CNS-ST 2.

1: WAVE PROPAGATION AND MICROWAVE

PRINCIPLES

1. Which is a possible polarization for an
electromagnetic wave:
Answer: Vertical
Horizontal
Circular *

2. Which polarization can be reasonably
well received by a circularly
polarized antenna:
Answer: Vertical
Horizontal
Circular *

3. The number of circular polarization
modes (directions) is:
Answer: 2 *

4. When an EM wave propagates in free
space, it travels as a ___.
Answer: TEM

5. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:
Answer: an isotropic radiator

6. Ground waves are most effective:
Answer: below about 2 MHz *

7. Band most suitable for SSB operation
Answer: 3-30 MHz

8. Frequency band used with submarine
Answer: ELF

9. The SHF range of frequency:
Answer: 3 30 GHz

10. Sky waves cannot be heard:
Answer: in the skip zone *

11. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a
radio wave due to reflection is
called:
Answer: Fading *

12. Ghosts on a TV screen are an example
of:
Answer: multipath distortion

13. Frequency band most suitable for LOS
propagation:
Answer: VHF

14. The troposphere is the:
Answer: lowest layer of the
atmosphere

15. The cumulative sum of the direct,
ground-reflected, and surface waves
is referred to as ____.
Answer: Ground wave

16. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic
wave that travels over the surface
of the earth
Answer: Surface wave

17. ________ travels essentially in a
straight line between the transmit
and the receive antennas
Answer: Direct waves

18. The curvature of the Earth presents a
horizon to space wave propagation
commonly called ___.
Answer: Virtual Height

19. It is the height above Earths surface
from which a reflected wave appears
to have been reflected.
Answer: Virtual Height

20. It is the highest frequency that can
be used for sky wave propagation
between two specific points on
Earths surface
Answer: Maximum Usable Frequency

21. 85 percent of the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is called __.
Answer: Optimum Working
Frequency (OWF)

22. It is defined as the minimum distance
from the transmit antenna that a sky
wave at a given frequency will be
returned to earth.\
Answer: Skip distance

23. At distances greater than the skip
distance, two rays can take
different paths and still be
returned to the same point on Earth.
The two rays are called lower rays
and
Answer: Pedersen ray or upper
ray

24. The area between where the surface
waves are completely dissipated and
the point where the first sky wave
returns to earth is called
Answer: Quiet zone or Skip zone

25. It is defined as the loss incurred by
an electromagnetic wave as it
propagates in a straight line
through a vacuum with no absorption
or reflection of energy from nearby
objects
Answer: Free-space path loss

26. For a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a
distance of 50 km, determine the
free-space path loss
Answer: 142 dB
27. The propagation velocity of
longitudinal waves depends on the
___ of the medium
Answer: compressibility

28. Bending of radio waves from high
density to low density
Answer: refraction

29. Only layer exist at night
Answer: F2

30. Most dense of all the ionized layer of
ionosphere
Answer: F2

31. Present only during daytime
Answer: D

32. Beyond the horizon propagation
Answer: troposcatter

33. Radiation occurring on frequencies
which are whole or multiple of the
original desired frequencies is
called
Answer: harmonic radiation

34. The velocity of radio waves ___ as it
passes from air to the ionosphere.
Answer: increases

35. Ducts often are formed over
Answer: bodies of water

36. Meteor-trail propagation is
Answer: used to send data by
radio *

37. It states that every point on a given
spherical wavefront can be
considered as a secondary point
source of electromagnetic waves from
which other secondary waves or
wavelets are radiated outward.
Answer: Huygens principle

38. Electromagnetic waves traveling within
Earths atmosphere is called ____.
Answer: Terrestrial wave

39. What is the region of the frequency
spectrum from 1000 MHz to 100,000
MHz called?
Answer: Microwave region

40. Microwave theory is based upon what
concept
Answer: Electromagnetic field
theory

41. What kind of material must be used in
the construction of waveguides?
Answer: Conductive Material

42. What causes the current-carrying area
at the center conductor of a coaxial
line to be restricted to a small
layer at the surface?
Answer: Skin effect

43. What is used as a dielectric in
waveguides?
Answer: Air

44. What is the primary lover-frequency
limitation of waveguides?
Answer: Physical size

45. At very high frequencies, what
characteristics are displayed by
ordinary insulators?
Answer: The characteristics of
the dielectric of a capacitor

46. What type of insulator works well at
very high frequencies?
Answer: A shorted quarter-wave
section called a metallic insulator

47. The frequency range of a waveguide is
determined by what dimension?
Answer: The a dimension

48. What happens to the bus bar dimensions
of the waveguide when the frequency
is increased?
Answer: The bus bar becomes
wider

49. When the frequency is decreased so
that two quarter-wavelengths are
longer than the a (wide) dimension
of the waveguide, what will happen?
Answer: Energy will no longer
pass through the waveguide

50. What interaction causes energy to
travel down a waveguide?
Answer: The interaction of the
electric and magnetic fields

51. What is indicated by the number of
arrows (closeness of spacing) used
to represent an electric field?
Answer: The relative strength of
the field

52. What primary condition must magnetic
lines of force meet in order to
exist?
Answer: Magnetic lines of force
must form a continuous closed loop

53. What happens to the H lines between
the conductors of a coil when the
conductors are close together?
Answer: The H lines cancel

54. For an electric field to exist at the
surface of a conductor, the field
must have what angular relationship
to the conductor?
Answer: The field must be
perpendicular to the conductors
55. Assuming the wall of a waveguide is
perfectly flat, what is the angular
relationship between the angle of
incidence and the angle of
reflection?
Answer: The angles are equal

56. What is the frequency called that
produces angles of incidence and
reflection that are perpendicular to
the waveguide walls?
Answer: Cutoff Frequency

57. Compared to the velocity of
propagation of waves in air, what is
the velocity of propagation of waves
in waveguides?
Answer: Slower

58. What term is used to identify the
forward progress velocity of
wavefronts in a waveguide?
Answer: Group velocity

59. What term is used to identify each of
the many field configurations that
can exist in waveguides?
Answer: Mode of Operation

60. What field configuration is the
easiest to produce in a given
waveguide?
Answer: Dominant mode

61. How is the cutoff wavelength of a
circular waveguide figured?
Answer: 1.71 times the diameter

62. The field arrangements in waveguides
are divided into what two categories
to describe the various modes of
operation?
Answer: Transverse electric (TE)
and Transverse magnetic (TM)

63. The electric field is perpendicular to
the a dimension of a waveguide in
what mode?
Answer: TE

64. What determined the frequency,
bandwidth, and power-handling
capability of a waveguide probe?
Answer: Size and shape

65. Loose or inefficient coupling of
energy into or out of a awaveguide
can be accomplished by the use of
what method?
Answer: Slots and apertures

66. What is used to construct irises?
Answer: Metal plates

67. An iris placed along the b dimension
wall produces what kind of reactance?
Answer: Inductive
68. How will an iris that has portions
along both the a and b dimension
walls act at the resonant frequency?
Answer: As a shunt resistance

69. What device is used to produce a
gradual change in impedance at the
end of a waveguide?
Answer: Horn

70. When a waveguide is terminated in a
resistive load, the load must be
matched to what property of the
waveguide?
Answer: Characteristic Impedance

71. What is the primary purpose of a dummy
load?
Answer: Absorb all energy
without producing standing waves

72. The energy dissipated by a resistive
load is most often in what form?
Answer: Heat

73. What is the result of an abrupt change
in the size, shape, or dielectric of
a waveguide?
Answer: Reflections

74. A waveguide bend must have what
minimum radius?
Answer: Greater than 2
wavelengths

75. What is the most common type of
waveguide joint?
Answer: Choke joint

76. What is the most likely cause of
losses in waveguide system?
Answer: Improperly connected
joints or damaged inner surface

77. What is the primary purpose of a
directional coupler?
Answer: Sampling energy within a
waveguide

78. How far apart are the two holes in a
simple directional coupler?
Answer: wavelength

79. What two variables determine the
primary frequency of a resonant
cavity?
Answer: Size and shape of the
cavity

80. Energy can be inserted or removed from
a cavity by what three methods?
Answer: Probes, Loops, and Slots

81. Inductive tuning of a resonant cavity
is accomplished by placing a
nonmagnetic slug in what area?
Answer: The area of maximum H
lines

82. Ferrite devices are useful in
microwave applications because they
possess what properties?
Answer: Magnetic properties and
high resistance

83. Which of the two types of electron
motion (orbital movement and
electron spin) is more important in
the explanation of magnetism?
Answer: Electron spin

84. Rotating the plane of polarization of
a wavefront by passing it through a
ferrite device is called what?
Answer: Faraday rotation

MICROWAVE COMPONENTS AND CIRCUITS

85. What is the primary advantage of bulk-
effect devices over normal pn-
junction semiconductors?
Answer: Larger microwave power
outputs

86. What happens to the electrons of a
gallium-arsenide semiconductor when
they move from the normal low-energy
conduction band to the high-energy
conduction band?
Answer: The electrons become
immobile

87. The point on the current curve of a
gallium-arsenide semiconductor at
which it begins to exhibit negative
resistance is called what?
Answer: Threshold

88. The domain in a gallium-arsenide
semiconductor has what type of
electrical field when compared to
the other regions across the body of
a semiconductor?
Answer: A field of much greater
intensity

89. What characteristic of a gunn
oscillator is inversely proportional
to the transit time of the domain
across the semiconductor?
Answer: Frequency

90. What is the junction arrangement of
the original avalanche transit-time
diode?
Answer: pnin

91. What causes dc bias energy to be
absorbed by avalanche electrons and
given up to the microwave field
applied to an avalanche transit-time
diode?
Answer: the negative-resistance
property

92. What is the capacitive reactance
across a point-contact diode as
compared to a normal junction diode?
Answer: lower

93. What are the most important advantages
of the Schottky barrier diode?
Answer: lower forward resistance
and low noise

94. At frequencies above 100 MHz, the
intrinsic (i) region causes a pin
diode to act as what?
Answer: variable resistance

95. The pin diode is primarily used for
what purpose?
Answer: a switching device

96. The microwave tube that is a linear
beam tube, in which the interaction
between the beam and the RF field is
continuous, is the ___.
Answer: traveling wave tube

97. In microwave communications, what
concepts may be used to analyze
interference by obstacles near the
path of a radio beam?
Answer: Fresnel zone

98. The scope of radar system displays ___.
Answer: target range, but not
position *

99. Blind speed solution is to
Answer: vary the pulse
repetitive rate

100. The band using frequency in the band
of 27-40 GHz is ____.
Answer: ka

101. The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver
is inversely proportional to the
________.
Answer: pulse width

102. Carrier frequency 8 GHz and a
distance 50 km. Determine FSL.
Answer: 144.48 dB
km MHz SL
d f f log 20 log 20 44 . 32 + + =

103. Calculate the effective radiated
power (ERP) of a repeater with 200 W
transmitting power output, 1 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer loss, 3
dB circulator loss, and feedline
antenna gain of 10 dB?
Answer: 398 W

10 3 3 1
) (
+ =
dB T dB
P ERP

104. Find the cutoff frequency for the
TE10 mode in an air-dielectric
waveguide with an inside cross
section of 2 cm by 4 cm.
Answer: 3.75 GHz
a
c
2 =
c
c
c
f

=

105. Find the cutoff wavelength of a
waveguide with a dimension of 2 cm
by 4 cm.
Answer: 8 cm

106. Find the cutoff wavelength of a
circular waveguide with an internal
radius of 2 cm and a Bessel constant
kr = 1.84
Answer: 0.068 m or 6.8 cm

r
c
k
r t

2
= d
c
7 . 1 =

107. Find the group velocity for the
waveguide with a cutoff frequency of
3.75 GHz and operating at 5 GHz.
Answer: 198 x 10^6 m/s

2
1
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
f
f
c v
c
g


108. Find the characteristic impedance of
the waveguide used with a cutoff
frequency of 3.75 GHz at a frequency
of 5 GHz
Answer: 570 ohms

2
1
377
|
|
.
|

\
|

=
f
f
Z
c
o


109. Find the guide wavelength for the
waveguide used with a phase velocity
of 454 x 10^6 m/s at a frequency of
5 GHz
Answer: 9.08 cm

f
v
g
p
=

110. A microwave communication uses plane
reflector as passive repeaters. The
diameter of the parabolic antenna is
18 ft., while the effective area is
310 ft^2. Determine the reflector
coupling factor.
Answer: 0.906

2
4
ft
ft
A
D l
t
=


RADAR

111. Radar surface-angular measurements
are referenced to true north and
measured in what plane?
Horizontal Plane

112. The distance from a radar set to a
target measured along the line of
sight is identified by what term?
Range

113. How much time is required for
electromagnetic energy to travel 1
nautical mile and return to the
source?
12.36 microseconds

114. In addition to recovery time, what
determines the minimum range of a
radar set?
Pulse width

115. Atmospheric interference with the
travel of electromagnetic energy
increases with what rf energy
characteristic?
Frequency

116. How is prt related to prf?
1/prt = prf

117. What type of radar transmitter power
is measured over a period of time?
Average Power

118. What term is used to describe the
product of pulse width and pulse-
repetition frequency?
Duty Cycle

119. What type of target bearing is
referenced to your ship?
Relative bearing

120. What type of radar detects range,
bearing, and height?
Three-dimensional

121. What characteristic/s of radiated
energy is/are altered to achieve
electronic scanning?
Frequency or phase

122. What term is used to describe the
ability of a radar system to
distinguish between targets that are
close together?
Target resolution

123. The degree of bearing resolution for
a given radar system depends on what
two factors?
Beam width and range

124. What happens to the speed of
electromagnetic energy traveling
through air as the altitude
increases?
Speed increases

125. What term is used to describe a
situation in which atmospheric
temperature first increases with
altitude and then begins to decrease?
Temperature inversion

126. What radar subsystem supplies timing
signals to coordinate the operation
of the complete system?
Synchronizer

127. What radar component permits the use
of a single antenna for both
transmitting and receiving?
Duplexer

128. What is the simplest type of scanning?
Single lobe

129. What are the two basic methods of
scanning?
Mechanical and electronic

130. Rotation of an rf-feed source to
produce a conical scan pattern is
identified by what term?
Nutation
131. The Doppler effect causes a change in
what aspect of rf energy that
strikes a moving object?
Frequency

132. The Doppler variation is directly
proportional to what radar contact
characteristic?
Velocity

133. The Doppler method of object
detection is best for what type of
objects?
Fast-moving targets

134. The beat frequency in a swept-
frequency transmitter provides what
contact information?
Range

135. What factor determines the difference
between the transmitted frequency
and the received frequency in an FM
transmitter?
Travel Time

136. What type of objects are most easily
detected by an FM system?
Stationary

137. What transmission method does NOT
depend on relative frequency or
target motion?
Pulse Modulation

138. What transmission method uses a
stable CW reference oscillator,
which is locked in phase with the
transmitter frequency?
Pulse-Doppler

139. What type of radar provides
continuous range, bearing, and
elevation data on an object?
Track Radar

140. Radar altimeters use what type of
transmission signal?
Frequency Modulated (FM)

141. A surface-search radar normally scans
how many degrees of azimuth?
360 degrees

142. What limits the maximum range of a
surface-search radar?
Radar Horizon

143. What is the shape of the beam of a
surface-search radar?
Wide vertically, narrow horizontally

144. Why is the range capability of 3D
radar usually less than the range of
2D radar?
Higher operating frequency
145. Fire-control tracking radar most
often radiates what type of beam?
A narrow circular beam

146. Tracking radar searches a small
volume of space during which phase
of operation?
Acquisition

147. What width is the pulse radiated by
fire-control tracking radar?
Very Narrow

148. Which beam of missile-guidance radar
is very wide?
Capture Beam

149. What is the purpose of the
synchronizer in a radar system?
Controls system operation and timing

150. What is the purpose of the majority
of circuits in a radar system?
Timing and Control

151. A self-synchronized radar system
obtains timing trigger pulses from
what source?
Transmitter

152. What type of multivibrator can be
used as a radar master oscillator?
Free-running

153. In an externally synchronized radar,
what determines the prr of the
transmitter?
The Master Oscillator

154. Which of the basic timing circuits
produces sharp trigger pulses
directly?
Blocking oscillators

155. What are the two basic types of
transmitters?
Keyed oscillator and power-amplifier
chain

156. What controls transmitter pulse width?
Modulator

157. In addition to a flat top, what
characteristics must a modulator
pulse have?
Steep leading and training edges

158. What type of modulator is most
commonly used in modern radar
systems?
Line-pulsed

159. What type of tube best meets the
requirements of a modulator
switching element?
Thyratron

160. What modulator element controls the
rate at which the storage element
charges?
Charging Impedance

161. What two forms of instability are
common in magnetrons?
Mode Skipping and Mode Shifting

162. What is the effect on magnetron
operation if the magnetic field
strength is too high?
Magnetron will not oscillate

163. What is the typical frequency range
about the center frequency of a
tunable magnetron?
5 percent

164. What is the primary advantage of
power-amplifier transmitters over
keyed-oscillator transmitters?
Frequency Stability

165. What type of klystron is used as the
final stage of a power-amplifier
transmitter?
Multicavity Klystron

166. What transmitter component allows the
radiation of a large number of
discrete frequencies over a wide
band?
Frequency Synthesizer

167. What is the greatest limiting factor
in a receivers detectable range?
Noise

168. What type of receiver is most often
used in radar system?
Superheterodyne

169. What IF frequencies are normally used
in radar receivers?
30 or 60 MHz

170. Which component of the receiver
produces the signal that is mixed
with the received signal to produce
the IF signal?
Local Oscillator

171. What receiver circuit actually
produces the IF frequency?
Mixer

172. The IF amplifiers are connected in
what amplifier configuration?
Cascade

173. Which receiver component converts the
IF pulses to video pulses?
Detector

174. What type of target has a fixed phase
relationship from one receiving
period to the next?
Stationary

175. What signal is used to synchronize
the coherent oscillator to a fixed
phase relationship with the
transmitted pulse?
Coho Lock Pulse

176. What is the phase relationship
between the delayed and undelayed
video?
Opposite

177. A monopulse receiver has how many
separate channels?
Three

178. If a target is on the bearing axis of
the radiated beam, what is the input
to the bearing IF channel?
Zero

179. What characteristic of the bearing
and elevation output signals
determines the direction of antenna
movement?
Phase

180. What are the three fundamental
quantities involved in radar
displays?
Range, Bearing, and Elevation

181. What coordinates are displayed on an
rhi scope?
Range and Elevation

182. What coordinates are presented on a
ppi scope?
Range and Bearing

183. What type of deflection is preferred
for a crt electron beam?
Electromagnetic

184. Which of the two types of deflection
coils (fixed or rotating) is used
most often?
Fixed

185. What type of ranging circuit is most
often used with a radar that
requires extremely accurate range
data?
Range gate or range step

186. The range sweep in a range-gate
generator is started at the same
time as what other pulse?
Transmitter

187. Range-marker generators produce
pulses based on what radar constant?
The radar mile (12.36 microseconds)

188. What radar scope uses a range step
for range measurement?
The A Scope

189. Which of the two general classes of
antennas is most often used with
radar?
Directional

190. The power gain of an antenna is
directly related to what other
antenna property?
Directivity

191. A parabolic reflector changes a
spherical wavefront to what type of
wavefront?
Plane

192. How many major lobes are produced by
a paraboloid reflector?
One

193. What type of radiator normally drives
a corner reflector?
Half-wave

194. The broadside array consists of a
flat reflector and what other
elements?
Two or more half-wave dipoles

195. Horn radiators serve what purpose
other than being directional
radiators?
Waveguide impedance matching devices

196. The spectrum of a radar transmitter
describes what characteristic of the
output pulse?
Frequency Distribution

197. Where should the transmitter spectrum
be located with respect to the
receiver response curve?
In the center

198. The ideal radar spectrum has what
relationship to the carrier
frequency?
Symmetrical above and below the
carrier frequency

199. The display screen of a spectrum
analyzer presents a graphic plot of
what two signal characteristics?
Power and Frequency

200. The peak power of radar depends on
the interrelationship of what other
factors?
Average Power, Pulse Width, and prt

201. Transmitter power readings are most
often referenced to what power level?
1 milliwatt

202. Receiver bandwidth is defined as
those frequencies spread between
what two points of the receiver
response curve?
Half-power points

203. What type of cooling is used to
control ambient room temperature?
Air conditioning

204. A typical liquid-cooling system is
composed of what loops?
Primary and Secondary

205. A pulsed magnetron with an average
power of 1.2 kW and a peak power of
18.5 kW. One pulse is generated
every 10 ms. Find the duty cycle and
the length of a pulse.
D = 6.5% ; T = 0.65 ms

D P P
peak ave
=
TOTAL
ON
cycle
T
T
D =

PRR
PW
D
cycle
=




206. A radar transmitter has a power of 10
kW and operates at a frequency of
9.5 GHz. Its signal reflects from a
target 15 km away with a radar cross
section of 10.2 square meters. The
gain of the antenna is 20 dBi.
Calculate the received signal power.
10.1 fW
( )
( )
4 3
2 2
4
m
T
R
r
G P
P
t
o
=

207. Find the Doppler shift caused by a
vehicle moving toward a radar at 60
mph, if the radar operates at 10 GHz.
1.778 kHz

c
f v
f
i r
D
2
=