4-Mrcog Part-1 Past Papers Recall 2009-2010

RECALL 20092009-2010
[u]number 1:[/u] [b]a.[/b] pelvic brim oval in shape, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. [b]b.[/b] pelvic brim oval in shape, anteropost diameter more than transverse diameter. [b]c.[/b] pelvic brim heart shaped, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. [b]d.[/b] pelvic briim heart shaped, anteropost diameter more than transverse diameter. [b]e.[/b] pelvic brim circular, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. [b]f.[/b] pelvic brim circular, anteroposr diameter more than transverse. [b]1)[/b] gynecoid pelvis. [b]2)[/b] android pelvis. [u]number 2:[/u] [b]a.[/b]double stranded, adenosine monophosphate, guanine monophosphate, cytosine monophosphate, uracil monophosphate. [b]b.[/b] double stranded, adenosine monoph, guanine monph, cytosine monoph, thymine monoph. [b]c.[/b] single stranded, adenine monoph, guanine monoph, cytosine monoph, thymine monoph. [b]d.[/b] single stranded, adenine monoph, guanine monoph, cytosine monoph, uracil monoph. [b]e.[/b] single stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxyuracil monoph. [b]f.[/b] single stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxythymine monoph. [b]g.[/b] double stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxyuracil monoph [b]h.[/b] double stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxythymine monoph, [b]1)[/b] DNA. [b]2)[/b] RNA. [b]3)[/b] genome of HPV. [u]number 3:[/u] [b]a.[/b] edwards syndrome. [b]b.[/b] exomphalus. [b]c.[/b] gastroschiasis. [b]d.[/b] patau's syndrome.
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[b]e.[/b] down's syndrome. [b]f.[/b] kleinfeltr's syndrome. [b]1)[/b] abnormality in the anterior abdominal wall, usually to the right of the umbilicus, other genetic abnormalities rarely associated. [b]2)[/b] abnormality in chromosome 18. [u]number 4:[/u] [b]a.[/b] azithromycin. [b]b.[/b] amoxycillin. [b]c.[/b] cefuroxime. [b]d.[/b] benzylpenicillin. [b]e.[/b] metronidazole. [b]1)[/b] best treatment of acute upper UTI in third trimester. [b]2)[/b]treatment of chlamydia in a non-pregnant woman. [u]number 5:[/u] [b]a.[/b] L1,2,3 [b]b.[/b] L1 [b]c.[/b] L2,3,4 [b]d. [/b]L1,2 [b]e.[/b] L3,4,5 [b]1)[/b] ilioinguinal nerve. [b]2)[/b] genitofemoral nerve. [u]number 6:[/u] [b]a.[/b] streptococus, aerobic, G+ve. [b]b.[/b] streptococus, anaerobic, G+ve. [b]c.[/b] staphylococus, aerobic, G+ve. [b]d.[/b] staphlococus, anaeobic, G-ve. [b]e.[/b] pseudomonas, aerobic, G+ve. [b]f.[/b] pseudomonas, aerobic G-ve. [b]g.[/b]pseudomonas, anaerobic, G-ve. [b]1)[/b] toxic shock syndrome. [b]2)[/b] hospital cross infection. [u]number 7:[/u] [b]a. [/b]CMV. [b]b.[/b] listeria monocytogens.
[b]c.[/b] treponame pallidum. [b]d.[/b] HIV. [b]e.[/b] human leucocytic virus. [b]f. [/b]staphlococus aureus. [b]g.[/b] streptococus. [b]h. [/b]varicella zoster. [b]1)[/b] a pregnant woman developed a "flue-like" illness with fever and general malaise, her baby was born with hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. [b]2)[/b] a woman has a history of 2 previous stillbirths, is now pregnant and at 37 weeks complained of fever and rash, her son was born healthy but at age of one year he had abnormal incisors and later deafness.[b][/b] [u]number 8:[/u] [b]a. [/b]hepatitis C, DNA. [b]b.[/b] hepatitis C, RNA. [b]c.[/b] herpes simplex. [b]d.[/b] HPV. [b]e.[/b] [i]i cant recall the other options.[/i] [b]1)[/b] associated with high incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma. [b]2) [/b]papular skin rash. [u]number 9:[/u] [b]a.[/b] estrogen. [b]b.[/b] progesterone. [b]c.[/b] DHEA-sulphate. [b]d.[/b] cortisol. [b]e.[/b] cortisone. [b]1)[/b] hormone maintains uterine quisence throughout pregnancy. [b]2)[/b] hormone produced by the placenta and fetal adrenal gland, promotes fetal lung maturation. [u]number 10:[/u] [b]a.[/b] allantois. [b]b.[/b] cloaca. [b]c.[/b] mesonephros. [b]d.[/b] yolk sac. [b]1)[/b] rectum develops from the posterior portion if this structure. [b]2)[/b] germ cells arise from it.
[u]number 11:[/u] [b]a.[/b] B cell [b]b. [/b]T CD4 cell [b]c.[/b] T CD8 cell [b]d.[/b] dendritic dells. [b]1)[/b] major antigan presenting cell. [b]2)[/b] [i][color=darkred]could not recall it[/color].[/i] Sep. 2009 Options 1. oval inlet transversal diameter longer than anterposterior . 2. oval inlet anterposterior dia longer than trans. 3. heart shape inlet anterposterior dia. longer than trans. 4. heart shape inlet trans. diam. longer than anterposterior 5. rounded inlet .. T>A. 6. rounded inlet ..A > T Qus. a. Gynaecoid pelvis. b. Android pelvis . -----------------------------------------------------------a. Adenine monophosphate Guanine monophosphate Cytosine monophosphate duple helix Thymine monophosphate b. Adenine monophosphate Guanine monophosphate Cytosine monophosphate duple helix Uracil monophosphate c. Adenine monophosphate Guanine monophosphate Cytosine monophosphate single helix Uracil monophosphate d. Adenine monophosphate Guanine monophosphate Cytosine monophosphate single helix Thymine monophosphate e. Diadenine monophosphate Diguanine monophosphate
Dicytosine monophosphate duple helix Diuracil monophosphate f. Diadenine monophosphate Diguanine monophosphate Dicytosine monophosphate duple helix Dithymine monophosphate g. DiAdenine monophosphate DIGuanine monophosphate DICytosine monophosphate single helix DIUracil monophosphate h. DIAdenine monophosphate DIGuanine monophosphate DICytosine monophosphate single helix DIThymine monophosphate
1. DNA. 2. mRNA 3. Nucliac acid o HPV. Sep 2009 recall EMQ: number 1: a. pelvic brim oval in shape, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. b. pelvic brim oval in shape, anteropost diameter more than transverse diameter. c. pelvic brim heart shaped, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. d. pelvic briim heart shaped, anteropost diameter more than transverse diameter. e. pelvic brim circular, transverse diameter more than anteropost diameter. f. pelvic brim circular, anteroposr diameter more than transverse. 1) gynecoid pelvis. 2) android pelvis. number 2: a.double stranded, adenosine monophosphate, guanine monophosphate, cytosine monophosphate, uracil monophosphate. b. double stranded, adenosine monoph, guanine monph, cytosine monoph, thymine monoph. c. single stranded, adenine monoph, guanine monoph, cytosine monoph, thymine monoph.
d. single stranded, adenine monoph, guanine monoph, cytosine monoph, uracil monoph. e. single stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxyuracil monoph. f. single stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxythymine monoph. g. double stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxyuracil monoph h. double stranded, deoxyadenine monoph, deoxyguanine monoph, deoxycytosine monoph, deoxythymine monoph, 1) DNA. 2) RNA. 3) genome of HPV. number 3: a. edwards syndrome. b. exomphalus. c. gastroschiasis. d. patau's syndrome. e. down's syndrome. f. kleinfeltr's syndrome. 1) abnormality in the anterior abdominal wall, usually to the right of the umbilicus, other genetic abnormalities rarely associated. 2) abnormality in chromosome 18. number 4: a. azithromycin. b. amoxycillin. c. cefuroxime. d. benzylpenicillin. e. metronidazole. 1) best treatment of acute upper UTI in third trimester. 2)treatment of chlamydia in a non-pregnant woman. number 5: a. L1,2,3 b. L1 c. L2,3,4 d. L1,2 e. L3,4,5
1) ilioinguinal nerve. 2) genitofemoral nerve. number 6: a. streptococus, aerobic, G+ve. b. streptococus, anaerobic, G+ve. c. staphylococus, aerobic, G+ve. d. staphlococus, anaeobic, G-ve. e. pseudomonas, aerobic, G+ve. f. pseudomonas, aerobic G-ve. g.pseudomonas, anaerobic, G-ve. 1) toxic shock syndrome. 2) hospital cross infection. number 7: a. CMV. b. listeria monocytogens. c. treponame pallidum. d. HIV. e. human leucocytic virus. f. staphlococus aureus. g. streptococus. h. varicella zoster. 1) a pregnant woman developed a "flue-like" illness with fever and general malaise, her baby was born with hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. 2) a woman has a history of 2 previous stillbirths, is now pregnant and at 37 weeks complained of fever and rash, her son was born healthy but at age of one year he had abnormal incisors and later deafness. number 8: a. hepatitis C, DNA. b. hepatitis C, RNA. c. herpes simplex. d. HPV. e. i cant recall the other options. 1) associated with high incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma. 2) papular skin rash. number 9:
a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. DHEA-sulphate. d. cortisol. e. cortisone. 1) hormone maintains uterine quisence throughout pregnancy. 2) hormone produced by the placenta and fetal adrenal gland, promotes fetal lung maturation. number 10: a. allantois. b. cloaca. c. mesonephros. d. yolk sac. 1) rectum develops from the posterior portion if this structure. 2) germ cells arise from it. number 11: a. B cell b. T CD4 cell c. T CD8 cell d. dendritic dells. 1) major antigan presenting cell. 2) could not recall it.IgG is produced by.... From Ushabr: i am just trying to add on to the que. recalled
que. no. 4(2) treatment of chlamydia -single dose oral drug in non-pregnant women que. no. 8 there was another que. as cause of URTI other options were adenovirus,molluscum contagiosum, CMV que. no. 9 hormone maintains uterine quisence throughout pregnancy and causes causes immunosuppression
que. no. 10 another option was anal pit From FARIDI: Options Somatotroph, acidophil Somatotroph, basophil lactotroph, acidophil lactotroph, basophil corticotroph, acidophil corticotroph, basophil gonadotroph, acidophil gonadotroph, basophil thyrotroph, acidophil thyrotroph, basophil Q1. Growth hormone Q2. Prolactin
screening test for following 1- syphilis treponemal antibody test 2- syphilis hemaglutination test 3- syphilis immobilization test 4- HB-electrophorisis 5- mcv 6- mchc 7- MCh 8- serum iron 9- paul-bennel test Q1) Thalassemia Q2) Syphilis
MCQs
1) The pelvic surface of the sacrum? a) gives origin to the piriform muscles b) gives origin to the levator ani muscles c) is broader in the male than in the female d) trnasmit dorsal rami of sacral nerves e) is in contact with the anal canal 2) Prolactin. a) release is stimulated by TRH b) plasma levels are raised in the first trim of preg. c) release is increased by suckling. d) maybe produced by decidua. e) release is inhibited by metoclopromide. 3) The foll disorders and org are correctly paired. a) opthalmia neonatorum: chlamydia trachomatis b) chancroid: Haemophilus ducreyi. c) sleeping sickness: Leishmania donovani. d) ringworm: Trichenella spiralis. e) non-specific urethritis: Toxoplasma gondii. 4) The heart rate typically increases in response to: a) pain. b) hypoxia. c) ventilatory expiration d) increase in Intracranial pressure e) decrease baroreceptor activity a. 0.2 b.0.67 c. 1 d. 10 e. 20 f. 45 g. 100 h .120
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A screening test for chlamydia infection of the cervix based on the clinical appearance of the cervix was carried out on the N women . the results of the screening test were compared with a gold standard test for chlamydial infection of the cervix . The result of the study are presented in the table below Disease present Disease absent Screen positive Disease present = w Screen positive Disease absent = y Screen negative Disease present = x Screen negative Disease absent = z The item above provides different values for N ,w, x ,y , and z . Calculate the q. 1 -- Sensitivity Q . 2Specificity a. 0.5 b.0.6 c. 1 d. 10 e. 20 f. 45 g. 100 h .120 A screening test for chlamydia infection of the cervix based on the clinical appearance of the cervix was carried out on the N women . the results of the screening test were compared with a gold standard test for chlamydial infection of the cervix . The result of the study are presented in the table below Disease present Disease absent Screen positive Disease present = w=50 Screen positive Disease absent = y=50 Screen negative Disease present = x=50 Screen negative Disease absent = z=50 The item above provides different values for N ,w, x ,y , and z . Calculate the q. 1 -- Sensitivity Q . 2-- Specificity
The above is the correct question Answer is :w is True positive Y is False positive X is False negative Z is True negative
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SO Sensitivity= True positive\True positive+False negative So sensitivity = 50\50+50=0.5 Specificity=True negative\True negative+False positive Specificity= 50\50+50=0.5
[color=red][/color] b. 1.gynaecoid pelvis= ant-post D 11cm & T 13.5cm. so it is slightly transverse oval. 2. Android=triangular, T >ant-post 3. DNA= ans h 4. RNA= ans d 5. HPV= double standard DNA virus so.ans b 6. Exomphalus. It is a congenital abnormality in which the contents of the abdomen herniate into the umbilical cord through the umbilical ring. This may be associated with a number of other congenital abnormalities including: cleft sternum, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, heart defects (ventricular septal defect and ectopia cordis) and an absent pericardium. Gastroschisis means 'stomach cleft'. It is a congenital defect of the abdominal wall, usually to the right of the umbilical cord insertion. Gastroschisis Although associated abnormalities are less common in gastroschisis than exomphalos they do occur in 730% of babies. Deformities include anencephaly, cleft lip and palate, ectopia cordis, atrial septal defect, diaphragmatic hernia, scoliosis, syndactyly, and amniotic band. Intestinal atresia and malabsorption also occur. So possible ans is Gastroschisis abnormality in chromosome 18= Edward syndrome 7. Single dose best treatment of UTI in third trimester - azithromycin. treatment of Chlamydia in a non-pregnant woman Azithromycin and doxycycline are equally effective 8. Ilioinguinal nerve L1 genitofemoral nerve L1,2 9. TSS: causative bacteria include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. S. aureus is a facultatively anaerobic, Gram-positive S. pyogenes is fermentative; the organism is a catalase-negative aerotolerant anaerobe (facultative anaerobe)
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10. hospital cross infection=pseudomonas, aerobic G-ve 11. a pregnant woman developed a "flue-like" illness with fever and general malaise, her baby was born with hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice CMV 12. a woman has a history of 2 previous stillbirths, is now pregnant and at 37 weeks complained of fever and rash, her son was born healthy but at age of one year he had abnormal incisors and later deafness- treponame pallidum (congenital syphilis) 13. Associated with high incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma = hepatitis C, DNA. 14. hormone maintains uterine quisence throughout pregnancy = progesterone 15. Hormone produced by the placenta and fetal adrenal gland, promotes fetal lung maturation=cortisol 16. rectum develops from the posterior portion if this structure=allantois 17. germ cells arise from it=yolk sac 18. Major antigan presenting cell. Dendritic cell 19. IgG is produced by..B cell 20. Growth hormone-Somatotroph, acidophil &Prolactin - lactotroph, acidophil
With respect to SI units T/F 1.The energy of X-rays and Gamma reya is measured in electron volts (eV) 2.The amount of a radioactive substance is measured in Grays (Gy) 3. The absorbed dose of radiation from x-rays and nuclear medicine examinations is measured in grays (Gy) 4.Radiation doses to individuals can be expressed in Sieverts (Sv) to indicate the degree of risk
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STATISTICS . . . . . . question to calculate sensitivity and specificity. standard deviation standard error of the mean. mean, mode median in normal distribution and skewed data. T test out liar
BIOPHYSICS . MRI... type of radiation, causes effect in pregnancy women should be placed left tilted during scan. rest 2 options i forget..
. dose of radiation . 1 gray = joules/ kg . absorbed dose.
dopplers USG ? I am not confirmed about it
pathology emqs were little confusing as many options were true for example one emq was .B cell .plasma cell .dendritic cell .mast cells . t cell QUESTION . ANTIBODY PRODUCTION? . ANTIGEN PRESENTATION? March 2009 Options for Questions 1-2 A. Amniotic fluid embolism I. Placental abruption B. Cardiomyopathy J. Placenta praevia C. Chest infection K. Pulmonary embolism D. CVA L. Pulmonary hypertension E. Endocarditis M. Sepsis
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F. Haemorrhage N. Substance misuse G. HELLP syndrome O. Thromboembolism H. Myocardial infarcation Q1:A previously healthy 18-year-old primigravida presents at 36 weeks feeling unwell and tired. Her brother died unexpectedly aged 19 years. Her CXR showed an enlarged heart. While being admitted she developed increasing shortness of breath and died despite intensive resuscitation. Answer : B - Cardiomyopathy Q2:A 30-year-old woman, 28 weeks' gestation in her sixth pregnancy presents to A&E with breathlessness and displays severe anxiety. She had complained of leftsided pelvic pain for a week. While being assessed she collapsed and it was not possible to resuscitate her. Answer : ? F. Haemorrhage Options for Questions 3-4 A. Administer VZIG as soon as possible to mother G. Immediate caesarean section and transfer baby to the neonatal unit B. Administer VZIG to mother if maternal serology -ve H. Induction of labour C. Administer VZIG to neonate I. Reassurance D. Advise avoid contact with other pregnant women and neonates J. Separate mother and baby after delivery E. Detailed ultrasound examination K. Serum for VZV IgM antibodies F. Give intravenous Aciclovir L. Treat with oral Aciclovir (2009M)Q3: A 26-year-old Para 1+ 0 at 38 weeks gestation contacts her GP immediately after hearing that a child in her son's nursery has developed chickenpox. She has no memory of having the disease herself. Answer : B - Administer VZIG to mother if maternal serology -ve (2009M)Q4 : Mrs Jones is seen in the antenatal clinic at 40 weeks. She has a cough and smokes 20 cigarettes per day. She has a rash and feels generally unwell. Her sister's child has developed chickenpox. They spent a weekend together two weeks ago. She does not think she has ever had chickenpox. Serological investigation shows that she is susceptible to varicella zoster . Answer : ? C . Administer VZIG to neonate Options for Questions 5-6 A. Atrophic vulvovaginitis H. Human papilloma virus infection B. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid I. Lichen planus C. Candida infection J. Lichen sclerosus D. Contact dermatitis K. Lichen simplex et chronicus E. Eczema L. Psoriasis F. Herpes simplex infection M. Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia G. HIV infection N. Vulvodynia Q5: A 23-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of vulval, perineal and perianal irritation. The vulva is red, excoriated and there areas of white, thickened
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skin. Application of 3% Acetic acid shows areas of mosaic and coarse punctuation. Answer : M - Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia Q6 : A 78-year-old woman presents with vulval irritation and soreness. On examination the vulva is red in colour, slightly oedematous and there are small, red papules scattered randomly beyond the perimeter of the vulva. She also complains of soreness and irritation under the breasts. Answer : ? I. Lichen Planus Options for Questions 7-9 A. Antihypertensive treatment H. Measure serum magnesium B. Calculate the mean arterial blood pressure I. Monitor patellar reflex every 15 minutes C. Carry out visual field assessment J. Provide a fluid challenge with colloids D. Immediate dose of 10ml 10% calcium gluconate intravenously K. Provide intravenous Hartmann's solution at the rate of 85ml per hour E. Insert central venous pressure line L. Transfer to intensive treatment unit F. Intravenous magnesium sulphate M. Transfer to the postnatal ward G. Measure serum aspartate transaminase immediately Q7 : A 20-year-old primigravida had a normal delivery of a live infant 12 hours previously. She has developed severe gestational proteinuric hypertension, her clotting is normal, serum albumin is 43g/dl, there is no ankle clonus and her blood pressure is 160/100mmHg. She has been given one litre of Hartmann's solution intravenously since her delivery and has been anuric. The central venous pressure is +10mmHg, serum sodium 132mmol/l, serum potassium 7.1mmol/l and serum urea 22mmol/l. Answer : L Transfer to intensive treatment unit Q8 : A 20-year-old primigravida delivered a live infant 24 hours previously. She has developed severe gestational proteinuric hypertension. Treatment with intravenous magnesium was required. Her fluid balance is satisfactory and serum urea, electrolytes and clotting profile are all normal. Her respiratory rate falls to 6 per minute and she is drowsy but rousable. Answer : ? D. Immediate dose of 10ml 10% calcium gluconate intravenously Q9 : A 20-year-old primigravida is 30 weeks' pregnant and has been transferred to the delivery suite with severe gestational proteinuric hypertension. She complains of severe frontal headache but has no other symptoms. She has a normal respiratory rate and her urine output has been satisfactory. Her blood pressure is 140/100mmHg. There are five beats of bilateral ankle clonus. Answer : ? F. Intravenous magnesium sulphate Options for Questions 10-12 A. Damage to bladder / ureter I. Laparotomy B. Damage to bowel J. Pain
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C. Failure rate 1 in 200 K. Premature menopause D. Failure to gain entry into abdominal cavity L. Removal of ovaries E. Failure to identify disease M. Urinary retention F. Failure to visualise uterine cavity N. Uterine perforation G. Haemorrhage requiring blood transfusion O. Vaginal bleeding H. Haemorrhage requiring return to theatre Q10 : A 52-year-old woman with frequent heavy periods is listed for diagnostic hysteroscopy. She has had two children both delivered by caesarean section. She is hypertensive and her BMI is 26. Answer : N Uterine perforation (2009M)Q11 : A 56-year-old woman is scheduled for laparotomy and possible bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for an ovarian mass. She had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of forty for fibroids and is in discomfort with an ovarian mass which measures 15cm in diameter on ultrasound examination. Answer : ? Removal of ovaries? B . Damage to bowel ? [D] Failure to gain entry (2009M)Q12 : A 48-year-old nulliparous woman is scheduled for vaginal hysterectomy because of menorrhagia. Her uterus is enlarged equivalent to 14 weeks' gestation. Answer : ? urinary retention/ bladder or ureter injury / I] laparotomy 8. immediate Ca+2 gluconate is given,because it is antidote for mgso4 toxicity.always monitor resp rate,deep tendon reflexes,plasma conc. mgso4,and urine output while giving mgso4, 9. mgso4 is given.it is used both for treatment and prevention of eclamp sia and pre eclampsia 11. damage to bowel.imp complication of laparotomy.
12. haemorrhage requiring blood transfusion,because haemorrhage is imp complication of vaginal hysterectomy. EMQ 2009March Administer VZIG as soon as possible to mother G. Immediate caesarean section and transfer baby to the neonatal unit B. Administer VZIG to mother if maternal serology -ve H. Induction of labour C. Administer VZIG to neonate I. Reassurance D. Advise avoid contact with other pregnant women and neonates J. Separate mother and baby after delivery E. Detailed ultrasound examination K. Serum for VZV IgM antibodies F. Give intravenous Aciclovir L. Treat with oral Aciclovir Q3: A 26-year-old Para 1+ 0 at 38 weeks gestation contacts her GP immediately after hearing that a child in her son's nursery has developed chickenpox. She has no memory of having the disease herself.
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Answer : B - Administer VZIG to mother if maternal serology -ve Q4 : Mrs Jones is seen in the antenatal clinic at 40 weeks. She has a cough and smokes 20 cigarettes per day. She has a rash and feels generally unwell. Her sister's child has developed chickenpox. They spent a weekend together two weeks ago. She does not think she has ever had chickenpox. Serological investigation shows that she is susceptible to varicella zoster . Answer : ? F. Give intravenous Aciclovir ? C . Administer VZIG to neonate 2009M EMQ Damage to bladder / ureter I. Laparotomy B. Damage to bowel J. Pain C. Failure rate 1 in 200 K. Premature menopause D. Failure to gain entry into abdominal cavity L. Removal of ovaries E. Failure to identify disease M. Urinary retention F. Failure to visualise uterine cavity N. Uterine perforation G. Haemorrhage requiring blood transfusion O. Vaginal bleeding H. Haemorrhage requiring return to theatre Q10 : A 52-year-old woman with frequent heavy periods is listed for diagnostic hysteroscopy. She has had two children both delivered by caesarean section. She is hypertensive and her BMI is 26. Answer : N Uterine perforation Q11 : A 56-year-old woman is scheduled for laparotomy and possible bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for an ovarian mass. She had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of forty for fibroids and is in discomfort with an ovarian mass which measures 15cm in diameter on ultrasound examination. Answer : ? Removal of ovaries? B . Damage to bowel ? [D] Failure to gain entry Q12 : A 48-year-old nulliparous woman is scheduled for vaginal hysterectomy because of menorrhagia. Her uterus is enlarged equivalent to 14 weeks' gestation. Answer : ?G. haemorrhage requiring blood transfusion// urinary retention/ bladder or ureter injury / I] laparotomy
Can u tell me your answer upon these 2 questions. Actually they are download from RCOG website. However, only these 12 EMQ questions only they give on the website. How about we all try to solve them together? i can remember many qs 1 - rate of ectopic preg in ivf i wrote less than 1 i think wrong 2 - rate of ectopic preg in ivf cause tubal disease ?? 3 - 6 yrs old with copius dclear dischrge ( ectopic ureter ) 4 - toddler i think (labial fusion)
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5 - qs about elderly lady post operative pain ( urinary retention ) 6 - post erpc with remnant and pain ( i wrote sepsis but not sure of the answer) 7 - post hysteroscopic something in bicornute uterus 48 hrs with abdominal pain and blaoting ( i wrote bowel injury but i think wrong) 8 - easy qs about indirect maternal mortality 9 - coincidental mortality( murder) 10 - difficult qs statistics first about picking envelopes (i wrote patient choice randomized controlled trial ??? ) 11 - midwife making study about effect of water birth on analgesic use in the last 3 yrs (i wrote retrospective something it was the only retrospective choice ??) 12 - another statistics qs i dont remember please try to tell what was it
13 - ovarian cyst accident in young female ( i wrote laparotomy ) 14 - simple ovarian cyst in postmenopausal female ( i wrote follow up ) 15 ovarian cyst septate 2 ^3^4 in 56 yrs ( i wrote unilateral laparosc oopharectomy but i think wrong ) 16 - 3 qs about iv fluids diabetic for cs ( i wrote 5% dextrose ?????) 17 - diabetic ketoacidosis ( saline with kcl ) 18 - hyperemesis gravidarum ( urea level was 8 mmol , i dont know the normal in mmol , we are using mg , what was your answer?) 19 - what was your answer to the qs from rcog 20 - ( i wrote bowel injury and laparotomy )
21, 22 , 23 - all about ectopic bhcg 1100 ( i wote follow up u/s and hcg bhcg 6000 ( i wrote repeat u/s ???? one lady with -ve hcg and lax abdomen 24 days menstr ( discharge ?) [quote="jp"]fsh alone low ,others normal,dont know the answer[/quote] I write weight associated amenorrhea, I thought it associated with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism 2009March SAQ Question 1: A 23-year-old woman is admitted from the antenatal clinic with a confirmed blood pressure (BP) of 150,115mmHg and 2 + proteinuria at 28 weeks' gestation. A. Describe your initial assessment of the patient. (9 marks)
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B. Discuss which drugs you would use, and indicate when and how you would initiate drug therapy. (11 marks) Question 2: A 22-year-old woman who had a renal transplant 12 months ago wishes to conceive. A. Discuss the factors, related to her renal transplant, which indicate a good outcome in a future pregnancy. (10 marks) B. Discuss, and justify, any additional monitoring you would undertake in the antenatal period. (10 marks) Question 3: A woman unbooked in her third pregnancy is found to have a significantly raised Anti Rhesus D level at 30 weeks' gestation. A. Discuss the assessments that should be performed to determine the risk to the fetus, and their place in current obstetric management. (14 marks) B. If you consider the fetus may be anaemic what management options can be considered? (6 marks) Question 4: A low risk woman in advanced labour requires delivery for failure to progress. A. Describe the prerequisites for safe operative vaginal birth. (9 marks) B. Discuss the other factors to take into consideration when performing an operative vaginal birth. (6 marks) C. Describe the situations where there is a higher rate of failure with operative vaginal birth. (5 marks) Question 5: A 16-year-old with normal growth, BMI and secondary sexual characteristics attends the gynaecology clinic with a history of primary amenorrhoea and cyclical lower abdominal pain. An endocrine profile, including FSH, LH, prolactin, testosterone and thyroid function tests, is reported as normal. A. Discuss what additional information from the history and examination is helpful in establishing a diagnosis. (8 marks) B. Discuss the differential diagnosis. (5 marks) C. Justify which further investigations you would perform to establish the diagnosis, and outline the principles of management. (7 marks) Question 6: A 19-year-old sexually active single nulliparous woman with frequent sever migraine presents with a request for reliable long acting contraception. A. Describe the methods of long acting reversible contraception (LARC) available. (4 marks) B. Discuss the general (4 marks) and specific (12 marks) advantages and disadvantages of the various long acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) methods with particular reference to this woman. Question 7: A 38-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 8 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound scan suggests a likely complete molar pregnancy. A. Discuss your clinical management, including how you would counsel the patient. (10 marks) Four months after the initial diagnosis she has persistent vaginal bleeding and a rising BhCG.
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B. Discuss the principles of her further management and outline what additional investigations are required. (10 marks) Question 8: Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea can be managed medically. A. Discuss when women should be referred for hospital specialist intervention. (7 marks) B. Discuss which factors influence the treatments that you would offer, and their success. (13 marks).
MRCOG PART 1 March 2010 Hormone increased in Prolactinaemia Hormone produced by posterior pituatary Baby born with R sided umbilical hernia Baby born with stiff limbs and mother had oligohydramniosis Atomic mass of technetium (99) Atomic mass of cobalt (58, but the nearest possible on the list 60)
Origins pudendal nerve- ant s2 s4 Functions of 21 and 17a hydroxlase (convery what to what) POstitive predictive value and negative predictive value Linear regression Hep B and Hep C- DNA/ RNA viruses Lidocaine- side effects, shorter that bupivicaine Anatomy of pelvic bones Fetal skull Arteial supply of anus Lasers- ? red light faster that UV, ? cut with red light MRI- not radioactive, movement of H ions, resolution Matching disease with organism- chancre, Cancers with serum markers Amyloidosis- ?RA ?intracellular Bronchodilators Staph aureus- coagulase, toxin Time closure of neural tube, time mid gut move from abdo wall realy paper 1 was difficult , the qus as follow= 1, origin of pudendal nerve
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2, nerve supply of the skin of perinium 3, the structure that can differntiate b/w body of uterus and cervix in c/s 4, struture must be idintified during c/s to avoid injury 5,embry,,, by this time if the mid gut not withdrawl to abdomen the fetus will devolp exomphilus by this time the an and post neroun was closed ,,,they give many options obstructive jaunduce. - histopathology of endometrium, hyperplasia & adenocarcinoma. - HIV, HBV. - selective COX 2 inhibitors & antiprogesterone. - steroidogenesis pathways & enzymes. - tumour markers. - sarcoidisis. - asbestosis.
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4-Mrcog Part-1 Past Papers Recall 2009-2010

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4-Mrcog Part-1 Past Papers Recall 2009-2010

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RECALL 20092009-2010

. dose of radiation . 1 gray = joules/ kg . absorbed dose.

dopplers USG ? I am not confirmed about it

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