C) mass of air (D) objects volume
53. Gauge pressure in comparison to true pressure is :
(A) larger (B) smaller
(C) equal (D) infinite
54. The SI unit of pressure is :
(A) Bernoulli (B) Young
(C) Pascal (D) Atmosphere
55. Which of the following is used for controlling access to computers ?
(A) code words (B) passwords
(C) binary pass (D) ASCII codes
56. Heat flux through a 50 mm thick slab, if a temperature drop across the slab is 5C and its
thermal conductivity is 0.1 Watts/mC, is :
(A) 0.01W/m
2
(B) 0.10W/m
(C) 10W/m
2
(D) 100W/m
2
57. "Dry ice", often used at concerts, is really solid carbon dioxide. The solid carbon dioxide
sublimates and forms gas that then floats above the ice. What do we see when we look at
the "fog" produced by dry ice machines ?
(A) We are looking at carbon dioxide gas
(B) We are looking at water gas, formed by the carbon dioxide
(C) We are looking at small droplets of liquid water, condensed by the carbon dioxide gas
(D) None
58. The convergence of which of the following method is sensitive to starting value :
(A) False position (B) Gauss Seidal method
(C) Newton-Raphson method (D) Bi-section value
59. Raoult's law applies to :
(A) all liquid solutions (B) only non-ideal solution
(C) non volatile solute (D) solvents
60. Vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A = 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is
added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. What is mole fraction of
component B in the solution ?
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.50
(C) 0.25 (D) 1.0
61. A solution of pH=2 is more acidic than a solution with pH=6 by a factor of :
(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 10000 (D) 1.0
62. A moving body is covering distances in proportion to the square of time. Acceleration of
the body is :
(A) increasing (B) decreasing
(C) unpredictable (D) constant
63. Heisenberg principle postulates that :
(A) life time of an excited atom is independent of its energy
(B) two electrons may not occupy same orbital
(C) for every proton there exists an anti proton
(D) momentum and position of an electron can't be known simultaneously
64. For correct results in all acid-base titrations the indicator must change colour at a pH :
(A) slightly greater than 7 (B) slightly less than 7
(C) equal to 7 (D) equal to stoichiometric point
65. The ionic strength of 0.01 M K
2
SO
4
is :
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02
(C) 0.03 (D) 0.04
66. The Nobel prize in 2010 in Physics was awarded for :
(A) research in zinc oxide (B) research in grapheme
(C) research in titania (D) research in silver
67. Boron behaves as a :
(A) non metal (B) metal
(C) metalloid (D) transition metal
68. Which material has long chain molecular structure ?
(A) ceramics (B) metals
(C) polymers (D) metal alloys
69. Kevlar is commercial name for :
(A) Glass fibres (B) Carbon fibres
(C) Aramid fibres (D) Cermets
70. Plastic deformation is a kind of ______ deformation.
(A) reversible (B) irreversible
(C) temporary (D) unknown
71. The SI physical unit of dynamic viscosity is :
(A) Pa.s (B) Pa.s
2
(C) Pa.s
-1
(D) Pa.s
-2
72. The specific strength of a material is ratio of :
(A) strength to force (B) strength to area
(C) strength to weight (D) strength to surface area
73. Viscoelasticity is a property unique to :
(A) Metals (B) Ceramics
(C) Polymers (D) Stones
74. Tata Swach uses a unique, advanced technology along with _____ to purify water.
(A) Gold nanotechnology (B) Silver nanotechnology
(C) Carbon nanotechnology (D) Zinc nanotechnology
75. For sunscreens the maximum efficiency is shown by following nanoparticles :
(A) CNT's (B) ZnO
(C) TiO
2
(D) CuO
ROUGH WORK
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/BZL/49001-A 12 136
CET(PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : Masters in Public Health
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 2
Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 3 [Turn over
Masters in Public Health/A
1. In which year WHO gave definition of health ?
(A) 1956 (B) 1948
(C) 1978 (D) 1984
2. Incubation Period for Diphtheria is :
(A) 2 6 days (B) 10 14 days
(C) 15 18 days (D) 7 14 days
3. Quarantine was first applied for :
(A) HIV (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Leprosy (D) Plague
4. Natural history of disease is best studied by :
(A) Cross sectional study (B) RCT
(C) Case control study (D) Cohort study
5. Virulence of disease is indicated by :
(A) Proportional mortality rate
(B) Specific mortality rate
(C) Case fatality rate
(D) Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
6. When causative agent is present but there is no transmission of disease. It is known as :
(A) Elimination (B) Control
(C) Eradication (D) Holoendemic
7. There is no carrier of :
(A) Typhoid (B) Diphtheria
(C) Whooping cough (D) Hepatitis B
8. Maximum power of destruction of a disease is measured by :
(A) Survival rate (B) Case fatality rate
(C) Specific death rate (D) Proportional mortality rate
9. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of :
(A) Point source epidemic (B) Continuous epidemic
(C) Propagated epidemic (D) Slow epidemic
10. Savlon contains :
(A) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
(B) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine + Butyl alcohol
(C) Cetrimide + Butyl Alcohol
(D) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
11. Epidemiological survey of 'at risk' is called :
(A) Survey (B) Screening
(C) Surveillance (D) Rehabilitation
12. Schick test does not indicate :
(A) Immunity to diphtheria (B) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(C) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria (D) Carriers of diphtheria
13. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :
(A) Hepatomegaly (B) Pleural effusion
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Decreased Haemoglobin
14. Mitsuda reaction is read at :
(A) 3
rd
day (B) 10
th
day
(C) 21
st
day (D) 45
th
day
15. Word Cancer Day falls on :
(A) 2
nd
Dec. (B) 4
th
Feb.
(C) 28
th
Sept. (D) 25
th
April
16. Ideal cholesterol level should be below :
(A) 200 (B) 220
(C) 300 (D) 350
17. According to maternal health programme, the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant women
should be :
(A) 100 mcg (B) 200 mcg
(C) 300 mcg (D) 400 mcg
18. Births in India must be registered within :
(C) 1 month (D) 7 days
19. Preterm babies are born before :
(A) 37 weeks (B) 40 weeks
(C) 42 weeks (D) 47 weeks
20. Additional Calories required for lactation :
(A) 550 (B) 440
(C) 300 (D) 130
21. A person with an IQ of 45 is said to have :
(A) Mild mental retardation (B) Moderate mental retardation
(C) Severe mental retardation (D) Profound mental retardation
22. "One dietary cycle" comprises of :
(A) 24 hrs (B) 48 hrs
(C) 7 days (D) 1 month
23. WHO defines blindness if the visual acuity is less than :
(A) 3/60 (B) 18/38
(C) 9/60 (D) 6/6
24. The infective form of malarial parasite through a blood transfusion is :
(A) Trophozoite (B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite (D) Schizont
25. E.coli produces the following toxins :
(A) Enterotoxins (B) Endotoxins
(C) Verocytotoxins (D) Hemolysins
26. Cori's cycle transfers :
(A) Glucose from muscles to liver (B) Lactate from muscles to liver
(C) Lactate from liver to muscles (D) Pyruvate from liver to muscles
27. The most common vitamin deficiency worldwide is that of :
(A) Ascorbic acid (B) Folic acid
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D
28. A heteropolysaccharide among the following is :
(A) Inulin (B) Cellulose
(C) Heparin (D) Dextrin
29. Non stick cooking utensils are coated with :
(A) Teflon (B) PVC
(C) Black Paint (D) Polystyrene
30. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water, because :
(A) It is a sterilising agent (B) It dissolves the impurities of water
(C) It is a reducing agent (D) It is an oxidising agent
31. Which is naturally occurring anti-malarial drug ?
(A) Artimisinine (B) Quinacrine
(C) Mepacrine (D) Mefloquine
32. Monday fever is associated with :
(A) Bagassosis (B) Byssinosis
(C) Asbestosis (D) Silicosis
33. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder and is transmitted as :
(A) X-linked dormant (B) Y-linked dormant
(C) X-linked recessive (D) Autosomal recessive
34. The gland which can be classified as an endocrine as well as exocrine gland is :
(A) Thymus (B) Pancreas
(C) Thyroid (D) Pituitary
35. The adjustments made for bending of light falling at the cornea of eye is called :
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Accommodation (D) Defraction
36. In which phase of mitosis chromosomes move toward the poles ?
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase (D) Telophase
37. During protein synthesis the polypeptide chain starts with :
(A) Glycine (B) Leucine
(C) Methionine (D) Lysine
38. Exchange of segments between non-homologous chromosomes is called
(A) Inversion (B) Translocation
(C) Deletion (D) Duplication
39. Production of testosterone is stimulated by :
(A) Inhibin (B) LH
(C) FSH (D) Progesterone
40. Which of the following cells produce antibodies ?
(A) Monocytes (B) B-lymphocytes
(C) T-lymphocytes (D) Phagocytes
41. The valve between right atrium and right ventricle is :
(A) Tricuspid valve (B) Mittral valve
(C) Bicuspid valve (D) Semilunar valve
42. Reabsorption of water in collecting tubule increases under the influence of :
(A) Rennin (B) ADH
(C) Insulin (D) Aldosterone
43. The condition in which there is a decrease in the number of white blood cells in humans is
know as :
(A) Leukocytosis (B) Leukopenia
(C) Leukemia (D) Leukohyperia
44. Cariology is the study of the :
(A) Human heart (B) Tooth decay
(C) Kidneys (D) Liver
45. Which of the following is not part of a neuron ?
(A) Synaptic cleft (B) Axon
(C) Nissl bodies (D) Dendrite
46. The blastula develops into the :
(A) Gastrula (B) Morula
(C) Endoderm (D) Zygote
47. Crypts of Lieberkuhn is present in :
(A) Stomach (B) Buccal cavity
(C) Small intestine (D) Trachea
48. The corpeus luteum secretes :
(A) HCG (B) LH
(C) FSH (D) Progesterone
49. Trypsinogen act upon :
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein
(C) Fats (D) Lipids
50. Nosocomial Infections are :
(A) Night infections (B) Hospital infections
(C) Home infections (D) Community infections
51. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases :
(A) Methane and ozone (B) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
(C) Methane and sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
52. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through
the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone ?
(A) Damage to digestive system (B) Increased liver cancer
(C) Neurological disorder (D) Increased skin cancer
53. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is :
(A) Air pollution (B) Contamination of groundwater
(C) Increased us of land for landfills (D) Destruction of habitat
54. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
55. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons (D) Methane gas
56. Montreal protocol is concerned with :
(A) Ozone treaty (B) Save the earth
(C) Clean air programme (D) Environment education
57. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by :
(A) Nitrous oxide (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons (D) Methane
58. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic
matter in water ?
(A) The oxygen demand increases (B) The oxygen demand decreases
(C) The oxygen demand remains unchanged (D) The hydrogen demand increases
59. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into :
(A) Increase in the salinity of groundwater
(B) Decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
(C) Decrease in the salinity of groundwater
(D) Increase in the water table
60. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution ?
(A) Mechanized agriculture (B) Hybrid seeds
(C) Slash and burn (D) Monoculture
61. The three primary soil macronutrients are :
(A) Carbon, Oxygen and Water (B) Copper, Cadmium and Carbon
(C) Potassium, Phosphorus and Nitrogen (D) Boron, Zinc and Manganese
62. Pain in the ear occurs at :
(A) 80 dB (B) 120 dB
(C) 140 dB (D) 40 dB
63. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are :
(A) Anopheles (B) Culex
(C) Aedes (D) Mansonia
64. Incineration is :
(A) High temperature reduction process
(B) Low temperature reduction process
(C) High temperature oxidation process
(D) Low temperature oxidation process
65. Color coding of bag in hospitals to dispose of Human anatomical wastes such as body
parts :
(A) Yellow (B) Black
(C) Red (D) Blue
66. The social arrangement in which a group of people plans the activities which others are
obliged to participate in is called :
(A) Informal organisation (B) Formal organisation
(C) Association (D) Social group
67. Non-conformity to social norms is called :
(A) Social change (B) Deviance
(C) Social conflict (D) Struggle
68. According to Summer 'Mores' are :
(A) Popular habits and tradition (B) Tradition
(C) Customs (D) Culture of society
69. Accommodation is essentially a process of :
(A) Adjustment (B) Cooperation
(C) Group formation (D) Competition
70. Who has classified accommodation in two types ?
(A) Park and Burgess (B) Park and Redfield
(C) Robert Redfield (D) R. E. Park
71. "Interaction without social contact" is :
(A) Integration (B) Assimilation
(C) Competition (D) Association
72. "A Scientific Theory of Culture" is the work of :
(A) Frazer (B) Radcliffe Brown
(C) Malinowski (D) Redfield
73. Established modes of thought and action is called :
(A) Culture (B) Personality
(C) Behaviour (D) Customs
74. The Primary civilisation of India is divided into :
(A) Little tradition and great tradition
(B) Big tradition and small tradition
(C) Educated tradition and uneducated tradition
(D) Rural tradition and caste tradition
75. Social organisation means :
(A) Planned activities (B) Organised activities
(C) Calculated activities (D) Defined activities
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
Masters in Public Health/BZL/48973-A 12 168
CET (PG)-2013
and Answer Sheet.
Subject : MBACIT
INSTRUCTIONS
and nowhere else.
Question Booklet.
candidate only.
the examination.
MBACIT/BZL/49129-A 2
MBACIT/BZL/49129-A 3 [Turn over
MBACIT/A
1. Inflow of cash will be due to :
(A) Purchase of raw material (B) Sale of asset
(C) Payment of dividend (D) Payment of tax
2. Declaration of dividend on equity share will cause the E.P.S. to :
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Remain unchanged (D) Changes proportionately
3. Salary of foreman should be classified as :
(A) Fixed overhead (B) Variable overhead
(C) Semi variable overhead (D) Direct labour
4. Conversion of debenture into equity share will result in :
(A) Increase in net worth (B) Decrease in net worth
(C) Increase in current liability (D) Increase in total capitalization
5. A change in fixed cost will change the break even point :
(A) Double the fixed cost (B) More than the fixed cost
(C) In equal proportion (D) Less than the fixed cost
6. Which of the following is not important hindrance to effective communication ?
(A) Language difficulties
(B) Status distance
(C) Resistance to change
(D) Employee's relationship with the management
7. In which of the following cases, continuous existence is found ?
(A) Sole tradership (B) Partnership
(C) Co-operative (D) Joint Stock company
8. Total area of Pie diagram is :
(A) 360 (B) 300
(C) 180 (D) 260
9. Who said management is "the process to forecast, to plan, to organize, to command, to
coordinate and to control ?
(A) Peter Drucker (B) Taylor
(C) Fayol (D) Terry
10. Standing plans means :
(A) Used repeatedly (B) Used only once
(C) Non-recurring (D) Shorten duration
11. What do you call the value that divides a series into 100 equal parts ?
(A) Percentile (B) Decile
(C) Median (D) Quartile
12. In line and staff organization the role of staff is :
(A) Advisory (B) Authoritative
(C) Control (D) Responsibility
13. Low geared company has :
(A) Large no. of debts (B) Large no. of preference capital
(C) Large no. of equity (D) Large no. of debenture
14. MM approach of capital structure assumes :
(A) 50% dividend payout (B) 100% dividend payout
(C) 0% dividend payout (D) 150% dividend payout
15. Public utility is established :
(A) To satisfy the needs of the society
(B) To satisfy the needs of directors
(C) To satisfy the needs of Govt. Employee
(D) To satisfy the needs of the private company
16. Pure oligopoly means :
(A) Products are different (B) Products are same
(C) Products are homogenous (D) (B) or (C)
17. Which of the following describes monopoly market ?
(A) One buyer, one seller (B) One buyer, many sellers
(C) Many buyers, many sellers (D) Many buyers, one seller
18. A firm under imperfect comptetion advertises :
(A) To lower the cost of production (B) To increase sales and profits
(C) To compete successfully with the rival firms (D) Because it can't raise the prices
19. Which of the following institutions was entrusted with the task of co-ordinating the activities
of all financial institutions ?
(A) ICICI (B) IFC
(C) IDBI (D) UTI
20. In the short run, firm for profit maximization should produce that output :
(A) Which yield maximum total revenue (B) Which minimise marginal cost
(C) Which maximize marginal revenue (D) Which has MR = MC
21. Price = Minimum AC in the long run is under :
(A) Monopoly (B) Duopoly
(C) Perfect competition (D) Monopolistic competition
22. Law of increasing returns was propounded by :
(A) Antonio Seere (B) Johnson
(C) Philip K. Terry (D) Marshall
23. Cross elasticity between two perfect substitutes is :
(A) Very high (B) Very low
(C) High (D) Infinity
24. Demands for Pepsi and Thumsup is called :
(A) Joint demands (B) Competitive demands
(C) Complementary demands (D) Derived demands
25. The undertaking which is owned and managed by Government is :
(A) Public enterprise (B) Private enterprise
(C) Mixed enterprise (D) Governmental company
26. Wealth maximisation is related to firm's :
(A) Business decisions (B) Selling decisions
(C) Investment decision (D) Cost decisions
27. 'A general theory of employment, interest and money' is written by :
(A) J. M. Keynes (B) A.C. Pigou
(C) Adam Smith (D) Marshall
28. The concept of MC is important in economic analysis because :
(A) There is no other concept to be used (B) It is important to study profits
(C) It is very important in equilibrium analysis (D) Introduced by famous economist
29. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 was enacted with the objective of :
(A) Checking banks failures
(B) Stopping frauds in the banks
(C) Ensuring adequate branch expansion in rural areas
(D) Consolidating and amending the law relating to banking companies
30. No bank incorporated in India can open an office (place of business) outside India without
obtaining prior permission of :
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Exim Bank
(C) ECGC (D) Controller of Imports and Exports
31. Bamboo and pine trees are generally found in which one of the following types of
climates ?
(A) Taiga (B) Tropical monsoon
(C) Mediterranean (D) Savanna
32. The original home of the gypsies was :
(A) Egypt (B) Russia
(C) India (D) Persia
33. Which one of the following writs literally means "what is your authority" ?
(A) Habeus Corpus (B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto (D) Prohibition
34. Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as Fundamental Right under the
Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to Information (B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Work (D) Right to Housing
35. IRDA is associated with :
(A) Railways (B) Insurance
(C) Telecommunication (D) Banking
36. Stars are twinkling due to :
(A) Diffraction (B) Refraction
(C) Scattering (D) Reflection
37. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Maldives
(C) Bhutan (D) Myanmar
38. Where is the college of Defence Management located ?
(A) Dehradun (B) Wellington
(C) Pune (D) Hyderabad
39. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following ?
(A) Environmental protection (B) Olympic games
(C) Journalism (D) Civil Aviation
40. Who of the following is an accomplished vocalist ?
(A) Monu Mazumdar (B) Shiv Kumar Sharma
(C) Satish Gujral (D) Dinanath Mishra
41. Which one of the following is not a football tournament ?
(A) I-League (B) Irani Trophy
(C) Bardoloi Trophy (D) Durand Cup
42. With which of the following sports is Jayanta Talukdar associated ?
(A) Golf (B) Snooker
(C) Archery (D) Shooting
43. The 'National Commission on Population' is headed by :
(A) Prime Minister (B) President
(C) Home Minister (D) Registrar General of India
44. ___________ was the Mascot of 2011 Indian Census.
(A) A woman enumerator (B) A helping hand symbol
(C) A child and mother (D) A teddy bear
45. When is the International Day for the elimination of Racial Discrimination ?
(A) 2
nd
October (B) 21
st
March
(C) 23
rd
March (D) 19
th
January
46. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a :
(A) Megabyte (B) Byte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
47. What does HTTP stand for ?
(A) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (B) Hypertext Transfer Plotter
(C) Head Tail Transfer Plot (D) Head Tail Transfer Protocol
48. In a computer, TFT is related to :
(A) Memory (B) Monitor
(C) Input Device (D) Serial Port
49. A 17 inches monitor implies that :
(A) the screen is 17 inches wide
(B) the screen is 17 inches high
(C) a circle of 17 inches diameter is available for display
(D) the diagonal across the screen is 17 inches
50. Programs such as Mozilla Firefox that serve as navigable windows into the Web are
called :
(A) HTML Programs (B) Network Programs
(C) Internet Protocol (D) Web browsers
51. WWW means :
(A) World Wide Web (B) World Wide Wonder
(C) World Wide Wizard (D) Wide World Web
52. The term refers to a combination of text, graphics, animation, video, music,
voice, and sound effects used to communicate a message.
(A) Multitasking (B) Hyperlinking
(C) Multicasting (D) Multimedia
53. WAV file format is associated with what type of files ?
(A) Video (B) Sound
(C) Image (D) Word Document
54. What does TCP/IP stand for ?
(A) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
(B) Transport Capture Protocol/Inside Packet
(C) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Packet
(D) Telecommunications Connection Protocol/Internet Partitions
55. What does ISP stand for ?
(A) International Service Protocol (B) Internal Service Port
(C) Internet Service Provider (D) Internet Search Program
56. Printer resolution is measured by the number of _________ .
(A) characters per second (cps) (B) dots per inch (dpi)
(C) pages per minute (ppm) (D) spots per centimeter (spc)
57. A device that can convert digital signals to analog signals is :
(A) A packet (B) A modem
(C) An emulator (D) Network Interface Card (NIC)
58. One disadvantage of RAM is that it is :
(A) Slow (B) Volatile
(C) Inaccurate (D) Bulky
59. In most cases, the operating system resides on the computer's __________ .
(A) tape cartridge (B) compact disc
(C) floppy disk (D) hard disk
60. Which of the following is not an input device ?
(A) Scanner (B) Mouse
(C) Web Camera (D) Laser Printer
Directions for Questions 61-62 : In the following questions, some parts of the sentence
have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce
the correct sentence :
61. Some people believe that
P. the effect
Q. is very bad
R. on children
S. of cinema
The correct sequence should be :
(A) S-P-Q-R (B) S-R-P-Q
(C) Q-S-R-P (D) P-S-R-Q
62. Sherlock Holmes is perhaps knows to
P. character in fiction
Q. than any other
R. more people
S. perhaps knows to
(A) P-S-R-Q (B) S-P-Q-R
(C) S-R-Q-P (D) Q-S-R-P
Directions for Questions 63-64 : The next TWO questions are based on the given
information which is followed by two possible inferences. Which one of the following
options applies to each of the questions ?
63. All men are girls. Some girls are students.
(I) All girls are men.
(II) Some girls are not students.
(A) Only inference (I) follows (B) Only inference (II) follows
(C) Both inferences (I) and (II) follow (D) Neither inference (I) nor (II) follows
64. Some boys are students. All students are teenagers.
(I) All teenagers are students.
(II) Some boys are teenagers.
(A) Only inference (I) follows (B) Only inference (II) follows
(C) Both inferences (I) and (II) follow (D) Neither inference (I) nor (II) follows
Directions for Questions 65-66 : In the next TWO questions, a sentence is underlined in
three separate and is labelled (P), (Q) and (R). Read each sentence to find out whether
there is an error in any underlined Part. (No sentence has more than one error) :
65. (P) The young child
(Q) singed
(R) a very sweet song
(A) (P) has error (B) (Q) has error
(C) (R) has error (D) No error
66. (P) We worked
(Q) very hard
(R) throughout the season :
(A) (P) has error (B) (Q) has error
(C) (R) has error (D) No error
67. Rajesh was tired of Priya's approach, so he asked her to make her final
decision by that evening.
(A) Silly-willy (B) Dilly-dally
(C) Wasting (D) Dilly-nally
68. School days are considered to be the best years of your life. When my year in
school began, I began to think of those past enjoyable days and of my future also.
(A) Termination (B) Penultimate
(C) Integral (D) Alma mater
69. A cube,as shown below, has dots pointed on each of its faces starting with one dot to six
dots on each of its faces, When six dots are on the top of the cube, how many dots will
there be at the bottom ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) Incomplete data
70. A father's age was five times his son's age five years ago and will be three times the
son's age after two years. The ratio of the present age of the father to that of the son
is :
(A) 33 : 5 (B) 11 : 5
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 10 : 3
71. Which of the following responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in
ascending order ?
1. Infant
2. Adolescent
3. Foetus
4. Child
5. Adult
(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (B) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
72. In a row of girls, Neha is fifth from left and Anita is sixth from the right. When they
exchange their positions, Neha becomes thirteenth from the left. What will then be the
Anita's position from the right ?
(A) 7
th
(B) 11
th
(C) 14
th
(D) 18
th
73. Three women, Anju, Manju and Ranju, are sitting side by side on a bench, not necessarily
in that order. One of the women is a singer, one is a teacher, and one is a pharmacist.
The woman sitting to Manju's right is the teacher, and the woman sitting to Anju's right
is the singer. What is Ranju's profession ?
(A) She must be a singer (B) She is either a teacher or a singer
(C) She is either a pharmacist or a teacher (D) She must be a pharmacist
74. Rekha, Heena and Tanya each run in a timed cross-country race. Tanya starts her run at
10.00 am. Henna takes 5 minutes less than Rekha to complete the course. Rekha started
her run10 minutes before Tanya and finished at 10.20 am. Heena finished at 10.15 am.
If these statements are true, which of the following is true ?
(A) Heena runs faster than Tanya
(B) Rekha and Tanya take the same amount of time
(C) Tanya is the last to finish
(D) Heena and Rekha started at the same time
75. Farah and Tanuja are sisters. Amar and Akbar are brothers. Amar's son Anthony is
Tanuja's brother. How is Akbar related to Farah ?
(A) No relation (B) Father
(C) Uncle (D) Brother
MBACIT/BZL-49129-A 12 104
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Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. :

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