CHAPTER 3 STUDY MATERIAL

Part 2: Body Systems Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided. ______ 1. The skin is known collectively as the: A. integumentary system. B. inanition system. C. indagation system. D. inductotherm system. ______ 2. The outermost layer of skin is the: A. epidermis. B. dermis. C. subcutaneous tissue. D. sebum. ______ 3. The glands within the dermis that secrete a lubricant are called the: A. lymph glands. B. subcutaneous glands. C. sebaceous glands. D. soporiferous glands. ______ 4. The cell from which the various types of blood cells can form is called a(n): A. erythropoietin. B. pluripotent stem cell. C. multipotent stem cell. D. unipotent progenitor. ______ 5. A formed element of blood is: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. white blood cells. D. both B and C ______ 6. Plasma is made up of 90-92 percent: A. proteins. B. carbohydrates. C. water. D. gases. ______ 7. Each complete hemoglobin molecule can carry: A. one platelet. B. one red blood cell. C. four oxygen molecules. D. two white blood cells. ______ 8. The effectiveness of oxygen transport depends on: A. red blood cell mass. B. pH. C. exercise. D. all of the above.

______ 9. The packed cell volume of red blood cells per unit of blood is known as: A. hematocrit. B. hemolysis. C. sequestration. D. erythropoiesis. ______ 10. Providing protection from foreign invasion is the job of the: A. leukocytes. B. erythrocytes. C. platelets. D. red blood cells. ______ 11. The highly specialized member of the granulocytic series that can inactivate the chemical mediators of acute allergic reactions is the: A. neutrophil. B. monophil. C. basophil. D. eosinophil. ______ 12. The "garbage collectors" of the immune system are the: A. macrophages. B. lymphocytes. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. ______ 13. The two basic subpopulations of lymphocytes are T cells and B cells. Which of the following is TRUE regarding T cells? A. T cells engulf foreign invaders and dead neutrophils. B. T cells produce antibodies to combat infections. C. T cells migrate to peripheral lymphatic tissues from the bone marrow. D. T cells are responsible for developing cell-mediated immunity. ______ 14. After a local tissue injury occurs, the damaged tissues release chemical messengers that: A. decrease capillary permeability. B. attract white blood cells. C. cause vasoconstriction. D. reduce swelling. ______ 15. The combined three mechanisms that work to prevent or control blood loss include all of the following EXCEPT: A. vascular spasms. B. inflammation. C. platelet plugs. D. stable fibrin blood clots. ______ 16. The term for the process of three mechanisms that work to control blood loss is: A. homeostasis. B. sequestration. C. erythropoiesis. D. hemostasis.

______ 17. One element of the coagulation cascade is the common pathway during which: A. tissue damage causes platelet aggregation and the formation of prothrombin activator. B. the prothrombin activator, in the presence of calcium, converts prothrombin to thrombin. C. platelets release substances that lead to the formation of prothrombin activator. D. thrombin, in the presence of calcium, converts fibrinogen to stable fibrin, which then traps blood cells and more platelets to form a clot. ______ 18. Which of the following enhances blood clotting? A. vitamin D B. aspirin C. smoking D. low red blood cell count ______ 19. Functions of the skeleton include: A. temperature regulation. B. storage of salts and other materials for metabolism. C. production of white blood cells. D. protection from pathogens and debris. ______ 20. Small perforations of the long bones through which the blood vessels and nerves travel into the bone itself are called: A. perforating canals. B. diaphysis. C. haversian canals. D. osteoclasts. ______ 21. The end of a long bone, including the growth plate and supporting structures underlying the joint, is called the: A. cancellous. B. epiphyseal. C. metaphysis. D. epiphysis. ______ 22. The cavity within a bone that contains the marrow is called the: A. periosteum. B. haversian canal. C. epiphyseal. D. medullary canal. ______ 23. Cartilage is the tissue that: A. provides the articular surfaces of the skeletal system. B. is responsible for the production of erythrocytes. C. stores fat in semi-liquid form within the internal cavities of a bone. D. forms in a tendon. ______ 24. Joints that do not permit movement are called: A. synovials. B. amphiarthroses. C. synarthroses. D. diarthroses.

______

25. Examples of a triaxial joint include: A. the hip and shoulder. B. the bases of the thumbs. C. the carpal bones of the wrist. D. the knees and elbows. ______ 26. The joint that allows articulation between the atlas and the axis of the spine is called a(n): A. pivot joint. B. hinge joint. C. condyloid joint. D. ellipsoidal joint. ______ 27. The hip and shoulder are examples of: A. pivot joints. B. hinge joints. C. ball-and-socket joints. D. saddle joints. ______ 28. Connective tissue that connects bone to bone and holds joints together is called a: A. tendon. B. ligament. C. joint. D. bursa. ______ 29. Bones of the head, thorax, and spine are known as the: A. appendicular skeleton. B. peripheral skeleton. C. axial skeleton. D. central skeleton. ______ 30. The single bone of the proximal upper extremity is the: A. femur. B. humerus. C. ulna. D. radius. ______ 31. The phalanges are found in the: A. foot. B. hand. C. skull. D. both A and B ______ 32. The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is called the: A. humerus. B. ulna. C. radius. D. olecranon. ______ 33. You would find the innominates and the ischial tuberosities in the: A. foot. B. hand. C. pelvis. D. skull.

______ 34. The attachment of a muscle to a bone that moves when the muscle contracts is called the: A. opposition. B. insertion. C. origin. D. fasciculus. ______ 35. Three membranes that protect the central nervous system are the dura mater, pia mater, and: A. cerebrospinal fluid. B. arachnoid. C. odontoid. D. medulla. ______ 36. The meninges and cerebrospinal fluid protect the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. pons. D. all of the above ______ 37. An expanding lesion within the cranium results in: A. a decrease in ICP. B. increased cerebral perfusion. C. damage to delicate brain tissue. D. all of the above ______ 38. The portion of the brain that is the largest element of the nervous system and occupies most of the cranial cavity is the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. pons. D. brainstem. ______ 39. The portion of the brain that controls much of endocrine function, the vomiting reflex, body temperature, and emotions is the: A. thalamus. B. pons. C. hypothalamus. D. medulla oblongata. ______ 40. Cerebral perfusion is exceptionally critical and depends on many factors. Which of the following is TRUE regarding cerebral perfusion? A. The pressure within the cranium resists blood flow and good perfusion to the central nervous system tissue. B. Mean arterial blood pressure must be at least 50 mmHg to perfuse the brain efficiently. C. Any edema or expanding mass within the cranium will displace CSF or blood. D. all of the above ______ 41. Vitreous humor is a clear watery fluid found in the: A. inner ear. B. posterior chamber of the eye. C. nose and mouth. D. outer layer of the meninges.

______ 42. The short column of bone that forms the weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is called the: A. spinal canal. B. pedicles. C. laminae. D. vertebral body. ______ 43. The posterior portions of the vertebra that help make up the foramen, or opening, of the spinal canal are the: A. pedicles. B. laminae. C. transverse processes. D. spinous processes. ______ 44. Two vertebrae that differ from most vertebrae in not having discernable vertebral bodies are: A. C1 and C2. B. C1 and T1. C. T1 and T2. D. L1 and L2. ______ 45. The divisions of the vertebral column include all of the following EXCEPT: A. cervical. B. transverse. C. lumbar. D. sacral. ______ 46. The covering that protects the entire spinal cord and peripheral nerve roots is called the: A. spinous process. B. intervertebral disk. C. spinal meninges. D. white matter. ______ 47. The thoracic skeleton consists of: A. 12 pairs of C-shaped ribs. B. the sternum. C. the clavicles. D. all of the above ______ 48. The 11th and 12th ribs are often termed "floating ribs" because they: A. have no posterior attachment. B. have no anterior attachment. C. have neither anterior nor posterior attachment and are attached only to other ribs. D. form the xiphoid process and are attached only to the sternum. ______ 49. The union between the xiphoid process and the body of the sternum is called the: A. pulmonary hilum. B. carina. C. xiphisternal joint. D. sternal fusion.

______ 50. The central medial region of the lung where the bronchi and pulmonary vasculature enter the lung is called the: A. carina. B. pulmonary hilum. C. alveolar junction. D. tracheobronchial branch. ______ 51. The fibrous sac that surrounds the heart is called the: A. myocardium. B. epicardium. C. pericardium. D. pleuracardium. ______ 52. The part of the nervous system that extends throughout the body is called the ______ nervous system. A. peripheral B. ventral C. somatic D. afferent ______ 53. The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the ______ division. A. feed or breed B. fight or flight C. slow or go D. stand or draw ______ 54. The division of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for controlling vegetative functions is the ______ nervous system. A. somatic B. afferent C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic ______ 55. The fundamental unit of the nervous system is the: A. axion. B. soma. C. synaptic terminals. D. nerve cell, or neuron. ______ 56. The axon is the portion of a nerve cell that: A. comes in physical contact with another nerve cell. B. is stimulated by environmental changes. C. conducts nerve impulses away from the soma. D. contains most of the metabolic machinery. ______ 57. The membranes covering the brain and spinal cord are collectively called the: A. dura mater. B. meninges. C. pia mater. D. arachnoid membranes.

______ 58. The portion of the brain that is the seat of consciousness and the center of higher mental functions is the: A. cerebellum. B. medulla oblongata. C. cerebrum. D. pons. ______ 59. You will find the thalamus, the hypothalamus, and the limbic system inside the: A. cerebellum. B. midbrain. C. corpus callosum. D. diencephalon. ______ 60. Involuntary actions such as temperature regulation, sleep, water balance, stress response, and emotions are the responsibility of the: A. cerebellum. B. midbrain. C. corpus callosum. D. diencephalon. ______ 61. A portion of the brain that is NOT considered part of the brainstem is the: A. mesencephalon. B. pons. C. medulla oblongata. D. cerebellum. ______ 62. The reticular activating system is responsible for: A. consciousness and the ability to respond to stimuli. B. posture, equilibrium, and muscle tone. C. respiratory, cardiac, and vasomotor activity. D. motor coordination and eye movement. ______ 63. One of the two systems that join at the Circle of Willis is the ______ system. A. venous sinuses B. internal jugular C. vertebrobasilar D. reticular activating ______ 64. The ______ fibers transmit impulses to the central nervous system from the body. A. afferent B. efferent C. dermerent D. reflexerent ______ 65. The 12 pairs of ______ nerves originate in the brain and supply nervous control to the head, neck, and certain thoracic and abdominal organs. A. cranial B. arachnoid C. anterolateral D. hexaxial

______

66. When stimulated, the sympathetic nervous system: A. causes a rise in blood sugar. B. causes an increase in digestive activity. C. is mediated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. D. is responsible for controlling vegetative functions. ______ 67. The topographical region of the body surface innervated by one nerve root is called a(n): A. myotome. B. dermatome. C. extensor. D. flexor. ______ 68. There are eight major glands in the endocrine system. These include the: A. pseudothyroid. B. pancreas. C. pons. D. parietal. ______ 69. The junction between the central nervous system and the endocrine system is the: A. hypothalamus. B. pituitary. C. thyroid. D. thymus. ______ 70. The pancreas secretes two major hormones, including: A. prolactin. B. calcitonin. C. aldosterone. D. glucagon. ______ 71. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are hormones released by the: A. gonads. B. thymus. C. pituitary. D. adrenal medulla. ______ 72. The microscopic clusters of endocrine tissue found within the pancreas are known as: A. thymosins. B. circle of Willis. C. islets of Langerhans. D. Cushing's triad. ______ 73. The pineal gland, located in the roof of the thalamus in the brain, releases the hormone: A. melatonin. B. cortisol. C. parathyroid hormone. D. human chorionic gonadotropin.

______ and: A. B. C. D.

74.

The cardiovascular system's two major components are the heart

veins. central blood vessels. peripheral blood vessels. arteries. ______ 75. The heart consists of three tissue layers, including the: A. epithelium. B. endocardium. C. subcardium. D. parathelium. ______ 76. The ______ consists of the visceral and parietal layers. A. epicardium B. endocardium C. pericardium D. intracardium ______ 77. Which one of the following statements about the four chambers of the heart is correct? A. Atria are the inferior chambers of the heart. B. Ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. C. Atria are the two largest chambers of the heart. D. Ventricles receive incoming blood from the body. ______ 78. The heart contains the ______ valves. A. atrioventricular and semilunar B. epicardial and pericardial C. chordae and papillary D. arterial and ventricular ______ 79. After blood circulates through the lungs and becomes oxygenated, it returns to the heart by way of the: A. pulmonary arteries. B. myocardial arteries. C. pulmonary veins. D. superior and inferior vena cava. ______ 80. Which one of the following statements about the circulation of blood is TRUE? A. Intracardiac pressures are higher on the left side of the heart. B. The left atrium sends oxygenated blood into the left ventricle. C. Pulmonary arteries are the only arteries that carry oxygenated blood. D. The right myocardium is thicker than the left myocardium. ______ 81. The heart receives its nutrients from the: A. anterior great cardiac vein. B. blood within its chambers. C. coronary arteries. D. aorta.

______ A. B. C. D.

______ is called: A. anastomosis. B. circumflexion. C. symbiosis. D. ostiosis. ______ 84. The connection points between the arterial and venous systems are called: A. lumens. B. capillaries. C. venules. D. tunica. ______ 85. Which one of the following statements about arteries is TRUE? A. They carry oxygenated blood. B. They carry blood away from the heart. C. They carry blood under low pressure. D. They cannot change the size of their lumen. ______ 86. The period of time from the end of one cardiac contraction to the end of the next is called the cardiac: A. fraction. B. diastole. C. systole. D. cycle. ______ 87. Pressure in the filled ventricle at the end of diastole is called: A. afterload. B. preload. C. cardiac output. D. stroke volume. ______ 88. The equation used to determine cardiac output is: A. stroke volume x heart rate. B. systolic pressure x heart rate. C. preload x stroke volume. D. preload x afterload. ______ 89. Which one of the following statements about the nervous system's control of the heart is TRUE? A. In the heart's normal state, the sympathetic system is dominant. B. During sleep, the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems balance. C. In stressful situations, the sympathetic system becomes dominant. D. In the heart's normal state, the parasympathetic system is dominant.

82. The term "collateral circulation" refers to: both sides of the heart receiving blood at the same time. blood being sent from the atria into the ventricles. an alternate path for blood flow in case of blockage. blood flow to the lungs and heart at the same time. 83. Two or more blood vessels "communicating" to ensure circulation

______ A. B. C. D. ______ A. B. C. D.

______ is called: A. resting potential. B. depolarization. C. action potential. D. repolarization. ______ 93. The term "automaticity" refers to a cell's capability of: A. responding to electrical stimuli. B. propagating an electrical impulse from one cell to another. C. self-depolarizing. D. contracting or shortening. ______ 94. The supplying of oxygen and nutrients to the body tissues is called: A. circulation. B. hydration. C. perfusion. D. output. ______ 95. Cardiac output is the: A. amount of blood pumped by the heart with each contraction of the ventricles. B. force of the blood pumped by the heart with each contraction of the ventricles. C. resistance a contraction of the heart must overcome in order to eject blood. D. amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. ______ 96. The resistance of the vessels to the flow of blood is called: A. afterload. B. preload. C. peripheral vascular resistance. D. cardiac contractile force. ______ 97. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of the circulatory system? A. siphon B. fluid C. container D. pump

90. A positive chronotropic agent will: increase heart rate. increase respiratory rate. strengthen cardiac contraction. speed impulse conduction. 91. Cardiac depolarization may be defined as: a negative charge on the outside of a cell. similar to the resting potential of cardiac cells. the opposite of the cell's resting state. the release of sodium and calcium from a cell. 92. The return of a cardiac muscle cell to its pre-excitation resting state

______ 98. The dependence on a set of conditions for oxygen movement and utilization is known as: A. the Fick principle. B. Cushing's triad. C. the Frank-Starling principle. D. the principle of Willis. ______ 99. Which of the following represents the correct order of the airway structures from the mouth to the lungs? A. trachea, bronchi, larynx, pharynx B. pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi C. bronchi, trachea, pharynx, larynx D. larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi ______ 100. The narrowest part of the airway in children is the ______ cartilage. A. thyroid B. cricoid C. hyoid D. erthymoid ______ 101. Stimulation of laryngeal mucous membrane can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. C. cough. B. hypotension. D. increased respiratory rate. ______ 102. The trachea is maintained in an open position by: A. the Adam's apple. B. the carina. C. surfactant. D. cartilaginous C-rings. ______ 103. The lungs are covered by the: A. visceral pleura. B. parenchyma. C. parietal pleura. D. none of the above. ______ 104. The lung tissue receives most of its blood supply from: A. bronchial arteries. B. pulmonary arteries. C. bronchial veins. D. pulmonary veins. ______ 105. In normal respiration, the size of the thoracic cavity can be increased by contracting the diaphragm and the: A. strap muscles. B. abdominal muscles. C. deltoid muscles. D. intercostal muscles.

______ A. B. C. D. ______ A. B. C. D.

______ breathe is: A. increased pH. B. increased carbon dioxide. C. decreased oxygen. D. none of the above. ______ 109. The average volume of gas inhaled in one respiratory cycle is called the: A. tidal volume. B. alveolar volume. C. minute volume. D. functional reserve capacity. ______ 110. The abdominal cavity is bound superiorly by the: A. ribs. B. pelvis. C. diaphragm. D. back muscles. ______ 111. The division of the abdominal cavity containing organs or portions of organs covered by the peritoneum is called the: A. peritoneal space. B. retroperitoneal space. C. pelvic space. D. abdoperitoneal space. ______ 112. Chyme is: A. fluid released by the liver and gallbladder that increases blood glucose. B. a mixture of ingested food and digestive secretions. C. a digestive enzyme produced in the pancreas. D. waste products of digestion eliminated through the anus. ______ 113. The wavelike muscular motion of the esophagus and bowel that moves food through the digestive system is called: A. peristalsis. B. peritonalsis. C. colycystalsis. D. duodenalsis.

106. Increases in carbon dioxide production can be caused by: fever. muscle exertion/shivering. metabolic processes (diabetic ketoacidosis). all of the above. 107. During inspiration, the lungs become distended, activating the: stretch receptors. chemoreceptors. beta receptors. alpha receptors. 108. In patients with chronic lung disease, the primary stimulus to

______

114. Accessory organs in the digestive system include the: A. stomach. B. pancreas. C. small bowel. D. rectum. ______ 115. The organ responsible for detoxifying the blood, removing damaged erythrocytes, and storing glycogen is the: A. liver. B. gallbladder. C. pancreas. D. spleen. ______ 116. An abdominal organ that is not an accessory organ of digestion but is part of the immune system is the: A. gallbladder. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. spleen. ______ 117. The microscopic structure in the kidney that produces urine is called a: A. Bowman's capsule. B. distal tubule. C. glomerulus. D. nephron. ______ 118. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the kidneys? A. Each kidney contains about 1 million nephrons. B. The left kidney lies behind the liver, and the right kidney lies behind the spleen. C. The kidneys are located in the left and right areas of the small of the back, or flanks. D. A healthy kidney in a young adult is about the size of a fist. ______ 119. Which of the following is one of the three general processes involved in formation of urine? A. glomerular osmosis B. secretion C. diffusion D. refiltration ______ 120. The formation and passage of a dilute urine, which decreases blood volume, is called: A. hypo-osmolarity. B. active transport. C. facilitated diffusion. D. diuresis.

______ kidneys? A. B. C. D. ______ A. B. C. D.

121.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding glucose and the

______ release of: A. renin. B. creatinine. C. urea. D. erythropoietin. ______ 124. The female external genitalia are known collectively as the: A. vagina. B. vulva. C. perineum. D. labia. ______ 125. The ______ drains the urinary bladder. A. vagina B. mons pubis C. prepuce D. urethra ______ 126. The part of the female internal genitalia that provides an outlet for menstrual blood and tissue leaving the body is called the: A. vagina. B. uterus. C. fallopian tube. D. urethra. ______ 127. The normal site for fetal development is the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. urethra. D. fallopian tubes. ______ 128. The fundus is the: A. uppermost portion of the uterus, above where the fallopian tubes connect. B. lower portion of the uterus, also called the cervix. C. upper two-thirds of the uterus, composed of smooth muscle. D. body, or corpus of the uterus.

Glucose is prevented from entering Bowman's capsule and is not filtered. Glucose begins to be lost in urine when the blood glucose level exceeds about 180 mg/dL. Normally, glucose is not completely reabsorbed by the time filtrate leaves the proximal tubule. In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I, the body retains glucose and large amounts of water in the osmotic diuresis process. 122. A direct indicator of GFR is: blood urea nitrogen concentration. blood concentration of renin. blood concentration of creatinine. erythropoietin. 123. The kidneys regulate systemic arterial blood pressure by the

______ A. B. C. D. ______ A. B. C. D.

129. The sloughing of the uterine lining is referred to as: endometriosis. pelvic inflammatory disease. the menstrual cycle. menopause. 130. Fertilization of the egg takes place during the: proliferative phase. secretory phase. ischemic phase. menstrual phase.