Iit 2011 FST1 QNS P1

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/B.
MAT1/CPM/P(I) - 1
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B-MAT FULL TEST-I
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 252
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 84 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 25) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which
appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
C. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.

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PAPER I
CHEMISTRY PHYSICS MATHEMATICS
1

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shall abide by them.

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IIT-JEE 2011
BMAT1/CPM/P(I)/Qns
05.12.2010
2
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/B.MAT1/CPM/P(I) - 2
CHEMISTRY
TEST-I
PART-I
Atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, K = 39, Ca = 40, Mn = 55, As = 78, I = 127
Avogadros number(N
AV
): 6.023 10
23

Universal gas constant: R = 0.0821 L atm K
1
mol
1
= 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
= 2 cal K
1
mol
1

SECTIONI
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. For the following reaction, the major product is
CH CH NH CH PhCH
heat
O
2
Ag Moist
excess
I CH
3
3 2 2 2

(A) PhCH=CH
2
(B) CH
2
=CH
2
(C) PhCH
2
CH
2
OH (D) OH CH CH
2 3

2. A binary solution contains,
A
x mole fraction of A and
B
x mole fraction of B. Vapour
pressures of pure A and pure B respectively are
A
P and . P
B
The total pressure above the
solution is
(A)
0
B A
0
B
0
A
P x ) P P ( + (B)
0
B A
0
A
0
B
P x ) P P ( +
(C)
0
A A
0
B
0
A
P x ) P P ( + (D)
0 0 0
B A A A
(P P )x P +

3. Consider the following statements
1. The rate of a process is always proportional to its free energy change.
2. The molecularity of an elementary chemical reaction step can be determined by
examining its stoichiometry.
3. The first order reactions follow an exponential time course.
4. Energy of activation is inversely proportional to temperature.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3
4. For the reaction, predict the product

CH
3
CCH + CH
3
OH
O
Product
O
Solvent
HCl (catalyst)

(A)

CH
3
OCHCCH
3

O
OCH
3

(B)

CH
3
OCCOCH
3

O
OCH
3
OCH
3

(C)

CH
3
OCHCCH
3

O
OH
(D)
CH
3
OCH = CCH
3

OCH
3

5. Consider the following statements:
(I) An acidified aqueous solution of KClO
3
when boiled with Iodine produces KIO
3
.
(II) All the four phases of sulphur i.e. Monoclinic, Rhombic, liquid and vapour can
co-exist at a given temperature and pressure.
(III) When O H 5 . CuSO
2 4
is dissolved in water enthalpy change is positive.
(IV) Ethyl acetoacetate gives reddish violet colour on treatment with ferric chloride.
Correct statements are
(A) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (II), (III) and (IV)
(C) (I), (III) and (IV) (D) (I), (II) and (IV)

6. 2-Butenoyl chloride on ethanolysis gives
(A)

CH
3
CH=CHCOEt
O
Cl
(B)

CH
3
CHCH
2
CCl
O
OEt

(C)

CH
3
CHCH
2
COEt
O
Cl
(D) CH
3
CHCH=C=O
OEt

4
7. 0.64 g of calcium oxalate decolorised 100 ml of KMnO
4
solution in acidic medium. 50 ml
of the same KMnO
4
solution oxidized 25 ml of H
2
O
2
solution in acidic medium. The sum of
mass of electrons contained in H
2
O
2
in the given solution is
(A) 1.68 10
3
g (B) 2.47 10
5
g (C) 4.94 10
6
g (D) 1.68 10
5
g

8. Which of the following is not a true per acid?
(A) HClO
4
(B) H
2
SO
5
(C) H
2
S
2
O
8
(D) H
3
PO
5

SECTIONII
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple correct questions. Each question has 4 choices: (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. Which of the following reactions, yield a product with a three membered ring?
(A)

PhCHO + BrCH
2
COEt
O
t-BuO
/t-BuOH

(B)

CH
3
CCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
Cl
KOH
H
2
O
O

(C) 3-bromobutan-2-ol
O H / OH
2

(D)

PhCH=CHCH
3

mCPBA

10. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Excess of KCN is used to separate Cd
2+
ions in the presence of Cu
2+
ions.
(B) In the extraction of Nickel by Mond process, Nickel is obtained by thermal
decomposition of Ni(CO)
4
.
(C) Lyophobic colloids are reversible in nature.
(D) [ ][ ] CuCl ) NH ( Pt
4 4 3
can show co-ordination isomerism.

11. A salt when treated with an alkali, evolves a gas which reduces cupric oxide to copper.
The salt is
(A) NaNO
3
(B)
3 4
NO NH (C)
2 4
NO NH (D) Cl NH
4

12. Primary structure of protein involves
(A) disulphide bonds (B) peptide bonds
(C) vander Waals interaction (D) hydrogen bonds

5
13. Hoffmanns exhaustive methylation of coniine gives (major and minor all)

CH
2
CH
2
CH
3

MeI
N
H
Ag
2
O (moist)
heat
(A) Me
2
NCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH=CHCH
2
CH
3
(E)
(B) Me
2
NCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH=CHCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(Z)
(C) Me
2
NCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH=CHCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(E)
(D) CH
2
=CHCH
2
CH
2
CHCH
2
CH
2
CH
3

NMe
2

SECTIONIII
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
A solution containing nitrate ion was treated with magnesium metal and NaOH, when
4.9 litres of ammonia gas at 300 K and 1 atm was obtained. When the same mass of magnesium
was treated with dil HCl, magnesium was completely converted to MgCl
2
and a certain volume of
hydrogen gas was collected. (Given log 3 = 0.4771, log 5 = 0.699 and log 7 = 0.8451)

14. What fraction of hydrogen gas is consumed to fill six balloons each with a capacity of
1.2 litres at 400 K and 1 atm pressure?
(A) 0.27 (B) 0.37 (C) 0.23 (D) 0.33

15. Total work done by the hydrogen gas, when it expands reversibly from 1 litre to 3 litres at
300 K is
(A) 2.19 kJ (B) 1.19 kJ (C) 2.99 kJ (D) 3.37 kJ

16. The change in entropy, when ammonia gas reversibly expands from 5 litres to 7 litres at a
certain temperature is
(A) 0.64 JK
1
(B) 0.56 JK
1
(C) 0.48 JK
1
(D) 0.72 JK
1

6


Exactly 2.00 gm of an ester (A) containing only C, H and O was saponified with 15 ml of a
1M NaOH solution. Following the saponification the solution required 5.3 ml of 1M HCl solution
to titrate unused NaOH. Ester (A), as well as its saponification products, acid and alcohol, (B) and
(C) respectively were all optically active. Compound (A) was not oxidized by , O Cr K
7 2 2
nor did it
decolorise Br
2
in CCl
4
. Alcohol (C) was oxidized to acetophenone, which on reduction with NaBH
4

gave (D). (D) reacted with acid chloride derived from (B) to give back (A) and one more optically
active compound (E).

17. Ester (A) upon treating with excess MeMgBr followed by acidification gave
(A) CH
3
CHCH
2
C(CH
3
)
2

CH
3
OH
(B)

CH
3
CH
2
CCH
3

CH
3

OH

(C) CH
3
CH
2
CHC(CH
3
)
2

CH
3
OH

(D) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CHC(CH
3
)
2

CH
3
OH

18. Acid chloride of (B) when treated with
4 2
BaSO Pd / H gave a compound which on
treating with alkali and heat gave
(A)

CH
3
CH
2
C=CHCCHO
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3

CH
3

(B)

CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
C=CHCCHO
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3

CH
3

(C)

CH
3
CH
2
C=CHCCHO
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3

CH
3

(D)

CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
C=CHCCHO
CH
3
CH
3

CH
3

7
SECTIONIV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

19. 1-Bromo-2-Butene is treated with Mg in dry ether to give (A) which on treating with ethanal
and on subsequent hydrolysis gives N number of products. The value of N is ________ .

20. Given two separate reactions
(I) (A) Products
(II) (B) Products,
Reaction (I) follows first order kinetics while reaction (II) follows second order kinetics.
Both the reactions have same half lives. When the initial concentration of (A) is n times that
of (B), then the rate of reaction (I) is 1.386 times that of reaction (II) at the start of reaction.
The value of n is ________ .

21. A 0.495 g sample of As
2
O
3
requires 5 ml of x normal solution of
4
KMnO for complete
titration, whereas a 0.83g sample of KI requires 10 ml of y Normal solution of KMnO
4
for
complete conversion of
I to
2
I . The ratio
y
x
is ________ .

22. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds which liberate at least two gases on
heating is ________ .
HS NH , O Cr ) (NH , NO NH , O N , ) Pb(NO , AgNO , NaNO , FeSO
4 7 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 4

23. Amongst the following, the total number of species which are diamagnetic is ________ .
[ ] [ ] [ ], ) CN ( Co K , ) CN ( Cr K , ) CN ( Fe K
6 3 6 3 6 4

[ ] [ ] [ ]
+ + 2
4 3 6 2
3
6 3 4 2
) (NH Pt TiF K , ) Co(NH , ) CN ( Ni K

8
24. The number of species out of the following which undergoes hydrolysis in water is _______ .
, CCl , SF , XeF , TeF , SeF , SF , XeF
4 4 4 6 6 6 6 3 3 2 8 4 4
PH & NCl , SOCl , O P , SiCl

25. The total number of isomers which are primary amines with a molecular formula , N H C
7 4

having no CC bond is ________ .

26. The total number of enolates that can be formed, when 2-Butanone is treated with a base is
________ .

27. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution is 1.58 10
5
mol litre
1
. Given
SP
K of
16
10 2 . 1 AgCN

= and
a
K for HCN is . 10 8 . 4
10
The pH of the Buffer is ________ .

28. A metal S is added in excess to 500 ml of 1 Molar solution of another metal ion
+ n
B
at 25C until the equilibrium,
+
+
n
B S

B S
n
+
+
is reached, If
S / S
n
E
+
and
B / B
n
E
+
are
0.75 V and 0.24 V respectively. Given at equilibrium, the concentration of
+ n
B is
. M 10 15 . 5
18
The value of n is ________ . Given, log 5 = 0.699 and log 2.575 = 0.4108.

9
PHYSICS
PARTII
SECTIONI
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

29. An inextensible string connects two masses m and 4m
and the system rests on a smooth horizontal floor. An
impulse J is imparted to B as shown in figure. The
tension in the string in the subsequent motion is

m
4m
B
l
A
J

(A)
ml
J
2
(B)
ml
J
5
2
(C)
ml
J
5
4
2
(D)
ml
J
20
2

30. Three very long current carrying wires are placed
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the plane of
paper as shown in the figure. All the wires are equally
spaced. The magnetic field will be zero at
(A) two points in region I
(B) one point in region I and one point in region II
(C) two points in region III
(D) one point in region I and one point in region III

i

2i i
a
a
I
II III IV

31. Two rods AC and BC are hinged at the end C and the
ends A and B are moving along the surface with
velocities
A
v 8m/s = and
B
v 4 3 m/s = respectively as
shown. The velocity of hinged point C is
(A) 13 m/s (B) 2 13 m/s
(C) 3 13 m/s (D) 4 13 m/s

A
B
C
60 30
v = 8 m/s
A
v = 4 3m/s
B

10
32. A magnetic field, confined in a cylindrical region of radius R, is
changing at the rate of 4 T/s. A conducting rod PQ of length
2
3
R is placed in the region as shown. The induced emf across
the rod will be

60
C
P
Q

(A) V 6) (
24
2
+
R
(B) V
24
2
R
(C) V
6
2
R
(D) 6)V (
6
2
+
R

33. A steel ball of volume 0.02 m
3
is sinking at a speed of 10 m/s in a closed jar filled with a
liquid of density 2000 kg/m
3
. The momentum of the liquid is
(A) 400 N-s (B) 200 N-s (C) 100 N-s (D) 300 N-s

34. Three immiscible liquids are filled in a container as shown. The
base area of the container is A and coefficient of cubical
expansion of the material of the container is
2
3
while the
coefficient of cubical expansion of the liquids are shown in the
figure. The temperature of the system is increased by T. The
volume of the liquid flown out of the container is

,
3
L

2 ,
3
L
3 ,
3
L

(A)
3
T Al
(B) T Al (C)
3
2 T Al
(D)
2
T Al

35. At t = 0, switch is closed to position 1. Capacitor is initially
uncharged. At t =
2
, switch is shifted to position 2. Then
current as a function of time t is
( is the angular frequency =
LC
1
)
(A) CV
0
cos t (B) CV
0
(1 cos t)
(C) CV
0
(1 sin t) (D) CV
0
sin t

L
V
0

L
C
2
1

11
36. A non uniform rod OA of linear mass density = =
0 0
( x
constant and x is the distance from the point O) and length L is
suspended from the ceiling by a light string at one end A and is
hinged at other end O as shown in the figure. The angular
acceleration of the rod just after the string is cut will be
(A) L g / 2 (B) L g /
(C) L g 3 / 4 (D) L g 4 / 3

x
A
O

SECTIONII
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

37. Ring A can slide on a smooth horizontal rod and block B can
move vertically. Both are attached by an inextensible string. At a
certain instant velocity of ring is v
1
and of block is v
2
. At that
instant ring is at a horizontal distance b from pulley as shown.
Then
(A) v
2
= v
1
cos
(B) a
2
= a
1
cos , where a
2
and a
1
represent the accelerations of
block and ring respectively at that instant
(C) v
1
= v
2
cos
(D) Angular velocity of the ring with respect to an observer on
the pulley is
2 2
1
sin
b a
v
+

B

A
v
1

v
2

b
a

38. A particle is taken to a height h from earths surface and is
projected with a velocity v as shown. Assume h < < R,
g = 10 m/s
2
, R = 6400 km. Choose the correct alternative
(A) If v = 8 km/s, path of the particle will be circular.
(B) If v = 10 km/s, path of the particle will be an ellipse.
(C) If v = 11.2 km/s, path of the particle will be parabolic.
(D) If v = 6 km/s, path of the particle will be an ellipse.
v
h
R

12
39. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the frequency of incident radiation is increased n times
(n > 1). Then
(A) Saturation current remains constant
(B) Stopping potential becomes more than n times of initial stopping potential
(C) The difference of the two stopping potentials is equal to (n 1)(V
s
+/e), where is the
work function and V
s
is the initial stopping potential
(D) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases.

40. A cavity is made inside a solid conducting sphere and a
charge q is placed inside the cavity at the centre. A
charge q
1
is placed outside the sphere as shown in the
figure. Point A is inside the sphere and point B is inside
the cavity. Then
(A) Electric field at point A is zero.
(B) Electric field at point B is
2
0
4
1
y
q
.

A
z
a
R
q
1

q
B
r
x
y

(C) Potential at point A is
+
R
q
a
q
1
0
4
1

(D) Potential at point B is
+ +
r
q
y
q
R
q
a
q
1
0
4
1

41. In an arrangement shown in the figure, d << D, where d is the distance of separation of the
slits S
1
and S
2
and D is the distance between the slits and the screen. Source S is emitting
monochromatic light of wavelength . Then
(A) minimum value of d for the dark fringe at O is
2

(B) minimum value of d for the dark fringe at O is
3

(C) for this value of d, the fringe width is 2
(D) for this value of d, the fringe width is
2

d
p
y
1m 1m
S S
2
S
1
Screen
O

13

SECTION III
Paragraph Type
and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of
these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


Figure shows a small ball of mass m attached to one
end of an inextensible thread whose other end is
connected to a fixed point O at a height
3
2
. Ball is
brought to horizontal level and released from rest.
Length of the thread is l. Horizontal surface is
smooth.

2/3

m
O

42. Velocity of the ball just after it strikes the surface (collision is perfectly inelastic) will be
(A)
3
2
g
(B)
3 3
2 g

(C)
3 3
4 g
(D)
3 4
3 g

43. Magnitude of the impulse on the ball due to the tension, as it loses contact with the surface is
(A) l g m
5 5
3 2
(B) gl m
3 9
5 4

(C) gl m
5
6 2
(D) gl m
9
5 4

44. The maximum height attained by the ball after striking the floor is (floor is smooth) (g = 10 ms
2
)
(A)
32
243
(B)
43
23

(C)
264
43
(D)
8
27

14
Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 & 46

A system consists of two small spheres of mass 1kg
and 2kg interconnected by a weightless spring. At
t = 0, the spheres are set in motion with initial
velocities as shown in figure. Position vector of centre
of mass at t = 0 is j
20 . Initially spring is in its natural

length. System moves in earths gravitational field.

45
20m
2kg
37
1kg
cm
2 5 m/s
A
B
O x
10m/s

45. The momentum of the system at sec 2 = t in kg m/s is (g = 10m/s
2
)
(A) )
32
12 ( j i (B) )
64
16 ( j i (C) )
64
18 ( j i (D) )
18
12 ( j i

46. The position vector of centre of mass of the system at s t 1 = is
(A) j i
25
24
4 + (B) j i
2
39
6 + (C) j i
3
29
4 + (D) j i
3
41
6 +

SECTION IV
Integer Type
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

47. A container filled with air under pressure
0
P contains a soap bubble of radius R. The air
pressure has been reduced to half isothermally and the new radius of the bubble becomes
4
5R
. If the surface tension of the soap water solution is S,
0
P is found to be
R
nS 16
SI unit.
Find n.

48. In an LC circuit, oscillations of energy E are sustained. The capacitor plates are now slowly
drawn apart to increase the oscillation frequency three times. The work done in the process is
nE. Find n.

15
49. Two blocks of mass m and 2m connected by a weightless spring
of stiffness k rest on a smooth horizontal plane. Block of mass m
is shifted to a small distance x to the left and then released. If the
duration between releasing mass m and breaking off of mass 2m
is t, then average force(in newton) exerted by wall on mass 2m
is given as mk
t
x
n. Find the value of n.

2m m

50. One end of a string of length L = 15m is tied to the ceiling of an elevator accelerating upwards
with an acceleration 20 m/s
2
. The other end of the string is free. The linear mass density of the
string varies linearly from 0 to
0
from bottom to top. Find the time taken by a pulse (in
seconds) to reach from bottom to the top. (g = 10 ms
2
)

51. For the circuit shown in the figure, find the peak
current (in ampere) through the source.

C=10 F
3
R =10
2

R =10
1
L = 0.1H

E = 50 sin (100t)

52. A cylinder consists of two parts which contains two different gases. The surface C is fixed but
the partitions A and B are thin diaphragms. A vibrating tuning fork approaches the partition A
with velocity 30 m/s and air columns in two partitions vibrate with minimum frequency such
that there is a displacement node at B and displacement antinode at A. The velocity of sound
in two partitions is indicated in figure. The velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. The frequency
of tuning fork is 300 n Hz. Find n.

V
1
=1100m/s
V
2
=300m/s
A B C
0.5m 1.0m
30m/s

16
53. A square frame of wire connected to a capacitor is kept in
a magnetic field which varies with position as well as time
and is given as )
( k xt B =
as shown in figure, where

is a constant. The charge on the capacitor at any time is
.
2
3
l C
n
Find n.

Y
X x=l x=2l
O
y=l
C
B

54. A large concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 0.5 m is placed on a horizontal plate. We
pour a small amount of water into the mirror and place on it a plano-convex lens with a radius
of curvature of 1.0 m whose plane side just covers the water. Then we place a point light
source above this set-up at a height of 0.3 m. The distance (in metres) from the object where
the final image is formed will be .
90
x
Find x given that the refractive index of water is
3
4
and
the refractive index of glass is 1.50.

55. A cosmic body of mass m approaches the earth surface, from a
large distance with initial speed
0
GM
v
4R
= , where M and R are
mass and radius of earth respectively. If the cosmic body passes
off tangentially to the earths surface, then find the ratio d/R.
R
d

56.

A radioactive sample contains two nucleids A and B having decay constant hr
1
and 2hr
1
.
Initially 25% of total decay comes from A. How long (in hr) will it take before 75% of total
decay comes from A. [Take = ln 3]

17
MATHEMATICS
PART-III

SECTIONI
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

57. If BC is a latus rectum of parabola ax y 4
2
= and A is the vertex. Then the minimum length
of the projection of BC on a tangent drawn in the portion BAC is
(A) a 2 (B) a 2 2
(C) 2a (D) a 2 3

58. If in a right angle triangle ABC, 0 1 cos sin 4 = B A and A tan is finite, then
(A) angles are in A. P. (B) angles are in G. P.
(C) angles are in H. P. (D) none of these

59. If , 0 2
2 2 2
= + ab c b a then the point of concurrency of family of lines 0 = + + c by ax lies
on the line
(A) x y = (B) 1 + = x y
(C) x y = (D) 3x = y

60. If in an isosceles triangle with base ' ' a , vertical angle 20 and lateral side each of length ' ' b
is given then value of
3 3
b a + equals
(A) ab 3 (B)
2
3ab
(C) b a
2
3 (D) 3

18
61. Let ( ) { }
2
, x y y x M = and ( ) ( ) { }. 1 ,
2 2
+ = a y x y x N
The necessary and sufficient condition for N N M = is
(A)
4
5
a (B)
4
5
= a (C)
+
R a (D) . 1 0 < < a

62. If 1 lies between the roots of equation 0 3
2
= + mt t and [x] denotes the greatest integer
value of x, then the value of
(
(
'
+
m
x
x
4 | |
| | 2
2
is
(A) 2 (B) m 1
(C) 0 (D) 1

63. If A and B are two events such that, , 2 . 0 ) ( , 25 . 0 ) ( , 3 . 0 ) ( = = = B A P B P A P then
c
c
c
B
A
P is equal to
(A)
15
2
(B)
15
11

(C)
15
13
(D)
15
14

64. If ) ( ) ( ' ) ( ' ' 9
2 2
x f x x f x f + = + + be the differential equation of a curve and P be a point of
maxima of this curve then the number of tangents which can be drawn from P to the circle
9
2 2
= + y x is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) none of these

19
SECTIONII
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

65. If ) (x f is continuous in [0, 2] and ), 2 ( ) 0 ( f f = then the equation ) 1 ( ) ( + = x f x f has
( ) ( ) ( ) 0 1 where f f
(A) non-real root in [0, 2] (B) at least one real root in [0, 1]
(C) at least one real root in [0, 2] (D) at least one real root in [1, 2]

66. Which one the following function(s) is/ are continuous R x
(A) 3 sin 2 + x (B)
3
1
+
+
x
x
e
e

(C)
7 5
3
2
5 2
1 2
+
+
x
x

(D) 1 sgn + x (where sgn x is signum function of x)

67. If
2 ,
2
3
, 2 ,
2
3
, 2 ,
2
3
C B A and ) sin 2 , cos 3 ( D are four points. If the area of
quadrilateral ABCD is maximum
2 ,
2
3
where , then
(A) maximum area is 10 sq. units (B)
4
7
=
(C)
=

85
3
sin 2
1
(D) maximum area is 12 sq. units
20
68. The solution of the differential equation 1 ) ( ' ) ( = + y x f
dx
dy
x f is
(A) c x yf x + = ) ( (B) 0 ) (
1
= +
c x xf (C)
) (x f
c x
y
+
= (D) y = x f(x)
69. The function
+ +
+
=

4
11
sin 2 sin
|] cos | | sin [| 2
cos ) (
2
1
x x
x x
x f is defined if x belongs to (where [.]
represents greatest integer function)
(A)

6
7
, 0 (B)

6
, 0
(C)
2 ,
6
11
(D) [ ] 2 ,

SECTIONIII
Paragraph Type
and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of
these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


If n is a natural number and we define a polynomial ) (x p
n
of degree n such that
) (cos cos =
n
p n , then

70. The value of ) ( ) (
1 1
x p x p
n n +
+ is
(A) ) (x xp
n
(B) ) ( 2 x xp
n
(C) ) ( 3 x xp
n
(D) none of these
21
71. The value of
n n
x x x x ) 1 ( ) 1 (
2 2
+ + is
(A) ) (x p
n
(B) ) ( 2 x p
n
(C) ) ( 3 x p
n
(D) none of these

72. The value of
6
2 ( ) p x is
(A) 8 18 45 36
2 4 6
+ x x x (B) 1 18 48 32
2 4 6
+ x x x
(C) 5 18 48 36
2 4 6
+ x x x (D) none of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 73 and 74

If ), ( ) ( ) ( x g x x f
n
= and 0 ) ( .......... ) ( ' ' ) ( ' ) (
1
= = = = =
n
f f f f where, ) (x f and
) (x g are polynomials. For polynomial ) (x f and g(x) with rational coefficients, then
answer the following questions

73. If ) (x f y = touches the x-axis at only one point, then the point of contact
(A) is always a point with rational co-ordinates
(B) may or may not be a point with a rational co-ordinates
(C) will have irrational co-ordinates
(D) none of these

74. If ) (x f is of degree 3 and touches x-axis, then
(A) all the roots of ) (x f are rational (B) only one root is rational
(C) both (A) and (B) may be possible (D) none of these

22
SECTIONIV
Integer Type

This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

75. If the line
1
1
2
1
3
2
=
+
=
z y x
intersects the curve 0 ,
2
= = z c xy then [ ] c is equal to
(where, [.] denotes the greatest integer function)

76. If ) (x f is a polynomial of degree four with leading coefficient one satisfying
, 2 ) 2 ( , 1 ) 1 ( = = f f , 3 ) 3 ( = f then
( 1) (5)
(0) (4)
+

+

f f
f f
(where [.] represents greatest integer
function) is equal to

77. If ( ) ( ), sin cos cos cos sin sin x x x x = + and largest possible value of sin x is
k
, then the
value of k is

78. The number of solution(s) of the equation 0
64
5
2
2
=
z
z z z is/are

79. The number of solutions of the equation [ ] ) sgn( } {
} ln{ / 1 } { ln
x x e
x x
=

(where ] . [ is greatest integer function & {.} is fractional part function) is/are
23
80. Suppose ) ( and ) ( x g x f are differentiable functions such that
= ) ( ' )). ( ( ' )). ( ( . x g x g f x f g x ) ( ' )). ( ( ' )). ( ( x f x f g x g f for all real x and

=
a a
e
dx x g f
0
2
2
1 )) ( ( for all real a. Given that . 1 )) 0 ( ( = f g If the value of , )) 4 ( (
2
k
e f g

=
(where N k ) then k is equal to

81. Let x x x x x x P =
2 3 5 6
) ( and . 1 ) (
2 3 4
= x x x x Q If , , and are the roots
of , 0 ) ( = x Q then the value of ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( + + + P P P P is equal to

82. If the line y = 3 x cuts the curve x
4
+ ax
2
y + bxy + cx + dy + 6 = 0 at A, B, C and D, then
the value of
12
1
OA.OB.OC.OD ( where O is the origin) is equal to

83. The straight line 1
3 4
= +
y x
intersects the ellipse 1
9 16
2 2
= +
y x
at two points A and B, there is
a point P on this ellipse such that the area of PAB is equal to ), 1 2 ( 6 Then the number
of such points (P) is/are

84. The probability of a man hitting a target in one fire is 5 1 . Then the minimum number of
fire he must follow in order to make his chance of hitting the target more than
4
3
is

24

25
Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

B. Question paper format:
9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Chemistry, Part II: Physics and Part III: Mathematics).
Each part has 4 sections.
10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
11. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
12. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. First set
consists of 3 questions and second set has 2 questions, based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct.
13. Section IV contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
instructions given at the beginning of the section.
C. Marking scheme:
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one ( 1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. Partial marks will be awarded
for partially correct answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1) mark will
be awarded.
17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.

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20 . Initially spring is in its natural

n. Find the value of n.

as shown in figure, where

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