Gerak Gempur Perak STPM 2012 Biology

SULIT 1
964/1
BIOLOGY
2012
1 hr 45 mins

GERAK GEMPUR BIOLOGI (BIOLOGY)

KERTAS 1 (PAPER 1)

Satu jam empat puluh lima minit (One hour and forty-five minutes)

DAERAH KINTA UTARA, PERAK

Instructions to candidates:
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question, four suggested answers are given.
Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multiple-choice answer sheet provided.
Read the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet very carefully.
Answer all questions. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.

Gerak Gempur Biologi STPM 2012
Daerah Kinta Utara, Perak
This papers contains 15 printed pages
http://edu.joshuatly.com/
http://fb.me/edu.joshuatly
CONFIDENTIAL* Gerak Gempur Bio(P1) STPM 2012
964/1 [Turn over
This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over. CONFIDENTIAL*
2

Choose the most appropriate answer.

1. Which is the properties of water?

A. Low viscosity with low surface tension.
B. High viscosity with low surface tension.
C. Low viscosity with high surface tension.
D. High viscosity with high surface tension.

2. Which of the following process is not involved in condensation?

A. Formation of glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose.
B. Esterification between glycerol and fatty acids to form a triglyceride.
C. Formation of two units of amino acids from a dipeptide.
D. Synthesis of cellulose.

3. Which of the following statements about lipids are correct?

I. Lipids consist of glycerol combined with alcohols.
II. Both oils and fats are triglycerides.
III. Oils are more saturated with hydrogen than are fats.
IV. Lipids are more highly reduced substances than are carbohydrates.

A. I, II and III only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I and IV only

4. Which of the following organelles can only be seen using an electron microscope?

A.

Chloroplast.
B. Mitochondrion.
C. Nucleus.
D. Ribosomes.

5. Which of the following cell types has the thinnest cell wall?

A. Collenchymal cells.
B. Sclerenchymal cells.
C. Epidermal cells.
D. Meristematic cells.
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6. Which of the following statement is incorrectly to describe compact bone?

A. It consists of living cells embedded in a matrix mainly of chondrin.
B. It is made up of numerous Harversian systems.
C. Osteoblasts are found in lacunae between the lamellae.
D. Canaliculi connect the lacunae to each other.

7. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable to certain substances. From the following
substances, which is/arenot permeable to plasma membrane?

I. Hydrophobic molecules
II. Polar and tiny molecules
III. Polar and large molecules
IV. Charged ions

A. IV only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II and III only

8. Which of the following does not increase the rate of diffusion?

A. increasing the concentration of molecules.
B. increasing the temperature of liquid.
C. decreasing the size of molecules.
D. increasing the size of molecules.

9. The following graph shows the Lineweaver-Burke plot for certain reaction catalyzed
by an enzyme. Which value on the graph is used to calculate the Michaelis-Menten
constant?

A. I B. II C. III D. IV
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10. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. There are 64 different codons presented in mRNAs.
B. Each codon codes for a specific amino acid.
C. The number of codon is much more than the number of amino acids, so some of the
codons are redundant.
D. There are some codons mark the end of a polypeptide sequence called termination
codons.

11. Which of the following statements are correct to describe the translation process(protein
synthesis)?

I. codon of mRNA is coded from direction 3 5
II. initiate codon of mRNA for translation is AUG
III. attachment of mRNA to ribosome takes place in cytoplasm
IV. tRNA, which has a region called codon, carries amino acid to ribosome
V. translation process takes place in cytoplasm

B. I, III and V only
C. II, IV and V only
D. II, III and V only

12. A culture of bacteria had all its DNA labelled with the hcavy isotope of nitrogen,
15
N.
The culture was then allowed to reproduce using nucleotides containing normal
14
N. The
DNA was examined using a centrifuge after one generation and again after the second
generation. The diagram shows the position of the DNA band at Z in the centrifuge tube
when the DNA was first labelled.

In which pattern would the DNA be found after the first and after the second cell
generations?
After first generation After secong generation
A. All at Y Half at X and half at Y
B. All at Z Half at Y and half at Z
C. Half at X and half at Y Quarter at X and Z and half at Y
D. Half at X and half at Z
Quarter at X and Z and half at Y

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13. Energy from the photons cause the electron excited from the pigment molecules in thylakoid
membrane and start a series of photosynthesis reactions. Three reactions occur during light
reaction are

A. reduction of O2, oxidation of NADPH, production of ATP.
B. oxidation of H2O, reduction of NADP
+
, production of ATP.
C. fixation of CO2, release of O2, synthesis of glucose.
D. release of O2, fixation of CO2, hydrolysis of ATP.

14. Which of the following represents the photorespiration phenomenon?

A. RuBP +CO2 3-PGA
B. RuBP +O2 3CO2 +5ATP +2NADPH
C. RuBP +CO2 glucose +12ADP
D. RuBP +O2 glucose +12ADP

15. Which of the following event is not occur in a plant cell that undergoes anaerobic respiration
using a glucose molecule as substrate?

A. Two ATPs are yielded.
B. Lactate as final product.
C. One molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvate through
glycolysis process.
D. No net gain of NADH.

16. How many of the hydrogen carrier can be generated by each acetyl Co-A molecule that
enters citric acid cycle/Krebs cycle?

I. 3 NADH
II. 4 NADH
III. 1 GTP
IV. 1 FADH2
V. 2 FADH2

B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and V only
D. III, IV and V only

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17. Which statement below is incorrectly to describe the organism that involved in
chemosynthesis nutrition?

A. They are called photoheterotrophs.
B. Synthesis organic substances from CO2 and water.
C. Energy source is from chemical reaction such as oxidation of iron.
D. Nitrifying bacteria use ammonia and ammonium as energy source.

18. Which of the following organism does not involve in holozoic nutrition?

A. Fish
B. Housefly
C. Fungi
D. Amoeba

19. Carbon dioxide can be transported by blood as form of

I. carbonic acid
II. bicarbonate ions
III. carbamino ions
IV. haemoglobinic acid

B. I, II and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III, IV

20. What is meant by vital capacity when measuring human lung volumes by using spirometry?

A. Volume of air breathed in and out during a normal single breath.
B. Maximum volume of air that can be breathed in or breathed out of the lungs.
C. Volume of air which cannot be expelled even during forced expiration.
D. Total volume of air taken into the lungs in one minute.

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21. Graph 1 shown as below is an oxygen dissociation curve for myoglobin and haemoglobin.

What conclusion about myoglobin can be made from Graph 1?

A. It binds one oxygen molecule but haemoglobin binds with four oxygen molecules.
B. It will release oxygen to haemoglobin if partial pressure of oxygen is low.
C. It will only release oxygen when the partial pressure of oxygen is low.
D. It has less affinity towards oxygen molecule compare of those in haemoglobin.

22. Which of the following events will cause the opening of stomata?

I. The thickened inner cell wall of the guard cells.
II. Water move into guard cells by osmosis.
III. Conversion of glucose into starch in guard cells.
IV. Osmotic pressure in guard cells is much higher than that of the epidermal cells.

A. I, II and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. II, III and IV only

23. Which statement is not true of auxin?

A. It stimulates the division of cell in a stem.
B. It stimulates the elongation of coleoptile.
C. It promotes the formation of lateral shoot.
D. It inhibits the elongation of root at the high concentration.

Graph 1
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24. If plant X is a short day plant with a critical day length of 8
1
/2 hours, in which of these
conditions will plant X not flower?
I. Exposed to red light for 9 hours.
II. Kept in darkness for 8 hours.
III. Exposed to far red light for 12 hours.
IV. Kept in darkness for 15 hours before exposed to red light for 1 hour

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II , III and IV

25. Which of the following correctly explains the distribution of ions on either side of the
membrane of an axon in its resting state?

A. A high concentration of organic anions outside and a low concentration of K+ions inside.
B. A high concentration of organic anions inside and a low concentration of Na+ions outside.
C. A high concentration of K+ions and organic anions outside and a high concentration of Na+
ions inside.
D. A high concentration of Na+outside and a high concentration of K+ions and organic anions
inside.

26. Which of the following are true of B cell?
I. It forms immunity through the humoral response.
II. It forms immunity through the cell mediated mechanism.
III. It is produced and it achieves maturity in the bone marrow
IV. It is produced in the bone marrow and it achieves maturity in the thymus gland

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

27. Which one of the following is true of T cells?
I. T cells produce complement proteins
II. T cells mature in the bone marrow
III. T cytotoxic cells kill body cells that are infected with viruses
IV. T suppressor cells inhibit the acivities of T cytotoxic cells

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV
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28. Which is not correct about the concept of self and non-self ?

A. MHC protein markers on the surface of cells act as specific antigens.
B. Each organism carries a set of antigens which is unique to each individual.
C. In the embryo, T lymphocytes which can bind to the receptors (proteins and
polysaccharides) of their own body cells are induced to proliferate to form a clone of T
cells.
D. The immune system can distinguish self (the bodys own tissue) from non-self
(foreign tissue)

29. Which one of the following represents the general pattern of the alternation of generations?

A. gametophyte meiosis sporophyte spores
B. gametophyte meiosis spores sporophyte
C. sporophyte meiosis gametophyte spores
D. sporophyte meiosis spores gametophyte

30. During development, each microspore divides by mitosis to produce

I. microsporangium
II. a tube nuclues
III. a generative nuclues
IV. a synergids nuclues

B. I and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. II and III only

31. If the diploid state is represented by (D) and the haploid state by (H), which one of the
following sequences correctly describes the chromosome number in the named plant structures?

Polar Nucleus Pollen grain Pollen tube nucleus Cell in the testa Cell in the pericarp
A. (D) (D) (D) (D) (D)
B. (D) (H) (H) (H) (H)
C. (H) (D) (H) (H) (D)
D. (H) (H) (H) (D) (D)

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32. Which of the following is true of an oviparous animal?

A. An individual hatches from the egg outside the female parents body
B. An individual hatches from the egg in the uterus of the female parent
C. An individual is born before maturity and continues to develop in the sac of the female
parent.
D. An individual develop in the uterus of the female parent and the embryo obtains the
nutrient from the placenta.

33.

The above statement refers to which stage of embryonic development?

A. Blastomere
B. Cleavage
C. Gastrul ation
D. Organogenesis

34. Which of the following is the absolute growth curve of maize plant?
The following are events that occur during seed germination.

I. Synthesis and secretion of enzymes
II. Activation of the aleurone layer
III. Flow of sugars to the embryo
IV. Release of gibberellin
V. Hydrolysis of starch

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during seed germination?

A. II lV V III I
B. IV I V II III
C. IV II I V III
D. V III IV II I

The formation blastula from a zygote involves a succession of rapid cell divisions. This special
type of cell division creates a multicellular embryo.
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35. Which of the following statements are true about neurosecretion secreted by the
neurosecretory cell in insects?

I. It is stored in corpus allatum
II. It inhibits the effect of juvenile hormone
III. It is also known as prothoracictrophic hormone
IV. It stimulates the secretion of ecdysone from prothoracic gland

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and lV

36. The delay in development of insect pupa due to a decrease in light intensity is known as

A. hibernation
B. aestivation
C. diapause
D. metamorphosis

37. Two parents, each of blood group A, have a daughter of blood group O. What is the
probability that their next child will be a boy who has blood group O?

A. 0.125
B. 0.25
C. 0.50
D. 0.75

38. Turner syndrome is an example of

A. allopolyploidy
B. autopolyploidy
C. aneuploidy
D. euploidy

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39. The Hardy-Weinberg equation does not apply if

I. there is migration of population
II. there is natural selection
III. mutations occur
IV. there is non-random mating
V. there is a large population

A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II, III and V
C. I, III, IV and V
D. II, III, IV and V

40. From data below:

The frequency of allele A is

A. 0.75
B. 0.87
C. 0.34
D. 0.25

41. The lactose operon consists of

I. a regulator gene
II. an operator gene
III. three structural genes
IV. a promoter gene

A. II and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and III only

Number of individuals with AA is 3500.
Number of individuals with Aa is 1000.
Number of individuals with aa is 80.
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42. Which of the following is/are the suitable characteristic/s for plasmid used as cloning
vector?
I. More than one restriction sites.
II. Replicate very fast
III. Insignificant genetic markers for resistance to antibiotics.
IV. Can be easily isolated and purified from bacterial culture.

C. I, II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV

43. Which of the following regarding taxa and their examples not correct?

A. Phylum: Chordata
B. Class: Mammalia
C. Order: Hominidae
D. Species: sapiens

44. Based on the table below, match phyla of organisms to their characteristics.

Phylum Characteristic
I Cnidaria P Body divided into head, muscular foot and visceral mass
II Artropoda Q Diploblastic body, polymorphism
III Mollusca R Segmented legs, chitinous exoskeleton
IV Nematoda S Body covered with thin and elastic cuticle, pseudocoelom

I II III IV
A P Q S R
B Q R P S
C R S Q P
D S R P Q

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45. Mechanisms of intrinsic isolation leading to speciation include
I. geographical barriers
II. ecological isolation
III. temporal isolation
IV. gamete isolation

B. I, II and IV only
C. I, III and IV only

Questions 46-47
S. townsendii is a new hybrid plant species between S. maritime and S. alterniflora.

46. Why the first hybrid generation is sterile?

A. because of the mutation in chromosome number.
B. because of non-disjunction during meiosis I.
C. because of the reciprocal translocation between two non-homologous chromosomes.
D. because of the absence of homologous pairs, meiosis not probable to take place.

47. What are the number of chromosomes represented by P and Q?

P Q
A. 63 126
B. 126 252
C. 252 504
D. 126 63
x S. alterniflora
(2n =70)
S. maritime
(2n =56)
Sterile hybrid
(2n =P)
S. townsendii
(4n =Q)
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48. Diagram 1 & 2 represent a biomass and a number pyramid for a particular food chain.

Which of the following correctly identifies the diagram?

Diagram 1 Diagram 2 Habitat Producer
A. Number Biomass Pond Tiny algae
B. Number Biomass Tropical rain forest Terrestrial trees
C. Biomass Number Sea-shore Phytoplankton
D. Biomass Number Pond Tiny algae

49. Organic sulphur in plant and animal proteins can be decomposed by bacteria directly to form

A. SO2
B. SO3
C. H2S
D. SO4
2-

50. The relationship between gross primary production (GPP), net primary production (NPP)
and heat loss through respiration (R) can be represented by the equation

A. GPP =NPP
B. GPP =NPP - R
C. NPP =GPP - R
D. NPP =GPP +R

Diagram 1 Diagram 2
SULIT 1
964/2
BIOLOGY
2012
1 hr 45 mins

GERAK GEMPUR BIOLOGI (BIOLOGY)

KERTAS 2 (PAPER 2)

Dua jam setengah (Two and a half hours)

DAERAH KINTA UTARA, PERAK

For examiners use
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Total

Gerak Gempur Biologi STPM 2012
This papers contains 9 printed pages
Instructions to candidates:
Answer all the questions in Section A in the spaces provided.
Answer any four questions from Section B. For this section,
write your answers on the answer sheets provided. Begin each
answer on a fresh sheet of paper. Answers should be illustrated by
large, clearly labelled diagrams wherever suitable.
Answers may be written in either Malay or English.
Arrange your answers in numerical order and tie the answer
sheets to this booklet.
CONFIDENTIAL* Gerak Gempur STPM (Bio P2) 2012
964/2 [Turn Over
*This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over. CONFIDENTIAL*

2

SECTION A [40 marks]

Answer all the questions in this section.

1. a) The diagram shows a molecule of an enzyme called ribonuclease. Each amino
acid in the protein is indicated by a 3-letter symbol e.g. Arg = arginine.

i) How many nucleotides are there in the mRNA molecule that codes
for this enzyme? [1]

X
80
20
60
100
120
1
37
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ii) The table gives the mRNA code for the four amino acids in the part of enzyme
labelled X.

Amino acid Symbol mRNA code
Alanine Ala GCU
Glutamine Glu GAG
Leucine Leu UUA
Serine Ser AGU

Give the DNA code for the part of the enzyme labelled X. [1]

iii) Where does translation occur in a cell? [1]

iv) Describe briefly what happens during translation. [2]

b) Figure 1 shows a reaction catalyesed by an enzyme in lock and key hypothesis.

succinic dehydrogenase
hydrogen
Figure 1
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i) I f the enzyme is succinic dehydrogenase, name the parts labelled Q and R. [2]

ii) Describe the mechanism of this enzymatic reaction based on the lock and key
hypothesis. [3]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

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2. The diagram below shows changes in the membrane potential of a neurone during the
production of an action potential.

(a) Label phases A,B,C and the period labelled D as shown in the diagram. [4]

A : ___________________________________________________

B : ___________________________________________________

C : ___________________________________________________

D : ___________________________________________________

(b) Describe how A is maintained. [2]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

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c) Distinguish between B and C. [2]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

d) Why is the potential of D less than A? [1]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

e) State the importance of D. [1]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

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3. a) Complete the table below to show the differences between the cells of the immune system
involved in humoral immune response and cell-mediated response. [6]

Description
Humoral immune
response
Cell-mediated immune
response
Origin of cells
Primary cells
Site of cell maturation

b) What is the effect of an antigen on B cells? [2]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

c) Name the substance that is secreted by macrophages and leucocytes to trigger immune
response. [1]

______________________________________________________________________________

d) State the effect of the subtance named in (c) in immune response. [1]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

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4. The two graphs (S and T) in the following figure show the measurement of growth rates of
the same plant, Zea mays.

a) Name the type of curve illustrated by graph S and T. [2]

Curve S -

Curve T -

b) Explain what graphs S and T represent. [2]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

c) Based on its lifespan, what type of plant is Zea mays known as? [1]

______________________________________________________________________________

d) i) Describe the growth pattern in Zea mays. [3]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

ii) Explain how is this type of growth pattern different from that of woody plants. [2]

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
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Section B [60 marks]

Answer any four questions from this section.

5. (a) Draw and labeled the structure of a cell membrane based on Singers model. [2]

(b) Explain the roles of the structures of the cell membrane in the transportation of substances
into the cell. [13]

6. (a) State briefly the differences between anaerobic respiration that occur in plants and
animals. [6]

(b) NAD and NADP are important molecules in plant cells. Describe in detail, the role of these
molecules within a palisade mesophyll cell. [9]

7. (a) Explain why no flowering response is shown by some plants that grow near highways.
[5]

(b) Explain the changes that occur during the onset of labour in humans. [10]

8. (a) Outline on 3 examples of internal fertilisation, namely oviparity, ovoviviparity and
viviparity. [7]

(b) i) State the similarities and differences in characteristics between Marchantia sp. and
Dryopteris sp. [8]

9. (a) Give an account of the events which occur after fertilization from cleavage to
organogenesis in humans. [8]

(b) With the aid of labeled diagram describe the function of placenta. [7]

10. (a) Define the following terminologies:
i) Speciation
ii) Gene pool [ 3]
(b) Describe the importance of following mechanisms in genetic divergence:
i) geographical isolation
ii) pre-zygotic and post-zygotic isolation. [ 12]

GerakGempurBioSTPM2012(SchematicanswersP2)
DaerahKintaUtara,Perak
Answer Gerak Gempur Biologi STPM Kinta Utara 2012

BIOLOGY STPM PAPER 1 (964/1)

1 C 11 D 21 C 31 D 41 D
2 C 12 A 22 A 32 A 42 C
3 C 13 B 23 C 33 B 43 C
4 D 14 D 24 C 34 C 44 B
5 D 15 B 25 D 35 C 45 D
6 A 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 D
7 C 17 A 27 D 37 A 47 A
8 D 18 C 28 C 38 C 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 C 39 A 49 C
10 C 20 B 30 D 40 B 50 C

Section A (Structured Questions)

Q1 SUGGESTED ANSWERS MARK
1. (A) I) 3 NUCLEOTIDES X 123 AMINO ACIDS =369 NUCLEOTIDES 1
II) 3 CGA AAT TCA CTC 5 1
III) RIBOSOMES IN CYTOPLASM OF CELLS 1
IV) INITIATION :
MRNA BINDS TO SMALL RIBOSOME SUBUNIT WITH ITS 5 END.
AMINO ACID-TRNA COMPLEX PAIR WITH AN INITIATION CODON ON THE
MRNA.
LARGE SUBUNIT RIBOSOME BINDS TO SMALL SUBUNIT TO FORM COMPLETE
RIBOSOME
ELONGATION
FIRST AA-TRNA COMPLEX HAS PAIRED WITH INITIATION CODON (AUG) ON
THE P SITE, ANOTHER AA-TRNA COMPLEX THEN PAIR WITH THE MRNA
CODON ADJ ACENT TO THE INITIATION CODON ON A SITE.
BOTH AMINO ACID LINKED TOGETHER BY PEPTIDE BONDS.
ANTICODON ON AA-TRNA MOLECULES PAIR WITH COMPLEMENTARY CODON
ON MRNA.
RIBOSOME MOVES ONE BY ONE CODON ALONG THE MRNA TOWARDS 3
END.
TERMINATION:
POLYPEPTIDE SYNTHESIS END WHEN THE RIBOSOME REACH AT THE
TERMINATION CODON : UAA,UAG OR UGA ON MRNA
THE COMPLETED POLYPEPTIDE DETACH FROM MRNA AND
RIBOSOME.
1+1
(ANY 2)
FROM
(A),
(B),(C)
(B) I) SUCCINATE/SUCCINIC ACID, FUMARATE/FUMARIC ACID 1+1
II) THE ACTIVE SITE OF AN ENZYME HAS A SHAPE AND STRUCTURE
(CONFIGURATION) WHICH ONLY COMPLEMENTS(SIMILAR) THE SHAPE
OF ITS SUBSTRATE MOLECULES.
ENZYMES AS LOCK AND SUBSTRATE AS KEY
SUBSTRATE MOLECULES ATTACHES INTO ENZYME ACTIVE SITE,
FORMING AN ENZYME-SUBSTRATE COMPLEX.
BONDS IN THE SUBSTRATE MOLECULES ARE FORMED OR
BREAKDOWN IN THE E-S COMPLEX, PRODUCTS ARE FORMED.
THE PRODUCT MOLECULES LEAVE THE ACTIVE CENTER AS THEY
1+1+1
(ANY 3)
HAVE ENTIRELY DIFFERENT STRUCTURE FROM SUBSTRATE

MOLECULES.

TOTAL 10
2. (A) A: RESTING POTENTIAL
B: DEPOLARIZATION
C: REPOLARISATION
D: REFRACTORY PERIOD
1
1
1
1
(B) - THE ACTIVE TRANSPORT OF SODIUM AND POTASSIUM IONS IN AND OUT
ACROSS THE MEMBRANE/ 3NA+OUT, 2 K +IN
- THE MEMBRANE IS MORE PERMEABLE TO POTASSIUM IONS
COMPARED TO SODIUM IONS ; THUS MORE POTASSIUM IONS
DIFFUSE OUT OF THE NEURONE COMPARED TO SODIUM IONS DIFFUSE IN
1

1
1
1
(ANY 2)
(C) B-DEPOLARIZATIO VS, C -REPOLARISATION
- SODIUM-GATED CHANNELS OPEN VS POTASSIUM-GATED CHANNESL OPEN
- SODIUM IONS ENTER THE NEURONE VS POTASSIUM IONS LEAVE THE NEURONE
- THE INSIDE OF A NEURONE VS BECOMES POSITIVE VS THE INSIDE OF A
NEURONE BECOMES NEGATIVE
1
1
1
1
(ANY 2)
(D) - THE POTASSIUM-GATED CHANNELS REMAIN OPEN / SLOW TO CLOSE
- THIS ALLOWS FURTHER EFFLUX OF POTASSIUM IONS
1
1
(ANY 1)
(E) - LIMITS THE FREQUENCY IN WHICH IMPULSES MAY FLOW
- ENSURES THAT IMPULSES FLOW IN ONE DIRECTION ALONG THE NERVE
1
1
(ANY 1)
TOTAL 10
3. (A)
DESCRIPTION HUMORALIMMUNE
RESPONSE
CELLMEDIATEDIMMUNE
RESPONSE
ORIGINOFCELLS BONE MARROW BONE MARROW
PRIMARYCELLS B CELLS/ B
LYMPHOCYTES
T CELLS/ T
LYMPHOCYTES
SITEOFCELLMATURATION BONE MARROW THYMUS GLAND

1+1
1+1
1+1

(B) - AN ANTIGEN EXPOSURE TRIGGERS TO DIVIDE
- TO PRODUCE MEMORY B CELLS(M-CELLS) AND PLASMA CELLS.
1
1
(C) - INTERLEUKIN-1 1
(D) - INDUCES HELPER T CELLS TO SECRETE INTERLEUKINE-2 1
TOTAL 10
4. (A) CURVE S ABSOLUTE GROWTH CURVE
CURVE T ABSOLUTE GROWTH RATE CURVE
1
1
(B) S ACTUAL INCREASE IN SIZE OVER A PERIOD OF TIME
T THE INCREASE IN SIZE PERUNIT TIME
1
1
(C) ANNUAL PLANTS 1
(D) I) - LIMITED GROWTH (OCCURS IN ANNUAL PLANTS)
- AS THEY COMPLETE THEIR LIFE CYCLE IN A YEAR
- THE GROWTH CURVE IS A SIGMOID CURVE
1
1
1
(ANY 2)
II) - WOODY PLANTS ARE PERENNIAL PLANTS
- WHICH DISPLAY UNLIMITED GROWTH
- THE GROWTH CURVE IS A SERIES OF SIGMOID
1
1
1
(ANY 2)
TOTAL 10


Section B (Essay Questions)

5. (A) SINGERS MODEL OF MEMBRANE
- LABELS: PHOSPHOLIPID BILAYER, CHANNEL PROTEINS, CARRIER PROTEINS
CHOLESTEROL
- DRAWING IN ONE PLANE, , BUT NOT IN 3-DIMENSIONAL

1
(ANY 1)
1
MAX = 2
(B) - THE BIOLOGICAL CELL MEMBRANE ACTS AS BARRIER AND ARE SELECTIVELY
PERMEABLE
- THE MEMBRANE CONSISTS OF A FLUID BILAYER OF PHOSPHOLIPIDS AND
VARIOUS PROTEIN MOLECULES EMBEDDED IN IT. SOME OF THIS PROTEIN
MOLECULES ACT AS ION CHANNELS, CARRIER PROTEIN OR PUMPS
- THE PHOSPHOLIPIDS BILAYER HAS A HYDROPHOBIC MIDDLE REGION MADE
UP OF HYDROPHOBIC FATTY ACIDS TAILS
- THE PHOSPHOLIPIDS BILAYER IS PERMEABLE TO VERY SMALL UNCHARGED
MOLECULES LIKE OXYGEN, AND CARBON DIOXIDE, STEROID BASED
HORMONE, FATTY ACIDS AND ALCOHOL(SIMPLE DIFFUSION)
- SIMPLE DIFFUSION OF WATER MOLECULES ACROSS THE SEMIPERMEABLE
CELL MEMBRANE IS CALLED OSMOSIS.
- SOME INTEGRAL MEMBRANE PROTEIN FORM HYDROPHILIC ION CHANNELS.
THIS ALLOWS DIFFUSION OF VARIOUS CHARGED IONS E.G. K+, NA+, CA+,
AND HCO3-, DOWN THEIR CONCENTRATION GRADIENT.
- SOME OF THIS ION PROTEIN CHANNELS CAN OPEN OR CLOSE AND ARE
CALLED GATED CHANNELS E.G. VOLTAGE-GATED CHANNELS AND LIGAND-
GATED CHANNELS
- OTHER LARGE SIZED HYDROPHILIC MOLECULES SUCH AS GLUCOSE ARE
TRANSPORTED ACROSS THE CELL MEMBRANE THROUGH FACILITATED
DIFFUSION USING A PROTEIN CARRIER MOLECULES
- IN FACILITATED DIFFUSION, THE BINDING OF SUBSTANCES TO THE SPECIFIC
PROTEIN CARRIER CAUSES THE CARRIER TO CHANGES ITS SHAPE AND THE
SUBSTANCE IS RELEASED INTO THE CELL
- TRANSPORT PROTEIN ON THE CELL MEMBRANE CAN ALSO TRANSPORT
SUBSTANCE ACROSS THE CELL MEMBRANE AGAINST THE CONCENTRATION
GRADIENT THROUGH ACTIVE TRANSPORT.
- IN ACTIVE TRANSPORT, THE SHAPE OF PROTEIN CARRIER CHANGES USING
ENERGY (ATP)
- EXOCYTOSIS AND ENDOCYTOSIS ARE ACTIVE TRANSPORT PROCESSES THAT
MOVE MATERIAL IN BULK ACROSS THE CELL MEMBRANE
- EXCOCYTOSIS INVOLVE THE TRANSPORTATION OF SUBSTANCES OUT OF THE
CELL IN BULK THROUGH THE FUSSION OF VESICLE MEMBRANE WITH THE
CELL MEMBRANE
- IN ENDOCYTOSIS THE BULK SUBSTANCES IS TRANSPORTED INTO THE CELL
THROUGH THE INVAGINATION OF THE CELL MEMBRANE
- PINOCYTOSIS OCCURS WHEN THE CELL MEMBRANE INVAGINATES TO
ACTIVELY TRANSPORT A SMALL AMOUNT OF FLUID INTO THE CELL
- IN RECEPTOR-MEDIATED ENDOCYTOSIS, LIGAND (CHOLESTEROL
MOLECULES) BIND TO SPECIFIC RECEPTORS IN COATED PITS ON CELL
MEMBRANE.
- ALL THESE STRUCTURES AND ITS RELATED PROCESS ENABLE THE CELL
MEMBRANE TO FUNCTION AS SEMIPERMEABLE MEMBRANE AS WELL AS
ENABLE THE CELL MEMBRANE TO REGULATE THE MOVEMENT OF
SUBSTANCES IN AND OUT OF THE CELL
1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1

1
(ANY 13)
MAX = 13
TOTAL = 15

6. (A)
ANAEROBIOSIS IN PLANTS ANAEROBIOSIS IN ANIMALS
OCCURS IN ROOTS / SEED / STORAGE
ORGAN/TUBER
OCCURS IN SKELETAL MUSCLES
OCCURS WHEN ROOT ARE
SUBMERGED //OXYGEN SUPPLY
DECREASES
OCCURS WHEN MUSCLES ARE
ACTIVELY CONTRACTING
PRODUCTS ARE ETHANOL AND
CARBON DIOXIDE
PRODUCT IS LACTIC ACID
PYRUVATE CHANGED / REDUCED TO
ETHANOL FIRST THEN TO ITS FINAL
PRODUCT, ETHANOL
PYRUVATE DIRECTLY CHANGED /
REDUCED TO ITS FINAL
PRODUCT,LACTIC ACID
ETHANOL IS POISONOUS / CAN KILL
THE PLANT CELLS
LACTIC ACID IS STILL USEFUL / NOT
POISONOUS
ETHANOL CANNOT BE CONVERTED
BACK TO GLUCOSE
LACTIC ACID CAN BE CONVERTED
BACK TO GLUCOSE
ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION IS NOT
NEEDED TO SUSTAIN THE SUPPLY OF
ATP
ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION IS USEFUL
TO SUSTAIN THE SUPPLY OF ATP

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

(ANY 6)
MAX = 6
(B) ROLES OF NAD AND NADP IN A MESOPHYLL PALISADE CELL:
- NAD INVOLVED IN CELLULAR RESPIRATION
- 2 MOLECULES OF REDUCED NAD / NADH PRODUCED IN GLYCOLYSIS
- 1 / 2 MOLECULES OF NADH PRODUCED IN LINK REACTION
- 3 / 6 MOLECULES OF NADH PRODUCED IN KREB CYCLE
- NAD ACCEPTS HYDROGEN / ELECTRON AND TRANSFERS / CARRY TO THE
INNER MITOCHONDRIAL
- MEMBRANES / CRISTAE / CYTOCHROMES / ETC / MATRIX
- NADP INVOLVED IN PHOTOSYNTHESIS
- VII NADP ACCEPT ELECTRON AND HYDROGEN ION FORMING NADPH IN
NON-CYCLIC
- PHOTOPHOSPHORYLATION / LIGHT DEPENDENT REACTION / LIGHT
REACTION
- NADPH USED IN CALVIN CYCLE / DARK REACTION / LIGHT INDEPENDENT
REACTION
- NADPH IS USED TO REDUCE CO2 / IN REDUCTION PHASE
- NADPH REDUCES GLYCERATE -1,3-DIPHOSPHATE INTO 1
GLYCERALDEHYDES- 3-PHOSPHATE / PGAL

1
1
1
1
1

1
1
1

1
1

1
1

(ANY 9)
MAX = 9
TOTAL = 15


7. (A) - THESE TYPES OF PLANTS ARE SHORT DAY PLANTS
- THE PLANTS REQUIRE A PERIOD OF DARKNESS EQUAL TO / LONGER THAN
CRITICAL NIGHT LENGTH
- LIGHT / SPOTLIGHT FLASHES FROM VEHICLES INTERRUPT / SHORTEN THE
PERIOD OF DARKNESS
- CAUSES THE CONVERSION OF PR INTO P
FR

- P
FR
IS THE (BIOLOGICAL) ACTIVE FORM
- HIGH CONCENTRATION / LEVEL OF P
FR
INHIBIT FLOWERING IN SDPS
1
1

1

1
1
1
(ANY 5)
MAX = 5
(B) - ESTROGEN LEVEL HIGH IN THE END / LAST WEEK OF PREGNANCY
- STIMULATE THE DEVELOPMENT OF OXYTOCIN RECEPTOR IN UTERINE WALL
// INCREASE THE SENSITIVITY OF UTERUS MUSCLE/MYOMETRIUM TO
OXYTOCIN
- BABYS HEAD / GROWING FETUS PRESS AGAINST THE MOTHER CERVIX
- CAUSING THE CERVIX AND UTERINE WALL TO STRETCH
- THIS STIMULATES MATERNAL POSTERIOR PITUITARY TO RELEASE OXYTOCIN
- AND ALSO STIMULATES FETAL PITUITARY GLAND SECRETES ACTH
- ACTH TRIGGERS FETAL ADRENAL GLAND TO SECRETE CORTICOSTEROIDS
HORMONE
- CORTICOSTEROIDS HORMONE TRIGGERS PLACENTA TO SECRETE
PROSTAGLANDIN
- OXYTOCIN ALSO STIMULATES PLACENTA / FETAL TO PRODUCE
PROSTAGLANDIN
- BOTH PROSTAGLANDIN AND OXYTOCIN STIMULATES A POWERFUL
CONTRACTION OF MYOMETRIUM / UTERUS WALL
- THE MORE FREQUENT THE MYOMETRIUM CONTRACTS, THE MORE
OXYTOCIN/ PROSTAGLANDIN PRODUCED
- THE UTERUS CONTRACTION ALSO STIMULATES STRETCH RECEPTORS IN
THE UTERINE WALL AND THE CERVIX TO TRIGGER FURTHER RELEASE OF
OXYTOCIN
- THE CERVIX DILATES / WIDEN, ITS TISSUE SOFTENS AND BECOME MORE
FLEXIBLE AND AMNIOTIC BAG BURST
- CONTRACTIONS BECOME STRONGER AND STRONGER / MORE FREQUENT
HELP TO PUSH BABY DOWN/OUT

1
1//1

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1

1

1

1

(ANY 10)
MAX = 10
TOTAL= 15


8. (A) OVIPARITY:
- WHEN THE EGGS ARE LAID AND HATCHED OUTSIDE THE FEMALE BODY
- EXAMPLE: REPTILES / BIRDS/ FROGS / MOST FISH / INSECTS I SOME
SPECIES OF SHARKS
OVOVIVIPARITY:
- THE EGG IS FERTILIZED AND STORED I RETAINED WITHIN THE OVIDUCT
- THE EMBRYO IS NOURISHED BY THE YOLK IN THE EGG II OBTAINS ITS
NUTRIENTS FROM THE YOLK
- THE YOUNG ARE BORN AFTER BEING HATCHED WITHIN THE MOTHER'S BODY
- EXAMPLE: SOME SPECIES OF SHARKS
VIVIPARITY:
- THE EGG IS FERTILISED WITHIN THE FEMALE BODY AND THE EMBRYO
FORMED IS NOURISHED BY NUTRIENTS OBTAINED FROM THE MOTHER'S
BODY / THROUGH THE PLACENTA. THE BABY IS BORN ALIVE
- EXAMPLE: ALL MAMMALS AND SOME SPECIES OF SHARKS.

1
1

1
1
1
1
1

1

1
(ANY 7)
MAX = 7
(B) MARCHANTIA SP.(BRYOPHYTE) VS DRYOPTERIS SP.(FILICINOPHYTE)

SIMILARITIES :
- EUKARYOTIC
- AUTOTROPHIC/PHOTOSYNTHETIC
- NO LOCOMOTION
- CELLULOSE CELL WALL
- SHOW ALTERNATION OF GENERATION: HAPLOID GAMETOPHYTE AND
DIPLOID SPOROPHYTE
- HOMOSPOROUS

DIFFERENCES :
MARCHANTIA SP.(BRYOPHYTE) DRYOPTERIS SP.(FILICINOPHYTE)
ALTERNATION OF GENERATIONS IN
WHICH THE GAMETOPHYTE
GENERATION IS DOMINANT
ALTERNATION OF GENERATIONS IN
WHICH THE SPOROPHYTE IS
DOMINANT
SPOROPHYTE IS ATTACHED TO, AND
IS DEPENDENT UPON, THE
GAMETOPHYTE FOR ITS NUTRITION
GAMETOPHYTE IS REDUCED TO A
SMALL, SIMPLE PROTHALLUS
NO VASCULAR TISSUE, THAT IS NO
XYLEM OR PHLOEM
VASCULAR TISSUE PRESENT (XYLEM
AND PHLOEM) IN SPOROPHYTE:
BODY IS A THALLUS, OR
DIFFERENTIATED INTO SIMPLE
LEAVES AND STEMS
NO TRUE ROOTS, STEMS OR LEAVES:
THE GAMETOPHYTE IS ANCHORED BY
FILAMENTOUS RHIZOIDS
LEAVES RELATIVELY LARGE AND
CALLED FRONDS

SPOROPHYTE IS THEREFORE HAS
TRUE ROOTS, STEMS AND LEAVES
SPORES ARE PRODUCED BY THE SPORES PRODUCED IN SPORANGIA

1
1
1
1
1

1

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

1/0

SPOROPHYTE IN A SPORE CAPSULE

ON THE END OF A SLENDER STALK
ABOVE THE GAMETOPHYTE
WHICH ARE USUALLY IN CLUSTERS
CALLED SORI

(ANY 8)
MAX = 8

9. (A) - CLEAVAGE IS A SUCCESSION OF RAPID MITOTIC DIVISIONS THAT FOLLOW
FERTILIZATION.
- THE CYTOPLASM OF THE ZYGOTE IS PARTITIONED INTO BLASTOMERAS
WITHOUT GROWTH.
- 4 DAYS AFTER FERTILIZATION, THE ZYGOTE DEVELOPS INTO SOLID MASS OF
CELLS CALLED A MORULA.
- THE MORULA CONTINUES TO DIVIDED TO FORM A HOLLOW FLUID FILLED
BALL OF 100 CELL CALLED A BLASTULA.
- 7 DAYS AFTER FERTILIZATION, THE BLASTULAR BECOMES A BLASTOCYST
AND IMPLANTS INTO THE UTERINE LINING.
- 9 DAYS AFTER FERTILIZATION, A BLASTOCYST MIGRATE INWARDS/ MOVE TO

- INTERIOR LOCATION / INVAGINATE.
- GASTRULA HAS THREE EMBRYONIC GERM LAYERS- ECTODERM,MESODERM
AND ENDODERM.
- THE GERM LAYERS DEVELOP INTO REDIMENTS OF ORGAN DURING
ORGANOGENESIS.
1

1

1

1

1

1
1
1

1

(ANY 8)
MAX = 8
(B) - ALLOWS THE EXCHANGE OF SUBSTANCES SUCH AS OXYGEN, CARBON
DIOXIDE,NUTRIENTS, HORMONES AND UREA.
- DOES NOT ALLOW BLOOD FROM THE MOTHER AND FETUS TO MIX.
- THIS PREVENTS INCOMPATIBLE BLOOD FROM MIXING AND CLOTTING /
AGGLUTINATING.
- ACTS AS A PARTIAL BARRIER TO THE PASSAGE OF HARMFUL PATHOGENS/
MICROORGANISMS /HARMFUL SUBSTANCES.
- HOWEVER, VIRUSES(HIV),NICOTINE, ALCOHOL, CERTAIN DRUGS CAN
CROSS THE PLACENTA.
- PERMITS THE MATERNAL AND FETAL BLOOD SYSTEMS TO FUNCTION AT
DIFFERING PRESSURES WITH HARMING EITHER THE MOTHER OR THE FETUS.
- ACTS AS A TEMPORARY ENDORINE ORGAN, PRODUCING HCG, ESTROGEN
AND PROGESTERONE. THIS PREVENTS OVULATION AND MENSTRUATION.
- PERMITS CERTAIN MATERNAL ANTIBODIES TO BE TRANSFERRED TO THE
FETUS, PROVIDING FETUS WITH IMMUNITY TO CERTAIN DISEASES.
1

1
1

1
1
1

1

1

1

(ANY 7)
MAX = 7
TOTAL= 15


10. A) (I) SPECIATION :
- A PROCESS OF FORMATION OF ONE OR MORE SPECIES

- FROM PREEXISTING SPECIES / AS A RESULT OF A RESULT OF ISOLATION,
NATURAL SELECTION, GENETIC DRIFT OR HYBRIDIZATION.

(II) GENE POOL:
- THE GENE POOL IS THE TOTAL OF ALL THE GENES AND ALLELES WHICH ARE
PRESENT IN A SEXUALLY REPRODUCING POPULATION.

1
1

1
MAX = 3
I) GEOGRAPHICAL ISOLATION:
- EXAMPLE GEOGRAPHICAL ISOLATION / EXTRINSIC ISOLATION ARE
- GEOGRAPHICAL BARRIERS LIKE DESERT, MOUNTAINS, OCEANS AND RIVER.

- THESE BARRIERS SEPARATE THE DEMES AND PREVENT THEM FROM
MEETING AND BREEDING WITH EACH OTHER.
- THIS MODE OF SPECIATION IS CALLED ALLOPATRIC SPECIATION /
POPULATION SEPRATION BY GEOGRAPHICAL BARRIER.
- (IF ISOLATION IS COMPLETE ) THERE IS NO LONGER A GENE FLOW BETWEEN
THE DEMES.
- MUTATION, SELECTION PRESSURES, GENETIC DRIFT AND ADAPTIVE
DISPERSION RESULT IN THE PRODUCTION OF DIFFERENT GENOTYPES FOR
EACH DEMES.
- THE 2 ISOLATED DEMES ARE NOT ABLE TO INTERBREED

1
1
1

1

1

1

1
(ANY 4)
MAX = 4
II) PRE-ZYGOTIC
- PREVENT MATING / FERTILIZATION BETWEEN SPECIES.
- ECOLOGICAL ISOLATION / HABITAT ISOLATION-SPECIES LIVE IN DIFFERENT
HABITATS.
- TEMPORAL ISOLATION- SPECIES HAVE DIFFERENT BREEDING SEASON TIME.

- BEHAVIOURAL ISOLATION SPECIES HAVE DIFFERENT MATING 9EHAVIOR

- MECHANICAL ISOLATION-MORPHOLOGICAL OR STRUCTURAL DIFFERENCES
IN THE REPRODUCTIVE ORGAN / PHYSIOLOGICAL DIFFERENCES PREVENT
NORMAL MATING FOR ANIMAL OR POLLINATION FOR PLANTS.
- GAMETIC ISOLATION FEMALE AND MALE GAMETES NOT COMPATIBLE /
FERTILIZATION DOES NOT OCCUR.

POST-ZYGOTIC
- BARRIERS OPERATE AFTER HYBRID ZYGOTES ARE FORMED.
- HYBRID INVIABILITY GENE OF TWO PARENT SPECIES ARE NOT
COMPLITABLE AND THE HYBRIDS DO NOT SURVIVE.
- HYBRID STERILITY HYBRIDS ARE STERILE

1
1
1
1

1/1

1/1

1
1
1

1

1 http://edu.joshuatly.com/
10
- (THERE ARE UNABLE TO BRING ABOUT GENE FLOW BETWEEN THE PARENT
SPECIES.)
- HYBRID BREAKDOWN-HYBRIDS ARE FERTILE BUT THE OFFSPRING ARE
INFERTILE
(ANY 8)
MAX= 8
TOTAL= 15


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SULIT 1

Answer Gerak Gempur Biologi STPM Kinta Utara 2012

HAVE ENTIRELY DIFFERENT STRUCTURE FROM SUBSTRATE

BIOLOGY STPM PAPER 2 (964/2)

SPOROPHYTE IN A SPORE CAPSULE

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