Which ego-defense mechanisms are most prominently used in obsessive-compulsive disorders?

introjection is defined as a psychic representation of a loved or hated object taken into one's ego system; in projection, a person attributes to another ideas, thoughts, feelings, and impulses that are a part of his or her inner perception, but are unacceptable compensation is a conscious or unconscious defense mechanism by which a person tries to make up for an imagined or real deficiency that is physical, psychologic, or both displacement of the ego-dystonic idea into an unrelated and senseless activity temporarily lowers the anxiety of the individual. By carrying out the act, the client attempts to undo the uncontrollable impulse. Counting compulsions and rituals are examples of undoing rationalization is unconscious defense mechanism in which an irrational behavior, motive, or feeling is made to appear reasonable; suppression is a conscious defense mechanism by which a person deliberately forgets those ideas, impulses, and affects that are unacceptable 2. Three of the following conditions are frequently characteristic of the client with anorexia nervosa. Which one is not? hoarding food eating only low-calorie foods napping frequently to conserve energy abusing laxatives and diuretics 3. Lorazepam (Ativan) is primarily effective in treating which of the following? hallucinations

delusions anxiety incoherent speech 4. In severe, major depression, which of the following defense mechanisms is most prominent? introjection projection sublimation rationalization 5. The ego-defense mechanism thought to be used by clients with phobic disorders is which of the following? sublimation displacement substitution suppression 6. Of the following side effects, which one is not expected with nortriptyline (Aventyl) 100 mg daily? blurred vision dry mouth urinary retention restlessness 7. The most common side effects of ECT include which of the following? aphasia and gait difficulties nausea and vomiting confusion and memory loss diarrhea and GI distress 8. Which of the following medications is used in conjunction

with ECT? succinylcholine (Anectine) as a muscle relaxant methohexital (Brevital) as an anesthetic AtSO4 as an anticholinergic All of the above 9. The most important advantage a depressed client gains from a group therapy is: improved social interactions and focus on other's problems improved reality orientation greater insights into problems through the concept of universality greater insight and knowledge of self through feedback provided by group members 10. Dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision are characteristic symptoms of the action of imipramine (Tofranil) on which of the following body systems? cardiovascular system endocrine system autonomic nervous system respiratory system 11. The therapeutic blood level for lithium therapy is maintained between which of the following? 0.8 and 1.8 mEq/L 2.5 and 3.5 mEq/L 5.0 and 7.5 mg/ml 0.3 and 0.75 mg/ml 12. As part of a teaching plan on lithium carbonate, clients are instructed to have lithium levels determined every 1 to 3 months when they are outpatients. Which statement best describes the reason for this?

lithium carbonate can produce potassium and magnesium depletion triglyceride levels can increase as the lithium level increases lithium carbonate in large quantities produces sedation resulting in safety risks a narrow margin of safety exists between therapeutic and toxic levels of lithium carbonate 13. The initial treatment of a rape survivor can significantly affect the psychologic impact the assault will have on the survivor. The first information elicited from the client should be which of the following? marital state of the survivor survivor's perception of what occurred whether the rapist was known to her how she feels about having an abortion of she becomes pregnant 14. The initial signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are: hypotension, bradycardia, and decreased salivation fever, dehydration, and convulsions tremors, nervousness, and diaphroresis permanent cognitive impairment and ataxia 15. If a client experiences hallucinations during alcohol withdrawal, which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention? a.a quiet room and PRN benzodiazepine medication bed rest, soft music, and fluids hot tea every 2 hours, blood pressure check every 30 minutes, and restraints ice cream every 2 hours, blood pressure check every 15 minutes, and restraints

16.

Select the medication that best helps control hallucinations and delusions: haloperidol (Haldol) isocarboxazid (Marplan) alprazolam (Xanax) paroxetine (Paxil)

17.

Which of the following activities attended by a client with agoraphobia indicates an improvement in the client's condition? milieu group in the dayroom occupational therapy in the adjunctive therapy room recreational therapy on the outside volleyball court Friday lunch in the hospital cafeteria

18.

When planning the initial nursing care plan of a client with obsessive-compulsive handwashing behavior, which of the following should receive the highest priority? client will maintain a role in the family client will discontinue the handwashing behavior client will verbalize major causes of the handwashing behavior client will reestablish skin integrity

19.

A male lawyer has been committed to a psychiatric facility after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. One morning while walking outside with the nurse, the client runs away. The immediate responsibility of the nurse would be to notify the: Client's psychiatrist of the elopement Probate judge who committed the client Client's family that the client has left the hospital Local law enforcement officers of the client's escape

20.

When planning care for a client with severe agoraphobia, the

nurse should first: Determine the client's degree of impairment Support the client's self-esteem through verbal interactions Teach the client biofeedback techniques to reduce anxiety Expose the client gradually to anxiety-provoking situations 21. Although upset by a young client's continuous complaints about all aspects of care, the nurse ignores them and attempts to divert the conversation. Immediately following this exchange, the nurse discusses with a friend the various stages of development of young adults. The defense mechanism the nurse is using is Substitution Sublimation Identification Intellectualization 22. The best initial approach to take with a self-accusatory, guiltridden client would be to: Contradict the client's persecutory delusions Accept the client's statements as his beliefs Medicate the client when these thoughts are expressed Redirect the client whenever a negative topic is mentioned 23. A client with a bipolar mood disorder, manic phase, had been hyperactive and sarcastic to the nurse and other clients. This behavior has been decreasing and the client tells the nurse, "My husband and I have problems getting along sometimes. We see things differently." The response by the nurse that would be the least therapeutic would be: "Explain what you mean by seeing things differently." "Not getting along with one's spouse can be upsetting." "You are calmer today. What has made the difference?"

"Tell me about a specific time when you and your husband had problems." 24. Some clients repeatedly perform ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings. The nurse recognizes that these behaviors are: Obsessions Compulsions Under personal control Related to rebelliousness 25. The nurse plans to teach a client to use healthier coping behaviors that consciously can be used to reduce anxiety. These include: Eating, dissociation, fantasy Sublimation, fantasy, rationalization Exercise, talking to friends, suppression Repression, intellectualization, smoking

1.

A woman of 38 weeks AOG is experiencing true labor when her contraction pattern shows: occasional irregular contractions irregular contractions that increase in intensity regular contractions that remain the same regular contractions that increase in frequency and duration

2.

The nurse should encourage her gravid patient to void frequency during labor, primarily to: prevent urinary infections enhance fetal descent strengthen the vaginal and perineal muscles assess urine specimens for albumin

3.

The placenta forms from the: chorionic villi and deciduas vera chorionic villi and decidua capsularis deciduas basalis and deciduas vera chorionic villi and decidua basalis

4.

When performing Leopold's maneuvers, which of the following would the nurse ask the client to do to ensure optimal comfort and accuracy? breathe deeply for one minute empty her bladder drink a full glass of water lie on her left side

5.

The nurse instructs a primigravid patient to increase her intake of Magnesium because of its role with which of the following? prevention of demineralization of the mother's bones synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids and fats amino acid metabolism synthesis of neural pathways in the fetus

6.

After instructing a primigravid client about the functions of the placenta, the nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching when she says that which of the following hormones is produced by the placenta: testosterone estrogen progesterone HcG

7.

During a childbirth preparation class, a primigravid client at 36 weeks gestation tells the nurse, "My lower back has really

been bothering me lately." Which of the following exercises suggested by the nurse would be most helpful? pelvic rocking deep breathing tailor sitting squatting 8. What is a common endocrine response to pregnancy? decrease cortisol levels decrease production of prolactin increase plasma parathyroid hormone increase maternal blood glucose level 9. Combined oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the production of: FSH & prolactin LH & estrogen FSH & LH Estrogen and progesterone 10. The nurse should instruct her client to discontinue the oral contraceptive and call the physician immediately if she experiences: hypomenorrhea dysmenorrhea severe headache leucorrhea 11. Assessment of primigravid client reveals cervical dilatation at 8cm and complete effacement. The client complains of severe back pain during this phase of labor. The nurse explains that the client's severe back pain is most likely caused by the fetal occiput being in a position that is identified as which of the

following? breech transverse posterior anterior 12. While the nurse is caring for a multiparous client in active labor at 37 weeks gestation, the client tells the nurse, "I think my water just broke." Which of the following would the nurse do first? turn the client on the right side assess the fetal heart rate pattern assess the color, amount and odor of fluid check the client's cervical dilation. 13. The physician orders oxytocin to be added to the IVF of a 26year old multigravid client at 38 weeks AOG after vaginal delivery. The nurse anticipates administering the oxytocin after delivery of which of the following first placenta second placenta first twin second twin 14. While making a home visit to a postpartum client on day 10, the nurse would anticipate that the client's lochia would be: dark red pink brown white 15. Which of the following forms the basis for the teaching plan about avoiding medication use unless prescribed for a

primiparous client who is breastfeeding? breast milk quality and richness are decreased the mother's motivation to breastfeed is diminished medications may be excreted in breastmilk to the nursing neonate medication interfere with the mother's let-down reflex 16. A client is admitted to the hospital with contractions that are about 1-2 minutes apart and last for 60 seconds. Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is dilated 8cm. The client is in which stage labor? latent phase active phase third stage transitional phase 17. During the third postpartum day, which of the following would the nurse be most likely to find in the client: she's interested in learning more about newborn care she talks a lot about the birth experience she sleeps whenever the baby isn't present she requests help in choosing a name for the baby 18. When assessing a client's episiotomy, the nurse should be especially careful to observe: location discharge and odor edema and approximation subinvolution 19. In performing a routine fundal assessment, the nurse finds that the client's fundus is boggy. The nurse should first:

call the physician massage the fundus assess the lochial flow obtain an order for methelergonovine 20. Which assessment of a woman in labor can be determined by vaginal examination? fetal weight cervical dilatation strength of contraction fetal head circumference 21. The postovulation rise in BBT is due to the high blood level of which hormone? FSH HPL estrogen progesterone 22. A pregnant woman's history reveals one pregnancy, terminated by elective abortion at 10 weeks, birth of twins at 37 weeks and a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks. According to TPAL system, which of the following describes her present parity. 0-2-2-2 2-0-2-2 0-1-2-2 1-0-2-2 23. Which principal factor cause vaginal patient to be acidic? cervical mucus changes secretion from skene's glands the action of doderlein's bacillus

secretions from Bartholin's gland 24. Which normal assessment finding can the nurse expect in the 34th week of pregnancy? Braxton-Hicks contractions, joint hypermobility and backache Dysuria, constipation, hemorrhoids and lightening Feeling of tranquility and heightened introspection Morning sickness, breast tenderness 25. What are the 2 fetal membranes? ectoderm and mesoderm chorion and amnion chorion and endoderm amnion and chorionic villi A client has returned to the nursing unit following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client is lying supine. To completely assess the client for postoperative bleeding, the nurse should do which of the following? Check the abdominal dressing Check the perineal pad Ask the client about a sensation of moistness Roll the client to one side after checking the perineal pad and the abdominal dressing 2. A nurse notes redness, warmth, and a purulent drainage at the insertion site of a central venous catheter in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse notices the physician of this finding because: Infections of a central catheter site can lead to septicemia The client is experiencing an allergy to the TPN solution The TPN solution has infiltrated and must be stopped The client is allergic to the dressing material covering the site

1.

3.

A nurse instructs a client about the procedure to perform the Breast Self-Examination (BSE). Which of the following indicates a need for further instructions? "I don't need to do that, I'm too old for that." "I do BSE 7 days after I get my period." "I examine my breasts in the shower." "I lie on my back to examine my breasts."

4.

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 2-year-old child. The best site to select for the injection is the: Ventral gluteal muscle Dorsal gluteal muscle Deltoid muscle Vastus lateralis muscle

5.

A client has a pH of 7.51 with a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to administer which of the following medications that would be ordered to treat this acid-base disorder? Sodium bicarbonate Furosemide (Lasix) Acetazolamide (Diamox) Spironolactone (Aldactone)

6.

A nurse is caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of Altered Oral Mucous Membranes. The nurse would avoid using which of the following items when giving mouth care of this client? Nonalcoholic mouthwash Soft toothbrush Lip moistener Lemon-glycerin swabs

7.

A client has a serum sodium level of 129 mEq/L as a result of hypervolemia. The nurse consults with the physician to determine whether which of the following most appropriate measures should be instituted? Providing a 2-g sodium diet Providing a 4-g sodium diet Fluid restriction Administering intravenous hypertonic saline

8.

When administering an intramuscular injection in the gluteal muscle, the nurse places the client in which best position to relax the muscle? With On their side with the knee of the uppermost leg flexed On their side with the knee of the lowermost leg flexed Prone with a toe-in position Sims' with a toe-in position

9.

A nurse plans to administer a medication by IV bolus through the IV primary line. The nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the primary IV solution. The most appropriate nursing action to safety administer the medication is to: Call the physician for an order to change to route of the medication Start a new IV line for the medication Flush the tubing before and after the medication with normal saline Flush the tubing before and after the medication with sterile water

10.

The nurse suspects the occurrence of an air embolism in a client with a triple lumen catheter. If an air embolism were present, the nurse would likely note which of the following? Hypertension

Diminished breath sounds A "churning" sound heard over the right ventricle on auscultation Rales heard in the lung bases on auscultation 11. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness which complication of TPN? Bibasilar crackles Weak pulse Decreased blood pressure Flat neck veins with the head of the bed at 45 degree 12. A nurse is caring for a client who has an order to receive an intravenous intralipid infusion. Which of the following actions does the nurse take as part of proper procedure before hanging the infusion? Add 100 mL of normal saline solution to the bottle Attach the in-line filter Remove the bottle from the refrigerator Check the solution for separation or an oily appearance 13. A nurse has an order to infuse a unit of blood. The nurse checks the client's intravenous line to make sure that the gauge of the intravenous catheter is at least: 14 gauge 19 gauge 22 gauge 24 gauge 14. A client began receiving a unit of blood 30 minutes ago. The client rings the call bell and complains of breathing difficulty, itching, and a tight sensation in the chest. Which of the following is the first action of the nurse?

Recheck the unit of blood for compatibility Check the client's temperature Stop the transfusion Call the physician 15. A home care nurse finds a client in the bedroom, unconscious, with pill bottle in hand. The pill bottle contained the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft). The nurse immediately assesses the client's: Blood pressure Respirations Pulse Unrinary output 16. A nurse is checking a unit of blood received from the blood bank and notes the presence of gas bubbles in the bag. The nurse should take which of the following actions? Add 10 mL of normal saline solution to the bag Agitate the bag gently to mix contents Add 100 units of heparin to the bag Return the bag to the blood bank 17. A nurse is doing a dressing change on a venous stasis ulcer that is clean and has a growing bed of granulation tissue. The nurse avoids using which of the following dressing materials on this would? Wet-to-dry saline dressing Wet-to-wet saline dressing Hydrocolloid dressing Vaseline gauze dressing 18. A nurse is preparing to suction a client's tracheostomy. To promote deep breathing and coughing, the client should be positioned in the:

Supine position Lateral position High-fowler's position Semi-fowler's position 19. A nurse is giving bed bath for a client who is on strict bed rest. To increase venous return, the nurse bathes the client's extremity by using: Long firm strokes from distal to proximal areas Firm circular strokes from proximal to distal areas Short, patting strokes from distal to proximal areas Smooth, light strokes back and forth smooth proximal to distal areas 20. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube. The nurse assesses gastric residual before administering the tube feeding to: a.Confirm proper nasogastric tube placement Determine patency of the tube Assess fluid and electrolytes Evaluate absorption of the last feeding 21. A client is brought into the emergency department after being in a car accident. A neck injury is suspected. The client is unresponsive and pulse less. The nurse opens the client's airway by which method? Head tilt-chin lift Lifting the head up, placing the head on two pillows, and attempting ventilate Jaw-thrust maneuver Keeping the client flat and grasping the tongue 22. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via central intravenous (IV) line is scheduled to receive an antibiotic by the IV route. Which action by the nurse is appropriate before

hanging the antibiotic solution? Ensure a separate IV access for the antibiotic Turn off the TPN for 30 minutes before administering the antibiotic Check with the pharmacy to be sure the antibiotic can be hung through the TPN line Flush the central line with 60 mL of normal saline solution before hanging the antibiotic 23. A client's nasogastric (NG) feeding tube has become clogged. The nurse's first action is to: Flush the tube with warm water Aspirate the tube Flush with carbonated liquids, such as cola Replace the tube 24. A nurse has an order to obtain a 24-hour urine collection on a client with a renal urine collection on a client with a renal disorder. The nurse avoids which of the following to ensure proper collection of the 24-hour specimen? Have the client void at the start time, and place this specimen in the container Discard the first voiding, save all subsequent voiding during the 24-hour time period Place the container on ice, or in a refrigerator Have the client void at the time, and place this medication in the container 25. A nurse suspects that an air embolism has occurred in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central venous catheter when the central line disconnects from the IV tubing. The nurse immediately turns the client to the: Left side with the head higher than the feet Right side with the head higher than the feet

Left side with the feet higher than the head Right side with the feet higher than the head A baby born today at 38 weeks gestation weighs 5 lb 2 oz (2335 g). the nurse should describe the baby as: A normal newborn Chronically ill Low birth weight Very low birth weight 2. In a neonate at 36 weeks gestation, the nurse would anticipate implementation of nursing care for which disorder? Acne Chickenpox Jaundice Scoliosis 3. The nurse would clean a neonate with clean water or non alkaline cleanser two or three per week because: Cleaning stimulates circulation Growth of bacteria is minimized Oils provide nourishment to tissues Regular cleansing prevents irritation 4. If a neonate develops respiratory distress syndrome the nurse should include as an evaluation outcome: Neonates breathes without effort Neonates recover from surgery uneventfully Family seeks genetic counseling Others do not contract disease

5.

A 2 years old infant is diagnosed with severe croup (laryngotracheobronchitis). The nurse caring for this child identifies essential therapeutic measures as being hospitalization and: Corticosteroid Cool humidification Intubation Whirlpool bath

6.

When a nurse observes sign and symptoms of child neglect, appropriate action includes which of the following? Ensure involvement of variety caregivers Oppose parental decision-making Promote a trusting relationship Provide extra stimulation

7.

A 6 years old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with partial and full thickness third degree burns. From this information the nurse can plan burn care that affects: Dermis only Epidermis only All layers of skin All layers of skin, subcutaneous tissues and muscles

8.

Nursing care for child with a third degree burn on the body would focus on: Encouraging mobility Helping the child to scratch the wound Limiting fluid intake Removing crust and eschar

9.

A 10-year-old child broke her left leg and the whole end of the bone protrudes through the skin. The nurse understand this

fracture to be: Compound Greenstick Incomplete Simple 10. A 14-year-old adolescent has a new diagnosis of diabetes. The nurse would expect this to be: Glucose intolerance Insulin dependent diabetes Maturity onset diabetes Plain diabetes 11. Sign and symptoms of ketoacidosis that the nurse would teach a diabetic with a new diagnosis of diabetes would include: Glucose in urine Headache Low blood sugar Thirst 12. A teenage girl is admitted to the adolescent unit with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. The nurse determines that the adolescent has a typical sign of this disease when which of the following is noted? Cool, dry skin Frequent urination Large bulky foul smelling stool Poor appetite 13. The nurse knows that the primary cause of the serious pulmonary problems that children with cystic fibrosis can develop is:

Bronchial constriction Inadequate surfactant Pulmonic stenosis Thick tenacious mucus 14. If pancreatic enzymes are prescribed for a child with cystic fibrosis, the nurse should administer these by which route? Intramuscularly Intravenously Orally Intradermally 15. The nurse promotes exercise in an adolescent with cystic fibrosis because it is therapeutically important to help promote a sense of well being and to: Aid digestion and absorption of nutrients Enhance heart muscle and muscular tone Promote mobilization of lung secretion Stimulate exocrine gland secretions 16. A child with cystic fibrosis may be treated with a mist tent at home. The nurse would want the family to identify the reason for the mist to help: Dilate alveoli Minimize secretions Prevent dehydration Relieve dyspnea 17. Postural drainage is prescribed for home care. The family and child need to learn about the therapy and all positions for treatments. The nurse would teach the family and child which position to help move secretions from the right lower lobes. Lying on back with head lowered

Lying on the left side with head lowered Lying on the left with head raised Sitting with left knee bent 18. As a nurse you know that the child with cystic fibrosis must learn to avoid: Dog and cat hair Bacterial infections Sodium chloride Ultraviolet light 19. A child is admitted with bronchial asthma. The respiratory sign that the nurse would expect to see includes: Sleep apnea Inspiratory stridor Productive cough Prolonged expiration 20. In the management of an episode of acute asthma, the nurse would not expect to include: Antibiotics Antiemetics Corticosteroids Bronchodilators 21. The nurse knows that which of the following is frequently associated with myelomeningoceles? Hydrocephalus Intussusceptions Mental retardation Pneumonia 22. A mother brings her 2-year-old child to the clinic. The child is

drooling, agitated, and appears to be in respiratory distress. The pediatrician suspects epiglottis. Which action of the nurse is best? Allow the mother to hold the child Insist that the mother leave the examination room Give the child cool fruit to drink Obtain a throat culture 23. The nurse explains to the mother that the usual cause of epiglottis is: B haemolytic streptococcus Haemophillus influenaza Respiratory synctial virus Staphylococcus aureus 24. An infant is being admitted for cleft lip repair tomorrow morning. The nurse collecting data from the mother will expect to obtain information about: Drooling Noisy respiration Sucking problems Swallowing difficulty 25. During the first 24 hours postoperatively after a cleft lip repair, the nurse would: Apply elbow restraints to the infant Position the infant prone Keep the infant upright in an infant seat Use a mist tent to facilitate the infants breathing When the fetal position is LOA, the point of maximum intensity of the FHR would be located in

the ______ quadrant of the maternal abdomen. Left Upper Right Upper Left Lower Right Lower 2. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart? Circumflex artery Internal mammary artery Left anterior descending artery Right coronary artery 3. Ms. C is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding ulcer. She is to receive 4 units of packed cells. Which nursing intervention is of primary importance in the administration of blood? Checking the flow rate Monitoring the vital signs Identifying the client Maintaining blood temperature 4. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) primarily attacks which of the following tissues? Connective Heart Lungs Nerve 5. Which of the following terms is used to describe a thrombus lodged in the lungs? Hemothorax

Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary hypertension 6. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection & end to end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NGT in the early post op period to be: Clear Mucoid Scant Discolored 7. Which of the following oral medications is administered to prevent further thrombus formation? Warfarin Heparin Furosemide (Lasix) Metoprolol (Lopressor) 8. Which of the following tests is the major diagnostic test for ulcers? Abdominal X-ray Barium swallow Computed tomography scan Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) 9. A child diagnosed with meningitis is restless & irritable when first hospitalized. To promote the child's comfort, which of these actions should the nurse take initially? Discourage the parents from staying with the child Keep environmental noise to a minimum Position the child in a supine position for 12 hours

Postpone all scheduled testing 10. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit for seizure activity. The physician orders Phenobarbital. The nurse provides the parents with instructions regarding the correct administration of this medication. The nurse would evaluate as effective when the parent identify the need to: Skip dose if child vomits Discontinue the medication when seizure activity stops Double the next dose if the child misses a dose Notify the physician if severe headache & skin rash 11. Which of the following fracture is classic for occurring from trauma? Brachial and clavicle Brachial and humerus Humerus and clavicle Occipital and humerus 12. A woman who has had rheumatoid arthritis for several years is admitted to the hospital. Upon physical examination of the client, the nurse should expect to find: Asymmetric joint involvement Heberden's nodes Obesity Small joint involvement 13. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis? An inflamed out pouching of the intestine A noninflamed out pouching of the intestine The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents

An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it 14. Which of the following symptoms indicate diverticulosis? No symptoms exist Change in bowel habits Anorexia and low-grade fever Episodic, dull or steady midabdominal pain 15. What tests should be ordered if hypothyroidism is suspected? Liver function tests Hemoglobin A1C T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone 24-hour urine free cortisol measurement 16. A client is being admitted to the antepartum unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following factors predispose to the development of this condition? Trophoblastic disease Maternal age older than 35 years Malnourished or underweight clients Low levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 17. When giving a postpartum client self-care instructions, the nurse instructs her to report heavy or excessive bleeding. Which of the following would indicate heavy bleeding? Saturating a pad in 15 minutes Saturating a pad in 1 hour Saturating 1 pad in 4 6 hours Saturating a pad in 8 hours 18. When providing information about treatments for diabetes insipidus to parents, a nurse explains the use of nasal spray

and injections. Which of the following indications might deter a parent from choosing nasal spray treatment? Applications must be repeated every 8 to 12 hours Applications must be repeated every 2 to 4 hours Nasal sprays can't be used in infants Measurements are too difficult 19. The discovery of hypospadias is usually made by which of the following people? By the primary health care provider when doing a neonatal assessment By the primary health care provider, just before circumcision By the mother when she sees her neonate for the first time By the nurse doing the neonatal assessment 20. Statistics about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) may not be reliable for which of the following reasons? Most adolescents seek out treatment for their STD Adolescents are usually honest with their parents about their sexual behavior All sexually transmitted diseases must be reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Chlamydial infections and human papillomavirus (HPV) infections aren't required to be reported to the CDC 21. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care? Coughing & deep breathing Forcing fluids Monitoring CBC count Providing frequent oral care 22. A client diagnosed a having bowel tumor. Several diagnostic

tests are prescribed. A nurse understands that which of the following tests will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy? MRI CT scan Abdominal ultrasound Biopsy of tumor 23. The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy & develops thrombocytopenia. A nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care? Ambulation 3 times daily Monitoring temperature Monitoring platelet count Monitoring for pathological fractures 24. To help meet a patient's self-esteem needs, the nurse should: Encourage the patient to perform self care when able Suggest that the family visit the patient more often Anticipate needs before the patient requests help Assist the patient with bathing & grooming 25. To meet a patient's physical needs, the nurse should: Pull the curtain when providing care Answer the call bell immediately Administer physical hygiene Obtain vital signs