Hospitality Studies Revision guide

CHs10,11,13,14,17.RSG

Hospitality Studies
HS 101

Study Guide and Questions

Chapters 9, 10,11,13,14, 17 With Multiple Choice

This document is merely a guide to help you study learning from this guide alone is not enough! The exam will also contain questions from the lectures and from the book.

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Chapter 9 - The Meetings Industry

List and describe types of meetings typically held in lodging facilities, explain the role of civic and government organizations in the meetings industry, and describe where most meetings are held. (Pp. 264270) Key Concepts: Types of meetings: association meetings, corporate meetings, trade shows and expositions Civic and government organizations: convention and visitors bureaus; Department or Ministry of Tourism; these organizations market their destinations Meetings are held: mostly in hotels or motels Text Exhibits: Exhibit 1: Sample Organization Chart for a Large Associations Meetings and Travel Department Outline the meeting planning process and summarize career opportunities in the meetings industry. (Pp. 270279) Key Concepts: Meeting planning process: planning the meeting itself (objectives, scheduling, format), choosing a location, choosing a facility Career opportunities: meeting planner, meeting coordinator, exhibits manager; hotel sales manager, hotel convention services manager, hotel catering manager; careers in convention and visitors bureaus; careers in tourism departments; careers as exhibitors or exhibit designers Text Exhibits: Exhibit 2: Sample Meeting Room Setups Exhibit 3: Important Variables Influencing Choice of Facility The largest category in the corporate meetings market is: a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. management meetings. regional meetings. training seminars. sales meetings. public or consumer shows educational shows professional or scientific exhibitions industrial shows

Which of the following is not one of the four kinds of trade shows?

A collection of exhibits specific to one or more closely allied or associated trades describes which of the following? a. b. c. d. professional or technical meeting corporate training seminar wholesale and retail trade show convention and visitors bureau

Meeting groups account for approximately __________ percent of the business of hotels with more than 1,000 rooms. a. b. c. d. 7 50 81 90

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Hospitality Studies Revision guide The meetings market segment accounts for almost all of the business at: a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. retreat centers. all-suite hotels. conference centers. center-city hotels.

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Which of the following is a point that a meeting planner typically negotiates with a hotel? Will there be a charge for the meeting room space? How much will the hotel charge the group for guestrooms? Is the hotel willing to pay for a function, such as a manager's reception? All of the above.

Which of the following is a typical function of a professional exhibitor? a. b. c. d. conducting market studies for hotels with exhibit facilities promoting trade shows booking hotel rooms for exhibitors arranging special transportation options for trade show participants

Chapter 10 - The Cruise Line Business

I. Cruise Industry Today A. 4 market segments 1. Contemporary /Value Segment largest category a. Popular-priced, mass-market, 1st time cruisers (cheaper) b. Ex: Carnival, Norwegian, Royal Caribbean 2. Premier Cruise Lines a. Fewer passengers per ton volume (more expensive) b. Ex: Celebrity, Holland American, Princess 3. Luxury Segment a. Top of the line (1st class, luxurious, unique, customized) b. Ex: Seabourn, Crystal, Cunard, Silversea, Windstar 4. Specialty Lines a. Specialization: single destination b. Ex: American Hawaiian Cruises, Delta Queen Steamboat Co. B. 3 Giant Players 1. Carnival 2. Royal Caribbean Cruise Lines 3. P & O (Princess) C. The Average Cruise Passenger 1. Is around 51 yrs old 2. Earns about $ 64000.- / yr 3. Pays S 200.- / day for all-inclusive package 4. Package includes cabin, 4-5 meals/day, entertainment - not including beverages II. Cruise Ship Organization Page 3 of 13

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A. Ship Operations 1. The Captain Commander-in-Chief, also responsible for all operations & safety on board 2. Chief officer 2nd in command 3. Chief Engineer responsible for ships physical plant 4. Hotel Manager similar to General Manager on land B. Hotel Division 1. Purser money exchange, info center, H.R., guests complaints 2. F & B Manager food included in price; therefore, beverages are usually largest revenue on a ship 3. Chief Housekeeper also known as chief steward 4. Cruise Director entertainers, musicians, baby-sitters, shore excursions 5. Medical Doctor vital position because many cruise passengers are either elderly or physically disabled 1. What percentage of Americans have ever taken a cruise? a. .5 percent b. 15 percent c. 28 percent d. 53 percent 2. Beginning in 1958, transatlantic steamship travel was effectively put out of business as a result of: a. the introduction of more sophisticated modern cruise ships. b. a series of sea tragedies that turned consumers against steamship travel. c. the introduction of transatlantic jet service. d. general lack of interest in travel among consumers. 3. Carnival Cruise Lines created an entirely new market for cruise passengers by focusing on: a. entertainment onboard the ship rather than on the cruise destination(s). b. retirees with large amounts of discretionary time and income. c. the opportunity for passengers to meet new people and fall in love. d. exotic ports of call that attract younger, more affluent guests. 4. A cruise ship is under the command of the: a. chief officer. b. hotel manager. c. cruise director. d. captain. 5. Which of the following statements about the organization of cruise ships is true? a. Cruise ship officers who fail to perform their duties are subject to discipline. b. A cruise ship is run more like a casual hotel than a paramilitary operation. c. The rank of cruise ship staff members is primarily symbolic and carries no real weight. d. Cruise ships must comply only with the laws of the ports they sail from. Page 4 of 13

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6. The pursers office is in some ways similar to the __________ department in a hotel. a. sales and marketing b. engineering c. front office d. reservations 7. The single largest source of onboard revenue on every major cruise ship comes from the sale of: a. food. b. beverages. c. gift shop merchandise. d. chips or markers (for gambling). 8. Shore excursions are: a. typically led by the cruise ship's cruise director and staff. b. a significant part of onboard revenue. c. usually limited to shopping. d. often unexpected surprises for the cruise passengers. 9. A typical medical department on a cruise ship: a. can dispense drugs but cannot perform operations. b. does not employ nurses. c. has enough prescription drugs to stock a small pharmacy. d. does not have a morgue. 10. Seabourn Cruise Line was founded by: a. Norwegian industrialist and entrepreneur Atle Brynestad. b. a young Israeli from Tel Aviv named Ted Arison. c. Miami entrepreneur Leslie Frazer. d. Seattle businessman Stanley McDonald. 11. Seabourn Cruise Line begins serving its passengers as soon as they: a. arrive at their port of departure. b. step onboard the ship. c. formally meet the crew. d. book passage. 12. Seabourns philosophy states that you have to take care of your __________ before you can expect them to take care of your __________. a. suppliers; passengers b. managers; employees c. employees; passengers d. a and c

Chapter 11 - Gaming and Casino Hotels

1. Whales are considered the top of the high-end players; pursued by casinos because of the large amounts of money they spend gambling. 2. The Pit boss is the manager who oversees a group of gaming tables within a casino.

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3. A Marker is a printed or written form which are used to extend credit to customers of the casino. 4. Marketing for hotel casinos includes rebates, complimentary lodging, food, and entertainment; and often gifts as well. 5. The Hold percentage is a calculation used to determine the percentage of chips purchased at a table by customers that is won back by the casino. 6. Floor people or floor managers are the casino employees who supervise dealers? They are trained to enforce good dealing practices, resolve disputes, and watch for cheaters. 7. Casino Hotels are casinos with guestrooms, restaurants, shopping, arcades, and even theme parks attached. 8. Low-end players are those players who gamble modest amounts and usually play slot machines. 9. The role of the Food & Beverage operation in a casino hotel is to make gaming convenient by "fueling" the players so they won't leave the premises to find another dinning experience. 10. Casinos usually divide games into 2 categories; table games, and slot machines. 11. In a casino hotel, the hotel operation is subordinate to the gaming operation. 12. The three main markets that casinos generally target are the: 1) low-end or Grind Players, 2) the middle-range players, and 3) the high-end players which include the Whales. 13. The three types of controls used by all casinos are: 1) accounting, 2) equipment, and 3) human. 14. Casinos that cater to the low-end (grind) players market offer complimentary items to players who have learned that part of the game is to recover some of their losses. The players join free clubs. Members are issued an electronic card that records their volume of play at slot machines. They are awarded points based on how much they play and these are exchanged for food, beverages, and etc. 15. The four most popular table games played in casinos hotels are: 1) Baccarat, 2) blackjack, 3) craps, and 4) roulette.

1. Two modern casino games that have their roots in medieval times are: a. blackjack and roulette. b. craps and poker. c. baccarat and "hazard." d. Chemin de fer and slot machines. 2. In casino hotels, the __________ takes precedence over the __________. a. security division; food and beverage division b. gaming operation; hotel operation Page 6 of 13

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c. d.

accounting department; marketing and sales department hotel operation; gaming operation

3. A table marked with the words "pass line," "dont pass line," "come," and "field" is devoted to which casino game? a. roulette b. baccarat c. craps d. French roulette 4. Printed or written forms that extend credit to a player are known as: a. fill slips. b. croupiers. c. credit slips. d. markers. 5. The person who conducts the table games at a casino is known as a: a. casino manager. b. floor boss. c. dealer or croupier. d. gaming supervisor. 6. Which of the following statements about grind players is false? a. Gaming for them is a form of entertainment. b. They typically negotiate with casinos to minimize their losses. c. They usually enter a casino with a gaming budget in mind. d. b and c 7. The core market for many casinos are customers who spend __________ per visit. a. $25$200 b. $500$1,000 c. $3,000$5,000 d. more than $10,000 8. Casinos frequently reach middle-range customers by: a. using direct-mail campaigns and newsletters. b. recruiting them through agents and friends. c. advertising in popular travel magazines. d. offering free bus tours.

Chapter 13 - Managing Human Resources

1. Job breakdown is the specific, step-by-step procedures for accomplishing each task of a particular job. 2. Productivity standards describe measurements tell a manager how long it should take an employee to complete a task and how many tasks an employee can perform in a given time. 3. A Performance review is a meeting between a manager and an employee to: 1) let the employee know how well he or she is doing, and 2) let the manager know how well he or she is doing hiring and training employees. Page 7 of 13

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4. Job description defines the education and skills an employee must have to perform a job, and the physical requirements of the job. 5. Broadbanding describes what the pay for a particular job is defined in broad bands or ranges, with the top end of the pay range of the lower-level job overlapping the bottomend of the pay range of the job above. 6. Diversity training are programs that seek to make all workers feel comfortable in the work atmosphere regardless of their race, culture, sex, or age. 7. A Job list shows the tasks that must be performed by the individual doing a particular job. 8. The goal of recruiting is to find the best workers available who find the vacant jobs attractive and are willing to work for the wages the business can pay. 9. Evaluation is the final step in a Human Resources program. 10. The basic steps in the training process are: 1) Establish a training policy, 2) define training needs, 3) plan the training, 4) prepare the employees for training, 5) conduct the training, and 6) evaluate the training. 11. The 4 techniques a manager uses to motivate workers and gain their commitment to the company and its goals are: 1) remove the fear of failure, 2) pay a fair wage, 3) offer incentives and rewards for performance, and 4) operate with an open-door policy. 12. All sources of new employees fall into one of two categories: Internal and external. 13. There are five steps involved in selecting an applicant to fill a job position, they are: 1) Receiving and processing applicants, 2) interviewing applicants, 3) evaluating applicants, 4) checking references, and finally 5) hiring the selected person. 14. In large operations the Human Resources department only does the screening and the first interview, the department manager the employee will be working under usually does the second interview. 15. One of the most important steps in the hiring process is checking references. 1. Specific, step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task are given in a job: a. list. b. specification. c. breakdown. d. description. 2. Which of the following defines the education and skills an employee must have to perform a job? a. job list b. job description c. job breakdown d. job specification 3. Which of the following statements about the recruitment of employees, supervisors, or managers is FALSE? Page 8 of 13

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a. b. c. d.

One external source of new employees consists of individuals recommended by current employees. An advantage of advertising for applicants is that usually a lot of people answer the ad. Employers typically use private employment agencies to find supervisory or management personnel. All of the above.

4. Most management positions are filled through the use of: a. advertising. b. college recruitment programs. c. executive recruiters. d. networking. 5. Which of the following statements about human resources (HR) managers and job candidates is true? a. HR managers prefer to use in-person interviews initially to weed out unsuitable job candidates. b. HR managers have the legal right to ask any question they desire when interviewing a job candidate. c. HR managers should check a job candidate's personal references only if they have specific questions regarding a candidate. d. HR managers often are more interested in a job candidate's intellect and attitude than in specific skills. 6. Which of the following statements about employee training is FALSE? a. It is not necessary to constantly train and retrain employees on basic job tasks. b. Training is expensive. c. Training can be used to help employees develop positive attitudes about guest service. d. Managers must define their company's employee-training needs. 7. The more employee awards a company gives, the: a. more competition there is among employees. b. less effective they are as motivators. c. more motivated its employees are likely to be. d. less attention the employees pay to them.

Chapter 14 - Marketing Hospitality

1. Sales promotion consists of sales tools and techniques that are designed to generate an immediate response. 2. The 4 Ps of marketing are: 1) product, 2) place, 3) price, and 4) promotion. 3. Consumer-based pricing result when companies first determine what customers want, what they are willing to pay for it, and then find a way to deliver that product and service at the desirable price. 4. Marketing describe the effort to determine and meet the needs and wants of current and potential customers.

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5. The Marketing mix is the 4 marketing efforts combined: product, place, price, and promotion. 6. Headline, body copy, signature, and logo make up the main components of print media or print advertisements. 7. Public relations include the techniques that a company uses to improve the relationships it has with all of the various public it interacts with. 8. Logotype or Logo is a unique trademark, name, symbol, signature, or device used to identify a company or organization. 9. The difference between marketing and selling is that selling is getting rid of what you have, and marketing is having what other people want. 10. There are 3 things that an advertiser needs: 1) Competitive advantage, 2) unique positioning, and 3) a segmented market. 11. All promotional activities fall into one of 6 groups, they are: 1) Personal selling, 2) advertising, 3) public relations and sponsorship marketing, 4) sales promotion, 5) direct marketing communications, and 6) point-of-purchase communications. 12. The 5 parts of a marketing plan are: 1) Situation analysis, 2) objectives, 3) strategies, 4) tactics, and 5) controls. 13. In order to make good marketing decisions, a restaurant manager must determine 3 things about his customers: 1) what their current and potential customers need or want, 2) how to provide it, and 3) how to persuade them to patronize the restaurant. 21. Describe a typical situation analysis prepared by a marketing department. A market place analysis, a competition analysis, a review of internal data, a target audience profile, and a problems and opportunities section

1. The "Four Ps of Marketing"are: a. product, planning, personality, and performance. b. people, places, psychology, and purchase. c. product, place, price, and promotion. d. promotion, placement, predominance, and professionalism. 2. Managers can raise or lower consumer demand through various strategies if demand for a product or service is: a. static. b. elastic. c. dynamic. d. inelastic. 3. Which of the following is not one of the six categories of promotional activities? Page 10 of 13

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a. b. c. d.

relationship marketing personal selling sales promotion advertising

5. The ability to be an effective salesperson: a. cannot be taught. b. is something you must be born with. c. can be learned. d. depends solely on one's natural personality. 8. The three basic elements of a print advertisement are: a. headline, body copy, signature. b. header, body, footer. c. lead, sell, close. d. headline, caption, close. 10. The goal of public relations is to: a. improve the climate or atmosphere in which a company operates. b. reach prospects who, for one reason or another, will never get a personal sales call. c. increase sales. d. a and b 11. Which of the following statements about publicity is TRUE? a. Publicity is free advertising. b. Publicity is more credible with consumers than an ad. c. Just as with advertising, publicity is controlled by the advertiser. d. Public relations and publicity are the same thing. 12. The aim of sales promotion techniques is to: a. gradually increase sales over time. b. encourage others in the industry (travel agents, for example) to take immediate action. c. encourage consumers to take immediate action. d. b and c

Chapter 17 - Ethics in Hospitality Management

1. Ethics is a set of moral principles and values that we use to answer questions of right and wrong. 2. A Stakeholder is anyone who is affected by the outcome of a given decision such as: your boss, your employees, or the owners of the company you work for. 3. Deontology represents the basic or universal ideals that should direct our thinking, such as: keeping one's promises and always telling the truth.

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4. Utilitarianism describes the ethical behavior consisting of the greatest good for the greatest number. 5. Sexual harassment includes: asking employees for dates, making sexual jokes or comments, touching employees inappropriately, or suggesting that sex will result in a promotion. 6. Categorical imperative is a moral obligation or command that is unconditionally and universally binding. 7. Ethical relativism, or situational ethics refer to the philosophy that holds that our ethical choices are based on what seems reasonable or logical according to our own personal value system. 8. The Golden Rule is Do unto others as you would have them do unto you. 9. Discrimination may be one of the most common violations of ethics in the hospitality industry, some types of discrimination found in the workplace today are: a. Age b. Race c. Religion d. Gender e. Sexual preference f. Nationality g. Physical attributes 10. A hospitality business should have a code of ethics that reflect the company's mission statement. Since hospitality is a "people business", ethics would include dealing with our relationships with other people. 11. What are the 3 questions managers should ask them selves when making a decision? a. Is it legal? Will I be violating civil law or company policy? b. Is it balanced? Is it fair to all concerned; does it promote win-win relationships? c. How will it make me feel about myself?

12. At any one time in any society there is a set of generally accepted relationships, obligations, and duties between societys major institutions and the people known as social responsibility. 13. The 2 major traditions that dominate current thinking in moral philosophy are: a. Deontology b. Utilitarianism

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1. Political theorists have called the set of generally accepted relationships, obligations, and duties between society's major institutions and its people the: a. civil code. b. categorical imperative. c. social contract. d. moral compact. 2. "If all chocolate is fattening, and if this dessert has chocolate in it, then this dessert must be fattening." This is an example of which kind of moral reasoning? a. deductive logic b. sense experience c. science d. intuition 3. Kant's belief that there are basic or universal ideals that should direct our thinking is known as: a. situational ethics. b. scientology. c. theology. d. deontology. 4. A manager who makes ethical decisions on the basis of seeking "the greatest good for the greatest number" is following the principles of: a. deontology. b. utilitarianism. c. the categorical imperative. d. practical ethics. 5. Making certain that an advertised fat-free yogurt sundae is truly fat-free is an example of enforcing: a. National Heart Association guidelines. b. bait-and-switch restrictions. c. Better Health Institute recommendations. d. truth-in-menu laws. 6. Anyone who is affected by the outcome of a given decision is called a(n): a. accessory. b. dependent. c. stakeholder. d. principal.

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