OLIVAREZ COLLEGE COLLEGE OF NURSING Long Quiz SET B Maternal Nursing Section C Tuesday 8:00am 12:00pm

1. Damage to this ligament will result in uterine prolapsed a. Round b. Uterosacral c. Cardinal d. Broad

2. Which part of the fallopian tube is the site of sterilization? a. Infundibulum b. Ampulla c. Interstitial segment d. Isthmus

3. The male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis, is synthesized and released by: a. Seminiferous tubules b. Seminal vesicle c. Sertoli cells d. Leydig cell

4. Which term refers to the externally visible structure of the female reproductive system extending from the symphysis pubis to the perineum? a. Mons pubis b. Vestibule c. Vulva d. Labia majora

5. In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occur? a. Ampulla b. Interstitial segment c. Infundibulum d. Isthmus

6. Which of the following statements below is correct about the vulva? a. Major organ for reproduction b. Organ of urination c. The main function is for copulation d. Forms parts of the birth canal

7. The thickest part of the uterus because it contains the most muscle fibers located between the insertion point of the fallopian tubes is the? a. Cervix b. Fundus 8. Upper triangular portion of the uterus: a. Cervix b. Cornua c. Fundus d. Corpus c. Corpus d. Cornua

9. Which statement about the structure of the cervix is incorrect? a. The presence of increased muscle fibers in the cervix prevents premature dilation during pregnancy. b. The cervix is composed of very few smooth muscle cells.

c. Occlusion of the ducts of cervical glands gives rise to Nabothian cysts. d. The cervix has glands the secrete an alkaline fluid. 10. Which is not found in the vestibule? a. Labia majora b. Prepuce c. Urinary meatus d. Clitoris

11. The lower uterine segment is formed from: a. Cervix b. The isthmus c. Both isthmus and cervix d. body of the uterus

12. Which of the following description is not true of the clitoris? a. The significance of clitoris in obstetrics is its usefulness in guiding cathetherization. b. The clitoris is the most erectile part of the female external genitalia. c. It is said to be the seat of womans sexual arousal and orgasm. d. Its equivalent in the male reproductive organs is the testes. 13. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent? a. Multiparous women b. After menopause c. Before menopause d. Nulliparous woman

14. In a woman who has given birth several times already, you expect which of the following organs to be more prominent: a. Hymen b. Labia minora c. Fossa navicularis d. Fourchette

15. Which of the following statements about the vagina is not true? a. Vaginal secretions primarily originate from the cervical glands b. The vaginal is highly sensitive due to specialized nerves located in it. c. Vaginal length varies among woman d. The vagina is a highly stretchable organ 16. Which of the following is not a function of the vagina? a. Excretory duct of the bladder copulation b. Birth canal c. Female organ of d. Passageway of menses

17. Perineal muscle tone is important to prevent extensive lacerations during childbirth. Performing kegels exercise benefits most of which muscle of the perineum? a. Bulbocarvenous muscle b. Coccygeous and constrictor of the urethra c. Deep transever and constrictor of the urethra

d. Levator ani 18. Which of the following is not an internal organ of reproduction? a. Uterus b. Clitoris c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

19. The cardinal ligaments is also known as the: a. Broad ligaments b. Transverse cervical ligaments c. Round ligaments d. Posterior ligament

20. Urinary tract infection is more common in females than in males because of the: a. Poor feminine hygiene urethra b. General absence of clean water 21. Which is not part of nonpregnant uterus? a. Peritoneum b. Myometrium c. Deciduas d. Endometrium c. Shortness of the female d. Both a and b

22. The remnants of the hymen after perperium is converted to: a. Carunculae hymenales b. Urethral carunculaes c. Bartholins duct d. Mytiform cycts

23. Fingerlike projections are found in what portion of the fallopian tube: a. Ampulla b. Isthmus 24. Which is a function of the vas deferens? a. Site of spermatogenesis b. Passageway for semen c. Initial conduit of spermatozoa d. Storage for spermatozoa c. Infundibulum d. Intramural

25. Which part of the testes is responsible for sperm production? a. Sertoli cells b. Leydig cells c. Seminiferous tubules d. Tunica albuginea

26. A male gland located behind the bladder that is the source of about 60% of seminal fluid? a. Cowpers gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Prostate gland d. Testes

27. The normal volume and sperm content of seminal fluid per ejaculation to be considered fertile is: a. 1ml/100 million sperm cells b. 3ml/30 million sperm cells c. 3ml/300 million sperm cells d. 1ml/20 million sperm cells

28. The initiation of puberty in both male and female is under the control of: a. Anterior pituitary gland c. Hypothalamus

b. Ovaries and testes 29. The first sign of puberty in males is: a. Thelarche b. Growth of pubic and axillary hair 30. The site of tubal ligation: a. Vas deferens b. Infundibulum

d. Endocrine system

c. Testicular enlargement d. Deepening of voice

c. Isthmus d. Ampulla

31. The onset of the menstruation a. Thelarche b. Menarche c. Andronarche d. menstrual cycle

32. The hormones responsible for muscular development, physical growth, and an increase in sebaceous gland secretions that causes typical acne in both sexes. a. Androgenic hormones b. Estrogen c. progesterone d. estriol

33. The hormones that stimulates the production of testosterone is the: a. FSH b. LH c. GnRH d. androgen

34. The initiation of puberty in both male and female is under the control of: a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Ovaries and testes 35. The first sign of puberty in males is: a. Thelarche b. Growth of pubic hair and axillary hair c. Testicular enlargement d. Deepening of voice c. Hypothalamus d. Endocrine system

36. Internal genitalia in both male and female embryo forms at around: a. 6 to 10 weeks b. 13 weeks c. 8 to 10 weeks d. 12-14 weeks

37. Which of the following organs is not involved in hormones secretions? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Hypothalamus d. Pituitary

38. What nervous system controls the penile erection? a. Autonomic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system 39. Also known as vulvovaginal glands? a. Bartholins gland b. Urethra c. Skenes gland d. Vaginal introitus c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Neurocirculatory system

40. Hair growth is stimulated by what hormone? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. Androgenic hormone 41.During pregnancy a polypeptide that stimulates the melanocyte hormone is responsible for: a. Urinary frequency b. Softening of the cervix c.Symptoms of morning sickness d.Linea nigra and melasma (chloasma) 42.During pregnancy, the uterine musculature hypertrophies and is greatly stretched as the fetus grows. This stretching: a.By itself inhibits uterine contraction until oxytocin stimulates the birth process b.Is prevented from stimulating uterine contraction by high levels of estrogen during late pregnancy a. Inhibits uterine contraction along with the combined inhibitory effects of estrogen and progesterone b. Would ordinarily stimulate uterine contraction but is prevented by high levels of progesterone during pregnancy 43.When assessing a pregnant clients physical condition, the nurse is aware that a normal adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic region that results in purplish discoloration of the vaginal muscosa and is known as: a.Ladins sign c. Goodells sign b.Hegars sign d. Chadwicks sign 44.Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of: a.Decreased dietary intake of iron b.Increased blood volume of the mother c.Decreased erythropoiesis after the first trimester d.Increased detoxification demands on the mothers liver 45. A client asks the nurse why menstruation ceases once pregnancy occurs. The nurses best response would be that this occurs because of the: a. Reduction in the secretion of hormones by the ovaries. b. Production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. c. Secretion of luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary. d. Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary. 46. A normal cardiopulmonary symptom experienced by most pregnant women is: a.Tachycardia b.Dyspnea at rest c.Progressive dependent edema d.Shortness of breath on exertion 47.A primigravida in her tenth week of gestation is concerned because she has read that nutrition during pregnancy is important for proper growth and development of the baby. She wants to know something about the foods she should eat. The nurse should: a.Instruct her to continue eating a normal diet b.Assess what she eats by taking a diet history c.Give her a list of foods so she can better plan her meals d.Emphasize the importance of limiting salt and highly seasoned food 48.A client who has missed one menstrual period thinks she is pregnant. The nurse suggests a pregnancy test. This is possible because in early pregnancy the urine contains: a.Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone b.Estrogen d. Chorionic gonadotropin

49. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit related to ovulation and fertility management due to misinformation. Which of the following statements related to ovulation should be included in the clients teaching plan? a. Ovulation only occurs during the menstrual period, so precautions need not be taken only during this period b. Women who practice natural methods of family planning usually do not know when they have ovulated c. Most women can tell they have ovulated by the severe pain that accompanies ovulation d. Most women ovulate about 2 weeks before the beginning of the next menstrual period 50. Following a discussion about conception and fertilization, the client asks the nurse, How long does it take for sperm to reach an ovum? What is the nurses best response? a. Under ideal conditions, sperm can reach the ovum in 1 to 5 minutes. b. Millions of sperm reach the ovum within an hour. c. Thousands of sperm enter the fallopian tube within 30 minutes. d. Only one sperm will actually fertilize the ovum, and this usually takes 48 hours.

OLIVAREZ COLLEGE COLLEGE OF NURSING Long Quiz SET B Maternal Nursing Section C Tuesday 8:00am 12:00pm

1. Damage to this ligament will result in uterine prolapsed a. Round b. Uterosacral c. Cardinal d. Broad

2. Which part of the fallopian tube is the site of sterilization? a. Infundibulum b. Ampulla c. Interstitial segment d. Isthmus

3. The male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis, is synthesized and released by: a. Seminiferous tubules b. Seminal vesicle c. Sertoli cells d. Leydig cell

4. Which term refers to the externally visible structure of the female reproductive system extending from the symphysis pubis to the perineum? a. Mons pubis b. Vestibule c. Vulva d. Labia majora

5. In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occur? a. Ampulla b. Interstitial segment c. Infundibulum d. Isthmus

6. Which of the following statements below is correct about the vulva? a. Major organ for reproduction b. Organ of urination c. The main function is for copulation d. Forms parts of the birth canal

7. The thickest part of the uterus because it contains the most muscle fibers located between the insertion point of the fallopian tubes is the? a. Cervix b. Fundus c. Corpus d. Cornua

8. Upper triangular portion of the uterus: a. Cervix b. Cornua c. Fundus d. Corpus

9. Which statement about the structure of the cervix is incorrect? a. The presence of increased muscle fibers in the cervix prevents premature dilation during pregnancy. b. The cervix is composed of very few smooth muscle cells.

c. Occlusion of the ducts of cervical glands gives rise to Nabothian cysts. d. The cervix has glands the secrete an alkaline fluid. 10. Which is not found in the vestibule? a. Labia majora b. Prepuce c. Urinary meatus d. Clitoris

11. The lower uterine segment is formed from: a. Cervix b. The isthmus c. Both isthmus and cervix d. body of the uterus

12. Which of the following description is not true of the clitoris? a. The significance of clitoris in obstetrics is its usefulness in guiding cathetherization. b. The clitoris is the most erectile part of the female external genitalia. c. It is said to be the seat of womans sexual arousal and orgasm. d. Its equivalent in the male reproductive organs is the testes. 13. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent? a. Multiparous women b. After menopause c. Before menopause d. Nulliparous woman

14. In a woman who has given birth several times already, you expect which of the following organs to be more prominent: a. Hymen b. Labia minora c. Fossa navicularis d. Fourchette

15. Which of the following statements about the vagina is not true? a. Vaginal secretions primarily originate from the cervical glands b. The vaginal is highly sensitive due to specialized nerves located in it. c. Vaginal length varies among woman d. The vagina is a highly stretchable organ 16. Which of the following is not a function of the vagina? a. Excretory duct of the bladder copulation b. Birth canal c. Female organ of d. Passageway of menses

17. Perineal muscle tone is important to prevent extensive lacerations during childbirth. Performing kegels exercise benefits most of which muscle of the perineum? a. Bulbocarvenous muscle b. Coccygeous and constrictor of the urethra c. Deep transever and constrictor of the urethra

d. Levator ani 18. Which of the following is not an internal organ of reproduction? a. Uterus b. Clitoris c. Fallopian tube d. Vagina

19. The cardinal ligaments is also known as the: a. Broad ligaments b. Transverse cervical ligaments c. Round ligaments d. Posterior ligament

20. Urinary tract infection is more common in females than in males because of the: a. Poor feminine hygiene urethra b. General absence of clean water 21. Which is not part of nonpregnant uterus? a. Peritoneum b. Myometrium c. Deciduas d. Endometrium c. Shortness of the female d. Both a and b

22. The remnants of the hymen after perperium is converted to: a. Carunculae hymenales b. Urethral carunculaes c. Bartholins duct d. Mytiform cycts

23. Fingerlike projections are found in what portion of the fallopian tube: a. Ampulla b. Isthmus 24. Which is a function of the vas deferens? a. Site of spermatogenesis b. Passageway for semen c. Initial conduit of spermatozoa d. Storage for spermatozoa c. Infundibulum d. Intramural

25. Which part of the testes is responsible for sperm production? a. Sertoli cells b. Leydig cells c. Seminiferous tubules d. Tunica albuginea

26. A male gland located behind the bladder that is the source of about 60% of seminal fluid? a. Cowpers gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Prostate gland d. Testes

27. The normal volume and sperm content of seminal fluid per ejaculation to be considered fertile is: a. 1ml/100 million sperm cells b. 3ml/30 million sperm cells c. 3ml/300 million sperm cells d. 1ml/20 million sperm cells

28. The initiation of puberty in both male and female is under the control of: a. Anterior pituitary gland c. Hypothalamus

b. Ovaries and testes 29. The first sign of puberty in males is: a. Thelarche b. Growth of pubic and axillary hair 30. The site of tubal ligation: a. Vas deferens b. Infundibulum

d. Endocrine system

c. Testicular enlargement d. Deepening of voice

c. Isthmus d. Ampulla

31. The onset of the menstruation a. Thelarche b. Menarche c. Andronarche d. menstrual cycle

32. The hormones responsible for muscular development, physical growth, and an increase in sebaceous gland secretions that causes typical acne in both sexes. a. Androgenic hormones b. Estrogen c. progesterone d. estriol

33. The hormones that stimulates the production of testosterone is the: a. FSH b. LH c. GnRH d. androgen

34. The initiation of puberty in both male and female is under the control of: a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Ovaries and testes 35. The first sign of puberty in males is: a. Thelarche b. Growth of pubic hair and axillary hair c. Testicular enlargement d. Deepening of voice c. Hypothalamus d. Endocrine system

36. Internal genitalia in both male and female embryo forms at around: a. 6 to 10 weeks b. 13 weeks c. 8 to 10 weeks d. 12-14 weeks

37. Which of the following organs is not involved in hormones secretions? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Hypothalamus d. Pituitary

38. What nervous system controls the penile erection? a. Autonomic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system 39. Also known as vulvovaginal glands? a. Bartholins gland b. Urethra c. Skenes gland d. Vaginal introitus c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Neurocirculatory system

40. Hair growth is stimulated by what hormone? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. Androgenic hormone 41.A client relates that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 22. the estimated date of birth would be: a. May 5 c. April 15 b. May 14 d. April 29 42.During pregnancy a polypeptide that stimulates the melanocycle hormone is responsible for: a. Urinary frequency b. Softening of the cervix c.Symptoms of morning sickness d.Linea nigra and melasma (chloasma) 43.During pregnancy, the uterine musculature hypertrophies and is greatly stretched as the fetus grows. This stretching: a.By itself inhibits uterine contraction until oxytocin stimulates the birth process b.Is prevented from stimulating uterine contraction by high levels of estrogen during late pregnancy c. Inhibits uterine contraction along with the combined inhibitory effects of estrogen and progesterone d. Would ordinarily stimulate uterine contraction but is prevented by high levels of progesterone during pregnancy 44.When assessing a pregnant clients physical condition, the nurse is aware that a normal adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic region that results in purplish discoloration of the vaginal muscosa and is known as: a.Ladins sign c. Goodells sign b.Hegars sign d. Chadwicks sign

45.Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of: a.Decreased dietary intake of iron b.Increased blood volume of the mother c.Decreased erythropoiesis after the first trimester d.Increased detoxification demands on the mothers liver 46.When assessing a client, the nurse should be aware that the characteristics of the normal female pelvis include: a. Flat sacrum, coccyx movable, spines prominent, pubic arch wide b. Flat sacrum, coccyx movable, spines prominent, pubic arch narrow c. Well-hollowed sacrum, coccyx movable, spines not prominent, pubic arch wide d. Deeply hollowed sacrum, coccyx immovable, spines not prominent, pubic arch narrow 47.The anterior/posterior diameter of the birth canal is one of the important measurements of the pelvis and is known as the: a.Conjugate vera c. Transverse diameter b.Diagonal conjugate d. Transverse conjugate 48.A common method of locating the precise position of a fetus and placenta prior to an amniocentesis is: a.Fetoscopy c. Sonography b.Fluoroscopy d. X-ray examination 49.On thr first prenatal visit, a client asks the nurse, Is it true the doctor will do an internal examination today? The nurse should respond: a.Yes, an internal is done on all mothers on the first visit. b.Are you fearful of having an internal examination done?

c.Yes. Have you ever had an internal examination done before? d.Yes, an internal is done on all mothers, but it is only slightly uncomfortable. 50. A normal cardiopulmonary symptom experienced by most pregnant women is: a.Tachycardia b.Dyspnea at rest c.Progressive dependent edema d.Shortness of breath on exertion 51.A primigravida in her tenth week of gestation is concerned because she has read that nutrition during pregnancy is important for proper growth and development of the baby. She wants to know something about the foods she should eat. The nurse should: a.Instruct her to continue eating a normal diet b.Assess what she eats by taking a diet history c.Give her a list of foods so she can better plan her meals d.Emphasize the importance of limiting salt and highly seasoned food 51. A client who has missed one menstrual period thinks she is pregnant. The nurse suggests a pregnancy test. This is possible because in early pregnancy the urine contains: a.Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone b.Estrogen d. Chorionic gonadotropin 52. A client visits her gynecologist to continue a suspected pregnancy. During the nursing history a client states that her last menstrual period began on April 11. The client states that some spotting occurred on May 8. The nurse calculates that the clients due date is: a. January 10 c. February 12 b. January 18 d. February 15 53. A client asks the nurse why menstruation ceases once pregnancy occurs. The nurses best response would be that this occurs because of the: a. Reduction in the secretion of hormones by the ovaries. b. Production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. c. Secretion of luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary. d. Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary. 54. The nurse is aware that the nausea and vomiting commonly experienced by many women during the first trimester of pregnancy is an adaptation to the increased level of: a. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone b. Progesterone d. Chorionic gonadotropin 55. A pregnant client works as a keypunch operator. This would necessarily have implications for her plan of care during pregnancy. The nurse should recommend that the client: a. Try to walk about every few hours during the workday b. Ask for time in the morning and afternoon to elevate her legs c. Tell her employer she cannot work beyond the second trimester d. Ask for time in the morning and afternoon to obtain nourishment 56. The nurse in the prenatal clinic should provide nutritional counseling to all newly pregnant women because: a. Most weight gain during pregnancy is fluid retention b. Dietary allowances should not increase during pregnancy c. Pregnant women must adhere to a specific pregnancy diet d. Different sources of essential nutrients are favored by different cultural groups 57. A client in her eighth week of pregnancy complains of having to go to the bathroom often to urinate. The nurse explains to the client that urinary frequency often occurs because the capacity of the bladder during pregnancy is diminished by: a. Atony of the detrusor muscle b. Compression by the ascending uterus c. Compromise of the autonomic reflexes d. Constriction of the ureteral entrance at the trigone

58. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant calls the clinic and complains of the morning sickness. To promote relief, the nurse should suggest: a. Eating dry crackers before arising b. Increasing her fat intake before bedtime c. Having two small meals daily and a snack at noon d. Drinking more high-carbohydrate fluids with her meals 59. A client, 7 weeks pregnant, confides to the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she is very sick every morning with nausea and vomiting and is sure that is being punished for having initially thought of aborting the pregnancy. The nurse assures her that this is not punishment but a common occurrence in early pregnancy and will probably disappear by the end of the: a. 5th month c. 3rd month th b. 4 month d. 2nd month 60. A nurse tells a pregnant woman not to wear tight clothing around her abdomen because of possible damage to the fetus. The principle responsible for the potential damage is: a. Pascals c. Einsteins b. Newtons d. Archimedes 61. A client who is pregnant is being prepared for a pelvic examination. The client complains of feeling very tired and sick to her stomach, especially in the morning. The best response for the nurse to make is: a. Perhaps you might ask the doctor about it. b. This is common. There is no need to worry. c. Can you tell me how you feel in the morning? d. Lets discuss some ways to deal with these common problems. 62. During a prenatal examination the nurse draws blood from a young client and explain that the determination of Rh is routinely performed on expectant mothers to predict whether the fetus is at risk for developing: a. Acute hemolytic anemia b. Protein metabolism deficiency c. Physiologic hyperbilirubinemia d. Respiratory distress syndrome 63. The best advice the nurse can give to a pregnant woman in her first trimester is to: a. Cut down on drugs, alcohol and cigarettes b. Avoid all drugs and refrain from smoking and ingesting alcohol c. Avoid smoking, limit alcohol consumption and do not take any aspirin d. Take only prescription drugs, especially in the second and third trimester 64. When attending the prenatal clinic, a newly pregnant client, having her first child, expresses concern about her dark nipples and a dark line from her navel to the pubis. The nurse explains that this adaptation are due to the hyperactivity of the: a. Ovaries c. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland d. Pituitary gland 65. The nurse can try to help a pregnant client overcome first-trimester morning sickness by suggesting that the client: a. Eat protein before sleep b. Take an antacid before bedtime c. Eat nothing until the nausea subsides d. Request her physician to prescribe an antiemetic 66. A client is concerned about gaining weight during pregnancy. The nurse explains that the largest part of weight gain during pregnancy is due to: a. The fetus b. Fluid retention c. Metabolic retention d. Increased blood volume 67. The client who is pregnant for the first time attends the prenatal clinic. She tells the nurse, Im worried about gaining too much weight because I have heard that it is bad for me. The nurses best response would be:

a. Yes, weight gain causes complication during pregnancy. b. If you gain over 15 pounds, you have to follow a low-calorie diet. c. Dont worry about gaining weight. We are more concern if you dont gain enough weight to ensure proper growth of your baby. d. A 25-pound weight gain is recommended; however, the pattern of your weight gain will be of more importance than the total amount. 68. A petite client, pregnant for the first time, is concerned about regaining her figure after delivery and wishes to diet during pregnancy. The nurse should advise her that: a. Dieting is recommended to lessen the incidence of stillbirth b. Dieting is recommended to make delivery easier since she is so small c. Inadequate food intake during pregnancy can cause low-birth-weight infants d. Inadequate food intake during pregnancy can cause pregnancy-induced hypertension 69. A client in her fourth month of pregnancy. When she comes for her monthly examination, the nurse asks if she would like to listen to the babys heartbeat. The woman, commenting on how rapid it is, appears frightened and asks if this is normal. The nurse should respond: a. The babys heart rate is usually twice the mothers pulse rate. b. The babys heart rate is normally very rapid, so you neednt worry. c. The babys heart rate is rapid to accommodate the nutritional needs. d. It is far better that the heart rate is rapid; when it is low, there is no need to worry. 70. A newly pregnant client plans to continue working as a secretary in a large office during her pregnancy. When setting up a care plan for this client, the nurse should advise her to: a. Try to walk about every few hours of her workday b. Ask for a break in the morning and afternoon for added nourishment c. Inform her employer that she cannot work beyond the second trimester d. Ask for a break in the morning and afternoon so she can elevate her legs 71. A client who is pregnant asks the nurse if she can continue to have sexual relations. The nurses response is based on the knowledge that coitus during pregnancy would be contraindicated only in the presence of: a. Leukorrhea b. Increased FHR c. Gestation of 30 weeks or more d. Premature rupture of membranes 72. When involved in prenatal teaching, the nurse should inform clients that an increase in vaginal secretions during pregnancy is leucorrhea and is caused by increased: a. Metabolic rates b. Production of estrogen c. Functioning of the Bartholin glands d. Supply of sodium chloride to the cells of the vagina 73. A 21-year old client who is 6 months into her second pregnancy is experiencing increasing edema in the lower extremities. Besides advising rest with the legs elevated, the nurse discusses and gives instructions concerning the diet. In this instance: a. The nutritionist should be brought in to plan a diet b. The foods selected should have a normal salt content c. Dietary preferences must influence the food that is eaten d. The client should be advised to see the physician in the prenatal clinic 74. The nurse explains the treatment for fluid retention during pregnancy, which is: a. Adequate fluid and low-salt diet b. A low-salt diet and elevation of the lower extremities c. Adequate fluid and elevation of the lower extremities d. Judicious use of diuretics and elevation of the lower extremities 75. When teaching a prenatal class about infant feeding, the nurse is asked a question about the relationship between the size of breasts and breastfeeding. The nurses best response would be:

a. b. c. d.

Everybody can be successful at breastfeeding. You seem to have some concern about breastfeeding. The size of the breasts has nothing to do with the production of milk. The amount of fat and glandular tissue in the breasts determines the amount of milk produced.

76. A woman in a class on infant feedings asks how anyone who is breastfeeding gets anything done with a baby on demand feedings. The nurses best response would be: a. Most mothers find that feeding the baby whenever the baby cries works out fine. b. Perhaps a schedule might be better because the baby is already accustomed to the hospital routine. c. Most babies find babies on breast do better on demand feeding because the amount of milk ingested varies at each feeding. d. Although the baby is on demand feedings, the baby will eventually set a schedule, so there will be time for your household chores. 77. The nurse should teach the client that breastfeeding is always contraindicated with: a. Mastitis c. Inverted nipples b. Pregnancy d. Herpes genitalis A 20-year-old nulligravida visits a family planning clinic. She states that she and her boyfriend are planning their wedding and want to plan the spacing of their children. 78. Before beginning to counsel the client about sexuality, the nurse should first: a. Obtain a sexual history from the client in a private setting b. Have the client undergo a complete physical examination c. Suggest that the clients sexual partner attend the counseling sessions d. Discuss reproductive system anatomy and physiology with the client

79. In a lecture on sexual functioning, the nurse plans to include the fact that ovulation occurs when the: a. Oxytocin level is high b. Blood level of LH is high c. Progesterone level is high d. Endometrial wall is sloughed off 80. After ovulation has occurred the ovum is believed to remain viable for: a. 1 to 6 hours b. 12 to 18 hours c. 24 to 36 hours d. 48 to 72 hours 81. The time of ovulation can be determined by taking the basal temperature. During ovulation, the basal temperature: a. Drops markedly b. Drops slightly and then rises c. Rises suddenly and then falls d. Rises markedly and remains high 82. The nurse explains that the efficiency of rhythm is dependent on the basal body temperature. A factor that will alter its effectiveness is: a. Presence of stress b. Length of abstinence c. Age of those involved d. Frequency of intercourse 83. A couple are desirous of using the rhythm method of contraception but do not understand how it works. The nurses explanation to this couple when to refrain from intercourse will be based on the fact that ovulation occurs: a. Fourteen days prior to the onset of menstruation b. Seven days before the menstrual cycle c. Seven days after the completion of menstrual period d. Fourteen days after the completion of the menstrual period

84. A biphasic antiovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female client. The nurse, instructing the client about the medication, should include the need to: a. Report any vaginal bleeding b. Have bimonthly Pap smears c. Increase the intake of calcium d. Temporarily restrict sexual activity 85. Following delivery a cardiac client with type II diabetes asks the nurse, Which contraceptives will I be able to use to prevent pregnancy in the near future? The nurses best response would be: a. You may use oral contraceptives. They are almost 100% effective in preventing a pregnancy. b. You may want to use a foam and a condom to prevent pregnancy until you consult your doctor at your postpartum visit. c. The intrauterine device is best for you because it does not allow the fertilized ovum to become implanted into the uterine lining. d. You do not need to worry about becoming pregnant in the near future. Clients with cardiac conditions usually become infertile. 86. The nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use of IUDs is: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Expulsion of the IUD c. Rupture of the uterus d. Excessive menstrual flow 87. The nurse should explain that a very common problem that has been associated with IUDs when they are used is: a. Perforation of the uterus b. Discomfort associated with coitus c. Development of vaginal infections d. Spontaneous expulsion of the device 88. A client seeking advice about contraception asks the nurse about an IUD. The nurse explains that the IUD provides contraception by: a. Blocking the cervical os b. Increasing the mobility of the uterus c. Preventing the sperm from reaching the fallopian tube d. Setting up a nonspecific inflammatory cell reaction in the endometrium 89. During the salinization method of elective abortion, the nurse should be alert for side effects such as: a. Edema c. Headache b. Oliguria d. Bradycardia 90. Following a salinization procedure for an elective abortion of a 20-week pregnancy, the client is told that labor will probably begin within: a. Two hours after the procedure b. Eight hours following the procedure c. Several minutes following the procedure d. Twenty-four to 72 hours after the procedure 91. In the dilation and suction evacuation method of elective abortion, Laminarias are used in the dilation stage of the procedure because: a. Dilation occurs within 2 hours b. They are hygroscopic and expand c. They are stronger in action than instruments d. Less anesthesia is necessary with this method 92. Most authorities recommend that the nurse can best prepare to counsel clients concerning sexuality when the nurse first has: a. Personal experience in a sexual relationship b. Reviewed the extensive literature on human sexuality c. Developed an awareness of his or her own feelings, values, and attitudes related to sexuality d. Completed a formal educational program for preparation as a clinical specialist in sexual counseling

93. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit related to ovulation and fertility management due to misinformation. Which of the following statements related to ovulation should be included in the clients teaching plan? a. Ovulation only occurs during the menstrual period, so precautions need not be taken only during this period b. Women who practice natural methods of family planning usually do not know when they have ovulated c. Most women can tell they have ovulated by the severe pain that accompanies ovulation d. Most women ovulate about 2 weeks before the beginning of the next menstrual period 94. Following a discussion about conception and fertilization, the client asks the nurse, How long does it take for sperm to reach an ovum? What is the nurses best response? a. Under ideal conditions, sperm can reach the ovum in 1 to 5 minutes. b. Millions of sperm reach the ovum within an hour. c. Thousands of sperm enter the fallopian tube within 30 minutes. d. Only one sperm will actually fertilize the ovum, and this usually takes 48 hours. 95. The client asks the nurse, Why do people who use natural methods to prevent pregnancy have a high failure rate? The nurses best response is based on the knowledge that natural methods: a. are very frustrating for both partners b. require extensive record keeping c. can be 100% effective if done correctly d. depend on knowing when ovulation occurs 96. The nurse instructs the client about oral contraceptive agents. Following instruction, the nurse knows that the client has understood the instructions from what client statement? a. Oral contraceptives need to be used with spermacides during the first year of use. b. Only a few minor side effects are associated with oral contraceptives. c. Oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation and changing the consistency of cervical mucous. d. Persons with history of thromboembolic disease can use oral contraceptives if they are carefully monitored. A 34-year-old multigravida is seen in the family planning clinic following the delivery of her fourth child 6 months ago. 97. The client says that her husband objects to using rubbers (condoms) for contraception. What is the nurses best response? a. Most men think that its the female who doesnt like condoms. b. Why do you think he objects? c. A lot of men dont like to use condoms. d. Skin condoms, rather than latex, can prevent sexually transmitted diseases. 98. The client inquires about using a diaphragm for contraception. In planning the teaching for this client, the nurse should include which of the following? a. The diaphragm should be removed once every 48 hours b. Most women who use diaphragm develop symptoms of toxic shock syndrome c. A diaphragm can be obtained without a prescription d. The diaphragm should be left in for 6-8 hours after intercourse 99. The client asks the nurse What do men do if they want to be sterilized? The nurse should respond that a commonly used procedure involves clamping or cutting the: a. Epididymis c. Ejaculatory duct b. Seminal vesicle d. Ductus deferens Good Luck and God Bless