Mcat 6R

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MCAT
Practice Test 6R

Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

828-0690).

1
H
1.0

Periodic Table of the Elements

2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0

5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2

11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3

13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
Rb
85.5
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
41
Nb
92.9
42
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
Ru
101.1
45
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ag
107.9
48
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
50
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
54
Xe
131.3
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La*
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
(226)
89
Ac
(227)
104
Unq
(261)
105
Unp
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)

*
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0

90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 5
Passage I

Archaebacteria are often found in environments that
have extreme climatic conditions (e.g., in salt lakes or
in very acidic or alkaline hot springs). Most
archaebacteria are chemoautotrophs, bacteria that
obtain energy by a redox reaction. For example,
methanogens produce methane by metabolizing CO
2
.
The bond energy of C=O in CO
2
is 803 kJ/mol, and the
C-H bond energy in CH
4
is 414 kJ/mol.

Table 1 gives some of the chemical species that
scientists find in environments where archaebacteria
thrive.

Table 1 Chemicals
Name Formula
Methane CH
4

Glycine H
2
N-CH
2
-COOH
Potassium hydroxide KOH
Sulfuric acid H
2
SO
4

Carbon dioxide CO
2

Methanol CH
3
OH
Sodium chloride NaCl
Hydrogen sulfide H
2
S

The methane found in swamp gas is a byproduct of
methanogens, which are also found in a symbiotic
association with a variety of cellulose-digesting
organisms, including cows and termites. Carbon-14
isotopic analysis even suggests that methane found
deep in the earths crust might have been produced by
archaebacteria.

1. Scientists are most likely to find which compound
listed in Table 1 in an alkaline lake?
A ) NaCl
B ) CH
3
OH
C) H
2
SO
4
D ) KOH

2. What pair of compounds found in Table 1 can form
extensive networks of intermolecular hydrogen
bonds with both participating?
A) Methane and methanol
B) Methane and glycine
C) Glycine and methanol
D) Methanol and carbon dioxide

3. How does an atom of carbon-14 differ from the
most abundant isotope of carbon?
A) By one proton
B) By two protons
C) By one neutron
D) By two neutrons

4. If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is
0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?
A) 12
B) 6
C) 2
D) 0.01

5. Which of the following compounds has the same
geometry as methane?
A) H
2
S
B) CO
2
C) XeF
4
D) SiCl
4

6. Glycine passes through a very low pH membrane
channel in which form?
A) H
2
N-CH
2
-COOH
B) H
3
N
+
-CH
2
-COOH
C) H
2
N-CH
2
-COO
-
D) H
3
N
+
-CH
2
-COO
-

7. Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the
following elements can act as an electron acceptor?
A) S
B) He
C) H
2
D) Fe

Passage II

The periodic table arranges the elements by atomic
number, aligning those with similar chemical
properties in columns. A primitive version of the
periodic table was created by a Russian chemist in
1869, long before the electronic configuration of the
elements was known. Dimitri Mendeleev grouped the
elements by their chemical properties and found that
the properties varied periodically with the atomic mass.
Mendeleev left empty spaces for undiscovered
elements. His genius was confirmed when the elements
that filled these blanks were isolated.

Henry Moseley showed that periodicity is a function
not of atomic mass but of atomic number, as stated by
todays periodic law. The current periodic table
reflects this law. In 1985, an international committee
numbered the columns in the periodic table from 1 to
18 and abolished the A and B designations for main-
group and transition elements.

8. Which of the following atoms has the largest atomic
radius?
A ) Sodium
B ) Aluminum
C) Sulfur
D ) Chlorine

9. Which of the following atoms has the largest first
ionization energy?
A ) Potassium
B ) Zinc
C) Gallium
D ) Krypton

10. What is the sum of the protons, neutrons, and
electrons in strontium-90?
A ) 90
B ) 126
C) 128
D ) 218

11. What is the mass number of the isotope of
bromine that has 44 neutrons?
A) 35
B) 79
C) 80
D) 81

12. According to trends in electronegativity, which of
the following pairs of atoms is most likely to form
an ionic bond?
A) N and O
B) C and F
C) Ca and I
D) Si and Cl

Passage III

The Global Positioning System or GPS is based on
satellite radio ranging. A transmitter aboard each of the
24 satellites sends out a radio signal that specifies the
precise position of the satellite and the precise time the
signal was sent. The position is known from accurate
tracking by ground stations and the laws of orbital
mechanics, while synchronized cesium clocks aboard
each GPS satellite provide very accurate timing. Each
satellite has a mass of 1000 kg and orbits Earth in a
circle = 1.8 x 10
7
m above the surface of Earth (2.4 x
10
7
m from the center of Earth). It takes 12.4 hours to
complete this orbit.

The atomic clock is powered with a 5-g radioactive Cs
source. The transmitter is powered by a 1.32-V nickel-
cadmium battery. A radio receiver on Earth can be
used to calculate the distance to the satellite by
measuring the time difference between the broadcast
and reception because the signal travels at the speed of
light (3.0 x 10
8
m/s). When the distances to several
different satellites have been measuredat least four
satellites are visible from anywhere on Earth at all
timesthe receiver position can be determined by
triangulation. Timing corrections due to atmospheric
effects are usually accounted for by broadcasting the
GPS signals at two frequencies, one at 102.1 MHz and
another at 104.9 MHz.

13. For a GPS satellite that is at an angle of 40
o
from
Earths horizon, it takes 0.07 s for the radio signal
to reach a receiver. The distance between the
transmitter and the receiver is:
A ) 2.1 x 10
7
sin 40 m.
B ) 2.1 x 10
7
m.
C) 2.1 x 10
11
cos 40 m.
D ) 2.1 x 10
11
m.

14. A high-altitude GPS satellite is kept in a circular
orbit because Earths gravitational force:
A ) supplies the centrifugal force.
B ) offsets the atmospheric drag force.
C) offsets the moons gravitational force.
D ) supplies the centripetal force.

15. If a GPS satellite orbited at six times its present
distance from the center of Earth and was four
times more massive, by what factor would the
gravitational force between Earth and the satellite
change?
A) Decrease by a factor of 9
B) Increase by a factor of 9
C) Decrease by a factor of 2/3
D) Increase by a factor of 2/3

16. How much current from a Ni-Cd battery is drawn
by a radio transmitter that requires 3.96 W?
A) 1/9 A
B) 1/3 A
C) 3 A
D) 9 A

17. What beat frequency is detected in a receiver on
Earth from the two GPS radio signals used to
correct for atmospheric effects?
A) 0.7 x 10
6
Hz
B) 1.4 x 10
6
Hz
C) 2.8 x 10
6
Hz
D) 5.6 x 10
6
Hz

18. A GPS radio signal travels slower through Earths
atmosphere than it travels through the vacuum of
space primarily because:
A) the atmosphere is warmer than the vacuum of
space.
B) gravity is stronger in the atmosphere than in space.
C) the atmosphere steadily decreases the power in the
radio signal.
D) the atmosphere has a larger index of refraction than
does the vacuum of space.

19. How many years will pass before there are 0.625
grams of Cs remaining in the source, if Cs has a
half-life of 175 years?
A) 525 years
B) 650 years
C) 700 years
D) 1400 years

Passage IV

Olestra, a sucrose polyester, is the brand name of an
approved dietary fat replacement. The large-scale
synthesis of Olestra starts with a base-catalyzed
cleavage in methanol of the naturally occurring fats
(triacylglycerols or triglycerides) found in cottonseed
or soybean oils. The reaction liberates glycerine and
converts the fatty acids into methyl esters (Figure 1).

Figure 1 Base-catalyzed cleavage of a triacylglycerol
(R = CH
3
(CH
2
)
n
-; n = 8, 10, 12, etc.)

As glycerine settles out, a plant worker draws it off and
separates the methyl esters from the remaining mixture
by distillation. A reaction between these esters and
sucrose, common table sugar, in the presence of a basic
catalyst and emulsifiers at a high temperature liberates
methanol and produces crude Olestra. The removal of
excess fatty acids and emulsifiers produces pure
Olestra.

Normal edible fats contain three fatty acid units,
whereas Olestra, also a true fat, contains six to eight
fatty acid units bonded to the sugar backbone. Olestra
is not metabolized because the additional fatty acid
units block the approach of digestive enzymes to the
cleavage sites.

Because a calorie (1 cal = 4.185 J) is a very small unit
of energy, food scientists use the Calorie (1 Cal =
4,185 J) with a capital C. A 1-ounce bag of potato
chips contains about 160 Cal. A normal fat contains 9
Cal/g, whereas carbohydrates and proteins provide
about 4 Cal/g. (Note: For water, the heat of fusion is
1.4 kcal/mol, the specific heat is 4.185 J/g
o
C or 1
cal/g
o
C, and the density is 1.0 g/mL at 15
o
C. One kg
equals 2.2 pounds.)

20. According to the passage, which of the following
compounds can the worker use to catalyze the
cleavage of a triglyceride?
A) HCl(aq)
B) NaCl(aq)
C) NaOH(aq)
D) Na
2
SO
4
(aq)

21. What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut,
if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a calorimeter
increases by 50
o
C upon the combustion of 10
peanuts?
A) 0.5 kcal
B) 1 kcal
C) 5 kcal
D) 10 kcal

22. How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of
Olestra contribute to a human consumer?
A) 0 Cal
B) 4 Cal
C) 5 Cal
D) 9 Cal

23. The boiling point of glycerine in comparison with
that of isopropyl alcohol, (CH
3
)
2
CHOH, is:
A) more than 10
o
C higher.
B) less than 10
o
C higher.
C) less than 10
o
C lower.
D) more than 10
o
C lower.

24. How many pounds (lb) of methanol does a worker
need if a reaction requires 20 moles of methanol?
A) 0.003 lb
B) 1.4 lb
C) 2.9 x 10
5
lb
D) 1.4 x 10
6
lb


These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

25. Which of the following elements has the highest
electron affinity?
A ) Carbon
B ) Fluorine
C) Oxygen
D ) Magnesium

26.
Ag
+
+ e
-
Ag
E
o
= +0.80 V
Cu
+
+ e
-
Cu
E
o
= +0.52 V
Pb
2+
+ 2 e
-
Pb
E
o
= -0.13 V
Zn
2+
+ 2 e
-
Zn
E
o
= -0.76 V

With which of the above metals can copper form a
galvanic cell in which copper is reduced?
A ) With silver only
B ) With lead only
C) With lead and zinc
D ) With silver and zinc

27. Which of the following expressions correctly
describes the relationship between the frequency f
and the period T of a sinusoidal wave?
A ) fT = 1
B ) f/T = 1
C) f+ T = 1
D ) f T = 1

28. Suppose that a ball is thrown vertically upward
from earth with velocity v, and returns to its
original height in a timet. If the value of g were
reduced to g/6 (as on the moon), then t would:
A ) increase by a factor of 6.
B ) increase by a factor of 6
1/2
.
C) decrease by a factor of 6.
D ) decrease by a factor of 6
1/2
.

Passage V

In 1622, a Spanish ship carrying a cargo of silver
crashed on a coral reef near Cuba and sank. The ship
was laden with hardwood boxes of silver coins. The
boxes came to rest on the ocean floor and began to
decay. At first, aerobic microorganisms thrived but, as
the concentration of oxygen decreased, these
organisms died. Subsequently, sulfur-loving bacteria
began to flourish.

These sulfur bacteria consumed sulfate ions in
seawater and excreted the weak acid H
2
S, as shown in
Equation 1.

SO
4
2-
(aq) + 2 H
+
(aq) + 4 H
2
(g) H
2
S(aq) + 4 H
2
O(l)
Equation 1

The excreted H
2
S then reacted with silver, which has a
standard reduction potential of +0.80 V. One of the
products was a black precipitate of Ag
2
S and the other
was hydrogen gas, as shown in Equation 2.

2 Ag(s) + H
2
S(aq) Ag
2
S(s) + H
2
(g)
Equation 2

The hydrogen from this reaction provided additional
food for the sulfur microorganisms and accelerated the
corrosion of the silver coins. When the silver coins
were completely coated with Ag
2
S, the corrosive
reaction stopped.

Because the seawater contained small amounts of CO
2
(the solubility of CO
2
is 0.145 g/100 g H
2
O at 25
o
C and
1.00 atm), bicarbonate ions were formed by the
reaction shown in Equation 3.

H
2
O(l) + CO
2
(g) H
+
(aq) + HCO
3
-
(aq)
Equation 3

These bicarbonate ions combined with calcium to form
the insoluble CaCO
3
, which crystallized, encapsulating
the coins, sand, and decaying matter into rock-like
clumps. The explorers who discovered the treasure
found these rock-like structures.

29. The formation of Ag
2
S is an example of what kind
of reaction?
A) A combination reaction
B) A decomposition reaction
C) A single replacement reaction
D) A double replacement reaction

30. What is the maximum number of grams of H
2
S
that can be produced from 2 mol of sulfate ions by
the reaction of Equation 1?
A) 68 g
B) 34 g
C) 96 g
D) 192 g

31. To a first approximation, the ionization constant of
H
2
S is:
A) near zero.
B) much less than 1.
C) about 1.
D) much more than 1.

32. Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride are both
soluble in water. Which of the following equations
shows the net ionic reaction between these two
compounds?
A)
2 Na
+
(aq) + CO
3
2-
(aq) Na
2
CO
3
(s)
B)
Ca
2+
(aq) + CO
3
2-
(aq) CaCO
3
(s)
C)
Na
+
(aq) + Cl
-
(aq) NaCl(s)
D)
Ca
2+
(aq) + Cl
-
(aq) CaCl
2
(s)

33. What species is the reducing agent in Equation 2?
A) S
2-
B) H
2
S
C) H
+
D) Ag

Passage VI

The physics of stringed instruments has been studied
for almost as long as the instruments themselves have
been played. The most studied stringed instruments are
in the violin family. This family consists of four
instruments: the violin, the viola, the cello, and the
bass. Each of these instruments has four strings. The
fundamental tones of these strings are separated by a
perfect fifth, which means the fundamental frequency
of each string is 2/3 that of the next higher frequency
string. The tones are created when the bow is dragged
across the strings, a move called bowing.

The violin is the most popular instrument in the family.
Its strings are tuned with decreasing frequency to the
notes E, A, D, G, where A has a frequency of 440 Hz.
The strings of the viola are at A, D, G, C. The cello is
tuned one octave below the viola, which means the
frequencies of the cello strings are half that of the viola
strings. Finally, the bass is tuned two perfect fifths
below the cello.

The fundamental frequency f of a string is given by its
length L, tension T, and mass per unit length as

f= (T/)
1/2
/(2L).

Scientists have studied in great detail how violins
produce sound. The best violins produce loud tones
over the full frequency range of the instrument,
whereas poor instruments do not. Minor changes in the
thickness and density of the wood can produce
significant differences in an instruments sound.
Despite much research, scientists have not been able to
create violins that sound as pure and clear as those of
the great violinmaker Stradivarius. It seems that
despite all our scientific advances, there is still much to
learn about these musical instruments.

34. By what factor would a strings tension need to be
changed to raise its fundamental frequency by a
perfect fifth?
A ) 2/3
B ) (2/3)
1/2
C) 3/2
D ) 9/4

35. A way to make lower-toned instruments would be
to use:
A) heavier wood in the violin.
B) thicker wood in the violin.
C) heavier strings on the violin.
D) denser wood in the violin.

36. A good violin body is one that has good resonance
at the fundamental frequencies of:
A) the middle strings.
B) the highest frequency string.
C) the lowest frequency string.
D) all the strings.

37. The fundamental frequency of the A string on a
cello is:
A) 110 Hz.
B) 220 Hz.
C) 440 Hz.
D) 880 Hz.

38. The fundamental notes of a violins strings are at:
A) 98 Hz, 65 Hz, 43 Hz, 29 Hz.
B) 220 Hz, 147 Hz, 98 Hz, 65 Hz.
C) 440 Hz, 293 Hz, 196 Hz, 130 Hz.
D) 660 Hz, 440 Hz, 293 Hz, 196 Hz.

Passage VII

To model thermal motion of atoms in solids, let us
assume that each atom can oscillate about its
equilibrium position. Interactions with neighboring
atoms hold it in place allowing most motion in a single
preferred direction marked by x in Figure 1. The effect
of the neighboring atoms is described, for small
oscillations, by two springs of length l as shown. We
denote the atoms mass by M. Each spring is
characterized by the spring constant K, so that the
restoring force it applies on the atom is K|x| in
magnitude, and is opposite in direction to the
displacement x.

The potential energy of each spring is given by Kx
2
/2.
An atom oscillates back and forth between its maximal
displacements x = A and A, with frequency f, where A
is the amplitude of the motion. The time to complete
one oscillation is the period T. Experimentally, such
solids have internal energy nR(t + 273), where n is the
number of moles in the sample, R = 8.3 J/(mol
o
C) is
the gas constant, and t is the temperature in
o
C. Usually,
A < l; the solid melts when the amplitude increases to l.
(Avogadro constant is N = 6 x 10
23
per mole.)

Figure 1 Model of an atom in a solid

39. What is the effective spring constant of the system
of two springs shown in Figure 1?
A ) K
B ) 2K
C) K/2
D ) 0

40. The frequency and period of the oscillatory
motion:
A ) have the same units.
B ) are proportional to each other.
C) are equal.
D ) are the inverse of each other.

41. The motion for small displacements x is
characterized by two dimensional constants, K and
M. Identify by dimensional argument the correct
formula from which the period T can be
calculated.
A) (T/)
2
= 4K/M
B) (T/)
2
= 4KM
C) (T/)
2
= 4M/K
D) (T/)
2
= 4/(KM)

42. In the oscillatory motion of an atom described by
the model, what quantity is conserved?
A) Total energy
B) Potential energy
C) Linear momentum
D) Angular momentum

43. The spring constant K can be computed from the
internal energy E
int
and the amplitude A computed
by:
A) K = A
2
E
int
.
B) K = AE
int
.
C) K = E
int
/A.
D) K = E
int
/A
2
.

44. The specific heat of a solid has the SI units:
A) Jkg K.
B) J/(kgK).
C) Jkg/K.
D) kgK/J.

45. The present model is limited to solids. Why can it
NOT describe monoatomic gases?
A) The atoms of a gas are not restricted to move near
fixed positions in space.
B) The spacing of atoms in a typical gas is much larger
than that in a typical solid.
C) Gases do not melt.
D) Most gases are transparent.

Passage VIII

Inorganic compounds with ring systems that contain
alternating boron (B) and phosphorus (P) atoms can be
synthesized under anhydrous conditions. Figure 1
shows the structures of compounds 1 and 2.

Figure 1 Compounds 1 and 2
(R = isopropyl = iso-C
3
H
7
)

Equations 1a and 1b show the synthesis of Compound
1, which contains a four-membered ring, and Equation
2 shows the synthesis of Compound 2, which contains
a six-membered ring.

2 R
2
NBCl
2
+ 5 LiPH 4 LiCl + 3 PH
3
+ Intermediate
Equation 1a

Intermediate + HCl LiCl + Compound 1
Equation 1b

3 R
2
NBCl
2
+ 6 LiPH
2
6 LiCl + 3 PH
3
+ Compound 2
Equation 2

Table 1 shows structural data for compounds 1 and 2.

Table 1 Structural Data for Compounds 1 and 2
Compound
Average
B-P
bond
length
(pm)
Average
B-N
bond
length
(pm)
Ring
geometry
Geometry
of
boron
Geometry
of
phosphorus
1 193 138 Planar Trigonal
planar
Trigonal
pyramidal
2 194 139 Puckered Trigonal
planar
Trigonal
pyramidal

Table 2 shows how bond length varies with bond order
for both boron-phosphorus (B-P) and boron-nitrogen
(B-N) bonds. The data come from experimental studies,
as well as theoretical calculations on the hypothetical
molecules H
2
BPH
2
and HBPH.

Table 2 Bond Order versus Bond Length
B-P
Bond order
B-P
Bond length
(pm)
B-N
Bond order
B-N
Bond length
(pm)
1.0 190 1.0 142
2.0 181 2.0 130
3.0 165

46. What formula is the same for compounds 1 and 2?
A) Valence-bond
B) Empirical
C) Molecular
D) Structural

47. What is the maximum volume of PH
3
(g) that a
chemist can obtain from the reaction shown by
Equation 1a, if 0.005 mol LiPH
2
reacts with 0.002
mol R
2
NBCl
2
at 0
o
C and 1 atm?
A) 0.672 mL
B) 6.72 mL
C) 67.2 mL
D) 67.2 L

48. Phosphine (PH
3
) has which of the following Lewis
structures?
A )
B )
C)
D )

49.

The above plot shows how the volume of a 1.0-g
sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies
with temperature at constant pressure. Where on
the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample
of Compound 2 appear?
A ) Below the plot for Compound 1
B ) Above the plot for Compound 1
C) Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1
D ) Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its
midpoint with an opposite slope.



50. Which of the following chemical species is NOT
isoelectronic with a neon atom?
A ) He
B ) F
-

C) Mg
2+
D ) Na
+

51. A mass is lifted from the ground to an altitude h
1
,
requiring work W
1
. The work to lift an identical
mass to an altitude h
2
is W
2
. If h
2
is twice h
1
, what
is the ratio of W
2
to W
1
? (Note: Assume that the
force of gravity does not change between h
1
and
h
2
.)
A ) 1:2
B )
C)
D ) 2:1

52. Gas X has a density of 1.44 g/L and gas Y has a
density of 1.54 g/L. Which gas diffuses faster?
A ) Gas X, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
Y
B ) Gas X, because it has a higher molar mass than gas
Y
C) Gas Y, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
X
D ) Gas Y, because it has a higher molar mass than gas
X

53. A reaction is designed to produce ammonia from
the gas phase equilibrium of nitrogen and
hydrogen.

N
2
(g) + 3 H
2
(g) 2 NH
3
(g)

Introducing a catalyst into the system will cause
the amount of ammonia at equilibrium:
A) to increase.
B) to remain the same.
C) to decrease.
D) to change in a manner which depends on the value
of the equilibrium constant.

54. A solid body can be in rotational equilibrium only
when:
A) it has zero angular momentum.
B) it is in free fall.
C) its external forces sum to zero.
D) its external torques sum to zero.

Passage IX

The head of a comet in orbit around the sun consists of
a solid nucleus, typically of radius 10100 km,
surrounded by a tenuous cloud of dust particles and gas.
This cloud, or coma, conceals the interior of the
nucleus so that its size and nature can only be inferred.
There are two models of cometary nuclei: (1) a rubble
pile, a loose agglomeration of rocks and gravel, or (2)
a dirty snowball, bits of rock held in a matrix of frozen
H
2
O, CH
4
, and NH
3
, called ices.

Calculations based on Newtons law of gravity do not
predict cometary orbits precisely. There are
unanticipated slight deviations in their orbits. These
deviations imply that nongravitational forces are also
involved. The dirty-snowball model nicely explains
these effects: Sunlight warms the surface of the
nucleus, causing the various frozen solids to sublimate,
i.e., go directly from the solid phase to the vapor phase
without passing through the liquid phase. As the gases
leave, they exert perturbing forces on the cometary
nucleusmuch as an attached rocket engine would.

The rubble-pile model does not explain the orbital
deviations; therefore it has generally been abandoned.
However, when Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 struck
Jupiter in July 1994, the theory was revived. The
cometary fragments exploded considerably higher in
the atmosphere of the planet than predicted by the
dirty-snowball model, suggesting that the nucleus of
the comet was not very cohesive.

Comets become visible to the unaided eye when, under
the influence of radiation and the steady outstreaming
of ionized hydrogen from the sun (the solar wind), the
coma forms and extends into a vast, long tail of gas
and dust. However, nearly all of the mass of the comet
remains concentrated in the nucleus.

55. The perturbing force resulting from sublimation in
the dirty-snowball model is accounted for directly
by which of Newtons laws?
A) The law of inertia (Newtons 1st law)
B) The law relating force, mass and acceleration
(Newtons 2nd law)
C) The law relating action and reaction (Newtons 3rd
law)
D) The law of gravitation (Newtons inverse-square
law)

56. In the dirty-snowball model, does the perturbing
force on the comet due to sublimation act in any
preferred direction?
A) No, because the nucleus tends to have a roughly
spherical surface
B) No, because the sun radiates with equal intensity in
all directions
C) Yes, more or less outward from the sun because of
shadowing effects
D) Yes, more or less toward the sun because of the
temperature gradient

57. In space, frozen H
2
O, CH
4
, and NH
3
undergo
sublimation because:
A) this is characteristic of hydrogen compounds.
B) the pressure in space is extremely low.
C) of the effectively zero-gravity environment.
D) of bombardment by solar-wind particles.

58. A dirty-snowball cometary nucleus would be
expected to disintegrate less readily in the
atmosphere of Jupiter than a rubble-pile nucleus of
the same mass would because:
A) a rubble-pile nucleus has only gravitational forces
to hold it together.
B) a rubble-pile nucleus would be incapable of
inelastic collisions.
C) a dirty-snowball nucleus initially would have a
lower temperature.
D) a dirty-snowball nucleus would be incapable of
inelastic collisions.

59. Because comets shine predominantly by reflected
sunlight, what one sees when viewing a comet is:
A ) the coma gas.
B ) the coma dust.
C) the tail gas.
D ) the ices.

60. What new information would help decide between
the two models discussed in the passage?
A ) Laboratory measurement of the melting points of
the ices
B ) Spectroscopic studies of the coma
C) Spectroscopic studies of the nucleus
D ) More precise observations of a comet orbit

Passage X

A student conducts an experiment to determine the
solubility product constant, K
sp
, for lead(II) iodide,
PbI
2
. The student adds an excess of PbI
2
(s) to a known
amount of water, heats the slurry to 50
o
C, stirs it for 10
min, and then allows the mixture to cool and
equilibrate at 25
o
C. Equation 1 shows the equilibrium
that exists between the undissolved solid and the ions
in solution.

PbI
2
(s) Pb
2+
(aq) + 2 I
-
(aq)
Equation 1

The student carefully transfers a known volume of the
supernatant solution to a flask containing an aqueous
mixture of nitric acid and potassium nitrite. These
reagents convert the iodide in the solution into the red-
brown molecular iodine (Equation 2).

2 I
-
(aq) + 2 NO
2
-
(aq) + 4 H
+
(aq)
I
2
(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 2 H
2
O()
(K
eq
= 5 x 10
15
)
Equation 2

The student determines the absorbance of the iodine
solution at 525 nm and finds the corresponding iodide
concentration from a calibration curve that relates the
absorbance of iodine to the iodide concentration. The
student averages the iodide concentrations of three
trials and determines the molar solubility, S, of PbI
2
(s)
in water to be 1.89 x 10
-3
at 25
o
C.

In a similar experiment, the student determines the K
sp

of lead(II) bromide to be 4.6 x 10
-6
at 25
o
C.

61. What equation shows the correct K
sp
of lead(II)
iodide as a function of its molar solubility, S?
A ) K
sp
= S
B ) K
sp
= S
2
C) K
sp
= 4S
3
D ) K
sp
= S
1/3
/4

62. Will lead(II) bromide precipitate if the student
mixes a 0.0001 M solution of Pb
2+
(aq) with a
0.00005 M solution of Br
-
(aq)?
A) Yes, because the ion product exceeds the K
sp
B) Yes, because the K
sp
exceeds the ion product
C) No, because the ion product exceeds the K
sp
D) No, because the K
sp
exceeds the ion product

63. How many grams of lead(II) iodide are present in
100 mL of a saturated aqueous solution?
A) 0.0410 g
B) 0.0871 g
C) 2.470 g
D) 8.71 g

64. According to the K
eq
for Equation 2, about what
percentage of I
-
(aq) is converted into I
2
(aq)?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%

65. What expression equals the K
sp
of lead(II)
bromide?
A) 1/[Pb
2+
][Br
-
]
B) [Pb
2+
][Br
-
]
C) [Pb
2+
]
2
[Br
-
]
D) [Pb
2+
][Br
-
]
2

Passage XI

A scientist uses an apparatus as sketched in Figure 1 to
measure the relative amounts of different nuclear
isotopes in a sample. Atoms are ionized by removing
electrons. A short pulse of ionized atoms is injected
into the region between two accelerating plates. The
plates are separated by a distance d, and have a voltage
V between them. When an ion of charge Q and mass M
is accelerated in this region, it acquires a kinetic
energy equal to the product of its charge and the
accelerating voltage

Mv
2
/2 = QV

with v being the ion velocity.

The ion then travels a distance to the end of the
apparatus where a detector records its arrival time
relative to the injection time. Isotopes of an element
have different velocities and consequently arrive at the
detector at different times.

A sample of lithium atoms was measured. Figure 2
shows a spectrum of the number of ions detected
versus their time of flight. The location of each peak
depends on the mass and charge of the ion. Peaks 3
and 4 are the peaks expected for the two, singly-
ionized isotopes of lithium,
6
Li
+
and
7
Li
+
, respectively.

Figure 1 Isotope spectrometer

Figure 2 Time-of-flight spectrum


66. In order to accelerate the ions in the correct
direction, the electric field in the region between
the two plates of the device in Figure 1 should be
directed toward:
A ) the top of the figure.
B ) the bottom of the figure.
C) the left of the figure.
D ) the right of the figure.

67. The 6 in
6
Li refers to:
A ) the number of protons.
B ) the number of neutrons.
C) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
D ) the number of protons minus the number of
neutrons.

68. A decrease in the voltage between the two plates
in the device would cause what change in the
measured times-of-flight?
A ) Measured times would increase for each peak.
B ) Measured times would decrease for each peak.
C) Times for some peaks would increase, times for
others would decrease.
D ) Measured times would not change.

69. Assuming equal masses, how would the detection
times of
3
H
+
and
3
He
+
compare?
A )
3
H would have a longer flight time than
3
He.
B )
3
H would have a shorter flight time than
3
He.
C)
3
H would have the same flight time as
3
He.
D ) The radioactive
3
H would always decay before
detection.

70. Which peaks in Figure 2 correspond to the doubly-
ionized lithium isotopes?
A ) 2, 3
B ) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D ) 1, 2

71. Peak 5 in Figure 2 originates from a different
atomic species. Given where the peak appears, and
assuming that it corresponds to singly ionized
atoms, we can say that atoms of this species
probably have:
A) more protons and more neutrons than
7
Li.
B) more protons and fewer neutrons than
7
Li.
C) fewer protons and more neutrons than
7
Li.
D) fewer protons and fewer neutrons than
7
Li.



72. Which of the following substances is most likely
to be more soluble in 1.0 M HCl than in 1.0 M
NaOH?
A ) AgCl
B ) Pb(OH)
2
C) CaF
2
D ) HI

73. Which of the following statements best explains
why the intensity of sound heard is less when a
wall is placed between a source of sound and the
listener?
A ) Sound travels more slowly in a solid than in air.
B ) The frequency of sound is lower in a solid than in
air.
C) Part of the sound energy is reflected by the solid.
D ) The wavelength of sound is shorter in a solid than
in air.

74. Hookes law relates stress (force/unit area) and
strain (elongation/unit length) with Youngs
modulus Y by the expression, F/A= YL/L.
Suppose a mass M suspended by a wire of length L
and radius R stretches the wire by an amount L.
By how much will M stretch a wire of the same
material with double the length and double the
radius?
A ) L/4
B ) L/2
C) 2L
D ) 4L

75. An electrochemical cell is designed to produce
pure copper from CuSO
4
. An increase in which of
the following cell conditions will most effectively
increase the rate at which pure copper is
produced?
A ) The concentration of SO
4
2+
(aq)
B ) The current of electricity
C) The size of the cathode
D ) The size of the anode

76. In a healthy person standing at rest, a comparison
of arterial blood pressure measured in the arm with
that measured in the leg shows that the pressure in
the leg is:
A) lower, because the blood flow rate is less.
B) lower, because viscous flow resistance causes
pressure loss.
C) the same, because viscous pressure loss precisely
compensates the hydrostatic pressure increase.
D) greater, because the column of blood between the
arm and the leg has a hydrostatic pressure.

77. Electric power for transmission over long
distances is stepped up to a very high voltage in
order:
A) to produce currents of higher density.
B) to produce higher currents in the transmission
wires.
C) to make less insulation necessary.
D) to cut down the heat loss in the transmission wires.

Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

828-0690).

Passage I

In the years before the turn of the century, the
Mediterranean fleet, the cream of the navy, reached a
peak of Victorian splendor. The great ships would
silently appear from over the horizon to manifest the
majesty and power of England. Gold-encrusted
admirals came ashore to call on local dignitaries,
officers to attend balls, play polo, or hunt snipe. Fierce
competition in sail drill gave way to equally passionate
competition among ships in races at fleet regattas or
timed coaling contests.

The fiercest competition of all was in polishing the
ships. Every metal surface in the Mediterranean fleet
blazed like the sun. Battleship and cruiser crews
devoted enormous energy to burnishing the great guns.
Massive armored watertight doors were taken off their
hinges and filed and rubbed until they gleamedand
were no longer watertight. On some ships, even the
ring bolts on deck were polished and fitted with little
flannel nightcaps to protect them from salt air between
inspections.

This cult of brightwork originated in the need to keep
the men busy. When sails gave way to steam, the time
given to tending the rigging, furling and mending sails,
straightening and coiling ropes was given instead to
polishing. The process made mens hands and clothes
filthy with metal polish, and as soon as salt spray hit
the gleaming metal, copper turned green again and
brass blue. A sparkling ship reflected well on the
captain and his second in command, and commanders
spent large sums out of their private pockets, often far
more than they could afford. It was customary, wrote
Sir Percy Scott, for a commander to spend half his
pay in buying paint to adorn Her Majestys ships, as it
was the only road to promotion.

Appearances were often deceiving. When I went to
sea in 1895, wrote Vice Admiral K. G. B. Dewar, an
air of spic and span smartness became the criterion by
which ships were judged. In my first ship . . . the
basins in the gunroom latrine had to be polished till
they shone like mirrors, the doors being locked to
prevent them being used. . . . . The Hawke glistened . . .
but she was infested with rats which contaminated the
food, ran over the hammocks, and swarmed into the
gunroom at night.

One aspect of shipboard life that no one worried much
about was gunnery; the few officers who did worry
were ridiculed as fanatics. The most persuasive reason
was that firing the guns spread dirt and grime. Wrote
Scott acidly, the powder then used had a most
deleterious effect on the paintwork, and one
commander who had his whole ship enameled told me
that it cost him a hundred pounds to repaint her after
target practice.

Gunnery could not be wholly avoided, as admiralty
orders decreed that target practice be held once every
three months. No one except the gunnery lieutenant
took much interest in the results, recalled Admiral Sir
Reginald Tyrwhitt. Polo and pony racing were much
more important than gun drill. Nevertheless, the
ammunition had to be disposed of. On the designated
day, the flagship hoisted the signal. Ships then steamed
off in all directions and did as they liked. Many simply
loaded the guns and pumped three months allowance
of ammunition at the horizon. A few ships quietly
dumped the shells overboard. There was little risk;
admirals understood the nasty way the gun smoke
dirtied a ship. Indeed, when flagships engaged in target
practice, their admirals often remained ashore to
escape the din.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from the
following source:
R. K. Massie, Dreadnought: Britain, Germany, and the Coming of
the Great War. 1991 by R. K. Massie.

78. Which of the following items of passage
information provides the LEAST support for the
authors thesis?
A) Hatch doors were not always waterproof.
B) Unused ammunition was dropped overboard.
C) Crews competed in the loading of coal.
D) Areas of a ship were sometimes inaccessible to the
crew.

79. Before the wooden-hulled sailing ships were
completely replaced by metal-hulled steamships,
the British fleet included hybrid ships with both
sails and steam engines. The most reasonable
expectation on the basis of passage information is
that officers on these ships avoided using:
A ) the engines because of respect for the British
sailing tradition.
B ) the engines because of concern about the effect of
smoke on the sails.
C) the sails because of the sailors lack of training in
handling the rigging.
D ) the sails because of enthusiasm for the efficiency of
the new technology.

80. In 1904, a recently appointed first lord of the
admiralty attempted to improve the preparedness
of the navy despite strong opposition. One could
infer from the passage that the reform proposals
focused on:
I. the establishment of strict gunnery
practice.
II. an emphasis on practicality over
appearance.
III. the elimination of busywork chores and
ceremony.
A ) II only
B ) III only
C) I and II only
D ) I and III only

81. Which of the following underlying reasons for the
practices described in the passage is the most
reasonable?
A ) A gleaming, majestic Mediterranean fleet had an
important political value.
B ) The naval officers were following the misguided
demands of the queen.
C) The admiralty wanted to avoid expenditures on
ammunition and repainting after gunnery practice.
D ) The British navy was so superior to any other that
military drills were unnecessary.

82. The authors apparent point in referring to the
polishing of the ring bolts is that:
A) absurd measures were taken to preserve
appearances.
B) innovative methods were developed to meet
distinctive challenges.
C) beautification measures could interfere with
function.
D) naval standards were meticulous in the smallest
details.

83. If the passage information is correct, what
inference is justified by the fact that British
warships functioned well in World War I, fifteen
years after the period described?
A) The expertise of naval officers at the turn of the
century compensated for the inadequate training of
their crews.
B) The battle conditions for which the navy had
prepared at the turn of the century were those it
encountered in the war.
C) The complaints of gunnery officers about the
preparation of their crews had been heeded.
D) The navy of the German invaders had been trained
by the methods described in the passage.

Passage II

Party identification in the United States is a relatively
uncomplicated measure determined by responses to the
following questions:

Generally speaking, do you usually think of
yourself as a Republican, a Democrat, an
independent, or what?
(If R or D) Would you call yourself a strong (R),
(D) or a not very strong (R), (D)?
(If independent) Do you think of yourself as closer
to the Republican party or to the Democratic party?

As this self-identification measure of party loyalty is
the best indicator of partisanship, political analysts
commonly refer to partisanship and party identification
interchangeably. Partisanship is the most important
influence on political opinions and voting behavior.
Many other influences are at work on voters in U.S.
society, and partisanship varies in its importance in
different types of election and in different time periods;
nevertheless, no single factor compares in significance
with partisanship.

Partisanship represents the feeling of sympathy for and
loyalty to a political party that an individual acquires
(probably) during childhood and holds (often) with
increasing intensity throughout life. This self-image as
a Democrat or a Republican is useful to the individual
in a special way. For example, individuals who think
of themselves as Republicans or Democrats respond to
political information partially by using party
identification to orient themselves, reacting to new
information in such a way that it fits in with the ideals
and feelings they already have. A Republican who
hears a Republican party leader advocate a policy has a
basis in party loyalty for supporting that policy, quite
apart from other considerations. A Democrat may feel
favorably inclined toward a candidate for office
because that candidate bears the Democrat label.
Partisanship may orient individuals in their political
environment, but it may also distort their picture of
reality.

An underlying partisanship is also of interest to
political analysts because it provides a base against
which to measure deviations in particular elections. In
other words, the individual voters longstanding
loyalty to one party means that, other things being
equal, or in the absence of disrupting forces, he or she
can be expected to vote for that party. However, voters
are responsive to a great variety of other influences
that can either strengthen or weaken their tendency to
vote for their usual party. Obvious variations occur
from election to election in such factors as the
attractiveness of the candidates, the impact of foreign
and domestic policy issues, and purely local
circumstances. These current factors, often called
short-term forces, may move voters away from their
normal party choices.

These ideas can also be used in understanding the
behavior of the electorate as a whole. If one added up
the political predispositions of all the individuals in the
electorate, one would have an expected vote or
normal vote. This is the electoral outcome to be
expected if all voters voted their party identification.
Departures from this expected vote in actual elections
represent the impact of short-term forces, such as
issues or candidates.

following source:
W.H. Flanigan and N.H. Zingale, Political behavior of the
American electorate. 1991 by Congressional Quarterly.

84. According to the passage, one drawback of
partisanship is that it can:
A) cause voters to react to political information on the
basis of their personal feelings.
B) distort voters views of reality.
C) orient voters in their political environment.
D) make voters vulnerable to short-term forces.

85. According to the passage, partisanship is of
interest to political analysts because:
A) it provides a base against which electoral
fluctuations can be measured.
B) it helps identify the short-term forces that affect
voters decisions.
C) it represents a relatively complex measure of party
identification.
D) it reveals the political climate in which an
individual voter was reared.

86. According to passage information, which of the
following factors would be most likely to cause a
voter to choose a candidate from a party other than
the voters party?
A ) A local scandal involving officials of the voters
party
B ) Pressure from a political action committee
C) Opinions of the voters family members
D ) Campaign advertising by the opposing party

87. In 1952, despite a substantial Democratic majority
among U.S. voters, a Republican president,
Dwight Eisenhower, was elected. Given the
information in the passage, this result was
probably due to:
A ) a wholesale shift in party loyalty among registered
Democrats.
B ) low voter interest in the campaign.
C) personal qualities that made Eisenhower an
especially attractive candidate.
D ) a lack of pressing domestic issues facing the
country.

88. On the basis of information in the passage, one
would generally expect the content of a campaign
advertisement attacking an opposing candidate to
be received most favorably by:
A ) voters in the party sponsoring the ad.
B ) voters disaffected by the political process.
C) voters in the party being attacked in the ad.
D ) independent voters.

89. If the information is correct, one could most
reasonably conclude that, compared to partisan
voters, independent voters:
A ) care less about politics.
B ) take longer to evaluate political information.
C) are less susceptible to the influence of short-term
factors.
D ) exhibit basically the same political behavior.

90. According to the passage, the effect of short-term
forces on an election would be determined by
measuring:
A) the political predispositions of all individuals in the
electorate.
B) the voters views on foreign and domestic policy.
C) the state of the economy in the days preceding the
election.
D) the difference between election results and the
voters party identifications.

Passage III

Words provide clues about their history when
etymology does not match current meaning. Thus, we
suspect that emoluments were once fees paid to the
local miller (from the Latin molere, to grind).
Evolutionists have always viewed linguistic change as
a fertile field for meaningful analogies. Charles
Darwin, advocating an evolutionary interpretation for
such vestigial structures as the human appendix and
the embryonic teeth of whalebone whales, wrote:
Rudimentary organs may be compared with the letters
in a word still retained in the spelling but become
useless in the pronunciation but which serve as a clue
in seeking for its derivation.

Scientists who study history, particularly an ancient
and unobservable history, must use inferential rather
than observational or experimental methods. They
must examine modern results of historical processes
and try to reconstruct the path leading from ancestral to
contemporary words, organisms, or land forms. Once
the path is traced, we may be able to specify the causes
that led history to follow this, rather than another, route.
But how can we infer pathways from modern results?
In particular, how can we be sure that there was a
pathway at all? How do we know that a modern result
is the product of alteration through history and not an
immutable part of a changeless universe?

This is the problem that Darwin faced, for his
creationist opponents did view each species as
unaltered from its initial formation. How did Darwin
prove that modern species are the products of history?
We might suppose that he looked toward the most
impressive results of evolution, the complex and
perfected adaptations of organisms to their
environments: the butterfly passing for a dead leaf, the
bittern for a branch, the superb engineering of a gull
aloft or a tuna in the sea.

Paradoxically, he did just the opposite. He searched for
oddities and imperfections. The gull may be a marvel
of design; if one believes in evolution beforehand, then
the engineering of its wing reflects the shaping power
of natural selection. But you cannot demonstrate
evolution with perfection because perfection need not
have a history. After all, perfection of organic design
had long been the favorite argument of creationists,
who saw in consummate engineering the direct hand of
a divine architect. A birds wing, as an aerodynamic
marvel, might have been created exactly as we find it
today.

But, Darwin reasoned, if organisms have a history,
then ancestral stages should leave remnants behind.
Remnants of the past that do not make sense in present
termsthe useless, the odd, the peculiar, the
incongruousare the signs of history. They supply
proof that the world was not made in its present form.
Why should a general word for monetary
compensation refer literally to a profession now
virtually extinct, unless it once had some relation with
grinding and grain? And why should the fetus of a
whale make teeth in its mothers womb only to resorb
them later and live a life sifting krill on a whalebone
filter, unless its ancestors had functional teeth and
those teeth survive as a remnant during a stage when
they do no harm?

No evidence for evolution pleased Darwin more than
the presence in nearly all organisms of rudimentary or
vestigial structures, parts in this strange condition,
bearing the stamp of unutility, as he put it. On my
view of descent with modification, the origin of
rudimentary organs is simple, he continued. They are
bits of useless anatomy, preserved as remnants of
functional parts in ancestors.

following source:
S.J. Gould, The Panda's Thumb: More Reflections in Natural
History. 1980 by S.J. Gould.

91. The passage suggests that creationists dislike the
idea that certain biological structures may be:
A) useless.
B) nonadaptive.
C) changeless.
D) ornamental.

92. The passage states that the whalebone whales
teeth are:
A ) employed mainly for grinding food.
B ) resorbed later in life.
C) evidence that the whale is evolving into a newer
form.
D ) used for sifting krill on a whalebone filter.

93. The passage suggests that the vestigial structures
present in nearly all organisms were once:
A ) rudimentary.
B ) nonadaptive.
C) immutable.
D ) functional.

94. The discussion of the history of the word
emolument is primarily intended to support the
authors claim that:
A ) language is a living structure.
B ) history is useless to science.
C) an organisms ancestral history can be inferred
from the imperfections it retains.
D ) changes in a word provide clues to its ancestral
history.

95. The example of the superb engineering of a gull
is most relevant to the authors assertion that a
perfect matching of an organism to its
environment:
A ) is impressive evidence of the shaping power of
natural selection.
B ) could not have been arrived at through creation by a
divine architect.
C) is an illusion, because species are constantly
evolving.
D ) can be used to support creationism as well as the
evolutionary position.

96. On the sole basis of the passage, which of the
following structures could most readily be used as
evidence for human evolution?
A) The brain, the bodys most highly developed organ
B) The opposable thumb, possessed by humans but not
by lower animals
C) The tonsils, which may be removed without
functional damage to the organism
D) The heart, which pumps the lifeblood throughout
the bodies of vertebrates

97. Zoologists state that direct evidence of evolution
through natural selection can be found in the form
of fossils embedded in sedimentary rocks. This
statement tends to challenge the authors assertion
that:
A) linguistic change is a fertile field for meaningful
analogies.
B) scientists who study history must use inferential
methods.
C) the world was not made in its present form.
D) the origin of rudimentary organs is simple.

Passage IV

Within Mary Shelleys novel Frankenstein, the world
is divided between the public realm and the private,
almost delusional, relation between Victor and the
monster, according to Jacques Lacan, a psychoanalytic
critic, between the symbolic and imaginary orders. On
the one hand, there are Alphonse Frankenstein, dutiful
father and judge, the families of the Frankensteins and
the De Laceys, the possibility of Victors marriage
with Elizabeth, the responsible science of M. Krempe,
and the operation of law in the trial of Justine and the
imprisonment of Victor. All these exemplify in varying
degrees a social order rooted in patriarchal marriage,
legality, and genital (phallic) sexuality. On the other
hand, there is the curious solitude of Victor and the
monster, neither of whom can ever belong to a family,
their endless fascination with each other, and their utter
incapacity to communicate their situation with anyone
else. Victors obsession with this imaginary double of
the self, outside of society and language, compels him
to resist or attack his father, friend, and potential wife
whenever they threaten that self.

The imaginary quality of Victors solitude is made
clear. As a young scholar, Victor studies neither the
structure of languages, nor the code of governments,
nor the politics of various states, all subjects
associated with the symbolic order, but rather the
physical secrets of the world. Moreover, within the
physical sciences, Victor pursues an outmoded,
erroneous, semimagical science in defiance of his
fathers prohibition, as if replaying the Oedipus
complex in his intellectual pursuits. In an unofficial,
magical nature, Victor hopes to recover the mother
who has died.

Victors search for a substitute mother does not take
the normative Oedipal path. Typically, the son
relinquishes his mother and desires a person who
resembles her. Margaret Homans argues that in effect
the son seeks a substitute for the physical mother in the
realm of language or social relations. Homans goes on
to propose that Victors development is quite typical,
because he attempts to recreate his mother in his
scientific, intellectual project and thus in the realm of
language.

But the authorized figure for the mother is Elizabeth,
not the monster; her personality and biography almost
duplicate Caroline Frankensteins, as if she is in fact
the perfect person to complete the Oedipal drama.
Victor resists the seemingly inevitable marriage to
Elizabeth, leaves home, and chooses another,
forbidden erotic object: the mystery of the way nature
works in her hiding placesthe mystery of the
feminine body. That is, he chooses to take exactly the
opposite of the typical path, spurning the social realm
in favor of the imaginary, bodily mother, whom he
attempts to recover by creating the monster.

This relation between the mother and monster is made
clear in the episodes surrounding Victors going to the
university. The break from the family represents
Victors entrance into the public world and his
separation from his mother. Thus her death
immediately before his leaving is highly appropriate; it
represents Victors accepting his place in the symbolic
order. Yet once he gets to the university he refuses to
partake in authorized scientific activities and falls prey
to his longing for forbidden knowledge. He identifies
with his mother, recovering her body in his own body
as he attempts to become pregnant himself, to labor in
childbirth, and to watch the child awaken, gesture, and
attempt to speak. As Ellen Moers has pointed out, this
story of monstrous creation is thus a birth myth built
around Mary Shelleys own experiences with
pregnancy and childbirth.

following source:
D. Collings, The monster and the imaginary mother: A Lacanian
reading of Frankenstein. 1992 by Bedford Books of St.
Martin's Press.

98. The author apparently believes that young men
normally resolve the Oedipus complex by:
A) defying their father and identifying with their
mother.
B) rejecting the symbolic order for the imaginary.
C) leaving the matriarchy to join the patriarchy.
D) leaving their mother and marrying someone like
her.

99. The author hints that the fact of the novels having
been written by a woman indicates that its plot is:
A ) an argument for the magical powers of nature.
B ) a denunciation of patriarchal attitudes.
C) evidence of the novelists feelings about giving
birth.
D ) a demonstration of womens skill with symbolic
language.

100. The passage suggests that family opposition to
Victors university studies results from his
fathers:
A ) distrust of the irreligious influence of modern
scientific ideas.
B ) concern that they represent rebellion against
accepted values.
C) fears that their illegal aspects will result in Victors
imprisonment.
D ) wish to protect Victors mother from knowledge of
his sexual motives.

101. Assume that a later, revised manuscript of
Shelleys Frankensteinis discovered. The single
plot change that would most compromise the
authors analysis would be that Victor:
A ) courts and marries Elizabeth.
B ) nurses his mother into old age.
C) is unable to animate the monster.
D ) creates and marries a female monster.

102. Apparently, the authors preferred approach to
the interpretation of a novel is to concentrate on:
A ) the social attitudes of the intended readers.
B ) the unconscious motives of the characters.
C) the socio-historical context of the plot.
D ) correspondences between the characters and the
novelist.

Passage V

Brand props have played a role in motion pictures for
many decades, appearing in films from the late 1940s.
The practice of using incidental properties with
recognizable labels in films began casually. Brand-
name items were simply donated, loaned, or purchased
for particular scenes to enhance their verisimilitude or
aesthetic qualities. Today, brand placement, the
purposeful placement of commercial products within
feature films, is a multimillion-dollar business, driven
by the need of marketers to increase their media
options for product exposure.

Brands can be integrated in a film in three ways: The
product itself may be used by an actor, a logo or
advertisement may be featured, or a sign may be
displayed in the background. For placements that are
directly purchased, fees are usually based on a
hierarchy of product treatments. Simple visual
exposure is the least expensive, verbal mention is
moderately priced, and character usage is the most
costly. Brand-placement has obvious advantages for
marketers, giving them captive audiences,
demonstrating the acceptance of their product in
naturalistic contexts, and providing greater consumer
reach than traditional media, thus providing relatively
cost-efficient advertising. For filmmakers, the
arrangement not only offsets production costs but
contributes to the realism of contemporary settings.

A number of studies have used paid focus groups and
in-depth interviews to clarify the way audiences
interpret brand placements in relation to movies, movie
viewing, and social experience. The results are
consistent. Older informants consider the use of brand
props an innovation that changes their movie-going
experience. They report feeling resistance, discomfort,
and concern. In contrast, younger informants consider
the appearance of name-brand products in the story an
acceptable and expected part of the movie-going
experience and not a change. For them, encounters
with familiar products are associated with feelings of
belonging, comfort, and security.

These findings convey a clear and convincing message:
The success of brand props in exerting persuasive
effects is not a matter of what the placements do to
movie audiences but what the audiences do with them.
The meaning and relevance of brands encountered in
films are not simply transmitted to viewers; rather,
viewers interpret these props as part of their own
everyday life, and in reflecting the viewers past,
present, and anticipated experiences, the props come to
life.

Critics label brand placement deceptive and insidiously
manipulative and want public officials to regulate or
even to ban the practice. One of our studies counters
the critics argument and suggests that their charge is
groundless. Criticism of brand placement as a
deceptive practice is based on the premise that the
appearance of brand props in movie scenes has a
causal relationship to buying behavior. Behind this
premise is the assumption that moviegoers are unaware
of the persuasive intent behind placements and are
nave about the practice in general.

But our interviews convincingly demonstrate that
moviegoers are more sophisticated in their
understanding of the practice than critics would have
public policy officials believe. As indicated by their
own comments, moviegoers are active interpreters, not
passive receivers, of movie presentations of brands.
Furthermore, they are not influenced uniformly by
these encounters, a finding that suggests a mitigating
effect by other factorse.g., perceived needs, self-
image, past experiences, plot context, and demographic
groupon any induced tendency to purchase the
product. The audience awareness of the persuasive
intention of brand props in fact promotes skepticism
and resistance to their persuasive influence. For
various reasons, moviegoers may allow themselves
certain indulgences in some buying situations, but they
are not deceived into rushing out of movie houses to
buy everything shown in a movie.

following source:
D.E. DeLorme & L.N. Reid, Moviegoers' experiences and
interpretations of brands in films revisited. 1999 by the
American Academy of Advertising.

103. Which of the following forms of film placement
would be the most effective for marketing
purposes, according to passage indications?
A ) A favorable reference to the product by a major
character
B ) A large billboard advertising the product shown as
a backdrop to the action
C) A close-up shot showing the product as a
significant element in the plot
D ) A minor character shown casually using the
product

104. The authors attitude toward brand placement in
motion pictures is most accurately described as:
A ) favorable.
B ) neutral.
C) mistrustful.
D ) disapproving.

105. According to passage information, the brand
placement phenomenon is growing primarily
because:
A ) marketers want alternative ways of advertising.
B ) it lowers production costs for film companies.
C) it helps directors to achieve realistic scenes.
D ) increased sales result from the practice.

106. According to the author, the general effect of
brand placement on film audiences is:
A ) a sense of psychological benefits from brand
recognition.
B ) an acceptance of such displays as legitimate
advertising.
C) a resistance to the intended effect on consumption.
D ) a reluctance to attend films meant to sell products.

107. What is the most serious apparent weakness of
the research described?
A) The participants were told that brand props have a
commercial purpose rather than being asked their
purpose.
B) It differentiates participants on the basis of age
rather than on socioeconomic status or belief
system.
C) The attitudes expressed were probably influenced
by those of others rather than reached
independently.
D) Its conclusions are based on the participants
reports rather than on their buying behavior.

108. Assume that a film includes repeated scenes
showing the trademark Voom on the sports shoes
of its attractive adolescent protagonists. Although
the film is successful among young audiences, no
increase occurs in the sale of Voom shoes. Which
of the following hypotheses about this outcome is
the most plausible on the basis of the studies
cited?
A) Audiences feel uncomfortable because Voom is an
unfamiliar brand.
B) Most members of the audience already own a pair
of Voom shoes.
C) Audiences are worried by the social implications of
these scenes.
D) Audiences are too engrossed in the story to notice
the shoes.

109. The wording of the passage suggests that the
studies described are most likely to have been
conducted by:
A) a regulatory agency of the Commerce Department.
B) a professional association of advertisers.
C) an advocacy group for consumers rights.
D) a group of experimental psychologists.

110. Suppose that immediately after a placement for
the Zog brand of widgets appeared in a very
successful film, sales of Zog widgets rose
dramatically. If the authors conclusions about
moviegoers are accepted, which of the following
conclusions about this buying must also be
accepted?
A ) The strangeness of seeing a brand prop excited
viewers into indulging in Zog widgets.
B ) The film only reminded viewers that they already
intended to buy Zog widgets.
C) The film influenced viewers to buy Zog widgets
without their awareness.
D ) The buyers of Zog widgets were predominantly the
older moviegoers.

111. If the following statements are true, which would
most weaken the argument of defenders of brand
placement?
A ) Shortly after a Western film attracts huge
audiences, sales of riding horses and ranch
properties increase appreciably.
B ) A campaign to educate moviegoers about brand
placement has no observable effect on their
purchasing decisions.
C) When moviegoers see a list of the brand props to
appear in a film before it begins, sales of those
products decline.
D ) Moviegoers buy more popcorn when a promotional
film for the concession stand is shown than when it
is omitted.

112. The authors primary purpose in the passage is
apparently:
A ) to clarify the business arrangement between
marketing and the film industry.
B ) to consider the generational difference in attitudes
about brand placement.
C) to question the ethics of promoting products
without seeming to do so.
D ) to justify the commercialization of feature films
through brand props.

Passage VI

England has had greater soldier-kings and subtler
diplomatists than Henry II, but no one has left a deeper
mark on British laws and institutions. The names of his
battles have vanished with their dust, but his fame will
live with the English Constitution and the English
Common Law. When Henry gained the crown in 1154,
twenty years of rebellion and anarchy had determined
him to curb baronial independence.

In place of a multitude of manorial courts in which
local magnates dispensed justice, the quality and
character of which varied with the customs of the
neighborhood, Henry planned a system of royal courts
that would administer a law common to all of England.
The policy was not without peril. The king was wise
enough to know that to lay a finger on the sanctity of
customary rights would provoke disaster. Faced with
this barrier, Henry shrewdly stretched old principles to
new meanings and cloaked innovation in the respected
garb of conservatism.

But if Henry was to pose as a conservative in the legal
sphere, he must be consistent. Compulsion could play
little part in his program; it had to be the first principle
of his policy to attract cases to his courts rather than to
compel them. A bait was needed with which to draw
litigants to the royal courts; the king must offer them
better justice than they could have at the hands of their
lords. Henry accordingly threw open to litigants in the
royal courts a startling new proceduretrial by jury.
Until then, both civil and criminal cases had been
decided through the oath, the ordeal, or the duel, all of
which left small room for debate on points of law. In a
more rational age, the English were beginning to
distrust such antics. Thus trial by jury quickly gained
favor.

The jury of Henry II was not the jury that is now used.
Its members were witnesses as well as judges of the
facts. Jurors were not yet picked for their impartiality
but because they were most likely to know the truth.
The modern jury, which knows nothing about the case
to be heard until it is presented in court, was slow in
coming. The process by which the modern jury
evolved is obscure. A jury summoned to Westminster
from distant parts might be reluctant to come, and
perhaps only three or four would arrive. The court
could not wait, and to avoid delay and expense, the
parties might agree to rely on a jury of bystanders. In
time, the designated jurors with local knowledge
would cease to be jurors at all and would become
witnesses, giving their evidence to a jury composed
entirely of bystanders. Such, we may guess, was what
happened. Very gradually, as laws of evidence evolved,
the change came. By the fifteenth century, it was under
way; yet even under the Tudor kings, jury members
might be tried for perjury if they gave a wrongful
verdict.

The jury system has come to stand for all that is meant
by English justice, because if a case has to be
scrutinized by twelve honest citizens, defendant and
plaintiff alike have a safeguard against arbitrary
perversion of the law. It is this safeguard that
distinguishes the law administered in English courts
from Continental legal systems, which are based on
Roman law. Thus, amidst the great process of
centralization, the old principle was preserved, and
endures to this day, that law flows from the people and
is not given by the king.

following source:
W.S. Churchill, A History of the English-Speaking
Peoples. 1956 by W.S. Churchill.

113. If the disaster referred to in the passage had
occurred, what would have been its most likely
major manifestation?
A) Litigants would have refused to bring their cases to
the royal courts.
B) Citizens would have proclaimed their right to be
tried by an impartial jury of their peers.
C) Regional lords would have joined forces to
challenge the kings authority.
D) The tradition of determining guilt through oaths,
ordeals, and duels would have gained strength.

114. The Tudor practices described in the passage
most clearly conflict with the modern legal
practice of:
A) appealing to a higher court.
B) being tried by an unbiased jury.
C) being required to serve on a jury.
D) testifying under oath.


115. What is the relation of other passage information
to the assertion that the jury system provides a
safeguard against arbitrary perversion of the law?
A ) The implication that Henry wanted to extend his
power undermines it.
B ) The difference acknowledged between the medieval
jury and the modern one weakens it.
C) No other statement in the passage directly concerns
it.
D ) The contrast drawn between Henrys system and
manorial courts clarifies it.

116. What assumption is implicit in the phrase as
laws of evidence evolved?
A ) Those who are unfamiliar with a case are better
jurors than are those who give testimony.
B ) Originally, witnesses at a trial were not required to
testify under oath.
C) Verdicts should be decided by citizens and not be
given by the king.
D ) Henrys jury system introduced new sources of bias
into the administration of the laws.

117. The passage suggests that its author would
probably disagree with which of the following
statements?
A ) Justice is better served when rulers are restrained
by a constitution than when their authority is
undefined.
B ) Juries are more susceptible to manipulation and
pressure than are respected authorities.
C) Strengthening a nations legal system is more
important than strengthening its police force.
D ) Judgments based on national laws are more apt to
be fair than are those based on regional customs.

Passage VII

The Wealth of Nations (l776) popularized the
invisible hand, the idea that an individual who intends
only personal gain is, as it were, led by an invisible
hand to promote the public interest. Adam Smith did
not assert that this principle was invariably true, but it
contributed to a tendency of thought that has since
remained dominant, preventing action based on
rational analysis: the assumption that decisions reached
individually will collectively be the best decisions for
society as a whole. If this assumption is correct, it
justifies the continuance of the U.S. policy of laissez-
faire in many issues affecting business, the
environment, and the family. If it is not correct, U.S.
citizens need to re-examine their individual freedoms
to see which are defensible.

The rebuttal to the invisible hand theory could be
called the tragedy of the commons. Picture a pasture
open to all. It can be expected that each herder will try
to keep as many cattle as possible on this commons.
Such an arrangement may work reasonably well for
centuries because tribal wars, poaching, and disease
keep the numbers of both human and beast far below
the carrying capacity of the land. Finally, however,
comes the day of reckoningthat is, the day on which
the long-desired goal of social stability becomes a
reality. At this point, the inherent logic of the
commons remorselessly generates tragedy.

As a rational being, each herder seeks to maximize
personal gain. More or less consciously, the individual
asks, What is the utility to me of adding one more
animal to my herd? Since the herder would receive all
the proceeds from the sale of the additional animal, the
positive component of this utility is nearly +1. The
negative component is a function of the overgrazing
caused by an additional animal. Since the effects of
overgrazing are shared by all the herders, the negative
utility for any particular decision-maker is some
fraction of -1.

Adding the component utilities, the rational herder
concludes that the only sensible course is to add
another animal to his or her herdand another, and
another. . . . This conclusion is reached by every
rational herder who shares the commons. All are
locked into a system that compels each to increase his
or her gain without limit in a world that is limited.
Ruin is the destination toward which all rush, each
pursuing the right to use a public resource. The
problem is that a commons, if justifiable at all, is
justifiable only under conditions of low population
density. As the human population has increased, the
commons concept has had to be abandoned in one
aspect after another.

The social arrangements that would produce
responsibility in this scenario create coercion. The only
kind of coercion I recommend is mutual coercion,
agreed to by a majority of those affected. Compulsory
taxes are acceptable because a system of voluntary
contributions would favor the conscienceless. A
society institutes and (grumblingly) supports taxes and
other coercive devices to escape the horror of the
commons.

Every new enclosure of the commons involves the
infringement of somebodys personal freedom. But
what does freedom mean? Those subject to the logic
of the commons are free only to bring on universal ruin.
Once they acknowledge the logic of mutual coercion,
they become free to pursue other goals. We must now
recognize the necessity of abandoning the commons
assumption in our reproduction. Failure to do so will
bring ruin on us all.

following source:
G. Hardin, The tragedy of the commons. 1968 by American
Association for the Advancement of Science.

118. The authors major thesis is that:
A) rational people can be expected to base their
decisions on self-interest.
B) the unregulated use of resources that are available
to all is detrimental to society.
C) coercion is morally defensible only if those affected
by it have agreed to accept it.
D) the metaphor of an invisible hand helps to clarify
the collective effects of individual decisions.

119. According to the passage, the decisive factor in
determining whether someones actions should
be subject to coercion is whether the actions:
A ) are determined solely by self-interest.
B ) affect collectively held resources.
C) degrade the natural environment.
D ) are commonly considered immoral.

120. The passage argument suggests that national
parks might benefit from:
I. the restriction of recreational use by
means of fees.
II. the selling of the facilities to private
investors.
III. the opening of additional facilities to the
public.
A ) I only
B ) III only
C) I and II only
D ) II and III only

121. Which of the following decisions based on
component utilities would best serve as an
example of the logic of the commons?
A ) Manufacturers decide to erect billboards beside
highways to advertise their products.
B ) College graduates decide to accept offers of
employment at large corporations.
C) Suburban home owners decide to allow
neighborhood children to play on their property.
D ) Citizens decide to vote for a candidate who
advocates strong emission-control standards.

122. Some communities with expanding populations
have for centuries successfully managed
commonly held land. An appropriate clarification
of the passage would be the stipulation that the
authors argument applies only to:
A ) the future.
B ) unregulated resources.
C) conditions of social instability.
D ) resources that are not managed locally.

Passage VIII

In the first place, to make the poem or the novel the
central concern of literary criticism has appeared to
mean cutting it loose from its author and from the
authors particular hopes, fears, interests, conflicts, etc.
A criticism so limited may seem bloodless and hollow.

In the second place, to emphasize the work seems to
involve severing it from those who actually read it, and
this severance may seem drastic and therefore
disastrous. After all, literature is written to be read.

The formalist critic knows as well as anyone that
poems and plays and novels are written as expressions
of particular personalities and are written from all sorts
of motivesfor money, from a desire to express oneself,
for the sake of a cause, etc. Moreover, the formalist
critic knows as well as anyone that literary works are
merely potential until they are readthat is, that they
are re-created in the minds of actual readers, who vary
enormously in their capabilities, their interests, their
prejudices, their ideas. But the formalist critic is
concerned primarily with the work itself. Speculation
on the mental processes of the author takes the critic
away from the work into biography and psychology.
Such studies describe the process of composition, not
the structure of the thing composed.

On the other hand, exploration of the various readings
which the work has received also takes the critic away
from the work into psychology and the history of taste.
But such work, valuable and necessary as it may be, is
to be distinguished from a criticism of the work itself.
The formalist critic makes two assumptions: (1) that
the relevant part of the authors intention is what the
author actually put into the workthat is, the critic
assumes that the authors intention as realized is the
intention that counts. And (2) the formalist critic
assumes an ideal readerthat is, instead of focusing on
the varying spectrum of possible readings, the critic
attempts to find a central point of reference from which
to focus on the structure of the poem or novel.

There is no ideal reader, of course. But for the purpose
of focusing on the poem rather than on the critics own
reactions, it is a defensible strategy. (The alternatives
are desperate: Either we say that one persons reading
is as good as anothers, and thus deny the possibility of
any standard reading, or else we take the lowest
common denominator of the various readings that have
been madethat is, we frankly move from literary
criticism into social psychology. To propose taking a
consensus of the opinions of qualified readers is
simply to split the ideal reader into a group of ideal
readers.) As consequences of the distinction just
referred to, the formalist critic rejects two popular tests
for literary value. The first proves the value of the
work from the authors sincerity (or the intensity of
the authors feelings as he or she composed it). We
discount also such tests as the intensity of the critics
reaction.

A literary work is a document and as a document can
be analyzed in terms of the forces that have produced it,
or it may be manipulated as a force in its own right. It
mirrors the past, it may influence the future. These
facts it would be futile to deny, and I know of no critic
who does deny them. But the reduction of a work of
literature to its causes does not constitute literary
criticism; nor does an estimate of its effects. Good
literature is more than effective rhetoric applied to true
ideaseven if we could agree upon a philosophical
yardstick for measuring the truth of ideas and even if
we could find some way that transcended nose
counting for determining the effectiveness of the
rhetoric.

following source:
C. Brooks, The formalist critic. 1951 by The Kenyon Review.

123. It can most justifiably be said that the main
purpose of the passage is:
A) to evaluate a work of literature using formalist
criticism.
B) to clarify the aims and principles of formalist
criticism.
C) to outline a procedure for measuring the intentions
of authors.
D) to describe defensible alternatives to formalist
criticism.

124. According to the passage, formalist criticism
focuses primarily on which of the following
aspects of a literary work?
A ) Its effect on the reader
B ) Its authors motivations
C) Its structure
D ) The truth of its ideas

125. In order to distinguish the nature of formalist
criticism, the author of the passage draws a
distinction between:
I. the authors intentions and those
intentions as realized in the work.
II. the ideal reader and the range of possible
readings a work may receive.
III. the motivation of an author who writes
for money and that of one who writes for
self-expression.
A ) I only
B ) I and II only
C) I and III only
D ) I, II, and III

126. Implicit in the passage is the assumption that:
A ) some critical evaluations of literature are more
valuable than others.
B ) criticism that dismisses the authors motivations is
ineffective.
C) the ideal reader is one who has attempted to create
a work of art.
D ) good literature is nothing more than effective
rhetoric applied to true ideas.

127. For which of the following conclusions does the
passage offer the most support?
A ) Literature is merely potential until it is read.
B ) A literary work can be analyzed in terms of the
forces that produced it.
C) The literary critic must assume an ideal reader.
D ) Literary works may mirror the past or influence the
future.

128. The author of the passage probably rejects the
use of biography and psychology in literary
criticism because these disciplines:
A) cannot provide any information about literature.
B) assume that the authors intention as realized is the
only intention that counts.
C) take into account the entire range of possible
readings of a literary work.
D) focus on the process of literary composition and not
on its product.

129. The author of the passage would be most likely
to agree with which of the following ideas
expressed by other literary critics?
A) Literary criticism cannot be kept independent of the
study of the people involved in the artistic
transaction.
B) Ignorance of historical styles and usage on the part
of the critic can make for ludicrous interpretive
errors.
C) When we decide to treat a piece of language as
literature, we also decide not to focus on the
authors intended communication.
D) Literature can be defined as that which is taught in
English departments.

130. On the basis of the passage, one can most
reasonably infer that formalist criticism has the
capacity to distinguish:
A) valid literary structures from invalid ones.
B) one possible reading of a literary work from
another.
C) one authors personality from anothers.
D) effective rhetorical styles from ineffective ones.

131. Elsewhere, the author of the passage states that
Ernest Hemingway considered his last novel his
best but that such an opinion proves nothing
about the novels real worth. This statement most
directly supports the passage assertion that:
A ) the intensity of a critics reaction to a work is no
measure of its value.
B ) the intensity of the authors feelings is not a valid
critical test.
C) the critic must assume the existence of an ideal
reader.
D ) readers vary enormously in their capabilities,
interests, and prejudices.

132. Which of the following statements, if true, would
most directly challenge the principles of
formalist criticism?
A ) The capacity to interpret a work of literature varies
from reader to reader.
B ) Good literature is more than just effective rhetoric.
C) Knowledge of the authors intentions is not usually
reliable.
D ) The social and historical contexts of a work of
literature cannot be ignored.

Passage IX

The last ice age was not a calm, stable deep freeze.
Every 7000 years or so, a bout of extreme cold racks
the region around the North Atlantic, and armadas of
icebergs surge into the ocean. In 1994, researchers
puzzled by these Heinrich events thought they had
identified the culprit: the great Laurentide ice sheet
that periodically covers North America. Pebbly debris
shed by icebergs as they melted far out at sea had been
traced to the Laurentide, hinting that the ice sheet had
driven the latest Heinrich event through an internal
cycle of growth and collapse. Now, however, a closer
look at ice-rafted debris makes it clear that the
Laurentide did not act on its own.

Gerard Bond reports that the debris layers left by
Heinrich events contain traces of rock not only from
North America but also from Iceland. If Icelands tiny
ice sheet has been collapsing on exactly the same
schedule as the Laurentide, Bond says, the pacemaker
of past Heinrich events can not have been the internal
dynamics of Laurentide ice: Separate glacial clocks
controlling the cycles of such different ice sheets could
not have remained synchronized.

The idea that the Laurentide ice sheet is to blame for
Heinrich events had gained support when Bond and his
colleagues began studying the layers of debris
deposited during five major Heinrich events that
occurred between 14,000 and 70,000 years ago.
Sediment core samples from the ocean floor appeared
rich in light-colored carbonates, which could only have
come from North America.

Because the Laurentide is the largest and thickest of
the ice sheets ringing the North Atlantic, an
explanation seemed to be at hand: It periodically
became too thick to survive. As ice accumulated over
millennia, it trapped increasing heat from Earths
interior, adding to the heat of friction generated as the
ice slid over bedrock. Eventually, the heat weakened
the ice sheets grasp on the land, and the ice surged
outward. The resulting flotilla of icebergs altered land
climates by capping warmth-carrying currents in the
North Atlantic with a layer of cold meltwater.

But now Bond has found trace amounts of dark, glassy
rock in the ice-rafted debris, debris that must have
been scraped from the volcanoes of Iceland. These
traces of Icelandic icebergs appear during all four of
the most recent major Heinrich events, coinciding with,
or even preceding, the North American debris. They
also appear at mini-Heinrich events 2000 to 3000
years apart.

The simultaneous oscillation of two ice sheets, one
massive and the other tiny, cannot result from an
internal process such as surging, because this process
would depend on characteristics specific to each ice
sheet. The new evidence implies that something
external to both ice sheets triggered their collapse.
What that external trigger might have been, Bond does
not know. Perhaps it was a third ice sheetone with an
accelerated schedule of internal growth and collapse. If
so, the icebergs it discharged could have altered
climate and indirectly triggered the collapse of the
Iceland and Laurentide ice sheets hundreds of years
later. Alternatively, the ultimate driver might have
been heat-carrying currents in the ocean that shifted on
the needed 2000- to 3000-year schedule, touching off
ice-sheet collapse. To study these possibilities, Bond
wants to look for ice-rafted debris from less studied ice
sheets, to see whether one of them might be to blame
for the ice-age shivers.

following source:
Exonerating an ice sheet. 1995 by American Association for the
Advancement of Science.

133. The best support for the hypothesis of a third ice
sheet would be evidence of:
A) another form of rafted debris predating that from
Laurentide or Icelandic icebergs.
B) a glacier of great antiquity behind the Laurentide
that surges in synchrony with it.
C) rafted debris that was deposited over debris from
North America and Iceland.
D) warm ocean currents that periodically initiate a
meltdown of the Laurentide.

134. Which of the following opinions would the
author be most likely to endorse?
A ) Icebergs are both a cause and a consequence of
climatic changes.
B ) Periodic ice surges are triggered by a thickening of
the glacial mass.
C) Surges in the Icelandic ice sheet result from cycles
of volcanic activity.
D ) Core samples from the ocean floor are unreliable as
indicators of climatic change.

135. Bonds original explanation of Heinrich events
would be supported by evidence that:
A ) Iceland was part of the land mass of North America
a million years ago.
B ) the volcanic rock had been scraped from Canadian
mountains.
C) Earths core is cooling at a rate of one degree each
millennium.
D ) ocean currents have remained essentially stable for
50,000 years.

136. Assume that recently obtained ocean-floor core
samples show debris from Iceland that is
nonvolcanic mixed with debris from its
volcanoes. This finding:
A ) increases the probability that changes in the
Laurentide cause glacial surges.
B ) increases the probability that ocean currents cause
ice sheets to collapse.
C) decreases the probability of a triggering event
external to the ice sheets.
D ) reveals nothing about the probability of a third ice
sheet.

137. Which of the following scientific conclusions
would most compromise the research reported in
the passage?
A ) Heinrich events have always occurred at 10,000-
year intervals.
B ) The debris layers in ocean-floor sediment
originated in asteroids.
C) Frictional heat increases the adherence of glaciers
to bedrock.
D ) New oceanic core samples do not indicate
deposited debris.

Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each

This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully to
understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to
each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you
can make it in the time allotted.

828-0690).

138. Consider this statement:

Wealthy politicians cannot offer fair representation to all the people.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement
means. Describe a specific situation in which a wealthy politician might offer fair representation to all
people. Discuss what you think determines whether a wealthy politician can or cannot offer fair
representation to all the people.

139. Consider this statement:

In a free society, laws must be subject to change.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement
means. Describe a specific situation in which a law should not be subject to change in a free society. Discuss
what you think determines whether or not a law in a free society should be subject to change.

Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216

Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive
passage. After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are
not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives.
Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A periodic table is
provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

828-0690).

1
H
1.0

Periodic Table of the Elements

2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0

5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2

11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3

13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
Rb
85.5
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
41
Nb
92.9
42
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
Ru
101.1
45
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ag
107.9
48
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
50
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
54
Xe
131.3
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La*
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
(226)
89
Ac
(227)
104
Unq
(261)
105
Unp
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)

*
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0

90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)

Passage I

Asthma is a disease of industrialized countries; rates
have doubled in the U.S. since 1980. The most life-
threatening asthmatic complication is lung
inflammation. This inflammatory response can be
triggered by exercise, respiratory viruses, or
environmental allergens, which stimulate
T lymphocytes to secrete cytokines that recruit B
lymphocytes and eosinophils to the airways. Activated
B lymphocytes secrete IgE, which sensitizes mast cells
to allergens. Activated mast cells and eosinophils
release histamine and small fatty molecules called
leukotrienes, respectively. Leukotrienes function as
chemoattractants for granulocytic leukocytes and are
potent constrictors of bronchial smooth muscle,
whereas histamine functions as a vasodilator and can
cause microvascular endothelial cells to contract.

Current therapies such as steroids, antihistamines, and
bronchodilators treat the symptoms of the disease but
cannot prevent the onset and progression of an
asthmatic attack. Identifying points within the
inflammation cascade offers the opportunity to develop
more specific therapies to inhibit the process. One
therapeutic strategy would be to target a particular
subset of T lymphocytes known as T-helper (T
H
) cells.
T
H
1 cells secrete cytokines, such as interferon-, and
initiate cell-mediated responses that eliminate cells
infected with pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses.
T
H
2 cells secrete cytokines that activate the
inflammatory response and stimulate antibody
production. The activity of T
H
1 and T
H
2 cells are
reciprocally regulated; the signal from one cell type
negatively regulates the activity of the other cell type.
Because overactivity of T
H
2 cells is correlated with
asthma, their inactivation would offer a more effective
treatment for this disease than is currently available.

140. A person suffering an asthmatic attack often has
more difficulty exhaling than inhaling; the action
of leukotrienes on bronchial smooth muscle
contributes to this difficulty. As a result, what
primary effect do leukotrienes have on lung gas
exchange?
A) No effect, because bronchial smooth muscle is not
found on alveoli
B) An increased accumulation of O
2
, leading to
respiratory acidosis
C) An increased accumulation of CO
2
, leading to
respiratory acidosis
D) A decreased intake of O
2
, leading to metabolic
acidosis

141. Leukotrienes are potent chemoattractants. What
other cells, in addition to eosinophils, would
probably respond to and be recruited by
leukotrienes to the inflammatory site?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Myocytes

142. According to the passage, what is the most
probable sequence of events after activation of T
lymphocytes by an allergen?
A)
IgE secretion histamine release
vasoconstriction
B)
B-cell activation IgE secretion mast-cell
activation
C)
IgE secretion eosinophil activation
leukotriene release
D)
Mast-cell activation histamine release
bronchodilation

143. The passage suggests that the most effective way
to prevent the onset and progression of an
asthmatic attack would be treatment with:
A) a harmless bacterium that induces a strong T
H
1
response.
B) IgE, antibodies with neutralizing activity.
C) Zileuton, an inhibitor of leukotriene synthesis.
D) colchicine to specifically prevent eosinophil
chemotaxis.

Passage II

Integrins are a family of cell-adhesion receptors that
allow cells to interact with other cells and with the
extracellular matrix. Platelets express an integrin called
IIb
3
that binds to the matrix protein fibrinogen (Fg) in
blood and thus allows platelets to form blood clots.
Another integrin,
5
1
, is present on many different
cell types and is responsible for a variety of functions,
including the migration of immune-system cells and
the reorganization of tissue during development.
5
1
binds the matrix protein fibronectin (FN).

In Experiment 1, cells were added to plates coated with
either Fg or FN. After 30 min, cells that had not stuck
to the plates were washed away, and the remaining
cells were counted. Two types of cells were used:
CHO cells, which express integrin
5
1
, and A5 cells,
which express both integrins
IIb
3
and
5
1
.

Figure 1 Experiment 1: Binding of A5 and CHO cells
to Fg and/or FN

Experiment 1 confirms that
IIb
3
binds to Fg, whereas
1
binds to FN.

Given the prevalence of heart disease, a drug that
dissolves blood clots would be valuable. In Experiment
2, three different potential clot-dissolving drugsA, B,
and Cwere mixed separately with A5 cells, and the
cells were added to plates coated with either Fg or FN,
as in Experiment 1. After 30 min, the plates were
washed and the remaining cells were counted.

Figure 2 Experiment 2: Effects of Drugs A, B, and C
on binding of A5 cells to Fg or FN

Experiment 2 suggests that Drug A would be the best
choice to treat heart disease.

144. In the presence of Drug C:
A)
IIb
3
binds to Fg, and
5
1
binds to FN.
B)
IIb
3
binds to Fg, and
5
1
does not bind to FN.
C)
IIb
3
does not bind to Fg, and
5
1
binds to FN.
D)
IIb
3
does not bind to Fg, and
5
1
does not bind to
FN.

145. In a third experiment, Compound D was added to
A5 cells before the cells were added to Fg- and
FN-coated plates. Compound D inhibited the
ability of A5 cells to bind to Fg but had no effect
on the binding of A5 cells to FN. What other
drug compound(s) does Compound D resemble
in this respect?
A ) Drug A
B ) Drug B
C) Drug C
D ) Drugs B and C

146. According to the experiments described, A5 cells
bind to:
I. Fg.
II. FN.
III. FN in the presence of Drug C.
A ) I only
B ) II only
C) I and II only
D ) II and III only

147. Do the data support the idea that Drug B might
have been water?
A) Yes; Drug B inhibits the binding of A5 cells to both
FN and Fg.
B) Yes; Drug B does not inhibit the binding of A5
cells to either FN or Fg.
C) No; Drug B inhibits the binding of A5 cells to both
FN and Fg.
D) No; the data refute this conclusion.

148. Which of the following treatments for heart
disease would be most likely to cause serious
side effects?
A) Drug A
B) Drug B
C) Drug C
D) A combination of Drugs A and B

149. In Experiment 2, the percentage of cells bound to
FN plates:
A) increased with Drug A.
B) decreased with Drug B.
C) remained constant with Drug C.
D) decreased with Drug C.

Passage III

Students in an organic chemistry laboratory carried out
a mechanistic study of the reaction between 1-bromo-
1-methylcyclohexane (Compound 1) and sodium
ethoxide in ethanol.

Equation 1

The students were divided into three groups. Each
group measured the rate of the reaction, using different
concentrations of Compound 1 and sodium ethoxide.
Their results are shown in Table 1.

Table 1 Rate Results
Student
group
Compound 1
concentration
(M)
NaOCH
2
CH
3
concentration
(M)
Reaction
rate
(mol/Ls)
1 0.20 0.20 3.0 x 10
3

2 0.20 0.60 9.0 x 10
3

3 0.10 0.20 1.5 x 10
3

All three groups isolated and identified two isomeric
cyclohexenes, compounds 2 and 3, and all three groups
found the ratio of Compound 2 to Compound 3 to be
85:15.

The students concluded that the reaction involved a
one-step transition state in which two bonds, one
joining a carbon atom to a -hydrogen atom and the
other a carbon atom to the bromine atom, cleaved in a
concerted mechanism.

150. According to the rate data, did the students reach
a plausible conclusion about the mechanism?
A ) Yes; the data indicate the rate-determining step is
bimolecular.
B ) Yes; the data indicate the rate-determining step is
unimolecular.
C) No; the data indicate the rate-determining step is
bimolecular.
D ) No; the data indicate the rate-determining step is
unimolecular.

151. What shorthand notation represented the student-
determined mechanism?
A) S
N
1
B) S
N
2
C) E1
D) E2

152. When treated with NaOCH
2
CH
3
/CH
3
CH
2
OH,
which of the following bromides gave a product
distribution similar to that described in the
passage?
A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
Br
B) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH=CHBr
C) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CHBrCH
3
D) CH
3
CH
2
CH=CHCH
2
Br

153. During the reaction of Equation 1, what change
occurs in the hybridization of the carbon atom
bearing the bromine atom in Compound 1?
A) sp
3
to sp
B) sp
3
to sp
2
C) sp
2
to sp
D) sp
2
to sp
3

154. When the students conducted the reaction with
Compound 1 and ethanol only, they obtained
which of the following ethers?
A)
B)
C)
D)

Passage IV

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is an illness
characterized by the rapid onset of high fever,
hypotension, and a rash that results in skin
desquamation (separation of cell layers). It affects at
least three organ systems. In the early 1980s, an
increased risk of TSS was associated with use of high-
absorbency tampons. Some high-absorbency brands of
tampons were removed from the market, and warning
labels were required for all remaining brands.
Although reported cases of TSS decreased markedly at
that time, significant menstrual and nonmenstrual cases
of TSS continue to occur.

The two bacteria that cause TSS are Staphylococcus
aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. Most studies of
these pathogens have focused on the effects of the
protein toxins they produce. Chemical and
biological/immunological tests indicate that these
toxins are superantigens.

Superantigens differ from other proteins in their
antigenic nature; they do not stimulate T lymphocytes
in the immune system in the same manner that
conventional protein antigens do. Superantigens
bypass a processing step normally performed by
antigen-presenting cells, and also differ from normal
antigens by binding to T cells outside the standard
antigen binding site. Because this unique type of
binding activates approximately 20% of the T
lymphocytes, as opposed to 1 in 100,000 T cells
activated by conventional antigenic stimulation,
superantigens are considered nonspecific stimulators.
Negative effects of nonspecific stimulation by
superantigens occur because the activation of so many
T cells causes the release of massive levels of
cytokines. This increased cytokine release is probably
responsible for many of the acute problems seen in
TSS, and also in some autoimmune diseases such as
arthritis, multiple sclerosis, and rheumatic fever.

155. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus bacteria cause
problems in acute infections such as toxic shock
syndrome primarily by:
A) multiplying to produce large numbers of bacteria.
B) stimulating exaggerated immune responses.
C) causing autoimmune reactions.
D) inhibiting metabolic enzymes with toxins.

156. Superantigen proteins can be classified by
comparing their amino acid sequence homology.
This technique would involve analysis of:
A) the isoelectric (pH) points of proteins.
B) the primary (1
o
) structure of proteins.
C) the secondary (2
o
D) the tertiary (3
o

157. In addition to the skin and circulatory systems,
which of the following organ systems is most
likely to be affected by TSS?
A) The musculoskeletal system
B) The digestive system
C) The lymphatic system
D) The respiratory system

158. According to the passage, superantigens increase
the number of activated T cells over activation
levels observed with conventional antigens by a
factor of:
A) 20.
B) 5000.
C) 20000.
D) 100000.

159. If the dose of Streptococcus Strain A required to
cause infection is 1 x 10
5
bacteria and that of
Streptococcus Strain B is 5 x 10
4
bacteria, which
of the following statements describes the relative
potencies of these strains?
A) Strain A is five times as potent as Strain B.
B) Strain A is one-fifth as potent as Strain B.
C) Strain A is twice as potent as Strain B.
D) Strain A is half as potent as Strain B.



160. Which of the following procedures would be
LEAST likely to prevent bacterial synthesis of
the superantigen protein?
A ) Adding tRNA nucleotides that can bind to mRNA
and bacterial ribosomes
B ) Adding a repressor protein that binds to the
operator site of the bacterial superantigen gene
C) Adding a specific complementary nucleic acid
sequence that can bind to mRNA transcribed from
the superantigen gene
D ) Adding a stop codon within the bacterial
superantigen gene

161. The hemiacetal below is treated with
18
O-labeled
methanol (CH
3
O*H) and acid. Where will the
label appear in the products?

A ) Position a only
B ) Position b only
C) Position c only
D ) Positions b and c only

162. The reaction of the compound shown in the
above structure with phenylhydrazine yields a
phenylhydrazone. The first step in the formation
of the phenylhydrazone derivative involves what
type of reaction?

A ) Hydrolysis
B ) Esterification
C) Elimination
D ) Addition

163. What is an alternative to sexual reproduction?
A) Isogamy
B) Hermaphroditism
C) Pseudohermaphroditism
D) Parthenogenesis

164. Double-stranded DNA can adopt one of three
helical conformations depending on the
nucleotide makeup of the molecule and the
amount of hydration. The nucleotide base pairs in
a DNA helix are arranged like steps in a spiral
staircase. Each one is rotated a few degrees from
the previous base pair.

Table 1 Average Helical Twist between
Adjacent Nucleotide Pairs (Mean and Standard
Deviation, in Degrees)
Conformation Helical twist
A 33.1 +6
B 35.9 +4
Z 29.9 +1

In investigating the properties of a strand of
DNA, researchers determined that there were 12
nucleotide base pairs for every complete 360
o

turn of the helix. The conformation of the DNA
strand was:
A) A, not B or Z.
B) B, not A or Z.
C) Z, not A or B.
D) A or B, not Z.

Passage V

Marine organisms are a rich source of natural products,
including terpenes. Terpenes are multiple units of the
5-carbon hydrocarbon isoprene. Two isoprene units in
a structure make one terpene or a monoterpene, and
four isoprene units make a diterpene. Sesqui- and
sester- are prefixes meaning one and a half and two
and a half, respectively. Thus, a sesterterpene contains
25 carbon atoms. Figure 1 shows the structures of nine
terpenoids (i.e., terpene derivatives) that were isolated
from a soft coral collected off the coast of Formosa by
a research group from Taiwan. The structures of the
novel compounds 1-4 are of interest because of their
potential as drugs to combat a variety of illnesses.

Compound 1 and its acetate (2) are lactone derivatives
of cembrene (7). The presence of an ,-unsaturated
lactone in Compound 1 is evident by a carbonyl
absorption at 1750 cm
-1
in the IR spectrum and a strong
UV (log = 4.1) absorption at
max
236 nm.
Compounds 5-8 are derivatives of cembrene, whereas
compounds 3, 4, and 9 are derivatives of 15-carbon
atom precursors. Compounds 5-9 are known, and
Compound 9 is the optically active compound (-)--
elemene.

Figure 1 Terpenoids from a soft coral (Ac = acetyl)


165. Cembrene and -elemene, respectively, are
classified on the basis of the number of carbon
atoms in their structures as:
A ) a monoterpene and a sesquiterpene.
B ) a sesquiterpene and a diterpene.
C) a diterpene and a sesquiterpene.
D ) a diterpene and monoterpene.

166. Does Compound 5 display a strong ( > 20,000)
UV absorption?
A ) Yes, because of the three multiple bonds
B ) Yes, because of the two -OH groups
C) No, because the double bonds are not conjugated
D ) No, because there is no carbonyl group

167. Which of the following structures represents (+)-
-elemene?
A )
B )
C)
D )

168. Which of the following terms best describes a
procedure in the conversion of Compound 3 into
Compound 4?
A ) Esterification
B ) Condensation
C) Acetylation
D ) Saponification

169. Among compounds 5-8, which compound is
predicted to migrate slowest on TLC on a silica
gel plate?
A) Compound 5
B) Compound 6
C) Compound 7
D) Compound 8

Passage VI

Therapeutic alteration of the genome as a treatment for
genetic disorders (gene therapy) poses formidable
challenges. Among them is the problem of targeting
altered genes to the correct cells.

One method of introducing genes into cells is to coat
the DNA with an envelope of cationic (positively
charged) amphipathic lipids. The packets formed in
this way are called liposome-DNA complexes. The
lipids present their charged surface to the DNA
molecules giving them an outer hydrophobic surface
coating which enables the DNA to cross the plasma
membrane.

The efficiency of gene therapy depends on the delivery
of new genes into cells, the duration of expression of
the newly introduced genes, and the ability of the
exogenous genes to be transferred from one generation
of cells to the next. Researchers conducted
experiments in which a reporter gene (a gene with an
easily visualized product) was introduced into a culture
of actively dividing cells using the liposome-DNA
complex method. The expression of the reporter gene
over time in that experiment is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1 Duration of gene expression

To study the tissue distribution of the introduced DNA,
liposome-DNA complexes containing reporter genes
were injected into the abdominal cavities of fetal mice
and the expression of the gene was measured in
various tissues after a period of 7 days (Figure 2).

Figure 2 Tissue distribution of reporter gene
expression

170. According to Figure 2, is the introduced gene
spreading widely throughout the fetus?
A) No; it is only expressed in tissues in the abdomen.
B) No; it is only expressed in the largest organs.
C) Yes; it is expressed throughout tissues of
mesodermal origin.
D) Yes; it is expressed generally throughout the fetus.

171. Lipids used to complex with DNA must be
cationic because DNA is:
A) positively charged and hydrophobic.
B) positively charged and hydrophilic.
C) negatively charged and hydrophobic.
D) negatively charged and hydrophilic.

172. The liposome-DNA complex crosses a
membrane composed of:
A) lipids only.
B) lipids and proteins.
C) lipids and DNA.
D) lipids, DNA, and proteins.

173. Would an exogenous gene introduced into
somatic cells be passed from parent to offspring?
A ) Yes, because the DNA will be localized into the
cells nuclei
B ) Yes, because all DNA is passed from parent to
offspring during meiosis
C) No, because changes to somatic cells are not passed
to offspring
D ) No, because foreign DNA is not passed to offspring

174. Targeting therapeutic genes to specific cells is
important because:
A ) all cells contain, but do not express, the same
genes.
B ) all cells contain and express the same genes.
C) different cells contain different genes.
D ) inherited defective genes are only found in some
cells of the body.

Passage VII

Joe and Steve were fire fighters. Joe was an
experienced veteran in the fire department, whereas
Steve was a 23-year-old new member. Although Joe
was 60 years old, he kept his muscles in excellent
physical condition and only 8% of his weight was body
fat. However, his long fire-fighting career had had
serious effects on his health. At the age of 25, Joe had
been trapped in a burning house and had suffered
severe burns over 50% of his body, which resulted in
massive scarring of his skin. As a consequence of
long-term inhalation of smoke, Joe also had an early-
stage emphysema -- a disease in which the elastic
tissue of the lungs loses its ability to recoil after it is
stretched. Although Steve weighed only half as much
as Joe, Steve had a higher percentage of body fat (15%
of his weight). However, he was in excellent physical
condition. Steve and Joe had identical vital signs: a
resting heart rate of 60 beats per minute and blood
pressure of 125/70 mmHg.

Joe and Steve were assigned to a team sent to fight a
major fire in an industrial warehouse. Fighting a big
fire is often a frightening experience. Because this was
Steves first major fire, it was especially frightening
for him. After the fire was extinguished, an inspection
of the building revealed that a chemical storage
container had ruptured, possibly exposing Joe and
Steve to a hepatotoxic agent, which could damage the
liver.

175. If the heart rates of Steve and Joe were monitored
when they entered the burning warehouse to fight
the fire, one would expect:
A ) Steves heart rate to increase more, because of
activation of the sympathetic division of the
autonomic nervous system.
B ) Joes heart rate to increase more, because of
activation of the sympathetic division of the
C) Joes heart rate to increase more, because of
activation of the parasympathetic division of the
D ) both heart rates to increase, because of activation of
the parasympathetic division of the autonomic
nervous system.

176. Joes body might have a greater tendency to
overheat during strenuous work than Steves
body would, because:
A) older males have a higher basal metabolic rate.
B) Steve has a greater percentage of body fat.
C) Joes scarred skin would reduce evaporative
cooling.
D) Joe has more skin surface area relative to his body
volume.

177. Which of the following factors will NOT
influence the oxygenation of blood in the
pulmonary circulation?
A) Rate and depth of breathing
B) Hemoglobin concentration of the blood
C) Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery
D) Surface area of the alveoli

178. If Steves blood pressure had increased
significantly more than Joes increased (other
factors being equal) while they worked, what
difference in their urinary system function would
be expected?
A) Joes glomerular filtration rate would increase more
than Steves would.
B) Steves reabsorption rate of glomerular filtrate by
the peritubular capillaries would be lower than
Joes would be.
C) Steves reabsorption rate per milliliter of
glomerular filtrate by the peritubular capillaries
would be higher than Joes would be.
D) Steves glomerular filtration rate would increase
more than Joes would.

179. If both Steve and Joe performed the same work
tasks, which of the following statements would
describe their individual energy consumption?
A ) Steves body would consume more energy because
of his lesser weight.
B ) Steves body would consume less energy because
of the greater basal metabolic rate in younger
people.
C) Joes body would consume more energy because of
his greater weight.
D ) Joes body would consume the same amount of
energy as Steves because the basal metabolic rates
are equal.

180. Damage to the liver would most directly affect
the production of:
A ) digestive enzymes.
B ) antidiuretic hormone.
C) new blood cells.
D ) bile salts.

181. The blood pressure of these fire fighters was 70
mmHg when:
A ) their atria and ventricles were contracted.
B ) their atria and ventricles were relaxed.
C) blood was entering the aorta from the left ventricle.
D ) blood was entering the pulmonary arteries from the
right ventricle.

Passage VIII

A research group synthesized Compound 1 to study
how the presence of four adjacent carbonyl groups
affects the chemical and physical properties of the
novel compound.

Compound 1

The researchers started their synthesis of Compound 1
with the known dibromide (Compound 6), which they
synthesized by the scheme shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1 (a) Base, 130
o
C; (b)
SOCl
2
/dimethylformamide (DMF); (c) CH
3
OH, reflux;
(d) H
2
/Pd/C, tetrahydrofuran (THF), 50
o
C; (e) LiAlH
4
,
THF, 60
o
C; (f) HBr, 130
o
C

Compound 7 was a key intermediate compound in the
conversion of Compound 6 into Compound 1.

Compound 7

The first step in the synthesis of Compound 7 began
with a reaction between Compound 6 and 2-
methylpropanoic acid in the presence of the strong
base lithium diisopropylamide in excess followed by a
workup in H
+
/H
2
O. The synthesis of Compound 7 was
completed in several additional steps.

182. The basic reagent indicated in Step 1 of Figure 1
was pyridine. What was its primary function in
the preparation of Compound 3?
A) To abstract a proton from the diacid, converting it
into a nucleophile
B) To neutralize the diacid, converting it into a
dicarboxylate
C) To serve as a nucleophile and attack the carbonyl
carbon atom of the dialdehyde
D) To abstract a proton from the dialdehyde so it could
undergo an aldol reaction

183. The overall result of Step 2 was an esterification.
What role did SOCl
2
play in the transformation of
Compound 3 into Compound 4?
A) It served as a solvent for DMF.
B) It converted the diacid into a diacid chloride.
C) It converted the diacid into a disulfide.
D) It served as a solvent for CH
3
OH.

184. Why did the researchers incorporate the four
methyl groups at their specific locations in
Compound 1?
A ) To enhance the acidity of their -protons
B ) To donate electron density to the 16-membered ring
C) To prevent enolization adjacent to the carbonyl
groups
D ) To ensure enolization adjacent to the carbonyl
groups

185. If methyl propenoate were subjected to the
reaction conditions d and e of Step 3 of Figure 1,
one product would be:
A ) 2-propen-1-ol.
B ) 1-propen-3-ol.
C) methyl propanoate.
D ) 1-propanol.

186. What was the product of the reaction between
Compound 6 and 2-methylpropanoic acid?
A)
B)
C)
D)



187. A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water
for 2 days. At the end of this time, which of the
following changes in hormone production would
be expected to be significant in this individual?
A ) Decreased glucocorticoid secretion
B ) Decreased aldosterone secretion
C) Increased insulin secretion
D ) Increased antidiuretic hormone secretion

188. Rates of endocytosis vary from cell type to cell
type. What cell would be predicted to have the
highest rate of endocytosis?
A ) A macrophage
B ) An erythrocyte
C) An osteoblast
D ) A neuron

189. Translation of antibody proteins in eukaryotic
cells is associated with what organelle?
A ) Nucleus
B ) Mitochondrion
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D ) Golgi apparatus

190. Which of the following changes would NOT
interfere with the repeated transmission of an
impulse at the vertebrate neuromuscular
junction?
A ) Addition of a cholinesterase blocker
B ) Addition of a toxin that blocks the release of
acetylcholine
C) An increase in acetylcholine receptor sites on the
motor end plate
D ) Addition of a substance that binds to acetylcholine
receptor sites

191. In almost all vertebrates, when the optic cup fails
to develop in the embryo, the lens also fails to
form. This constitutes evidence that:
A) the process of neurulation follows gastrulation.
B) the eye develops early in vertebrate morphogenesis.
C) cells may induce neighboring cells to differentiate.
D) cell differentiation is an all or none phenomenon.

Passage IX

Several species of Drosophila have X-linked e and f
genes that affect the sex ratios of individuals offspring.
However, the genes only affect sex ratios if they are
brought close together by an inversion of one arm of
the X chromosome (Figure 1).

Figure 1 Standard and inverted X chromosomes

An X
s
Y male is standard: he sires equal numbers of
sons and daughters. An X
i
Y male expresses the sex
ratio trait: he sires only daughters. Total reproductive
output is not affected; X
s
Y males and X
i
Y males sire
equal numbers of offspring.

If none of the X
i
-bearing genotypes (X
i
Y, X
i
X
i
, or
X
i
X
s
) is selected against, then the frequency of X
i
is
expected to increase to 100%, unless other genes act to
suppress expression of e and f.

Occasionally, X
i
Y males sire viable but sterile sons of
normal appearance. Genetic analyses show that all
these sons are XO, inheriting their X chromosome
from their mother and lacking a Y chromosome.

192. If all genotypes are equally fit and if there are no
genetic modifiers of the sex ratio trait, what will
be the ultimate fate of a population in which 50%
of the X chromosomes are currently X
i
and 50%
are X
s
?
A ) Extinction
B ) Stable population size, with a predominance of
females
C) Stable population size, with all individuals
producing a 50:50 sex ratio
D ) Stable population size, with some individuals
producing an excess of females and some
producing an excess of males

193. Which of the following processes is most likely
the one disrupted in X
i
Y males?
A) Meiosis
B) Mate recognition
C) Courtship behavior
D) Genital development

194. In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the
males are X
s
Y. Among the females, 15% are
X
i
X
i
, 50% are X
i
X
s
, and 35% are X
s
X
s
.
Assuming random mating, what proportion of
male flies in the next generation will be X
i
Y?
A) 12%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 65%

why X
i
has the potential to increase to 100%
frequency in gene pools that contain it?
A) X
i
X
s
flies have the highest fitness of any genotype.
B) X
i
X
i
flies tend to migrate and introduce the X
i
chromosome into new populations.
C) X
i
X
i
flies pass X chromosomes to all their
offspring, but X
s
X
s
flies pass their X chromosomes
to only half their offspring.
D) X
i
Y flies pass their X chromosome to all their
offspring, but X
s
Y flies pass their X chromosome
to only half their offspring.

196. A virgin female Drosophila mates and produces
34 daughters and 38 sons. Eighteen of these sons
sire only daughters, while the remainder sire
approximately equal numbers of daughters and
sons. What are the genotypes of the original
female and the male with whom she mated?
A) X
i
X
s
and X
s
Y
B) X
i
X
s
and X
i
Y
C) X
i
X
i
and X
s
Y
D) X
s
X
s
and X
i
Y

197. The characteristics of the occasional sons sired
by X
i
Y ales show that the Y chromosome is
essential for:
A ) survival to adulthood.
B ) development of somatic tissues.
C) production of functional gametes.
D ) production of normal external morphology.

198. If the e and f genes are expressed, the X
i
chromosome will be prevented from reaching
100% frequency if selection pressures cause
which of the following to be true?
A ) X
s
X
s
flies have the lowest fitness of any genotype.
B ) X
s
X
s
flies have the highest fitness of any genotype.
C) X
i
Y flies and X
s
Y flies have equal fitness.
D ) X
i
X
s
flies and X
s
X
s
flies have equal fitness.

Passage X

The study of human disease has revealed many details
and raised many questions about the genetic basis of
cellular physiology. The study of neurofibromatosis
type I (NF1) suggests that defects in a single gene
cause the various clinical features that characterize this
disease, which include skeletal abnormalities, learning
disabilities, and benign and malignant tumors. This
array of clinical features is difficult to reconcile with
the idea of defects in a single gene. Studies of DNA
mutations in NF1 patients have revealed few
mutationstoo few to explain all the features of this
genetically dominant disease.

At least four alternative mRNA transcripts are
expressed from the single NF1 gene. Each mRNA
transcript is expressed differently in different tissues
and at different developmental stages. Some
investigators propose that changes in the types of NF1
transcript may drive cellular differentiation, whereas
others propose that cellular differentiation causes
changes in the type of NF1 transcript expressed. In
either case, epigenetic (developmental) events
evidently affect the expression of the NF1 gene.
Mistakes in RNA processing might contribute to the
disease phenotype.

The events involved in NF1 gene expression probably
are not unique to this gene. Many genes may undergo a
similarly complex series of events, which ultimately
regulate the amount and composition of protein
expressed from a particular DNA sequence.

199. The passage suggests that the expression of
disease genes probably is important in regulating
normal cellular physiology because:
A) altered expression of disease genes leads to disease.
B) the expression of disease genes leads to disease.
C) disease genes are frequent targets for mutation.
D) gene mutations frequently lead to disease.

200. The most likely shared feature of the clinical
manifestations of NF1 is that they all:
A) affect the same tissues.
B) arise from the same cell type.
C) arise from one genetic defect.
D) arise from defects in gene expression.

201. Changes in the type of NF1 transcript expressed
will cause changes in the type of NF1:
A) protein synthesized by the ribosomes.
B) protein transcribed by the ribosomes.
C) gene passed to the offspring of those affected.
D) gene within cells of those affected.

202. The mechanisms that regulate gene expression
are:
A) simple because they are contained within the cell.
B) complex and occur at many levels within the cell.
C) complex and affect only DNA.
D) simple because all genes are regulated in the same
way.

why the type of NF1 mRNA transcript that is
expressed changes as cells differentiate?
A) Cellular differentiation is a continuous process.
B) Differentiated cells may express the same proteins
as do undifferentiated cells.
C) Differentiated cells express different proteins than
do undifferentiated cells.
D) Differentiated cells may lose the ability to divide.

204. Epigenetic modulation of gene expression is most
likely to be important in evolutionary terms
because it allows:
A ) multiple proteins to be encoded by a single gene.
B ) multiple genes to encode the same protein.
C) the posttranslational modification of defective
proteins.
D ) more variation at the DNA level.

205. If NF1 is a genetically dominant disease, what
relationship between NF1 genes on homologous
chromosomes and phenotype is expected?
A ) A defect in both genes is necessary for the disease
to occur.
B ) A defect in both genes will not lead to the disease.
C) A defect in only one allele will not lead to the
disease.
D ) A defect in only one allele is necessary for the
disease to occur.

Passage XI

The synthesis of some ethers can be accomplished by
the reaction of a metal alkoxide or phenoxide with an
alkyl halide, a reaction known as the Williamson ether
synthesis. An alkoxide is prepared by treating an
alcohol with an active metal such as potassium, and a
phenoxide is prepared by the reaction of a phenol with
NaOH(aq) instead of potassium. In the synthesis, a
halide ion is displaced by an alkoxide or phenoxide ion.

An organic chemistry instructor asked two students to
propose reaction schemes for the synthesis of tert-butyl
methyl ether (TBME), a compound that has some
advantages over diethyl ether as a solvent. Students 1
and 2 proposed the reaction schemes shown in figures
1 and 2, respectively.

Figure 1 Student 1s proposal

Figure 2 Student 2s proposal

The class evaluated the reaction schemes proposed by
the two students and concluded that Student 2s
synthesis would give the desired product and Student
1s synthesis would yield an alcohol and an alkene
instead of the desired product.

206. If such factors as competing side reactions and
recovery of the product are considered, which of
the following compounds is the best solvent for
the synthesis?
A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) t-Butanol
D) n-Butanol

207. Which of the following
1
H NMR spectra
represents the synthetic product desired by the
instructor?
A)
B)
C)
D)

208. The reaction shown in Step 2 of Student 2s
scheme occurs by what reaction mechanism?
A) S
N
1
B) S
N
2
C) E1
D) E2


209. An active halide such as Ar
3
CX reacts directly
with an alcohol with no need for an alkoxide ion,
because the halide undergoes solvolysis to form:
A ) a carbanion.
B ) a carbene.
C) a free radical.
D ) a carbocation.

210. If a geminal dihalide reacts with two equivalents
of alkoxide, the product is:
A ) an acetal.
B ) a 1,3-diether.
C) an ortho ester.
D ) a cyclic ether.


211. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts to decrease
urine output by increasing the water permeability
of the walls of:
A ) the glomerulus.
B ) Bowmans capsule.
C) the loop of Henle.
D ) the distal tubule and collecting duct.

212.

The diagram above shows the pattern of
inheritance of a certain disease. Females are
represented by circles, males by squares.
Individuals that exhibit the disease are
represented by shaded circles or squares. What is
the most likely method of inheritance of this
disease?
A ) Autosomal dominant
B ) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked dominant
D ) Sex-linked recessive

213. Suppose that an extract from a muscle cell
contains only the following: all the enzymes of
the glycolytic pathway, including the enzyme
that converts pyruvate to lactate; phosphate and
other salts; NAD
+
and ADP. When the extract is
incubated anaerobically and glucose is
introduced, neither pyruvate nor lactate is
produced. What must be added in order for
pyruvate to be made?
A ) O
2
B ) ATP
C) NADH
D ) Acetyl-coenzyme A

214. Table 1 shows the average composition of the
fatty acids obtained by hydrolysis of four oils.

Table 1 Weight % of Acids
Oil Saturated Enoic
Dienoic +
Trienoic
Coconut 92 6 2
Palm 47 43 10
Olive 9 86 5
Tung 2 6 92

If equal weights of oils are hydrolyzed, which oil
will decolorize the largest volume of bromine in
carbon tetrachloride?
A) Coconut
B) Palm
C) Olive
D) Tung

215. Which of the following hormones is LEAST
directly regulated by the anterior pituitary?
A) Cortisone
B) Epinephrine
C) Progesterone
D) Thyroxin

216. The mineral component of human bone is a salt
that consists primarily of all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) calcium.
B) phosphate.
C) potassium.
D) hydroxyl groups.

MCAT Practice Test 6R Answer Sheet

Physical Sciences
1 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Verbal Reasoning
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
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90 (A) (B) (C) (D)
91 (A) (B) (C) (D)
92 (A) (B) (C) (D)
93 (A) (B) (C) (D)
94 (A) (B) (C) (D)
95 (A) (B) (C) (D)
96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
100 (A) (B) (C) (D)
101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
105 (A) (B) (C) (D)
106 (A) (B) (C) (D)
107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
113 (A) (B) (C) (D)
114 (A) (B) (C) (D)
115 (A) (B) (C) (D)
116 (A) (B) (C) (D)
117 (A) (B) (C) (D)
118 (A) (B) (C) (D)
119 (A) (B) (C) (D)
120 (A) (B) (C) (D)
121 (A) (B) (C) (D)
122 (A) (B) (C) (D)
123 (A) (B) (C) (D)
124 (A) (B) (C) (D)
125 (A) (B) (C) (D)
126 (A) (B) (C) (D)
127 (A) (B) (C) (D)
128 (A) (B) (C) (D)
129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
134 (A) (B) (C) (D)
135 (A) (B) (C) (D)
136 (A) (B) (C) (D)
137 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Writing Sample
138
139

Biological Sciences
140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
144 (A) (B) (C) (D)
145 (A) (B) (C) (D)
146 (A) (B) (C) (D)
147 (A) (B) (C) (D)
148 (A) (B) (C) (D)
149 (A) (B) (C) (D)
150 (A) (B) (C) (D)
151 (A) (B) (C) (D)
152 (A) (B) (C) (D)
153 (A) (B) (C) (D)
154 (A) (B) (C) (D)
155 (A) (B) (C) (D)
156 (A) (B) (C) (D)
157 (A) (B) (C) (D)
158 (A) (B) (C) (D)
159 (A) (B) (C) (D)
160 (A) (B) (C) (D)
161 (A) (B) (C) (D)
162 (A) (B) (C) (D)
163 (A) (B) (C) (D)
164 (A) (B) (C) (D)
165 (A) (B) (C) (D)
166 (A) (B) (C) (D)
167 (A) (B) (C) (D)
168 (A) (B) (C) (D)
169 (A) (B) (C) (D)
170 (A) (B) (C) (D)
171 (A) (B) (C) (D)
172 (A) (B) (C) (D)
173 (A) (B) (C) (D)
174 (A) (B) (C) (D)
175 (A) (B) (C) (D)
176 (A) (B) (C) (D)
177 (A) (B) (C) (D)
178 (A) (B) (C) (D)
179 (A) (B) (C) (D)
180 (A) (B) (C) (D)
181 (A) (B) (C) (D)
182 (A) (B) (C) (D)
183 (A) (B) (C) (D)
184 (A) (B) (C) (D)
185 (A) (B) (C) (D)
186 (A) (B) (C) (D)
187 (A) (B) (C) (D)
188 (A) (B) (C) (D)
189 (A) (B) (C) (D)
190 (A) (B) (C) (D)
191 (A) (B) (C) (D)
192 (A) (B) (C) (D)
193 (A) (B) (C) (D)
194 (A) (B) (C) (D)
195 (A) (B) (C) (D)
196 (A) (B) (C) (D)
197 (A) (B) (C) (D)
198 (A) (B) (C) (D)
199 (A) (B) (C) (D)
200 (A) (B) (C) (D)
201 (A) (B) (C) (D)
202 (A) (B) (C) (D)
203 (A) (B) (C) (D)
204 (A) (B) (C) (D)
205 (A) (B) (C) (D)
206 (A) (B) (C) (D)
207 (A) (B) (C) (D)
208 (A) (B) (C) (D)
209 (A) (B) (C) (D)
210 (A) (B) (C) (D)
211 (A) (B) (C) (D)
212 (A) (B) (C) (D)
213 (A) (B) (C) (D)
214 (A) (B) (C) (D)
215 (A) (B) (C) (D)
216 (A) (B) (C) (D)

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