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Introduction

1-The cleavage lines of the skin (Langers lines) are A. Skin creases over joints B. Junctional lines between superficial and deep fascia C. The direction rows of elastic fibers in the dermis D. The direction of collagen fibers in the dermis E. Finger print -Lines of cleavage are clinically significant because: A. A cut at right angles to a line of cleavage will remain closed B. Wounds heal more slowly if they run parallel to lines of cleavage C. A cut parallel to a cleavage line will remain closed D. They promote wound healing E. They facilitate joint movement 2-Regarding bones in general, all of the following statements are true except: A. They provide support to the body and protect internal organs B. They function as biomechanical levers on which muscles act to produce a moment or restrict it C. They are formed of calcified connective tissue D. In the adult all bone marrow is concerned with blood formation E. Bones are reservoirs of ions such as Ca and Po 3-Regarding sesamoid bones ,all of the following statements are true except: A. They develop within a tendon B. They stablize a joint C. They help to change the direction of pull of the tendon D. They help to reduece friction on tendon E. They prevent obstruction of blood supply to the tendon 4-In which of the following cavities is yellow bone marrow found? A. sinus B. medullary cavity C. joint cavity D. epiphyseal cavity E. thoracic cavity 5-The presence of an epiphyseal disk indicates that: A. The bone length is increasing. B. The bone length is no longer increasing. C. The bone diameter is increasing. D. The bone is dead. E. The bone diameter is decreasing. 6-The bones of the wrists and ankles are classified as: A. Long bones. B. Flat bones. C. Short bones. D. Irregular bones. E. Round bones.

7-All the followings are types of muscle attachment except: A. By ligaments. B. By fleshy fibers. C. By tendons. D. By raphe. E. By aponeurosis. 8-Regarding the types of parallel muscle fibers, all the followings statements are true except: A-Quadrilateral. B- Fusiform. C-Strap - like D-Strap - like with tendinous intersection. E--Unipennate. 9-A muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is called : A. a synergist B. an agonist C. an antagonist D. a fixator 10-Match the following 1-Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle 2-Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle. 3-Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement 4-Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement 11-Accessory structures of the skin include the: A-Dermis, epidermis, and hypodermis B- Hair follicles and the sebaceous and sweat glands C-Cutaneous and subcutaneous layers D-Blood vessels, macrophages, and neurons E-Melanocytes, superficial and deep fascia 12-The muscles that are found at openings of the body are collectively called: A. Convergent muscles B. Circular muscles C. Parallel muscles D. Divergent muscles E. Parallel muscles
13-The reason the hypodermis is useful for subcutaneous injection by hypodermic needle is that it has a:

A) Synergist B) Agonist C) Antagonist D) Fixator

A. B. C. D. E.

Large number of lamellate corpuscles Limited number of capillaries and no vital organs Large number of sensory receptors Large number of capillaries High and rapid blood level entering the blood vessel

14- Which of the following structures has a rich capillary bed A. Epidermis B. Skull

C. Hyaline cartilage D. Cornea of the eye E. Skeletal muscle 15-In hepatic portal circulation, blood is eventually returned to the inferior vena cava through the... A. Hepatic veins. B. Superior portal vein. C. Superior mesenteric vein. D. Hepatic artery. E. Portal vein. 16-If lymphatic tissue is removed from an axillary region; the arm on that side is likely to A. have a deficient blood supply B. have an excessive blood supply C. become edematous D. lose tissue fluid E. remains unchanged 17-The vessel which brings blood from the liver and other abdominal organs to the heart is the: A. Hepatic vein. B. Inferior vena cava. C. Abdominal aorta. D. Abdominal vein. E. Portal vein 18-Foreign particles that are injected into the skin are likely to enter the lymphatic system A. rapidly B. slowly C. not at all, because lymphatic valves prevent this D. not at all, because the skin lacks lymphatic capillaries Lymph differs from plasma in that A. lymph contains more protein than plasma B. plasma contains more protein than lymph C. lymph contains white blood cells, whereas plasma does not D. lymph and plasma are essentially the same

Thorax
1-An elderly lady suffers a complete heart block (that is, the right and left bundles of the conduction system have been damaged).which of the following artery is most likely involved? A-Right marginal branch B-Circumflex branch C-Anterior interventricular (Left anterior descending) D-Left marginal branch E-posterior interventricular (posterior descending) 2-The heart sound associated with the mitral valve is best heard: A-In the jugular notch B-In the second left intercostal space C-In the second right intercostal space D-In the fifth left intercostal space E-To the right of the xiphoid process 3-During a heart surgery in order to ligate the anterior interventricular artery, the surgeon accidentally passed the needle through the adjacent vein. Which vein was damaged? A-Anterior cardiac vein B-Coronary sinus C-Great cardiac vein D-Middle cardiac vein E-Small cardiac vein 4-Which posterior mediastinal structure is most closely applied to the posterior surface of the pericardial sac? A. Aorta B. Azygos vein C. Esophagus D. Thoracic duct E. Trachea 5-Which of the following muscles arise and insert into the ribs and extend over more than one intercostal space? A. external intercostal muscle B. internal intercostal muscle C. subcostalis muscles D. innermost intercostal muscles E. transversus thoracis muscles 6- Which of the. Following statements is true of the typical intercostal nerve? A. Intercostal nerves are the dorsal rami of spinal nerves. B. There are 12 pairs of intercostal nerves. C. The intercostal nerves lie in the costal groove on the superior aspect of each rib. D. Each intercostal nerve ends as an anterior cutaneous branch near the sternum, E. The intercostal nerves run between the internal and external intercostal muscles. 7-Ablood clot forming in the right atrium of an otherwise normal 66-year-old man could possibly cause arterial occlusion in which of the following locations?

A. B. C. D. E.

Right leg Spleen Bronchial artery Pulmonary trunk Right arm

8-Which of the following is true regarding Purkinje fibers passage (route)? A. Sepal wall of the right atrium B. Superior end of Crista terminalis C. Muscular portion of the interventricular septum D. Membranous portion of interventricular septum E. Moderator band of right atrium 9-Which of the following structures pass posterior to root of the right lung? A. Hemiazygos vein B. Right vagus nerve C. Right phrenic nerve D. Left vagus nerve E. Azygos vein 10-Regarding intercostal arteries: A. Are superior to veins & nerves B. Musculophernic artery will supply 7th to 9th intercostals spaces C. All the posterior branches are from the aorta D. The collateral branch supply the lung E. All the anterior branches are from the internal thoraci 11-Which of the following are true of the trachea and bronchi? A. The trachea lies posterior to the esophagus. B. Complete rings of cartilage, are not present in the trachea. C. The trachea divides into two principal bronchi, each of which divides into two secondary bronchi. D. The left bronchus is wider, shorter and more vertical than the right bronchus. E. The aortic arch passes over the right bronchus. 12-S.V.C could be damaged by a stab wound deep to: A. Right 1st intercostal space B. Right sternoclavicular joint C. Right 3rd costal cartilage D. Left sternoclavicular joint E. Right 1st costal cartilage 13-Which of the following is true regarding the thoracic duct? A. It is a largest lymphatic channel in the body B. It begins in the abdomen at the cisterna chyli C. Travel lymph of whole body from below the diaphragm & left side of the upper half of head & neck D. In posterior mediastinum it placed in between aorta & azygos vein E. In the superior mediastinum it comes to the right of the oesophogus to the root of neck toward the apex of the right triangle of the neck

14-Regarding the transverse sinus of the pericardium, which of the following pairs of structures form its anterior boundary: A. Superior vena cava and left auricle. B. Aorta and pulmonary trunk. C. Right and left atria. D. Two left pulmonary veins. E. Inferior vena cava and right auricle. 15--Which feature is found only in the left lung? A-Cardiac notch B-Horizontal fissure C-Oblique fissure D-Superior lobar bronchus E-Three lobes 16-Which statement is true about the right lung? A-It is slightly smaller than the left lung B-It has a lingular segmental bronchus C-It occupies the rightmost portion of the mediastinum D-Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery E-It has the right phrenic nerve passing posterior to the lung root 17-The lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which lung tissue does not extend, is known as the: A. Costdiaphragmatic recess B. Costomediastinal recess C. Cupola D. Inferior mediastinum E. Pulmonary ligament 18-While observing in the OR, you see the resident insert a needle through the body wall just Above the ninth rib in the mid-axillary line. She was obviously trying to enter the: A. Costodiaphragmatic recess B. Costomediastinal recess C. Cupola D. Hilar reflection E. Pulmonary ligament 20- Regarding the Arch of the aorta, the incorrect statements is: A. Located in superior mediastinum B. Located below the brachiocaphalic vein C. Connected to the pulmonary trunk by ligamentum arteriosum D. It is arches over the Lt main bronchus E. The Rt recurrent laryngeal nerves hocks around it 21-Which of the following statements regarding the lung is correct? A. Lung structure received its blood supply rom pulmonary artery B. No lymph nodes are present within lung C. Arch of aorta and descending aorta are in contact with right lung D. Inhaled foreign body often goes to right lung E. Costdiaphragmatic recess lined with visceral pleura

which one of the following nerves is innervating the thoracic wall? A. Dorsal primary rami B. Intercostal nerves C. Lateral pectoral nerves D. Medial pectoral nerves E. Thoracodorsal nerves 22-Concerning the coronary arteries: A. They arise from the descending thoracic aorta. B. The right coronary runs in the anterior interventricular groove. C. The posterior interventricular artery is a branch of left coronary artery. D. The anterior interventricular artery accompanies the middle cardiac vein. E. The marginal branch of right coronary supplies the right ventricle. The tubercle of the 7th rib articulates with which structure? A. B. C. D. E. Body of vertebra T6 Body of vertebra T7 Body of vertebra T8 Transverse process of vertebra T6 The Transverse process of vertebra T7

Embryology
1-Teratology of Fallot typically includes each of the following defects Except: A. Overriding aorta B. A high ventricular septal defect C. Stenosis of pulmonary trunk D. Right ventricular hypertrophy E. Stenosis of aortic valve 2-The most common ventricular septal defect results from the: A. Transposition of the great vessels B. Persistence of the truncus arteriosus C. Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to develop D. Failure of development of the membranous part of the inter-ventricular septum E. Absence of the muscular part of the interventricular septum 3-During the fourth week of development the right and left atrioventricular canals results from: A. Fusion of interventricular septum B. Fusion of dorsal and ventral endocardial cushion. C. Spiral aorticopulmonary septum D. Partitioning of truncus arteriosus. E. Closure of foramen ovale. 4-Closure of foramen primum results from fusion of the: A. Septum secundum. B. Septum secundum and septum primum. C. Septum primum and fused endocardial cushions

D. Septum secundum and fused endocardial cushions E. Septum primum and sinoatrial valve. 5-The transverse pericardial sinus forms from the breaking away of? A. Somites B. Notocord C. Axial Mesentary D. Dorsal Mesentary E. Ectoderm 6-Respiratory distress syndrome occurs most commonly because A. Too few mature alveoli have developed B. Surfactant production is insufficient C. Lungs are partially filled with amniotic fluid D. Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells produce a greatly thickened basement membrane E. Abnormally developed lungs buds 7-On what day does the heart start to beat? A. 22 B. 24 C. 26 D. 28 E. 30 8-What major structure is formed by the sinus venosus? A. Aorta B. Left Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Left Atrium E. Right Atrium 9-Where is the ostium primum formed? A. Between Right and Left Ventricles B. Between Right and Left Atria C. Between Right Atrium and Ventricle D. Between Left Atrium and Ventricle E. Within the Coronary Sinus 10-What defect is necessary to survive with pulmonary atresia? A. Atrial sepal defect B. Aortic valve stenosis C. Undeveloped coronary sinus D. Left bundle branch block E. Right bundle branch block 11-A tuft of hair on the back of a newborn is likely associated with: A. Spina bifida occulta B. Klippel-Feil syndrome C. Spina bifida cystica (myelomeningocele) D. Hypertrichosis lanuginosa

E. Hemivertebra scoliosis General 1-The placenta is formed from: A. Decidua basalis and chorion leave B. Decidua capsularis and chorion frondosum C. Decidua parietalis and chorion leave D. Decidua basalis and chorion frondosum E. Decidua capsularis and Decidua capsularis The decidua reaction protects the uterus (endometrium) from the: A. Chorion B. Amnion C. Uterine cavity D. Syncytiotrophoblast E. Cytotrophoblast At the fetomaternal junction, projections of decidua basalis towards the chorionic plate serve to divide the fetal placenta into irregular areas called: A. Endometriums B. Cotyledons C. Anchoring villi D. Smooth chorion E. Villus chorion The vessels of the umbilical cord are: A. 1 artery, 1 vein B. 2 arteries, 2 veins C. 1 artery, 2 veins D. 2 arteries, 1 vein 2-Where does the process of sperm capacitation take place? A. Within the testes B. Within the male urethra C. Within the female genital tract D. Within the ovum E. Within the embryo 3-In what phase to the oogonia become arrested until puberty? A. Meiosis II metaphase B. Meiosis II prophase C. Meiosis I metaphase D. Meiosis I prophase E. G-phase 4-The first meiotic division is completed just prior to ovulation, the second division begins immediately but does not finish unless: A. hCG levels are high B. Fertilization takes place C. The epiblast is no longer present

D. The sperm are uncapacitated E. A developmental anomaly is present 5-After the Graafian follicle breaks and before fertilization takes place, the secondary oocyte is surrounded by cells called: A. Fimbriae B. Zona pellucita C. Cumulus oophorus D. Acrosomes E. Oocytes 6-What is the result of the zona reaction (cortical reaction)? A. The corona radiata forms B. The zona pellucida forms C. Sperm can now enter the egg D. Sperm can no longer enter the egg E. Acrosomes are removed 7-On what day does the morula reaches the uterine cavity after fertilization? A. On the 4th day B. On the 7th day C. On the 9th day D. On the 8th day E. On the 10th day 8-Which of the following abnormalities is cause of the Hydraminos: polyhydramnios? A. Cardiac. B. Gastrointestinal. C. musculoskeletal D. Urinary. E. E-Nervous 9-Which of the following features is seen on maternal surface of placenta? A. Amnion. B. Chorionic vessels. C. Cotyledons. D. Umbilical cord. E. E- yolk sac, 10-Which of the following features is seen on the fetal surface of placenta? A. Chorionic vessels. B. Cotyledons. C. Decidua basalis. D. Uterine vessels. E. Amnion. 11-Which of the following hormones is secreted by placenta? A. Testosterone. B. Leutinzing Hormone. C. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophines. D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone. E. E- Oocyte maturation inhibitor 12-Which of the following causes is genetic cause of congenital anomalies? A. Chromosomal. B. Drugs. C. Infection. D. Maternal illness. E. Environmental influences

13- Nucleosus pulposus of intervertebral disc develops from which of the following embryomic structures? A. Neural crest. B. Notochord. C. Sclerotome. D. Somite. E. Embryonic ectoderm. 14-The annulus fibrosus is formed from the: A. Notocord B. Dermomyotome C. Sclerotome D. Mesoderm E. Endoderm 15-Which structure helps form the GI tract and allantois? A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Intermediate mesoderm E. Lateral plate mesoderm 16-Most congenital malformations occur during which weeks of gestation? A. B. C. D. E. 0 to 3 3 to 9 8 to 10 10 to 16 16 to birth

16-Which structures remain most vulnerable to teratogens during the fetal period? A. Vertebral column and back muscles B. Esophagus and anus C. Hands and feet D. Liver and spleen E. Eyes and brain 17-Which of the following teratogens is associated with absence of extremities? A. Thalidomide B. Rubella C. Syphilis D. Lithium E. Lead 18-Which of the following teratogens is the leading cause of mental retardation? A. Thalidomide B. Lithium C. Syphilis D. Alcohol E. Lead 19- What cranial anomaly would result in a skull that becomes much taller than normal?

A. B. C. D. E.

Acrania Scaphocephaly Oxycephaly Plagiocephaly Microcephaly

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