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A320 REFRESHER QUESTIONER

V:001 Date: 20/01/12

Date: ____/____/201__

Name & Signature of Applicand:________________________________________________________________________________ ATO Name and Approval No:__________________________________________________________________________________ ANSWER SHEET 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A PASS Results:______________________(minimum passing mark 80%) B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A FAIL If Applicable TRI/TRE Licence No:___________________ B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

Name and Signature of TRI/TRE:_______________________________________________________________________________


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21 Air Conditioning / Pressurization / Ventilation 1. PACK pushbutton ON : The pack flow control valve is automatically-controlled. It opens, except in the following cases : Fire pushbutton, of the engine on the related side, is pressed, Ditching is selected. Upstream pressure below minimum. Compressor outlet overheat. Engine start sequence : A. Both valves immediately close, if the MODE selector is set to IGN (or CRK). B. They remain closed when, on either engine : the MASTER switch is set to ON (or MAN START pushbutton is set to ON) and, the start valve is open and, N2 < 50 %. C. On ground, reopening of the valves is delayed for 30 s to avoid a supplementary pack closure cycle during second engine start. D. All of the above are correct. 2. PACK FLOW selector A. Permits the selection of pack valve flow, according to the number of passengers and ambient conditions: LO (80 %) NORM (100 %) HI (120 %). B. Manual selection is irrelevant in single pack operation, or with APU bleed supply. In these cases, HI is automatically selected. C. If LO is selected, the pack flow can be automatically selected up to 100 % when the cooling demand cannot be satisfied. D. All of the above are correct. 3. LDG ELEV knob AUTO : The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an optimized pressure schedule. Other positions : The pressurization schedule does not use the landing elevation from the FMGS, but instead uses the landing elevation selected with this knob (from -2 000 to +14 000 ft) as its reference. Q. Is any information available on ECAM about the landing elevation? A. True. B. False. 4. DITCHING guarded pushbutton: Normal : The system functions normally. ON : The operating system sends a close signal to the outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, pack flow control valves. Q. The outflow valve will close automatically, if it is under manual control? A. True. B. False. 5. VENTILATION/SMOKE CONFIGURATION: When the smoke detector detects smoke in the avionics ventilation air the BLOWER and the EXTRACT FAULT lights come on. When both the BLOWER and the EXTRACT pushbuttons are set to the OVRD position, the air conditioning system supplies cooling air, which is then exhausted overboard. The blower fan stops. A. True. B. False. 22 Auto Flight 6. DUAL MODE / MASTER FMGC LOGIC If one autopilot (AP) is engaged, the related FMGC is master: a) It uses the onside FD for guidance, b) It controls the A/THR, and c) It controls the FMA 1 and 2. If two APs are engaged, FMGC___ is master. A. 1. B. 2. 7. PROG PAGE: OPT FL (in green), is computed based on the current gross weight, cost index and temperature. Q. REC MAX (in magenta), is computed based on the current gross weight and temperature, and assuming that the anti-ice is off. It provides? A. The aircraft with a 0.3 g buffet margin. B. A minimum rate of climb at MAX CL thrust, and level flight at MAX CRZ thrust. C. This field is limited to FL 391. D. All of the above are correct. 8. Engine-Out: The applicable PERF page displays EO CLR*(clear engine-out) prompt and the PROG page shows the engineout maximum recommended altitude (EO MAX REC ALT). The engine-out descent strategy requires disconnection of the autothrust, and descent in OPEN DES mode. A. True B. False 9. ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust levers positions. This protection is available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach. ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications: A. A FLOOR in green (on the FMA) and in amber (on the engine warning display), as long as -floor conditions are met B. TOGA LK in green, when the aircraft leaves the -floor conditions. TOGA thrust is locked. C. To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust, the flight crew must disconnect the autothrust. D. All of the above are correct.
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10. The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) which is just above the PFDs, shows the status of the A/THR, the AP/FD vertical and lateral modes, the approach capabilities, and the AP/FD-A/THR engagement status. After each mode change, the FMA displays a white box around the new annunciation for ___sec. A. 15sec. B. 10sec. 23 Communications 11. CALLS FROM THE COCKPIT / EMER pushbutton-switch (guarded): When pressed, the following aural and visual alerts will trigger in the cabin: a) Two pink lights flash on all area call panels, b) the EMERGENCY CALL message appears on all AIPs, and c) a ________________________, on all of the loudspeakers. A. low-high chime sounds two times, B. low-high chime sounds three times, C. high-low chime sounds three times, D. high-low chime sounds two times, 12. EMER EVAC COMMAND pb ON: a) In the cockpit: EVAC light flashes red and Horn sounds, and b) In the cabin: EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels and Evacuation tone sounds. A. True. B. False. 13. The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) records: Crew conversation, aural warnings, communications received and transmitted, intercommunications and announcements. Only the last ___min of recording are retained. A. 10min. B. 20min. C. 30min. D. 60min. 24 Electrical 14. During aircraft power up BAT 1 and 2 VOLTAGE, CHECK ABOVE __._V. A. 20.5V B. 22.5V C. 25.5V D. 28.5V 15. During RAT extension and emergency generator coupling (about 8s), the batteries power the emergency generation network. If only the batteries are powering the emergency generation network, APU start is available ____________. A. on ground (speed below 100kts). B. on air (speed above 140kts). C. on air and ground (any speed). D. is not available. 16. SMOKE: In this configuration the main busbars are shed. The electrical distribution is the same as it is in the emergency electrical configuration (loss of main generators), except the fact that in smoke configuration the fuel pumps are connected upstream of the GEN 1 line connector. The procedure sheds approximately 75% of electrical equipment. All equipment that remains powered is supplied via the circuit breakers on the overhead panel (except for equipment that supplied by hot buses). A. True. B. False. 17. The IDG switches are normally springloaded out. Pressing this switch disconnects the IDG from its driveshaft. The IDG can be reconnected, _______________________________. A. by the crew and by maintenance personnel. B. only by maintenance personnel. 18. GALLEY SHED indication on the ECAM ELEC PAGE this legend appears in white when: A. The GALLEY pb-sw is OFF. B. The main galleys are shed, meaning that in flight, only one generator is operating, and on ground, the aircraft is being supplied by one engine generator only. C. The legend is not displayed, when the aircraft is in its normal configuration. D. All of the above are correct. 25 Equipment 19. Locked/Unlocked Door Indicator, GREEN light flashes: An emergency request to enter the cockpit has been made; the buzzer will sound _________ in the cockpit, but no action has yet been taken by the flight crew. A. intermittent. B. continuously. 20. The Cockpit Door Surveillance system consists of video cameras, which enable the flight crew to identify persons prior to authorizing their entry into the cockpit. LCD display(s), shows the various camera views. It has automatic brightness adjustment and is activated by the Cockpit Door Video pb. A. True. B. False.

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26 Fire Protection 21. OVERHEAD PANEL ENG1(2) FIRE lt: This red light comes on, regardless of the pushbutton's position, whenever the fire warning for the corresponding engine is activated. In such a case, the equivalent PEDESTAL FIRE light identifies the engine to ________________________ the light comes on red when an engine fire warning is triggered. A. be shutdown because of fire B. be monitor because of fire 22. The APU has one fire extinguisher bottle that has two electrically operated squibs to discharge its agent. The flight crew controls the discharge from the APU FIRE panel in the cockpit. This bottle also discharges _______ if there is an APU fire when the aircraft is on the ground. A. Manually B. automatically 23. A fire extinguishing system protects the FWD and AFT cargo compartments. _______________________________ (one in FWD compartment and two in AFT compartment). The bottle has two discharge heads, one for each compartment. When a member of the flight crew presses the DISCH pushbutton for either compartment, the action ignites the corresponding squib on the fire bottle, which then discharges extinguishing agent into that compartment. When the bottle has discharged, the amber DISCH light comes on. A. Three fire bottles supplies three nozzles B. Two fire bottle supplies three nozzles C. One fire bottle supplies three nozzles 27 Flight Controls 24. The A320 modes of operation are A. Ground mode is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and elevator deflection, without auto trim. B. Flight Mode during which in normal-law flight mode is a load-factor-demand mode with automatic trim and protection throughout the flight envelope. C. Ground Mode: The flight mode changes to flare mode when the aircraft passes 50 ft RA as it descends to land. The system memorizes the attitude at 50 ft, and that attitude becomes the initial reference for pitch attitude control. As the aircraft descends through 30 ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude, reducing it to 2 nose down over a period of 8 s. This means that it takes gentle nose-up action by the pilot to flare the aircraft. D. All of the above are correct. 25. The normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope, as follows : load factor limitation (+2.5g to -1g for clean and +2g to 0g for other configurations) pitch attitude protection (from 15 nose down to 20 or 30 nose up depenting on the A/C configuration) high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection (prot to MAX) high-speed protection (activated when above VMO/MMO) A. True B. False 26. If one engine fails, the FAC modifies the sideslip indication slightly to show the pilot how much rudder to use to get the best climb performance (ailerons to neutral and spoilers retracted). In the case of an engine failure at takeoff, or at go-around, the sideslip index on the PFD changes from ___________. A. blue to yellow B. yellow to blue 27. In Alternate Law A. Amber X replaces green =, and during flare operation the control law is direct law. B. Green X replaces green =, and during flare operation the control law is direct law. 28. SIDE STICK PRIORITY: Red arrow light: A) comes on in front of the pilot losing authority, and B) goes out if he has recovered his authority. For latching the priority condition, it is recommended to press the takeover push button for more than _____. A. 10sec. B. 20sec. C. 30sec. D. 40sec. 28 Fuel 29. The tanks empty in the following sequence: A) The center tank, B) the inner tanks: each inner tank empties down to 750 kg, and C) the outer tanks: fuel transfers into the inner tanks. The center tank feeds fuel to the engines, when the center tank pumps are __________. The inner tanks feed the engines when the center tank pumps are stopped. A. not stopped B. stopped 30. Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve and to the outer fuel tank. This operation ensures the IDG cooling when the oil temperature is ____ or when at ___ engine power. A. low low B. high high C. high low D. low high
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31. Fuel quantity indication: It is normally in green. However an amber line appears across the last ____ digits, when the FQI is inaccurate. The outer indication is boxed amber, if both transfer valves fail to open when the inner is at low level. A. one B. two C. three D. four 29 Hydraulic 32. Yellow System Pumps: A pump driven by engine 2 pressurizes the yellow system. An electric pump can also pressurize the yellow system, which allows yellow hydraulics to be used on the ground when the engines are stopped. Crew members can also use a hand pump to pressurize the yellow system in order to operate the cargo doors when no electrical power is available. A. True B. False 33. Power Transfer Unit (PTU): A bidirectional power transfer unit enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. The power transfer unit comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the green and the yellow systems is greater than ___PSI. The PTU therefore allows the green system to be pressurized on the ground when the engines are stopped. A. 100PSI B. 300PSI C. 500PSI D. 700PSI 34. A drop-out RAT coupled to a hydraulic pump allows the blue system to function if electrical power is lost or both engines fail. The RAT deploys automatically if ______________________________________ lost. It can be deployed manually from the overhead panel. It can be stowed only when the aircraft is on the ground. A. AC BUS 1 or AC BUS 2 are B. AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are both 30 Ice and Rain 35. Wing Anti-Ice: In flight, hot air from the pneumatic system heats slats __________ of each wing. When the aircraft is on ground, the flight crew can initiate a ______ test sequence by turning the system ON. A. 1-2-3-4-5 10sec B. 2-3-4-5 20sec C. 3-4-5 30sec D. 4-5 60sec 36. Engine Anti-Ice: An independent air bleed from the high pressure compressor protects each engine nacelle from ice. Air is supplied through a two-position (open and closed) valve. The valve automatically closes, if air is unavailable (engine not running). When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 limit is automatically reduced and, if necessary, the idle N1 is automatically _________ for both engines in order to provide the required pressure. A. increased B. decreased 37. PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb AUTO: Probes/Windows are heated automatically: A) In flight, or B) On the ground (except TAT probes) provided one engine is _________. A. running B. stopped 31 Indicating / Recording Systems 38. If both ECAM displays fail, the flight crew may: A) Use the "ECAM/ND XFR", on the SWITCHING panel, to display the engine/warning page on a navigation display, and if needed B) _______________________________ the related system page pushbutton, on the ECAM control panel, to temporarily display the system/status page on an ND. A. press momentarily B. push and hold (for a maximum of 3 min) 39. If there are too many ECAM messages for the amount of space available in the lower part of the E/WD, a ____ arrow appears at the bottom of the display, pointing down to show that the information has overflowed off the screen. The pilot can scroll down to view additional messages by pushing the CLR pb. A. amber B. blue C. red D. green 40. MASTER WARN lights: Flash red for level __ warning, accompanied by an aural warning (continuous repetitive chime, specific sounds or synthetic voice). MASTER CAUT lights: Light up steady amber for a level __ caution, accompanied by a single chime. A. 2 3 B. 3 2

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41. Alpha Protection Speed: The top of a black and amber strip along the speed scale indicates this speed. It represents the speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection becomes active. It is displayed when in pitch ________ law. Alpha MAX Speed: The top of a red strip along the speed scale indicates this speed. It represents the speed corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain in pitch normal law. It is displayed when in pitch _________ law. A. normal normal B. normal and alternate 42. Barometric Reference: It pulses when the selection made by the pilot is not correct (STD not selected above transition altitude in climb or STD still selected in approach below transition level or ______ft radio height if transition level is not available) A. 1.000 B. 1.500 C. 2.000 D. 2.500 32 Landing Gear 43. If the normal system fails to extend the gear hydraulically, the flight crew can use a crank to extend it mechanically. When a crew member turns the crank, A) isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green hydraulic system, B) unlocks the landing gear doors and the main and nose main gear, and C) allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position. The gear doors remain ____. A. closed B. open 44. Landing Gear Indicating Panel: If one UNLK indication remains on, the landing gear position can be confirmed using the WHEEL SD page (information from LGCIU 1 & 2). Need ____ green triangle on each landing gear in order to confirm that the landing gear is downlocked. A. two B. only one 45. Alternate Braking with Anti-Skid: Autobrake is inoperative. Braking uses this mode when green hydraulic pressure is insufficient, and A) Yellow hydraulic pressure is available, B) the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ___, and C) the parking brake is not ON. A. ON B. OFF 33 Lights 46. Strobe sw: This switch turns on and off the three synchronized strobe lights, one on each wing tip and one below the tail cone. In the AUTO position, the strobe lights come on automatically when the main gear strut _____ compressed. A. is B. Is not 47. With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM: The proximity emergency escape path marking system and the overhead emergency lighting automatically comes on, if: A) Normal aircraft electrical power system _______, or B) DC SHED ESS BUS _______, or C) AC BUS 1 _______. A. operating operating operating B. fail fail fail 48. The escape slides have an integral lighting system. The escape slide lights and overwing route lights come on automatically, when the slide is deployed. They are supplied by the internal batteries. A. True B. False 34 Navigation 49. ADIRS MEMO DISPLAY: "IRS IN ALIGN" appears if ________ IRS is still in alignment: These two messages are displayed: A) In green, if both engines are stopped, or B) in amber, if one engine is running. A. three of the 3 B. two of the 3 C. one of the 3 50. When inserting the T/O DATA, why it is important to enter if necessary the T/O SHIFT distance. A. For more accurate performance calculations. B. For calculating your TORA. C. For position updating at T/O and, consequently, for navigation accuracy. 51. Altitude Tolerance at Ground Check: A) PFD 1 or 2 at ground check: _____, and B) _____. A. 300ft 50ft. B. 25ft 25ft. C. 50ft 50ft. D. 25ft 300ft.

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52. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates aural and visual warnings, when one of the following conditions occurs between radio altitudes _____________. Modes: 1) Excessive rate of descent, 2) Excessive terrain closure rate, 3) Altitude loss after takeoff, or go-around, 4) Unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration, and 5) Too far below glideslope. A. 50ft and 2.500ft B. 30ft and 2.500ft C. 50ft and 2.450ft D. 30ft and 2.450ft 53. TCAS: The estimated time (TAU) to the Closest Point of Approach (CPA) for a Traffic Advisory (TA) is about _____ and for a Resolution Advisory (RA) is about 25sec. A. 30sec 15sec B. 30sec 20sec C. 40sec 25sec 35 Oxygen 54. OXY high pressure indication on ground: An amber half frame appears when oxygen pressure is __________. In this case, the flight crew must check that the remaining quantity is not below the minimum. A. < 500PSI B. < 1.000PSI C. < 1.500PSI 55. MASK MAN ON pushbutton: The guard keeps this button in the AUTO position. However when on AUTO, the mask doors open automatically, when the cabin altitude exceeds ________. A. 14.000ft B. 14.500ft 56. The flight crew smoke hood is considered serviceable as long as the yellow indicator on the case is not broken. The hood should work satisfactorily for at least _____. A. 20min B. 25min C. 28min D. 30min 36 Pneumatic 57. Leak detection loops detect any overheating near the hot air ducts in the fuselage, pylons, and wings An APU leak signal causes: A. the APU bleed valve to close automatically (except during engine start). B. the FAULT light the APU BLEED pushbutton switch on the AIR COND panel to come on C. the x-bleed valve to close automatically (except during an engine start). D. all of the above. 58. Following ENG 1(2) FIRE and SHUT DOWN, which statement is correct? A. If the ENG 1 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, APU bleed must not be used. B. If ENG 2 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, APU bleed may be used provided the X BLEED rotary selector is set at SHUT. C. Both statements A + B are correct. 38 Water / Waste 59. Potable water is stored in a ______ tank in the FWD cargo compartment. The system can be filled or drained from the service panel _____ the fuselage. Indicators on the forward attendants panel and the aft service panel show ____________ is in the water tank. A. 100ltr under how much water B. 200ltr under how much water C. 300ltr under how much water 60. Wastewater from the galleys and from the sinks in the lavatories drains overboard through ___ anti-iced drain masts. Differential pressure discharges the wastewater in flight, and gravity does so on the ground. A. one B. two 45 Maintenance System 61. The CFDS operates in two main modes: A) The NORMAL mode or REPORTING mode (in flight) records and displays the ______________, and B) the INTERACTIVE mode or MENU mode (on ground) display ______________ stored and formatted by the BITE or to initiate a test. A. failure messages the maintenance data B. ECAM messages the maintenance data 62. The LAST LEG REPORT (on the ground) or the CURRENT LEG REPORT (in flight), list all class _______________________ and all system failure and system fault messages received by the CFDS during the last flight leg or the current flight leg. Pressing the IDENT key displays a list of the systems called identifiers) affected by the failure or fault, which helps the pilot or maintenance person to identify the failure or fault. A. 1 failures and class 2 faults B. 1 failures and class 2 and 3 faults
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49 APU 63. The air bleed system is fully automatic. The ECB always sets the APU speed to ____ except for air conditioning demand, if the ambient temperature is between -18 C and 35C. A. 80% B. 90% C. 95% D. 100% 64. During ELEC EMER CONFIG the APU BATTERY RESTART LIMIT is? A. 20.000ft B. 22.500ft C. 25.000ft D. No limit 65. The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is required within next _____ of APU operation. A. 10hrs B. 100hrs C. No limit 52 Doors 66. When the slide arming lever is in the ARMED position, the slide is connected to the floor brackets on both sides of the door. When the door is opened, the slide inflates and deploys automatically. If the inflation bottle fails to discharge automatically, a crew member ______ open its valve to make it perform its function. A. can B. cannot 67. Opening the door from the outside disarms the door and the escape slide. Each passenger door has: A. A mechanical locking indicator that shows whether the door is locked or unlocked B. One warning light to show whether the escape slide is ARMED or DISARMED C. One CABIN PRESSURE warning light that warns of residual pressure in the cabin. D. All of the above are correct. 68. CABIN: In case of an emergency, two inward opening emergency exits are provided on each side of the cabin, in addition to the regular cabin doors. They are also equipped with an escape slide. The slides of the overwing emergency exits are always in armed configuration. To open: A. Remove HANDLE COVER: The HANDLE LIGHT and SLIDE ARMED indicator illuminate. B. Pull CONTROL HANDLE: The EXIT moves inwards. C. Lift EXIT from frame by holding the GRIPMOULD and throw EXIT out. D. All of the above are correct 69. Doors Warning and Cautions are inhibited during T/O from 80kts to 1.500ft and during landing from 800ft to 80kts. A. True B. False 70 Power Plant 70. The FADEC system performs the following provides Protection against engine exceeding limits, A) protection against N1 and N2 overspeed, and B) monitoring of EGT during engine start. A. True B. False 71. The FADEC does not have the authority to abort the manual start in flight. However on ground, except if the start EGT limit is exceeded before reaching ___ N2 - in this case only the FADEC aborts the start. A. 42% B. 50% C. 56% 72. Indications on FMA: Flashes _____ (3rd line on the FMA) if the thrust levers are not in MCT position after an engine failure (with speed above green dot). A. blue B. white C. green 73. Engine starting is limited to 4 consecutive cycles pause _____ between start attempts. A. 10sec B. 20sec C. 30sec 74. Takeoff at reduced thrust is only permitted, if the airplane meets all applicable performance requirements at the planned takeoff weight, with the operating engines at the thrust available for the assumed temperature. However thrust reduction must not exceed ___ of the full rated takeoff thrust. A. 15% B. 25% C. 35% D. not allowed
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Low Visibility Operation 75. In case of low visibility takeoff, visual cues are primary means to track the runway centerline. The PFD yaw bar provides an assistance in case of expected fog patches if ILS available. A. True B. False 76. Engine Out: CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved in configuration FULL, and if engine-out procedures are completed before reaching 1.000 ft in approach. Minimum decision height _____, at least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA, and A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed. A. NO DH B. 50ft C. 100ft 77. Automatic landing is demonstrated with slope angle within __________________ and for airport elevation at or below ______. A. -2.50 to -3.00 2.000ft. B. -2.50 to -3.15 2.500ft. C. -2.75 to -3.15 2.500ft. 78. AUTOLAND WARNING with LAND or FLARE green on the FMA and at least one AP engaged, the AUTOLAND red light appears on the glareshield when the aircraft is below _____ RA and one of the following events occurs, A) the autopilots are lost, or B) the aircraft gets too far off the beam (LOC or G/S flash on PFD), or C) loss of LOC signal above 15 ft, or loss of glide signal above 100 ft (transmitter or receivers, and D) the difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15ft. A. 100ft B. 150ft C. 200ft 79. In case of CAT III without DH, the pilot should enter ____ in the DH field of the MCDU to avoid false HUNDRED ABOVE or MINIMUM auto callouts which would not be applicable. A. NO B. 0 80. During AUTOLAND disengage the APs at the end of the Roll out (when leaving the runway at the latest). A. True B. False

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01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

INSTRUCTORS ANSWER SHEET D 41 A D 42 A Yes: Cruise & Press Pages 43 A Will not close 44 A 45 A 46 A C D 47 A 48 A C D 49 A 50 A C D 51 A 52 A C D 53 A C D 54 A C D 55 A 56 A 57 A C D 58 A 59 A 60 A 61 A 62 A C 63 A C D 64 A 65 A 66 A 67 A C D 68 A 69 A C D 70 A C D 71 A 72 A C D 73 A 74 A C D 75 A 76 A 77 A 78 A C D 79 A 80 A C C

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D

D D

C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D

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