GMAT

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Practice Test Betty

SECTION 1

Quantitative

QUANTITATIVE

SECTION 1
Time 75 minutes 37 Questions

Directions for Section One: The following questions are either Problem Solving or Data Sufficiency. Problem Solving questions are those with five listed answer choices. In each of these, select the best answer choice, and mark the corresponding oval on your exam grid. Note that figures are drawn as accurately as possible except when it is stated that a figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. Data Sufficiency questions are those which have a question stem followed by two statements containing certain data. Your task is to determine whether the data provided by the statements are sufficient to answer the question. The answer choices for all of these questions are always the same. They are the following. (A) Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. (B) Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. (C) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. (D) EITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. (E) Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem. Based upon the statements data, your knowledge of mathematics, and your familiarity with everyday facts (such as the number of minutes in an hour), select the best answer choice, and mark it on your answer grid. A figure accompanying a Data Sufficiency question will conform to the information in the question stem, but will not include data from the statements. Figures are not necessarily drawn to scale. Note that you may assume that the positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown and that angle measures are greater than zero. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

1. One worker can perform a certain task in 3 hours. A second worker can perform the same task in 7 hours. If both workers work together (but separately) on the task, how long in hours 2 of the task? will it take them to complete 7 G G G G G
5 14 3 5 7 10 10 7 5 3

2. If

5 4x + 6 1 2 7 12 2 3 4 5 7 8

3 , what is the value of x ? = 5

G G G G G

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 3. If

8 a b , what is the value of 5ab? = 5

G G

8. Which of the following cannot yield an odd integer when divided by 5? G an odd integer squared G an integer less than 5 G the product of an odd integer and an even integer G the sum of three consecutive integers G an even integer minus an odd integer 9. A cyclist rides the exact same route to and from work each day. Her average speed is 8 miles per hour for the entire trip. If her average speed was 12 miles per hour on her way to work, what was her average speed on the trip home in miles per hour? G 4.0 6.0 9.6

25 50

G 200 G 276 G 425 4. Does the integer n have two factors, x and y, such that 1 < x < y < n? (1) 3! < n < 4! (2) n is odd, and a multiple of 3.
A E C D B

G G

G 10.0 G 16.0 10.

2 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 3

5. What is the area of the circle with center C? (1) Arc ADB has length 10. (2) The area of sector ACBE is twice the area of sector ACBD. 6. A bag contains 12 red marbles. If someone were to remove 2 marbles from the bag, one at a time, and replace the first marble after it was removed, the probability that neither marble 16 . How many marbles are in would be red is 25 the bag? G 24 G 48 G 60 G 72 G 84 7. If ab 0, what is the value of (1) a2 4b2 = 0 (2) b = 2
2b ? a

G G G

7 1 0

G 1 G 7 11. Is 3x y + z greater than 2x y + 2z? (1) x is positive (2) x 2z is negative 12. A rectangular solid has dimensions of 3, 6, and x. If a right circular cylinder has a radius of x, a height of 12, and has twice the volume of the rectangular solid, what is the value of x? G G G
3 3 6

G 6 G 32

QUANTITATIVE 13. Is a > b? (1) a2 b = 0 (2) a + b = 6 14. In 2001, there were t tornadoes in the United States, of which some, but not all, occurred in Missouri. If m tornadoes occurred in Missouri in 2001, which of the following represents the ratio of the number of tornadoes that occurred in Missouri in 2001 to the number of tornadoes that occurred elsewhere in the United States in 2001? G G G G G
t m m t m tm t tm 1m t

18. A rectangular box is 6 2 inches high, 62 inches wide, and 5 inches deep. What is the greatest possible straight-line distance, in inches, between any two points on the box? G 10 G 12 G 13 G 6 2+5 G 122 +5
3 of a 19. If a potato peeler peels 4 potatoes in 4 second, how many potatoes does it peel in 5 minutes?

G G

320 900

G 1,200 G 1,600 G 2,000 20. For all numbers x and y, the operation x*y is x+5 . If 3*z = 6, then z = defined by y1 G G
7 3 9 2

15. If wxyz 0, and w + x + y = z, which of the following must equal 1? I. II. III.
zwx y zxy w xzy w

G 3 G 6 G 8 21. There are ten city papers in City X, and Pete decides to buy two of them. How many combinations of distinct papers could he select? G G G G 4 20 45 90

G I only G I and II only G I and III only G II and III only G I, II, and III 16. If xy 0, is xy = 70? (1) x > y (2) x = y 17. Is p = q? (1) p + q = 2 (2) pq > 0
2 2

G 100 22. Placervilles soccer team won one third of its first 18 games and one half of the rest of its games. What was the total number of games played? (1) The soccer team won a total of 9 games. (2) The soccer team lost at least games.
5 8

of its total

GMAT PRACTICE TEST 23. If x is a multiple of 8 and x > 37, which of the following could be the value of 3x? G 10 G 12 G 14 G 15 G 16 24. If Scott, Vinnie, and Matt have a total of $27, how much money does Matt have? (1) Matt has twice as much money as Vinnie and one third as much as Scott. (2) Matts total dollar amount exceeds Vinnies total dollar amount by one-sixth of Scotts dollar amount. 27. It takes a train c hours to travel 18 miles. How many miles will the train travel in t hours if the train travels at the same average speed? G G G G G
c 18t 18 ct t 18c 18t c 18c t

28. Is the positive integer x evenly divisible by at least two integers, each of which is greater than 1? (1) x is even. (2) 40 < x < 50 29. Starting from point S on a flat field, a tractor travels 4 yards due north, then 5 yards due west, and then 8 yards due north, arriving at point T. How far apart, in yards, are points S and T ?

G 17 G 16 G 15 G 13 G 12 30. What is the value of 2a2 + 4a if (x a)(x 7) = x2 4x 21 for all x, and a is a constant? G G 6 8

25. In the figure above, what is the value of a? (1) c + d = 146 (2) 2b + c + d = 214 26. At Theater A, the cost of an ice cream and a soda is $3.35, the cost of an ice cream and a box of mints is $4.75, and the cost of a soda and a box of mints is $3.00. What is the cost of an ice cream? G $1.50 G $1.80 G $2.25 G $2.55 G $2.75

G 12 G 16 G 30 31. Vijay made a telephone call. If Vijays total cost for the call was $15.15, for how many minutes was he charged? (1) The telephone charges were $0.75 in total for the first two minutes and $0.45 for each additional minute or fraction of a minute. (2) If the charge for the first two minutes had been $1.70, Vijays total cost would have been $16.10.

QUANTITATIVE 32. Which of the following is equal to G G G

1 42 1 14 3 14 a b 1 b? if 14a = 3

36. What is the largest possible value of z if 4x + (z 27)2 = 36 and 7 x 8? G 72 G 63 G 54 G 36 G 35 37. Is klm > 0? (1) k is positive. (2) l is negative.

G 14 G 42 33. What number is 200% greater than 300% of 2? G 10 G 12 G 14 G 16 G 18

II

III

IV

34. Point (x, y) lies in the rectangular coordinate system above. Is xy positive? (1) x y > 0 (2) Point (x, y) lies in Quadrant II. 35. If (34)(56)(73) = (35n)(x), where x and n are both positive integers, how many different possible values of n are there? G 1 G 2 G 3 G 4 G 6

SECTION 2

Verbal

VERBAL

SECTION 2
Time 75 minutes 41 Questions

Directions for Section Two: This section consists of Sentence Correction questions, Critical Reasoning questions, and Reading Comprehension questions. Sentence Correction questions consist of sentences that are either partly or entirely underlined. Below each sentence are five versions of the underlined portion of the sentence. The first of these, choice (A), duplicates the original version. The four other versions revise the underlined portion of the sentence. Read the sentence and the four revisions carefully, and select the best version. If the original version seems better than the revised versions, select the first choice, (A). If not, choose one of the revised versions. Choose answers according to the norms of standard written English for grammar, word choice, and sentence construction. Your selected answer should express the intended meaning of the original sentence as clearly and precisely as possible, while avoiding ambiguity, awkwardness, or unnecessarily wordy constructions. Critical Reasoning questions consist of a set of statements, followed by a question. Analyze the statements, then select the answer choice that is the most appropriate response to the question. No specialized knowledge of any particular field is required for answering these questions. Reading Comprehension questions refer to a specified passage. Your choice is to be based on what is stated or implied in the passage, and not on your own knowledge. You may refer to the passage while answering the questions.

1. When the value of the stock market is in a period of general decline, people eat more of their meals at home. However, when the value of the stock market is going up, people spend more money eating at restaurants. Clearly the fear of an economic recession decreases peoples willingness to spend money eating at restaurants. The argument above assumes which of the following? G An economic recession is a slowdown of the economy while an economic depression is a more severe collapse of the economy. G Peoples perception of the likelihood of economic recession is dependent on the performance of the stock market. G Restaurants offer more specials when the market does well. G Restaurants raise their prices when they fear an economic recession is imminent. G Eating well-prepared meals is comforting to most people during times of economic hardship.

2. Dominating both houses of Congress throughout the 1970s and 1980s was the Democratic party. G Dominating both houses of Congress throughout the 1970s and 1980s was G Dominating both houses of Congress throughout the 1970s and 1980s were G Both houses of Congress were throughout the 1970s and 1980s dominating G Both houses of Congress throughout the 1970s and 1980s dominated G Dominating both houses of Congress throughout was the 1970s and 1980s

13

GMAT PRACTICE TEST

3. Rising academic and professional standards are not the primary cause of todays higher admission standards at many graduate schools. Due to limited human and physical resources, the schools can only admit a fixed number of students each year. The increase in admission standards, which has resulted in lower acceptance rates, is primarily a result of the recent economic recession. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument above? G Many prospective students have been deterred from applying to graduate school because of decreasing acceptance rates. G Many professionals have lobbied for higher academic standards at graduate schools. G Many professionals with graduate degrees would not have been admitted to graduate programs had they faced current admission requirements. G Many first year graduate students cite layoffs and downsizing as the primary reason that they decided to return to school. G There are twice as many universities offering graduate programs today as twenty years ago. 4. The increase of availability and use of digital scanners and electronic mail has made paper documents in many offices obsolete. G increase of availability and G increases of availability and G increase in availability and G increases in availability and G increases of availability and the increases of

5. It has been known for years that people with high blood pressure should avoid foods high in salt, since a high salt intake can worsen high blood pressure. However, it is often erroneously assumed that those not suffering from high blood pressure would not benefit from restricting their salt intake when in fact most people would benefit greatly. Which one of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? G Many people who eat a lot of salt do have high blood pressure. G Salt doesnt always contribute to high blood pressure. G A salty diet is even more likely to lead to high blood pressure when combined with smoking. G Even people who do not eat salty foods sometimes develop high blood pressure. G Salt has other harmful effects in addition to contributing to high blood pressure. 6. Abraham Lincoln is regarded to be one of the greatest presidents in American history. G to be G to be as G as being G in order to be G as

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VERBAL Questions 7 through 9 are based on the following passage: Since 1789, the President has had the authority to veto legislation passed by Congress; this is a powerful tool. The threat of a veto can help bring about compromise in the content of a (5) bill long before it reaches the President. The return veto is a qualified negative veto that the Congress can override with a two-thirds vote. The pocket veto is a veto that becomes effective when the President simply does not sign a bill (10) while Congress is in session. Once Congress has adjourned, it is unable to override the veto. Opponents of the pocket veto allege that it grants the President too much power. They describe it as an absolute veto, a prerogative of the English (15) kings that the Framers vehemently despised. The presidential dominance arguments misrepresent the pocket veto. Unlike the royal prerogative, the pocket veto is exercised by a democratically elected leader pursuant to a defined constitutional procedure. (20) clearly Congress may arrange presentation of a bill to thwart the Presidents opportunity to use the pocket veto. Moreover, a true absolute veto forecloses fur ther action on a proposal; (25) Congress, however, may overcome a pocket veto by reintroducing and passing the rejected bill. The pocket vetos flaw, if any, is that it permits the President to block legislation when Congress would have almost certainly overridden (30) a return veto. Specifically, the pocket veto grants the President a special political tool against popular will. Herein lies the fundamental disagreement over the pocket veto. Opponents press for the President to defer to the seemingly (35) inevitable congressional victory. The President, in contrast, stands behind the historical use of the pocket veto to delay legislation he thinks unwise. Not every bill pocket vetoed would have been subjected to a return veto. And not every (40) return veto of a bill that was overwhelmingly popular in Congress would have been overridden. But in those cases in which the President would use the return veto, and Congress would vote to override that return, the pocket veto acts to stop or (45) delay popular legislation. If legislative supremacy is the most important value to protect, then the pocket veto is wrong. But, more realistically, if circumspection and deliberation are the more valued aspects of the lawmaking process, even (50) the most blatantly political use of the pocket veto passes muster. Historical practice favors the Presidents employing this tool to act as an interloper, as it were, in the legislative process. 7. As used in the passage, the word interloper in the last sentence most nearly means: G one who unjustly assumes power through the use of force G one who acts as a liaison between different parties G one who intervenes in a situation or process G one who thinks carefully before acting G one who makes executive decisions 8. Which of the following best describes the structure of this passage? G Presentation of an historical authority; discussion of how this authority is used today; recommendation for continued use of this authority. G Examination of royal authority; presentation of democratic use of a similar authority; conclusion that this authority has no place within a democratic government. G Description of a power exercised by the President; discussion of pros and cons of this power; recommendation that this power should be maintained. G Explanation of an executive power; analysis of arguments against use of this power; conclusion in favor of this power. G Survey of attitudes towards Presidential power; historical use of this power; agreement with the attitude of the majority 9. The authors conclusion that those who oppose use of the pocket veto misrepresent its power depends on which of the following assumptions? G A democratically elected leader who is bound by constitutional checks cannot accumulate too much legislative power. G In a democracy, the legislative and executive branches are balanced by the authority of the judicial branch. G Royal prerogatives no longer exist in modern governments. G The pocket veto limits the Presidents power to counteract a congressional motion. G The pocket veto prevents congressional victory over the popular will.

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GMAT PRACTICE TEST 10. The new dietary supplement about to be released into the market will greatly help those trying to lose weight. During a medical study, 65% of those who took the supplement on a daily basis lost an average of 10 pounds over the course of a month. Which of the statements below would most weaken the authors argument? G All the members of the study were determined by medical professionals to be significantly overweight. G 35% of the people in the study gained 23 pounds each over the course of a month. G As soon as the members of the study stopped taking the supplement, any weight they had lost returned. G The 65% who lost weight also engaged in a new daily exercise routine over the same time period. G All dietary supplements must obtain federal approval before release into the market. 11. To ensure that all its managers develop the skills required for effective leadership, the Brandex corporation instituted a mandatory management training program. All new managers were required to attend one of the four annual training programs, in which participants met once per week for eight weeks to discuss management theory and to simulate real-life scenarios. Written evaluations were distributed at the last session of each program. The evaluations collected at the end of the training program did not reveal any complaints about the program, so it is clear that the management training program was successful. The reasoning in this argument is flawed because the argument G fails to describe the curriculum of the training program G assumes what it seeks to prove G fails to establish a proper connection between the lack of complaints in the evaluations and the goals of the program G uses the term effective in two different senses G overlooks the possibility that there are alternative methods of developing leadership skills 12. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, the garden at Giverny became the focal point of Claude Monets artistic endeavors, one of the French Impressionists. G Claude Monets artistic endeavors, one of the French Impressionists G Claude Monets, one of the French Impressionists, artistic endeavors G the artistic endeavors of Claude Monet, one of the French Impressionists G the artistic endeavors of Claude Monets, one of the French Impressionists G one of the French Impressionists, Claude Monets artistic endeavors

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VERBAL 13. Countries whose economies depend on exporting their raw agricultural produce are often at a distinct disadvantage. Since the produce is unprocessed, there is no effective difference between the wheat, for example, grown in one country and the wheat grown in another. This results in fierce competition among countries to sell their undifferentiated commodities. Which of the following can be properly inferred from the passage? G Countries that primarily export specialty items that are produced nowhere else have an advantage over countries that primarily export undifferentiated commodities. G It is in all countries interest to forego exporting agricultural produce. G As industrialized countries grow less reliant on agricultural imports, some countries will export more of their produce to these less industrialized countries. G Agricultural countries have no real need for advanced technology, as they can acquire industrial products through trade with more advanced countries. G Economically powerful countries refuse to allow other nations to process, and thus increase the value of, their exports. 14. After many years of feeling separated by a great divide, the doctor now finds himself besides the lawyer, working with one another against HMOs and big tobacco. G besides the lawyer, working with one another G besides the lawyer, working with each other G beside the lawyer, working with each other G beside the lawyer, working with him G beside the lawyer, working with one another 15. Count Laszlo Almasy, a Hungarian aristocrat, spied for the Germans during World War II and apparently for the Soviet Union then. G spied for the Germans during World War II and apparently for the Soviet Union then G spied for Germany during World War II and then apparently for the Soviet Union G was a spy for the Germans during World War II and apparently for the Soviet Union then G spied during World War II for the Germans and apparently for the Soviet Union then G during World War II was a spy for Germany and then apparently for the Soviet Union 16. Ice floats on water, making it an exception to the general rule of a substance being denser in its solid state than in its liquid state. G of a substance being denser in its solid state than in its liquid state G of how a substance is denser in its solid state than in its liquid state G that a substance is denser when its state is solid than when liquid G that a substance is denser in its solid state than in its liquid state G that a substance is denser when solid than when its state is liquid

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GMAT PRACTICE TEST Questions 17 through 21 are based on the following passage: The Internet and the World Wide Web have changed the way business is done throughout the world. Firms can advertise goods and services online, reaching billions of people. E-commerce (5) technology allows credit card purchases online, so businesses can conduct transactions over the Internet. The ability to carry on e-mail and instantmessaging conversations with potential clients opens up opportunities to communicate with (10) people who otherwise might not be reached. However, as with any technological advancement, there are problems that must be addressed before businesses can take full advantage of the opportunities.
(15)

18. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT G the Internet and World Wide Web hold great potential for businesses G consumers can presently use technology to order products through online channels G there are many different options for advertising online G there is a completely secure way to conduct credit card transactions online G people across the world can be reached by to online advertising 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would endorse which of the following as a helpful solution for online advertisers? G Find sites that target a desired audience G Create a homepage and assume people will find it G Offer credit card purchase opportunities without employing any security measures G Send e-mail to the creators of every Internet site the advertiser visits G Skip advertising online and maintain current advertising methods 20. The primary purpose of this passage is to G dismiss the theory that the Internet and World Wide Web will continue to be used by businesses G debunk the myth that most businesses can benefit from the Internet G criticize online business practices G describe what effects online advertising has on businesses G present both the potential benefits and current pitfalls of online business practices

One problem is that most business people dont know how to effectively advertise online. Because there are so many different sites on which to advertise, and because there are so many methods of online advertising, businesses (20) can waste their advertising budgets on sites that arent visited by the people most likely to purchase their products. Another problem is security. Because purchasers must send credit card information over the Internet, there is a (25) danger of hackers intercepting that information and using it fraudulently. None of the methods of securing information sent over the Internet has proven completely safe. Until these problems are addressed, the commercial potential of the (30) Internet and the World Wide Web will not be fully realized.

17. The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements? G The Internet will never be accepted by technophobes. G Residential Internet service providers will struggle once the Internet and World Wide Web are more commonly used for business purposes. G Hackers are more honest than the average business owner. G Computer data lines are not necessarily secure. G The Internet is not user-friendly.

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VERBAL 21. According to the passage, which of the following is a way that businesses can benefit from being online? G Businesses are guaranteed to have more exposure than their competitors. G A single online advertisement can be viewed by people all over the world, not just within a limited broadcast area. G Because there are no controls on the Internet, people will be wary of purchasing from online merchants for fear of fraud. G The average website is seen by over 2,000 people per day. G A higher proportion of online sales than offline sales is made using credit cards. 22. Contemporary jazz is obviously an inadequate imitation of classic jazz. Most of todays jazz musicians are formally trained in music theory and practice, often in a university setting. This is not as it should be; jazz music should be based on the tragic life experiences of the musician. The argument above depends upon which of the following assumptions? G Universities are not capable of instructing musicians in jazz theory. G If a musician cannot play his or her instruments competently, then he or she is not genuine. G Classic jazz musicians were more talented and industrious than their contemporary counterparts. G Formally trained musicians have not been subjected to tragic life experiences. G All musicians trained in universities merely imitate their predecessors styles. 23. In Country X in 1996, 84% of political donations from businesses came from those with annual sales of over $100 million. In that same year, 24 companies in the software industry, all of which had shown increases in the valuation of their stock of over 40% in the preceding year, accounted for 19% of business political donations. If the above statements are true, which of the following must also be true? G Computer companies made more political donations than did pharmaceutical companies. G At least one of the businesses with annual sales of over $100 million showed an increase in the value of its stock in 1995. G Most software companies had sales of less than $100 million in 1995. G Individual contributions accounted for 16% of all political campaign contributions G The stock of most businesses with annual sales over $100 million did not increase by over 40% in 1996. 24. In addition to credit and income requirements, many landlords also require that, before or at the time of signing a residential lease, each prospective renter pay not only the first month and last months rent and a security deposit that is usually equal to one months rent. G pay not only the first month and last months rent and G pays not only the first month and last months rent and G pays not only the first month and last months rent, but also G will pay not only the first and last months rent, but also G pay not only the first and last months rent, but also

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GMAT PRACTICE TEST 25. Hiring recently graduated job candidates as product consultants is economically advantageous. That is the claim of many business analysts who argue that these candidates are often most aware of recent advances in product technology, and also can be hired for less money than more experienced candidates. The claim of the business analysts as it is presented above would be most strengthened if which of the following were true? G In recent years, there have been more job openings for product consultants than qualified candidates to fill the positions. G Those businesses with the highest percentage of recent graduates as product consultants have had lower per capita salaries and more innovative uses of new technology. G Undergraduate programs in fields relevant to product consulting have reported a general decline in enrollment in recent years. G Job candidates with more experience in the field of product consulting often have a better understanding of providing effective products within realistic budgetary constraints. G Due to new, inexpensive Internet-based product survey technologies, companies are relying less on dedicated product consultants to identify strengths and weaknesses of consumer products. 26. In order to paint a rough surface evenly and effectively, it is necessary to sand it and apply primer before applying the paint. G it and apply primer before applying the paint G it and prime it and paint it G it, then prime it, then paint it G the surface and apply primer before you apply paint to the surface G the surface, apply primer to the surface and then paint it 27. The group, which was made up of local officials, students, and a number of members of the media, were exhilarated by the return of the native son having recently risen to the ranks of celebrity. G were exhilarated by the return of the native son having recently risen G were exhilarated by returning the native son who recently has rose G were exhilarated by the return of the native son who had recently risen G was exhilarated by the return of the native son who had recently risen G was exhilarated by returning the native son recently risen 28. Tamara: My previous employer, WXY Corporation, owes me my final paycheck, and I have been having trouble collecting it. Tomorrow, I am going to WXY s payroll office with an attorney, and I am not coming home without my final paycheck. So, if I am not home tomorrow night, you will know that I havent collected my final paycheck. Which of the following best describes the flaw in Tamaras reasoning? G It erroneously presumes that WXY can afford to pay Tamaras final paycheck. G It mistakenly assumes that the presence of an attorney will guarantee the collection of the final paycheck. G It unfairly attacks the character of the employees in WXY s payroll office rather than the policies they execute. G It mistakes something that could be true for something that must be true. G It equivocates with respect to the term collect.

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VERBAL Questions 29 through 33 are based on the following passage: Flexible personal body armor made from interlocking iron or steel rings was known as far back as the ancient Roman era. Used primarily as protection for elite, heavy cavalry troops, various (5) forms of so-called chain mail armoreither as a complete garment or combined with other forms of protectionwere relatively rare and expensive at that time, and less practical than the Roman infantrymans lorica segmentata. The latter was (10) the iron cuirass made from segmented steel plates hung on a leather harness, favored by the infantry of the Roman legions. For centuries after the fall of Imperial Rome, the craft of fashioning mail armor fell into disuse; then it re-emerged in (15) the medieval period with such vigor that, by the fourteenth century, entire armies could feasibly be outfitted with practical and effective linked metal armor suits. The type of armor historians sometimes
(20) call chain mailbut which was called by its

29. According to the passage, all of the following were steps in the process of creating a medieval-era mail harness EXCEPT G flattening and drilling holes in the ends of each link G varying the pattern of interlocking links to form contours G cutting the individual links from a coil of wire G suspending the completed mail suit from a leather harness G riveting the cut ends of the metal links shut 30. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about ancient Roman armor? G The lorica segmentata fell into disuse and then had a resurgence in the medieval period. G Ancient Roman linked-mail armor was less effective than the armor made in the fourteenth century. G The improved stabbing and piercing weapons used by Romes military opponents made flexible mail armor impractical for Roman troops. G Armor made from segmented steel plates was unsuitable for wear by cavalry troops. G The lorica segmentata was a more pragmatic form of protection for infantry than flexible mail armor. 31. Which of the following most closely resembles the physical dynamic by which flexible linked metal armor provides protection? G A construction workers hard hat provides a sloping, rigid barrier that causes falling objects to glance away. G A tanks reactive armor is sandwiched with explosive materials that blast outward when the surface is penetrated. G A material woven of ballistic nylon, when struck by a projectile, transfers force out across its surface instead of allowing the force to pass through. G A cyclists helmet absorbs force by strategically crushing and breaking apart on impact. G A ships compartmented hull provides barriers that successively contain and disperse the force crashing through a bulkhead.

contemporaries merely mailhad many advantages for the individual fighting man in the age of steel weapons. It combined the flexibility and suppleness of cloth with the impact(25) absorbing mass and cut resistance of rigid metal plates. Edged weapons, no matter how sharp, are incapable of slashing or sawing through a wellfashioned mail suit. Moreover, when struck with a blunt object, the links transfer the force through (30) the mass of the garment, absorbing a significant quantity of impact and lessening the degree of its transfer to soft tissues underneath. The process of manufacturing a mail shirt was enormously labor-intensive in pre-industrial times. Each of the thousands of individual links that made up a full suit or harness had to be individually cut from a coil of hand-drawn wire, the ends of the link flattened and drilled with tiny holes, and then the link looped into the garment and riveted closed. By varying the pattern of interlocking links, the master mailer was able to enlarge or shrink the metal garment to knit sleeves, mittens, hoods and other complex forms. Eventually the ascendancy of improved stabbing and piercing weapons accelerated the obsolescence of linked mail armor, and the need for greater protection spurred the development of armors revolving around cleverly articulated rigid steel plates instead. Today only a few examples of medieval-era linked metal armor suits remain.

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

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GMAT PRACTICE TEST 32. Which of the following statements is best supported by the passage? G Military technologies in the era of steel hand weapons succeeded primarily because of the existence of an adequate network of skilled craftsmen to support them. G Flexible metal link armor represented a practical solution to a technological need in a particular historical era. G The availability of practical mail armor was limited mainly to the fourteenth century. G Linked metal armor was of such limited usefulness that it quickly became obsolete as soon as the superior technology of articulated metal plates became widespread. G The unique characteristics of flexible linked metal armor make it a useful solution to technological applications today. 33. The organization of the second paragraph is best described by which of the following statements? G An argument is delineated, and then contrasted with a counterargument. G An assertion is presented, followed by supporting elaboration and explanation. G A historical situation is elaborated in reference to the events that preceded it. G A specific example is extended to explain general conclusions drawn from it. G A group of dissimilar occurrences is expounded and the distinctions between them are explained. 34. An archaeological dig sponsored by five universities unearthed five stone tablets incised with an undeciphered ancient script. The universities agreed that each would take one tablet to decipher. Because of the prestige involved for the university that cracks the script, critics of current academic practices fear that the universities will jealously guard their scholars work until decipherment is complete, and this prevention of scholars building on each others work will result in the script never being deciphered. Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken most seriously the critics argument? G Without healthy competition, the intellectual life of the university stagnates and research loses forward momentum. G The decipherment of other ancient scripts has generally been the work of a single person working alone. G Universities will give substantial funding to projects they consider prestigious. G A university atmosphere generally provides an open forum for the exchange of ideas, which enhances the growth of intellectual projects. G When deciphering a code, the military always works in secrecy to prevent any leaks to the enemy that will warn them to change their code. 35. About 7,500 years ago, a torrent of water poured through the Bosporus into the Black Sea, raising the water level 500 feet within a year. G a torrent of water poured through the Bosporus into the Black Sea, raising the water level G a torrent of water poured through the Bosporus into the Black Sea, which raised the water level G a torrent of water poured into the Black Sea through the Bosporus, which raised the water level G the Black Sea had a torrent of water poured into it through the Bosporus, raising the water level G the Black Sea had the water level raised by a torrent of water pouring into it through the Bosporus

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VERBAL 36. Curious George was a simian and was a hero of many childrens books and was created by H. A. and Margret Rey. G George was a simian and was a hero of many childrens books and was G George was simian, a hero of many childrens books, and G George was a simian and he was a hero of many childrens books and he was G George, the simian hero of many childrens books, was G George was a simian and a hero of many childrens books and 37. A greater number of cars are sold in Town P than in Town Q. Therefore, the citizens of Town P spend more time driving their cars, per capita, than do the citizens of Town Q. Each of the following, if true, weakens the conclusion above EXCEPT: G Town P has a larger population than Town Q. G Most citizens of Town Q work in Town P and buy their cars there. G Many residents of Town P purchase second cars that they use only rarely. G Most drivers from Town P tend to drive only during the day, and only within the city limits of Town P. G The average price of cars sold in Town P is lower than the average price of cars sold in Town Q. 38. Current political strategists often looked to the past campaigns of their counterparts in other parties for inspiration. G looked to the past campaigns of their counterparts G looked to past counterparts campaigns G look to the past campaigns of their counterparts G are looking to counterparts past campaigns G look to their counterparts campaigns of the past 39. Interstate highways are the main travel routes for many commercial and private travelers. These highways include many signs that must be repaired by dedicated repair crews. Without this maintenance, the highway signs would soon become dangerous and eventually become unusable. Therefore, the government must continue to employ these dedicated repair crews. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above? G These sign-repair crews are more expensive than the repair crews that maintain the roads. G The sign-repair crews occasionally block traffic during the course of their work. G Due to developments in technology, new signs can now be made and installed for less than the cost of repairing the old signs. G When maintenance by these repair crews is performed regularly, signs last much longer. G When highway signs deteriorate, the accident rate increases. 40. Unlike the realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures of earlier centuries, many modern artists attempt to convey messages through abstract images. G Unlike the realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures of earlier centuries G Unlike the artists whom created realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures of earlier centuries G Unlike the artists of earlier centuries, who created realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures G Different from the realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures of earlier centuries G Different from the artists who created realistic oil paintings and marble sculptures of earlier centuries

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GMAT PRACTICE TEST 41. Although large sedans make up only 17 percent of the cars on the road, they are the impacted cars in 25 percent of all rear-end collisions. On the other hand, sports cars, which represent 12 percent of cars on the road, are the impacted cars in only 6 percent of rear-end collisions. Which of the following, if true, best explains the data described above? G The large size of sedans makes their braking distance longer than average, increasing the chances that they will be unable to stop in time to avoid hitting an obstacle. G Many drivers of large sedans drive more slowly than average drivers, increasing the probability that other drivers will follow too closely. G Sports cars tend to have powerful brakes for their size, making their braking distance much shorter than that of most cars that follow them. G The number of large sedans on the road has been steadily increasing in recent years. G Large sedans are often driven by older drivers with slower reflexes.

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