Paper Code: 23 03 Feb.

, 2013

CHRONICLE
IAS ACADEMY
A CIVIL SERVICES CHRONICLE INITIATIVE

IAS 2013 TEST SERIES

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

Time Allowed: 2 Hours INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST PAPER CODE NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE RESPONSE SHEET. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the test booklet. This Test Booklet contains 75 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select one response, which you want to mark on the Response Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question (s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Response Sheet provided All items carry equal marks. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use ONLY BALL POINT PEN. Use pencil to fill all the remaining ovals in OMR Sheet. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Maximum Marks: 150

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Chronicle IAS Academy

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
(i) Any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by or under the Constitution. (ii) Any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by any other law made by Parliament and State Legislature. (iii) Any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by notification issued or order made by the appropriate government. (iv) Public authorities under RTI also include body owned, controlled or substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate government but does not include non-government organisations. Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i iii and iv (b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i iii and iv (b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above 4. Recently, in Enrica Lexie case, Supreme Court has declared that Union of India can try the accused by setting up special court and State of Kerala has no jurisdiction in the case. Consider the following statement in this context and select the correct answer: (i) According to the court, Union of India is entitled both under its Domestic Law and the Public International Law to exercise rights of sovereignty upto 24 nautical miles from the baseline. (ii) According to the court, Union of India can only exercise sovereign rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone for certain purposes. (iii) According to the court, State of Kerala has jurisdiction only upto Contiguous Zone. Codes: (a) i and ii only (c) i only (b) ii and iii only (d) All of the above 2. The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Indian Constitution. Which of the following statements regarding the writ of Certiorari is/are correct? I. It is issued by the higher court to the lower court either to transfer the case pending with the latter to itself or to quash the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicial authority. II. The writ is issued not only against authorities of the State but also to private individuals or organizations if necessary. III. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the question with a duty to act judicially. Codes: (a) Only I (c) I and III (b) I and II (d) All of the above 5. Distribution of power between the Centre and states has been provided for in the Constitution of India for the smooth running of the Government. Which of the following functions are parts of the union list? 3. Consider the following statements about the Natural Disaster Reduction and mitigation and select the correct answer: 1. Citizenship, naturalization and aliens. 2. Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication.
Polity and Governance

1. Recently Central Information Commission (CIC) has decided to hear a case on the issue of whether political parties come under Right to Information (RTI). In this context consider the following statement about the definition of public authorities provided under RTI Act 2005 and select the correct answer:

(i) Due to the global warming and the rising frequency of occurrence of natural disasters in these years, the prevention and alleviation against natural disasters deserve more and more attention by governments all over the world. (ii) The International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction (IDDR) is commemorated annually on 13 October. It was approved by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. (iii) It provides a way to promote a global culture of disaster reduction, including disaster prevention, mitigation and preparedness. (iv) The theme of the 2012 International Day for Disaster Reduction was "Women and Girls the Invisible Force of Resilience".

3. Establishment of standards of weight and measure. 4. Estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land. Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above.

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
6. Match the following: (i) 118th Amendment (1) Establishment of Bill. Lokpal and Lokayukta (ii) 116th Amendment (2) Special provisions Bill for the HyderabadKarnataka Region (iii)115th Amendment (3) Reservation in Bill promotions for SCs and STs (iv) 117th Amendment (4) Introduction of Bill Goods and Services Tax (GST) Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Only II (d) Neither I nor II (a) Only I (c) Both I and II 9. Which of the following statements about RIDF are true? Codes: (a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 (b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 (c) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3 (d) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 7. India's judicial system is characterized by systemic problems, including corruption, delays, pendency, increasing costs, limited legal aid, and a lack of appropriately trained lawyers and judges. Thus to overcome this Law Ministry had set up Gram Nyayalayas in 2009. The salient features of the Gram Nyayalayas are: I. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its Presiding Officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court. II. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of only Civil Courts. III. An appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) II only (d) III only (a) I and II (c) I and III 1. It stands for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund. 2. It is maintained by the National Bank of Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) 3. It is constituted out of a portion of the shortfall in the priority sector lending of the banks. 4. State governments have the freedom to borrow out of the RIDF corpus and launch infrastructural improvement projects. (b) 2, 3 and 4. (d) All of the above. Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3. (c) 1, 3 and 4. 10. Consider the following statement about the Union Public Service Commission. (i) President has the authority to decide about the composition of the Commission. (ii) President also has the authority to determine the conditions of services of chairman and members of commission. (iii) President can also determine the ground or circumstances over which the chairman and members of commission can be removed. Which among the above is/are not correct? (b) iii only (d) ii only (a) i and iii only (c) i only 11. Consider the following statements about the recently notified 14th Finance Commission and select the correct answer: (i) 14th Finance Commission will be headed by Y. V. Reddy and will have three full-time members.
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I. Under this system the elector votes not for individual candidates but for a list or slate of a particular party in multi-member constituencies. II. Parties make lists of candidates to be elected, and seats get allocated to each party in proportion to the number of votes the party receives and their members at the top of the list are elected.

8. There are many methods of organizing elections. Read the following statements with respect to the Party List Method of Voting.

Polity and Governance

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Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i, iii and iv (b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above i) Building Quality and Strengthening Local Institutions. ii) Emphasis on Social Mobilization. iii) Separation of Delivery and Policy Making Functions iv) Capacity Building. v) The Problem of Central Ministries Acting as Silos. Codes. (a) i, ii, iii and iv (c) i, iii and iv (b) i, ii, iii and v (d) All of the above 12. Emergency Provisions in part XVIII of the Constitution deal with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof. The provisions under the National Emergency include: I. The President can declare such an emergency if the Cabinet recommends in oral for doing so. II. The proclamation of emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by absolute majority of the total membership of the Houses as well as 2/3 majority of members present and voting within one month. III. In case the Lok Sabha stands dissolved at the time of proclamation of emergency or is not in session, it has to be approved by the Rajya Sabha within one month and later on by the Lok Sabha also within fifteen days of the start of its next session. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (b) Only III (d) I and III (a) Only I (c) I and II 15. Consider the following about the doctrine of severability and select the correct answer: i) The doctrine of severability means severing part of a statute which is inconsistent with any of the constitutional provisions and particularly the provisions of fundamental rights. ii) Supreme Court of India considered the doctrine of severability for the first time in Kesavananda Bharati Case. iii) The severability of the valid and invalid provisions of a Statute does not depend on whether provisions are enacted in same section or different section; it is not the form but the substance of the matter that is to be considered. Codes: (a) All of the above (c) i and iii (b) i and ii (d) i only 13. Which of the following is not a part of the mandate for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes? 16. Match the following: List1 1. Article 111 (a) To inquire into specific complaints relating to rights and safeguards of SCs. (b) To take action against the perpetrators of violations of the rights and safeguards of the SCs. (c) To participate and advise in the planning process relating to the socio-economic development of the SCs. (d) To submit an annual report to the President on these matters. 2. Article 123 3. Article 200 4. Article 213 List II I) assent to the bills/veto power of President to the bill passed by parliament II) ordinance making power of Governor. III) Presidential veto over state legislation. IV) ordinance making power of President.
Polity and Governance

(ii) The commission will devise a formula for sharing of taxes and grants between the Centre and the states for a five year period from April 1, 2015 to 2020. (iii) Term of reference of commission includes recommending measures to generate revenue surpluses for capital investment as well as potential for additional resource mobilization to improve the tax to GDP ratio. (iv) It will also look into the impact of the proposed goods and services tax and suggest a mechanism to compensate for any revenue loss.

14. With rapid expansion of the economy, rising per capita incomes, and growing awareness and assertion of rights by an increasingly educated population, both the need for good governance and the demand for good governance have increased. Which of the following reforms in different areas have been included in 12th five year plan approach paper?

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1-I, 2-IV, 1-I, 2-IV, 1-IV, 2-I, 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II 3-II, 4-III 3-III, 4-II 3-II, 4-III

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
17. Which of the following is not a part of the mandate of the National Knowledge Commission (NKC)? (a) Build excellence in the educational system to meet the knowledge challenges of the 21st century and increase India's competitive advantage in fields of knowledge. (b) Promote the use of knowledge capabilities in making government an effective, transparent and accountable service provider to the citizen and promote widespread sharing of knowledge to maximize public benefit. (c) Exercise Control over the content of the programmes aired through the mass media and satellite television. (d) Promote creation of knowledge in S&T laboratories and its applications in agriculture and industry. I. The citizen has, within ten years after registration or naturalization, been sentenced in any country to imprisonment for a term of not less than two years; II. The citizen has shown disloyalty or disaffection towards the Constitution by an Act or speech. (b) II only (d) None of the above Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (c) Both I and II 20. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution has granted a special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Read the following statements with respect to this: I. Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects contained in the Union List but the residuary powers rest with J&K. II. The Parliament also has power to legislate Preventive Detention laws for the state. III. Along with the six fundamental rights, DPSP and Fundamental Duties; the Fundamental Right to property is also guaranteed in J & K. Which of the above statements are true? (b) Only III (d) II and III (a) Only I (c) I and III 18. In the context of increasing water sharing disputes between basin States, central government has proposed amendments in the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 to quickly resolve water sharing dispute. Consider the following about these proposed amendments and select the correct answer: (i) According to the proposed amendments, water disputes Tribunal's award will be given the force of an order/decree of the Supreme Court. (ii) Amendment provides for the establishment of a single tribunal in place of multiple tribunals to adjudicate on inter-State water disputes in a fixed time-frame of two years, which may be extended by one year. (iii) It is proposed that the single tribunal shall have eight members, including a chairperson and vice-chairperson. (iv) The tribunal shall not have any benches and every dispute will be decided by the full bench to make the decision free from any bias. Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i, iii and iv
Polity and Governance

19. The Constitution of India provides single citizenship for the entire country and the citizens enjoy all civil and political rights. A person can lose Indian citizenship either by the process of Renunciation; Termination or Deprivation. Read the following statements with respect to the clauses specified under Citizenship Act, 1955 for the process of deprivation.

21. The Nuclear Safety Regulatory Authority Bill is believed to be an important turning point in the direction of conformity of Indian legislations to the international norms. Consider the following statements in the above context: 1. The Bill seeks to dissolve the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board and replace it with the Nuclear Safety Regulatory Authority (NSRA). 2. The NSRA shall regulate nuclear safety and activities related to nuclear material and facilities. The government can exempt facilities from NSRA's jurisdiction if they are related to national defence and security. 3. The Bill establishes the Council of Nuclear Safety to review policies on nuclear safety. The Council shall include the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission.
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(b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above

4. Orders of the NSRA cannot be appealed before any Appellate Authority. 5. The Bill penalizes all violations with imprisonment for up to five years. Which of the above statements are correct? (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

In this context Juvenile Justice Act 2000 plays an important role. Consider the following statements about the Act and recent amendments to the Act and select the correct answer: (i) The Act provides for constituting five members Child Welfare Committee, a quasijudicial body, at district level. (ii) The Committee shall have the final authority to dispose of cases for the care, protection, treatment, development and rehabilitation of the 'Children in Need of Care and Protection' as well as to provide for their basic needs and protection of human rights. (iii) The amendment of 2006 to the Act prohibits the publication of name, address, etc. of juvenile or child in need of care and protection in any newspaper, magazine, and news-sheet or visual media. (iv) The amendment of 2011 to the Act provides for separation of children suffering from diseases like leprosy and TB, etc. from rest of the occupants in juvenile homes in order to protect the other children. Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i, iii and iv (b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
22. The Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Parliament has been vested with different powers. Match the following powers with the correct article mentioned in the Constitution. List A List B A. Parliament's I. Article 266 (3) Control over Legislature B. Parliament's II. Article 75 Control over Executive C. Parliament's III. Article 253 Control over Finance Codes: (b) A-II; B-I; C-III (d) A-II; B-III; C-I (a) A-III; B-II; C-I (c) A-III; B-I; C-II 23. Lack of qualified human resources in sufficient numbers is the biggest constraint in the adoption of e-Governance all over the country. In this context government had set up an Expert Committee on HR Policy for e-Governance under the chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani. Consider the following about the report of committee and select the correct answer: (i) The Committee has recommended for establishment of Electronic Services Division headed by Additional Secretary in Central Ministries. (ii) It has also recommended for establishment of Electronic Delivery of Services (EDS) Directorate in States/UTs and Dedicated Project Teams for managing projects. (iii) It has also recommended for enhancement of role of National Information Centre (NIC) as a Technology Advisor to the Government. Codes: (a) i and ii (c) i and iii (b) ii and iii (d) All of the above 25. The National Food Security Bill, 2011 envisaged to be a watershed in the history of independent India. It is also seen as the one of the important achievements of the present government along with RTE, MGNREGA and RTI. Which of the following statements are important provisions of the bill? 24. Juvenile justice system has made the headline throughout the year due to one reason or others.
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1. The Bill proposes food-grain entitlements for up to 75 percent of the rural and up to 50 percent of the urban population. Of these, at least 46 percent of the rural and 28 percent of the urban population will be designated as priority households. The rest will be designated as general households. 2. Priority households will be entitled to 10 kg of subsidized food-grains per person per month. General households will be entitled to at least 5 kg. 3. The central government will determine the percentage of people in each state that will belong to the priority and general groups. State governments will identify households that belong to these groups. 4. The Bill proposes meal entitlements to specific groups which include: pregnant
Polity and Governance

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 26. The PESA Act gives radical governance powers to the tribal community and recognizes its traditional community rights over local natural resources. Which of the following statements in the context of powers of Gram Sabha are parts of the provisions of the act? 1. The power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant. 2. The ownership of minor forest produce. 3. The power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribes. 4. The power to manage village markets by whatever name called. 5. The power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 Codes: (a) i and ii (c) ii and iv (b) ii and iii (d) i and iv 29. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, is a key piece of forest legislation passed in India on December 18, 2006. Which of the following statements are parts of the provisions of the act? Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 27. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states "Equality before law and equal protection of law". Read the following statements with respect to the provision of "Equal Protection of Law"? I. The concept is of British origin. II. It states - equality of treatment under equal circumstances. III. It denotes any form of discrimination between peoples is prohibited irrespective of their caste, creed, class, etc. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) I and II (d) All (a) Only II (c) II and III 28. In the context of recent cases of crimes against women Justice J. S. Verma committee was constituted to suggest the reforms in laws and 1. The Scheduled Tribes (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 seeks to recognise forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDSTs) who have been occupying the land before October 25, 1990. 2. An FDST nuclear family would be entitled to the land currently occupied subject to a maximum of 2.5 hectares. The land may be allocated in all forests including core areas of National Parks and Sanctuaries. 3. In core areas, an FDST would be given provisional land rights for five years, within which period he would be relocated and compensated. If the relocation does not take place within five years, he gets permanent right over the land. 4. The Act outlines 12 forest rights which include the right to live in the forest, to self cultivate, and to use minor forest produce. Activities such as hunting and trapping are prohibited. 5. The Gram Sabha is empowered to initiate the process of determining the extent of forest rights that may be given to each eligible individual or family.
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Polity and Governance

women and lactating mothers, children between the ages of six months and 14 years, malnourished children, disaster affected persons, and destitute, homeless and starving persons. 5. Grievance redressal mechanisms will be set up at the district, state, and central levels of government.

administrative system. Consider the following statements about the recommendations of the committee and select the correct answer: (i) The committee has not recommended the death penalty in rape cases but has allowed it in the rarest of the rare rape cases. (ii) According to the report of the committee minimum sentence for a rapist should be enhanced from 7 years to 10 and that life imprisonment must always mean jail for 'the entire natural life of the convict'. (iii) The committee has recommended for establishing a statutory authority for dealing with issues related to education and nondiscrimination of women and children. (iv) The committee has also not suggested for lowering the age of a juvenile from 18 to 16.

Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
(i) Under the Tenth Schedule an independent member of House becomes disqualified if he joins any political party after election. (ii) Under the Tenth Schedule disqualification does not take place if half of the member of a party merged with other party. (iii) Supreme court in Kihoto Hollohan (1993) case has declared that decision of speaker in case of defection can be challenged on the ground of malafides, perversity, etc. (iv) 91st Amendment Act 2003 provides that any member who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall not be appointed as minister. Codes: (a) i, ii and iii (c) i, iii and iv (b) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above ListA (Veto powers) A. Absolute veto List B (provisions) I. President returns the Bill or part of it for the reconsideration. B. Suspensive veto II. President is withholding the assent to a Bill. C. Pocket veto III. President is not taking any action for an indefinite time. Codes: (b) A-I; B-II; C-III (d) A-I; B-III; C-II (a) A-II; B-I; C-III (c) A-II; B-III; C-I 33. In the context of ongoing debate about the provision of safe drinking water in the country. Consider the following statement about the Right to Water and select the correct answer: 31. The Micro Finance Institutions (Development and Regulations) Bill 2012 is a significant step in the direction of bringing empowerment to the rural enterprises. Which of the following statements constitute the provisions of the draft bill? 1. The Bill seeks to provide a statutory framework to regulate and develop the micro finance industry. 2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) shall regulate the micro finance sector; it may set an upper limit on the lending rate and margins of Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs). 3. MFIs are defined as organisations providing micro credit facilities up to Rs 15 lakh, thrift collection services, pension or insurance services, or remittance services. 4. The Bill provides for the creation of councils and committees at central, state and district level to monitor the sector. 5. The Bill provides for a Micro Finance Development Fund managed by RBI; proceeds from this fund can be used for loans, refinance or investment to MFIs. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (i) The right to clean and safe drinking water and sanitation has been explicitly provided in the Constitution of India. (ii) UN Human Rights Council, in 2010, declared that the right to water and sanitation is a human right, equal to all other human rights, which implies that it is justiciable and enforceable. (iii) Supreme Court in Narmada Bachao Andolan vs Union of India (2000) case had said that "water is the basic need for the survival of human beings and is part of the right to life and human rights as enshrined in Article 21. Codes: (a) i and ii only (c) i only (b) ii and iii only (d) All of the above 34. The Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill, 2011 envisaged to bring pathbreaking regulation in the controversial area of land development and rehabilitation. Which of the following statements are parts of the provisions of the bill? 1. The process for land acquisition involves a Social Impact Assessment survey, preliminary notification stating the intent for
Polity and Governance

30. In the context of recent decision of the speaker of Haryana legislative assembly on disqualification of 5 MLAs consider the following statements about the Anti-defection law in India and select the correct answer?

32. A Bill becomes an Act after being duly passed by both the houses of Parliament and given an assent by the President. According to the Indian Constitution the President has the veto powers over the Bills passed by the Parliament. Match the followings:

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

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2.

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
3. 4. 5. Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 35. Consider the following statements in the context of the 73rd constitutional amendment act: 1. To act as the national nodal point for coordination of all efforts at generation and dissemination of technologies relevant to rural development in its wider sense. 2. To act as a catalyst for development of technology appropriate for the rural areas, by identifying and funding research & development efforts and pilot projects by different agencies and institutions particularly voluntary organizations. 3. To act as a clearing house of information and data bank. 4. To disseminate knowledge on rural technology to manufacturers of machinery tools, equipment and spare parts so that large scale production of technically improved machinery, etc. is carried out in the private cooperative and public sectors. 5. To assist and promote programmes aimed at conservation of the environment and natural resources. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 1. The Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat whether or not chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area shall have the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats. 2. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such a manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law provide. 3. A Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level shall be elected by, and from amongst the elected members. 4. Not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes ) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat. (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Which of the above statements are true? (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 37. PFRDA was established by Government of India on 23rd August, 2003. The Government has, through an executive order dated 10th October 2003, mandated PFRDA to act as a regulator for the pension sector. Consider the following statements in the context of the PFRDA bill 2011: Which of the above statements are true? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4
Polity and Governance

acquisition, a declaration of acquisition, and compensation to be given by a certain time. All acquisitions require rehabilitation and resettlement to be provided to the people affected by the acquisition. Compensation for the owners of the acquired land shall be four times the market value in case of rural areas and twice in case of urban areas. In case of acquisition of land for use by private companies or public private partnerships, consent of 80 per cent of the displaced people will be required. Purchase of large pieces of land by private companies will require provision of rehabilitation and resettlement. The provisions of this Bill shall apply even to acquisitions under 16 existing legislations including the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, the Railways Act, 1989, etc.

36. CAPART is a major promoter of rural development in India, assisting over 12000 voluntary organizations across the country in implementing a wide range of projects. Consider the following statements in the above context of aims and objectives of CAPART:

1. Establishing a statutory regulatory body to be called the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority which will undertake promotional, developmental and regulatory functions in respect of pension funds. 2. Empowering the PFRDA to regulate the National Pension System, as amended from time to time. 3. Empowering the PFRDA to perform promotional, developmental and regulatory functions relating to pension funds (including authorizing and regulating intermediaries) through regulations or guidelines, prescribing the disclosure
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CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
Which of the above are the provisions the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Bill, 2011, inter alia, provides for? (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (a) A, B and C (c) B, C and D (b) A, B and D (d) All of them 38. The Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) have been subjected to some criticism in the recent past because: 1. The states have been reluctant to accept the control of the Centre in the implementation of these schemes. 2. The efficiency of the huge funds spend on development have come into questioning. 3. Because of the multiplicity of the CSS running at the block and the district levels, it has become almost impossible to administer them. 4. The states have been reluctant to devolve execution and monitoring responsibilities to the PRIs. 41. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010 is believed to be a vital piece of legislation to introduce the much needed accountability in the judicial system of the country. Which of the following statements are parts of the provisions of the bill? 1. Judges will be required to declare their assets and liabilities, and also that of their spouse and children. 2. The Bill establishes the National Judicial Oversight Committee, the Complaints Scrutiny Panel and an investigation committee. Any person can make a complaint against a judge to the Oversight Committee on grounds of 'misbehaviour'. 3. A motion for removal of a judge on grounds of misbehaviour can also be moved in Parliament. 4. Though the Oversight Committee may issue advisories or warnings to the judges, but cannot recommend their removal to the President. Which of the above statements are valid reasons for it? (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 39. Which of the following statements is/are correct? i. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes under the 5th Schedule can be altered by the Parliament through ordinary legislation. ii. The 5th schedule of the Constitution contain provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur. (b) ii only (d) none Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 42. Consider the following statements regarding the formation of new State or altering the boundaries of an existing State. Codes: (a) i only (c) both 40. Which of the following statement is/are correct? A. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional body.
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standards, protecting the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds. 4. Authorizing the PFRDA to levy fees for services rendered, etc. to meet its expenses; 5. Empowering the PFRDA to impose penalties for any violation of the provisions of the legislation, rules, regulations, etc.

B. The planning commission is an economic advisory body set up by a resolution of the Union Cabinet in 1950. C. Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is the current chairman of the Planning commission. D. The main function of the Planning Commission is to formulate an integrated Five Year Plan for economic and social development.

A. No Bill for the purpose can be introduced expect on the recommendation of the President. B. The President shall, before giving his recommendation, refer the bill to the Legislative of the State which is going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill, for expressing its views on the changes.
Polity and Governance

C. The Legislative of the State should express its views within the period specified by the President. D. The President is bound by the views of the State Legislature. Which of the above statement is/are correct? (b) A and B only (d) All of them (a) A, B and C (c) B only

45. Consider the following statements: I. In 1936 Dr. M. Visveswarayya underscored the need for planning for industrialisation of the country. II. He suggested a 60 member advisory body from different social sections and interests for the purpose of plan formulation and execution. III. In 1944, a Planning committee under the chairmanship of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru was formed. It published two plans-the Bombay Plan, and the Gandhi Plan.

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
43. Which of the following statements regarding the President of India is false? 1. The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. 2. The supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law. 3. Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. 4. The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by open ballot. (b) 3 and 4 (d) None of the above Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Only I and II are correct Only I and III are correct Only II and III are correct All I, II and III are correct (a) (b) (c) (d) 46. Match the following pairs: Constitutional Provisions I. Addition of Tenth Schedule II. Reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years III. Lays down 10 Fundamental Duties for all Citizens IV. Deletion of Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights Constitutional Amendment A. 52nd Amendment B. 61st Amendment C. 42nd Amendment Codes: D. 44th Amendment (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 4 Select the correct answer from below: I A B B A II B A A B III C C D D IV D D C C 44. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? I. Parliament can provide for grants-in-aid to the States by the Centre. Such sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.----------------------Artcle 275 II. The Centre can grant loans to States and also give guarantee in respect of loans raised by them. --------------------Article 282 III. Parliament can impose restrictions on InterState trade and commerce in the public interest.------------------------Article 301 Select the answer from the codes given below: (a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is corect (c) Only III is corect (d) All are correct
Polity and Governance

(a) (b) (c) (d)

47. In which of the following important matters both the Houses (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha) enjoy equal powers?

I. Election and impeachment of the President. II. Election and impeachment of the VicePresident. III. Approving the Proclamation of emergency and the Proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States.
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Select the correct answer from below: (a) Only I and II (c) Only II and III (b) Only I and III (d) All I, II and III

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
(a) Union Power Committee ----------------Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Steering Committee -----------------------Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Committee on the Functions of the Constitutent Assembly ------------G. V. Mavalankar. (d) Order on Business Committees -------------------B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya Select the correct answer from the below code: (b) Only II and III (d) All are correct (a) Only I and II (c) Only I and IV 52. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the rights of minorities to establish and administer their own educational institutions? A. To choose its governing body in whom the founder of the institute have faith and confidence to manage the affairs of the institution. B. To appoint teaching staff and also nonteaching staff, and to take action if there is dereliction of duty on the part of the employees. C. To admit eligible students of their choice and to set up a reasonable fee structure. D. To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution. (b) A, B and D (d) All of them 49. The Council of Ministers and Cabinet are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction between them. Which of the following is NOT true about the Council of Ministers? I. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament. II. It deals with all major legislative and financial matters. III. It is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Article 74 and 75 of the Constitution. IV. It was inserted in the Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Select the correct answer from below: (a) Only I, II and III (b) Only II and IV (c) Only I, II and IV (d) All of the above Codes: (a) A, B and C (c) B, C and D 50. Which of the following constitutional amendments provides that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People? (a) (b) (c) (d) Eighty-ninth Amendment Act, 2001 Ninety-first Amendment Act, 2003 Ninety-third Amendment Act, 2004 Ninety-fourth Amendment Act, 2004 53. Consider the following statements regarding the determination of doubts and disputes relating to the election of a President or Vice-President dealt with in article 71. A. Such disputes shall be decided by the Supreme Court whose jurisdiction shall be exclusive and final. B. No such dispute can be raised on the ground of any vacancy in the Electoral College which elected the President or the Vice-President. C. If the election of a the President or the VicePresident is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him prior to the date of such decision of the Supreme Court shall be invalidated. D. Barring the decision of such disputes, other matters relating to the election of the President or the Vice-President may be regulated by law made by the Parliament.
Polity and Governance

48. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched regarding the Committees to deal with different tasks of constitution making in the country?

II. It settles disputes between the Council of Ministers. III. It watches the implementation of all decision by the concerned ministries/departments and other executive agencies. IV. It handles the work pertaining to appointment and resignation of ministers, allotment of portfolios to the ministers, and organization and re-organisation of ministries.

51. Which of the following is NOT a role and function of the Cabinet Secretariat in India?

I. It functions as the chief co-ordinating agency in the Central government.

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Which of the above statement is/are correct? (a) A, B and C (c) B, C and D (b) A, B and D (d) All of them

D. When the Vice-President acts as, or discharges the functions of the President, he continues to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States. Codes: (a) A and C (c) B, C and D (b) B and D (d) D only

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
A. Report to the House what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency and administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, may be affected. B. Suggest alternative policies in order to bring efficiency and economy in administration. C. Examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. D. Suggest the form in which the estimates are to be presented to Parliament. (b) A, B and D (d) None of them 57. Which of the following statements regarding the impeachment of a Supreme Court judge are correct? Codes: (a) A only (c) A and D only 55. Which of the following statement is/are correct? A. An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament. B. The previous sanction of the President is required for introducing in Parliament any bill for amendment of the Constitution. C. In some specific Constitutional amendments, the amendment requires to be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States by resolution to that effect passed by those Legislature before, the Bill is presented to the President for assent. (b) A and C only (d) All of them A. The motion should be addressed to the President. B. The motion should be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 100 members of the Rajya Sabha and be delivered to the Speaker or the Chairman. C. The motion is to be investigated by a committee of three comprising one member of each House of Parliament and a distinguished jurist. D. The motion should be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of that House present and voting. (b) A and D (d) B, C and D Codes: (a) A, C and D (c) B and D 58. According to the Right to Information Act 2005, there is a provision under which the Act is not applicable to certain organisations specified in the second schedule of the act. These organisations could be... Codes: (a) A and B only (c) B and C only 56. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect? A. In order to be Vice-President, a person must be qualified for election as a member of the Council of States. B. A formal impeachment is required for the removal of Vice-President. C. When the Vice-President acts as, or discharges the functions of the President, he gets the emolument of the President. (a) Organisations which are very sensitive in nature and are making secret investigations regarding corruption related cases. (b) Organisations which have been given the responsibility of getting the trail of Swiss Bank accounts and investigating the FERA cases. (c) Organisations which are established for intelligence and security work. (d) All the above. 59. Indian Constitution recognises only.. (a) (b) (c) (d) linguistic minorities religious minorities both linguistic and religious minority in addition to linguistic and religious minorities, it also recognises ethnic minority.
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Polity and Governance

54. Which of the following functions of the Committee on Estimates is/are incorrect?

60. The term of Lok Sabha (a) Can be increased only by 1 year at a time during proclamation of emergency. (b) It cannot be increased in view of 44th constitutional Amendement Act. (c) Parliament can extend it for 6 months. (d) None of the above.

64. What is incorrect in respect of National Policy on Voluntary Organisation 2007? (a) They should be self governing, hence should not be controlled by government. (b) They should be definitely registered by government so that they could not misuse the funds. (c) They should be private i.e. separate from government. (d) They do not return the profits generated to the directors.

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List-I A. Vote on account List-II 1. Lumpsum money granted without detailed estimate. 2. Additional expenditure not covered in approved budget. 3. Amount spent in excess of grants. 4. Grants in advance, pending budgetary approval. B. Vote on credit 65. Consider the following statements regarding the rights of SC and ST. 1. According to Article 25(2)(b) of the Constitution trafficking in human being and forced labour is prohibited. 2. Under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution the state is empowered to throw open Hindu religious institutions of public character to all classes of Hindus. C. Supplementary demand D. Excess demand for grants Codes: A 1 1 4 4 Choose the correct answer: (a) (b) (c) (d) B 4 4 1 1 C 3 2 2 3 D 2 3 3 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both are incorrect (d) Both are correct 66. What is not correct regarding Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act 1986)? 62. Consider the following in respect of Minimum Wages Act (1948). 1. Not providing minimum wages is a cognizable offence. 2. Act has a provision for enforcement of the minimum wages. 3. It is for the benefit of SC and ST labourers only. 4. Under this act revision of wages can also be done. (a) It obtains uniformity in the definition of child. (b) It has repealed the Employment of Children Act 1938. (c) It notifies hazardous occupations. (d) It adopts a child friendly approach in the adjudication of child related cases. 67. The charged expenditure includes: Choose the correct options: (a) 1, 2, 3 only (c) 2, 4 only (b) 2, 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 63. What is incorrect with respect of Metropolitan Planning Committee in view of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. (a) Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any court of law. (b) Debt charges for which government of Indian is liable. (c) The salary and allowance of the President of India. (d) All the above. 68. Match the following. PERSONS A. Nandan Nilekani (a) Metropolitan area means an area having a population of 20 lacs and above. (b) Atleast 3/4 th of the members should be elected. (c) Elections of the members of Metropolitan planning commitee has to be done by state Election Commission only. (d) All of the above. B. Sam Pitroda C. Madhava Menon D. Prof. A.M. Khusro ASSOCIATED WITH 1. 11th Finance Commission 2. AADHAAR 3. Criminal Justice Reform(2002-03) 4. National Knowledge Commission (2005-09)
Polity and Governance

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Codes: (a) A4, B2, C3, D1 (c) A2, B4, C1, D3 (b) A2, B4, C3, D1 (d) A4, B2, C1, D3

CH IA R S ON AC I C AD L E EM Y
A. Federal System with a strong Centre has been borrowed from Constitution of USA. B. Amendment of the Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa. C. Directive Principles of the State Policy has been borrowed from the constitution of UK. (b) A and B (d) All of them Codes: (a) A only (c) Both A and B (b) B only (d) None of them 73. Which of the following statement is/are correct? Codes: (a) Only B (c) A and C 70. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental duties is/are correct? A. The Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Art.51A (Part IV A), which has been inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. B. The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by the constitution (86th Amendment) Act,2002. C. There is no provision in the Constitution for the direct enforcement of any of the Fundamental Duties nor for any sanction to prevent their violation. (b) A and C only (d) All of them A. Inter-State Council was constituted in 1990 under Art. 263. B. The Sarkaria Commission recommended the Constitution of a permanent Inter-State Council for Co-ordination among States and with the Union. C. Inter-state Council is chaired by Home Minister. (b) A and C only (d) All of them Codes: (a) A and B only (c) B and C only 74. Consider the following statements regarding the effects of Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Codes: (a) A and B only (c) B and C only 71. Consider the following statements. A. The rights provided by Art.19, would be non existent against the state during emergency. B. Under Art. 359, the right to move to the Court for the enforcement of the rights cannot be suspended. C. Art. 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during Emergency. (b) A and C only (d) All of them A. The Attorney-General of India has the right to speak in the House of the Parliament or in any Committee thereof, and also has the right to vote. B. He is entitled to the privileges of a member of a Parliament in the performance of his official duties. C. The Attorney-General must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court. (b) A and C only (d) All of them Which of the above statements are correct? (a) A and B only (c) B and C only 75. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer? (i) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is a statutory agency for preventing corruption in central government. (ii) It is a multimember body and the commissioners hold office for a term of 4 years or until the age of 65 years. Codes. (a) I, only (c) Both (b) II only (d) None Which of the above statement is/are correct? (a) A and B only (c) B and C only 72. Which of the following statement regarding Union Council of Ministers is/are correct?
Polity and Governance

69. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

A. Though the ministers are collectively responsible to the legislature, they are individually responsible to the President. B. A Minister can take part in the proceedings of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, but he can vote only if he is a member of that House.

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