OLIVAREZ COLLEGE COLLEGE OF NURSING Long Quiz SET A Maternal Nursing Section B Tues.

8:00am 12:00pm
A 20-year-old nulligravida visits a family planning clinic. She states that she and her boyfriend are planning their wedding and want to plan the spacing of their children. 1. Before beginning to counsel the client about sexuality, the nurse should first: a. Obtain a sexual history from the client in a private setting b. Have the client undergo a complete physical examination c. Suggest that the clients sexual partner attend the counseling sessions d. Discuss reproductive system anatomy and physiology with the client 2. In a lecture on sexual functioning, the nurse plans to include the fact that ovulation occurs when the: a. Oxytocin level is high b. Blood level of LH is high c. Progesterone level is high d. Endometrial wall is sloughed off 3. After ovulation has occurred the ovum is believed to remain viable for: a. 1 to 6 hours b. 12 to 18 hours c. 24 to 36 hours d. 48 to 72 hours 4. The time of ovulation can be determined by taking the basal temperature. During ovulation, the basal temperature: a. Drops markedly b. Drops slightly and then rises c. Rises suddenly and then falls d. Rises markedly and remains high 5. The nurse explains that the efficiency of rhythm is dependent on the basal body temperature. A factor that will alter its effectiveness is: a. Presence of stress b. Length of abstinence c. Age of those involved d. Frequency of intercourse 6. A couple are desirous of using the rhythm method of contraception but do not understand how it works. The nurses explanation to this couple when to refrain from intercourse will be based on the fact that ovulation occurs: a. Fourteen days prior to the onset of menstruation b. Seven days before the menstrual cycle c. Seven days after the completion of menstrual period d. Fourteen days after the completion of the menstrual period 7. A biphasic antiovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female client. The nurse, instructing the client about the medication, should include the need to: a. Report any vaginal bleeding b. Have bimonthly Pap smears c. Increase the intake of calcium d. Temporarily restrict sexual activity 8. Following delivery a cardiac client with type II diabetes asks the nurse, Which contraceptives will I be able to use to prevent pregnancy in the near future? The nurses best response would be: a. You may use oral contraceptives. They are almost 100% effective in preventing a pregnancy. b. You may want to use a foam and a condom to prevent pregnancy until you consult your doctor at your postpartum visit. c. The intrauterine device is best for you because it does not allow the fertilized ovum to become implanted into the uterine lining. d. You do not need to worry about becoming pregnant in the near future. Clients with cardiac conditions usually become infertile. 9. The nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use of IUDs is: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Expulsion of the IUD c. Rupture of the uterus d. Excessive menstrual flow

10. The nurse should explain that a very common problem that has been associated with IUDs when they are used is: a. Perforation of the uterus b. Discomfort associated with coitus c. Development of vaginal infections d. Spontaneous expulsion of the device 11. A client seeking advice about contraception asks the nurse about an IUD. The nurse explains that the IUD provides contraception by: a. Blocking the cervical os b. Increasing the mobility of the uterus c. Preventing the sperm from reaching the fallopian tube d. Setting up a nonspecific inflammatory cell reaction in the endometrium 12. During the salinization method of elective abortion, the nurse should be alert for side effects such as: a. Edema c. Headache b. Oliguria d. Bradycardia 13. Following a salinization procedure for an elective abortion of a 20-week pregnancy, the client is told that labor will probably begin within: a. Two hours after the procedure b. Eight hours following the procedure c. Several minutes following the procedure d. Twenty-four to 72 hours after the procedure 14. In the dilation and suction evacuation method of elective abortion, Laminarias are used in the dilation stage of the procedure because: a. Dilation occurs within 2 hours b. They are hygroscopic and expand c. They are stronger in action than instruments d. Less anesthesia is necessary with this method 15. Most authorities recommend that the nurse can best prepare to counsel clients concerning sexuality when the nurse first has: a. Personal experience in a sexual relationship b. Reviewed the extensive literature on human sexuality c. Developed an awareness of his or her own feelings, values, and attitudes related to sexuality d. Completed a formal educational program for preparation as a clinical specialist in sexual counseling 16. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit related to ovulation and fertility management due to misinformation. Which of the following statements related to ovulation should be included in the clients teaching plan? a. Ovulation only occurs during the menstrual period, so precautions need not be taken only during this period b. Women who practice natural methods of family planning usually do not know when they have ovulated c. Most women can tell they have ovulated by the severe pain that accompanies ovulation d. Most women ovulate about 2 weeks before the beginning of the next menstrual period 17. Following a discussion about conception and fertilization, the client asks the nurse, How long does it take for sperm to reach an ovum? What is the nurses best response? a. Under ideal conditions, sperm can reach the ovum in 1 to 5 minutes. b. Millions of sperm reach the ovum within an hour. c. Thousands of sperm enter the fallopian tube within 30 minutes. d. Only one sperm will actually fertilize the ovum, and this usually takes 48 hours. 18. The client asks the nurse, Why do people who use natural methods to prevent pregnancy have a high failure rate? The nurses best response is based on the knowledge that natural methods: a. are very frustrating for both partners b. require extensive record keeping c. can be 100% effective if done correctly d. depend on knowing when ovulation occurs 19. The nurse instructs the client about oral contraceptive agents. Following instruction, the nurse knows that the client has understood the instructions from what client statement? a. Oral contraceptives need to be used with spermacides during the first year of use. b. Only a few minor side effects are associated with oral contraceptives. c. Oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation and changing the consistency of cervical mucous. d. Persons with history of thromboembolic disease can use oral contraceptives if they are carefully monitored.

A 34-year-old multigravida is seen in the family planning clinic following the delivery of her fourth child 6 months ago. 20. The client says that her husband objects to using rubbers (condoms) for contraception. What is the nurses best response? a. Most men think that its the female who doesnt like condoms. b. Why do you think he objects? c. A lot of men dont like to use condoms. d. Skin condoms, rather than latex, can prevent sexually transmitted diseases. 21. The client inquires about using a diaphragm for contraception. In planning the teaching for this client, the nurse should include which of the following? a. The diaphragm should be removed once every 48 hours b. Most women who use diaphragm develop symptoms of toxic shock syndrome c. A diaphragm can be obtained without a prescription d. The diaphragm should be left in for 6-8 hours after intercourse 22. The client asks the nurse What do men do if they want to be sterilized? The nurse should respond that a commonly used procedure involves clamping or cutting the: a. Epididymis c. Ejaculatory duct b. Seminal vesicle d. Ductus deferens 23. Following a discussion about various sexual myths with the client, the nurse realizes that the client needs further instruction when she says: a. Alcohol acts as a depressant for sex. b. Sexual intercourse should be avoided during menstruation. c. Masturbation can be used to achieve orgasm. d. Having an orgasm is not necessary part of a satisfactory sexual experience. 24. The nurse discusses sexual arousal and orgasm with the client. The nurse asks the client which primary anatomic structure in the female is involved in sexual arousal and orgasm. The nurses teaching will be considered effective if the clients answer is the: a. Vagina c. Mons pubis b. Clitoris d. Labia minora 25. In preparing for the presentation, the nurse plans to include a discussion of why foreplay during intercourse in important. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? In addition to arousing the sexual urge, foreplay helps to: a. Relax the vaginal orifice b. Increase vaginal secretions c. Delay premature clitoral orgasm d. Prevent early ejaculation in the male 26. One of the class participants asks several questions about becoming pregnant. She says How do sperm ever manage to reach the ovum? The nurses best response is that Sperm are propelled in the female primarily by: a. Cilia in the female reproductive tract. b. Movement of the sperms tail-like portion. c. Peristalsis-like contractions in the cervix and uterus. d. Gravity and the force generated by ejaculation. 27. One of the participants says that her sister-in-law is unable to become pregnant. The nurse explains that one reason for the diagnosis of infertility in a female is: a. Absence of an ovary b. Dilated hymenal ring c. Blocked fallopian tubes d. Obstructed Bartholins gland duct 28. After learning about fertilization, one of the participants asks where it occurs in the body. The nurse responds correctly that fertilization of the ovum normally occurs in the: a. Ovary c. Corpus luteum b. Uterus d. Fallopian tube A 21-year-old client visits the obstetricians office because she thinks I might be pregnant. She has missed one menstrual period. 29. The client tells the nurse that she wants to find out if she is pregnant. A radioimmunoassay test is performed. The nurse instructs the client that this pregnancy test is: a. Highly accurate within 7 days after conception b. Identical to a home pregnancy test c. A positive sign of pregnancy d. Based on an antigen-antibody reaction

30. After instructing the client about the radioimmunoassay test, the nurse knows that the client understands the instructions when she says which hormone is used for this test? a. Estrogen b. Luteinizing hormone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Human chorionic gonadotrophin 31. The client reports that she has had urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and occasional nausea. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing signs of pregnancy considered: a. Presumptive c. Positive b. Probable d. Pervasive 32. While waiting for the results of the pregnancy test, the client says that she has heard that women still die during childbirth from hemorrhage. What is the nurses best response? a. Tel the client not to worry about that right now b. Instruct the client that maternal deaths do not occur as a result of modern technology c. Ask the client why she would ask about death when she isnt certain she is pregnant d. Gather additional data related to the clients concerns about pregnancy and delivery 33. The client tells the nurse that she is a junior in college and plans to marry her boyfriend in a year. She says, A baby right now will sure affect us financially. Neither one of us wants to quit college. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this client at this time? a. Knowledge Deficit related to lack of understanding about first trimester changes b. Fear related to lack of desire to be pregnant c. High Risk for Altered Nutrition related to the desire to conceal pregnancy d. Anxiety related to initial encounter with the health care system 34. The outermost membrane that helps form the placenta is: a. Amnion c. Yolk sac b. Chorion d. Allantois 35. Progesterone is normally secreted in relatively large quantities by the: a. Endometrium c. Andrenal cortex b. Pituitary gland d. Corpus luteum 36. The developing cells are called a fetus from the: a. Time the fetal heart is heard b. Eighth week to the time of birth c. Implantation of the fertilized ovum d. End of the second week to the onset of labor 37. During pregnancy, the volume of tidal air increases because there is: a. An increase in total blood volume b. Increased expansion of the lower ribs c. Upward displacement of the diaphragm d. A relative increase in the height of the rib cage 38. The uterus rises out the pelvis and becomes an abdominal organ at about the: a. Tenth week of pregnancy b. Eighth week of pregnancy c. Twelfth week of pregnancy d. Eighteenth week of pregnancy 39. The inner membrane that provides a fluid medium for the embryo is: a. Funis c. Chorion b. Amnion d. Yolk sac 40. First fetal movements felt by the mother are known as: a. Lightening c. Ballottement b. Quickening d. Engagement 41. In prenatal development, fetal growth is most rapid in: a. First trimester c. Second trimester b. Third trimester d. Implantation period 42. The chief function of progesterone is the: a. Development of female reproductive organs b. Stimulation of follicles for ovulation to occur c. Establishment of the secondary male sex characteristics d. Preparation of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum

43. During the process of gametogenesis, the male and female sex cells divide, and each mature sex cell contains: a. Twenty-two pairs of autosomes in their nuclei b. Forty-six pairs of chromosomes in their nuclei c. A diploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei d. A haploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei 44. The placenta does not produce: a. Somatotropin b. Chorionic gonadotropin c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Progesterone precursor substances 45. After the first 3 months of pregnancy the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is the: a. Placenta c. Corpus luteum b. Adrenal cortex d. Anterior hypophysis 46. In fetal blood vessels the oxygen content is highest in the: a. Umbilical artery c. Pulmonary artery b. Ductus venosus d. Ductusanteriosus 47. A client relates that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 22. the estimated date of birth would be: a. May 5 c. April 15 b. May 14 d. April 29 48. During pregnancy a polypeptide that stimulates the melanocycle hormone is responsible for: a. Urinary frequency b. Softening of the cervix c. Symptoms of morning sickness d. Linea nigra and melasma (chloasma) 49. During pregnancy, the uterine musculature hypertrophies and is greatly stretched as the fetus grows. This stretching: a. By itself inhibits uterine contraction until oxytocin stimulates the birth process b. Is prevented from stimulating uterine contraction by high levels of estrogen during late pregnancy c. Inhibits uterine contraction along with the combined inhibitory effects of estrogen and progesterone d. Would ordinarily stimulate uterine contraction but is prevented by high levels of progesterone during pregnancy 50. When assessing a pregnant clients physical condition, the nurse is aware that a normal adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic region that results in purplish discoloration of the vaginal muscosa and is known as: a. Ladins sign c. Goodells sign b. Hegars sign d. Chadwicks sign 51. Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of: a. Decreased dietary intake of iron b. Increased blood volume of the mother c. Decreased erythropoiesis after the first trimester d. Increased detoxification demands on the mothers liver 52. When assessing a client, the nurse should be aware that the characteristics of the normal female pelvis include: a. Flat sacrum, coccyx movable, spines prominent, pubic arch wide b. Flat sacrum, coccyx movable, spines prominent, pubic arch narrow c. Well-hollowed sacrum, coccyx movable, spines not prominent, pubic arch wide d. Deeply hollowed sacrum, coccyx immovable, spines not prominent, pubic arch narrow 53. The anterior/posterior diameter of the birth canal is one of the important measurements of the pelvis and is known as the: a. Conjugate vera c. Transverse diameter b. Diagonal conjugate d. Transverse conjugate 54. A common method of locating the precise position of a fetus and placenta prior to an amniocentesis is: a. Fetoscopy c. Sonography b. Fluoroscopy d. X-ray examination

55. On the first prenatal visit, a client asks the nurse, Is it true the doctor will do an internal examination today? The nurse should respond: a. Yes, an internal is done on all mothers on the first visit. b. Are you fearful of having an internal examination done? c. Yes. Have you ever had an internal examination done before? d. Yes, an internal is done on all mothers, but it is only slightly uncomfortable. 56. A normal cardiopulmonary symptom experienced by most pregnant women is: a. Tachycardia b. Dyspnea at rest c. Progressive dependent edema d. Shortness of breath on exertion 57. A primigravida in her tenth week of gestation is concerned because she has read that nutrition during pregnancy is important for proper growth and development of the baby. She wants to know something about the foods she should eat. The nurse should: a. Instruct her to continue eating a normal diet b. Assess what she eats by taking a diet history c. Give her a list of foods so she can better plan her meals d. Emphasize the importance of limiting salt and highly seasoned food 58. A client who has missed one menstrual period thinks she is pregnant. The nurse suggests a pregnancy test. This is possible because in early pregnancy the urine contains: a. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone b. Estrogen d. Chorionic gonadotropin 59. A client visits her gynecologist to continue a suspected pregnancy. During the nursing history a client states that her last menstrual period began on April 11. The client states that some spotting occurred on May 8. The nurse calculates that the clients due date is: a. January 10 c. February 12 b. January 18 d. February 15 60. A client asks the nurse why menstruation ceases once pregnancy occurs. The nurses best response would be that this occurs because of the: a. Reduction in the secretion of hormones by the ovaries. b. Production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. c. Secretion of luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary. d. Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary. 61. The nurse is aware that the nausea and vomiting commonly experienced by many women during the first trimester of pregnancy is an adaptation to the increased level of: a. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone b. Progesterone d. Chorionic gonadotropin 62. A pregnant client works as a keypunch operator. This would necessarily have implications for her plan of care during pregnancy. The nurse should recommend that the client: a. Try to walk about every few hours during the workday b. Ask for time in the morning and afternoon to elevate her legs c. Tell her employer she cannot work beyond the second trimester d. Ask for time in the morning and afternoon to obtain nourishment 63. The nurse in the prenatal clinic should provide nutritional counseling to all newly pregnant women because: a. Most weight gain during pregnancy is fluid retention b. Dietary allowances should not increase during pregnancy c. Pregnant women must adhere to a specific pregnancy diet d. Different sources of essential nutrients are favored by different cultural groups 64. A client in her eighth week of pregnancy complains of having to go to the bathroom often to urinate. The nurse explains to the client that urinary frequency often occurs because the capacity of the bladder during pregnancy is diminished by: a. Atony of the detrusor muscle b. Compression by the ascending uterus c. Compromise of the autonomic reflexes d. Constriction of the ureteral entrance at the trigone 65. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant calls the clinic and complains of the morning sickness. To promote relief, the nurse should suggest: a. Eating dry crackers before arising b. Increasing her fat intake before bedtime c. Having two small meals daily and a snack at noon d. Drinking more high-carbohydrate fluids with her meals

66. A client, 7 weeks pregnant, confides to the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she is very sick every morning with nausea and vomiting and is sure that is being punished for having initially thought of aborting the pregnancy. The nurse assures her that this is not punishment but a common occurrence in early pregnancy and will probably disappear by the end of the: a. 5th month c. 3rd month th b. 4 month d. 2nd month 67. A nurse tells a pregnant woman not to wear tight clothing around her abdomen because of possible damage to the fetus. The principle responsible for the potential damage is: a. Pascals c. Einsteins b. Newtons d. Archimedes 68. A client who is pregnant is being prepared for a pelvic examination. The client complains of feeling very tired and sick to her stomach, especially in the morning. The best response for the nurse to make is: a. Perhaps you might ask the doctor about it. b. This is common. There is no need to worry. c. Can you tell me how you feel in the morning? d. Lets discuss some ways to deal with these common problems. 69. During a prenatal examination the nurse draws blood from a young client and explain that the determination of Rh is routinely performed on expectant mothers to predict whether the fetus is at risk for developing: a. Acute hemolytic anemia b. Protein metabolism deficiency c. Physiologic hyperbilirubinemia d. Respiratory distress syndrome 70. The best advice the nurse can give to a pregnant woman in her first trimester is to: a. Cut down on drugs, alcohol and cigarettes b. Avoid all drugs and refrain from smoking and ingesting alcohol c. Avoid smoking, limit alcohol consumption and do not take any aspirin d. Take only prescription drugs, especially in the second and third trimester 71. When attending the prenatal clinic, a newly pregnant client, having her first child, expresses concern about her dark nipples and a dark line from her navel to the pubis. The nurse explains that this adaptation are due to the hyperactivity of the: a. Ovaries c. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland d. Pituitary gland 72. The nurse can try to help a pregnant client overcome first-trimester morning sickness by suggesting that the client: a. Eat protein before sleep b. Take an antacid before bedtime c. Eat nothing until the nausea subsides d. Request her physician to prescribe an antiemetic 73. A client is concerned about gaining weight during pregnancy. The nurse explains that the largest part of weight gain during pregnancy is due to: a. The fetus b. Fluid retention c. Metabolic retention d. Increased blood volume 74. The client who is pregnant for the first time attends the prenatal clinic. She tells the nurse, Im worried about gaining too much weight because I have heard that it is bad for me. The nurses best response would be: a. Yes, weight gain causes complication during pregnancy. b. If you gain over 15 pounds, you have to follow a low-calorie diet. c. Dont worry about gaining weight. We are more concern if you dont gain enough weight to ensure proper growth of your baby. d. A 25-pound weight gain is recommended; however, the pattern of your weight gain will be of more importance than the total amount. 75. A petite client, pregnant for the first time, is concerned about regaining her figure after delivery and wishes to diet during pregnancy. The nurse should advise her that: a. Dieting is recommended to lessen the incidence of stillbirth b. Dieting is recommended to make delivery easier since she is so small c. Inadequate food intake during pregnancy can cause low-birth-weight infants d. Inadequate food intake during pregnancy can cause pregnancy-induced hypertension

76. A client in her fourth month of pregnancy. When she comes for her monthly examination, the nurse asks if she would like to listen to the babys heartbeat. The woman, commenting on how rapid it is, appears frightened and asks if this is normal. The nurse should respond: a. The babys heart rate is usually twice the mothers pulse rate. b. The babys heart rate is normally very rapid, so you neednt worry. c. The babys heart rate is rapid to accommodate the nutritional needs. d. It is far better that the heart rate is rapid; when it is low, there is no need to worry. 77. A newly pregnant client plans to continue working as a secretary in a large office during her pregnancy. When setting up a care plan for this client, the nurse should advise her to: a. Try to walk about every few hours of her workday b. Ask for a break in the morning and afternoon for added nourishment c. Inform her employer that she cannot work beyond the second trimester d. Ask for a break in the morning and afternoon so she can elevate her legs 78. A client who is pregnant asks the nurse if she can continue to have sexual relations. The nurses response is based on the knowledge that coitus during pregnancy would be contraindicated only in the presence of: a. Leukorrhea b. Increased FHR c. Gestation of 30 weeks or more d. Premature rupture of membranes 79. When involved in prenatal teaching, the nurse should inform clients that an increase in vaginal secretions during pregnancy is leucorrhea and is caused by increased: a. Metabolic rates b. Production of estrogen c. Functioning of the Bartholin glands d. Supply of sodium chloride to the cells of the vagina 80. A 21-year old client who is 6 months into her second pregnancy is experiencing increasing edema in the lower extremities. Besides advising rest with the legs elevated, the nurse discusses and gives instructions concerning the diet. In this instance: a. The nutritionist should be brought in to plan a diet b. The foods selected should have a normal salt content c. Dietary preferences must influence the food that is eaten d. The client should be advised to see the physician in the prenatal clinic 81. The nurse explains the treatment for fluid retention during pregnancy, which is: a. Adequate fluid and low-salt diet b. A low-salt diet and elevation of the lower extremities c. Adequate fluid and elevation of the lower extremities d. Judicious use of diuretics and elevation of the lower extremities 82. While teaching a young primigravida about labor, the nurse should tell her to come to the hospital when: a. Contractions are 10 to 15 minutes apart b. She has a bloody show and back pressure c. Membranes rupture or contractions are 5 to 8 minutes apart d. Contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart and she cannot walk about 83. True labor can be differentiated from false labor because in true labor contractions will: a. Bring about progressive cervical dilation b. Occur immediately after membrane rupture c. Stop when the client is encouraged to walk around d. Be less uncomfortable if client is in a side-lying position 84. When teaching a prenatal class about infant feeding, the nurse is asked a question about the relationship between the size of breasts and breastfeeding. The nurses best response would be: a. Everybody can be successful at breastfeeding. b. You seem to have some concern about breastfeeding. c. The size of the breasts has nothing to do with the production of milk. d. The amount of fat and glandular tissue in the breasts determines the amount of milk produced. 85. A woman in a class on infant feedings asks how anyone who is breastfeeding gets anything done with a baby on demand feedings. The nurses best response would be: a. Most mothers find that feeding the baby whenever the baby cries works out fine. b. Perhaps a schedule might be better because the baby is already accustomed to the hospital routine. c. Most babies find babies on breast do better on demand feeding because the amount of milk ingested varies at each feeding. d. Although the baby is on demand feedings, the baby will eventually set a schedule, so there will be time for your household chores.

86. The nurse should teach the client that breastfeeding is always contraindicated with: a. Mastitis c. Inverted nipples b. Pregnancy d. Herpes genitalis

87. Damage to this ligament will result in uterine prolapsed a. Round b. Uterosacral c. Cardinal d. Broad

88.Which part of the fallopian tube is the site of sterilization? c. Infundibulum d. Ampulla c. Interstitial segment d. Isthmus

89. The male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis, is synthesized and released by: a. Seminiferous tubules b. Seminal vesicle c. Sertoli cells d. Leydig cell

90. Which term refers to the externally visible structure of the female reproductive system extending from the symphysis pubis to the perineum? a. Mons pubis b. Vestibule c. Vulva d. Labia majora

91. In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occur? a. Ampulla b. Interstitial segment c. Infundibulum d. Isthmus

92. Which of the following statements below is correct about the vulva? a. Major organ for reproduction b. Organ of urination c. The main function is for copulation d. Forms parts of the birth canal

93. The thickest part of the uterus because it contains the most muscle fibers located between the insertion point of the fallopian tubes is the? a. Cervix b. Fundus 94. Upper triangular portion: a. Cervix b. Cornua c. Fundus d. Corpus c. Corpus d. Cornua

95. Which statement about the structure of the cervix is incorrect? a. The presence of increased muscle fibers in the cervix prevents premature dilation during pregnancy. b. The cervix is composed of very few smooth muscle cells. c. Occlusion of the ducts of cervical glands gives rise to Nabothian cysts. d. The cervix has glands the secrete an alkaline fluid. 96. Which is not found in the vestibule? a. Labia majora c. Urinary meatus

b. Prepuce

d. Clitoris

97. The lower uterine segment is formed from: a. Cervix b. The isthmus c. Both isthmus and cervix d. body of the uterus

98. Which of the following description is not true of the clitoris? a. The significance of clitoris in obstetrics is its usefulness in guiding cathetherization. b. The clitoris is the most erectile part of the female external genitalia. c. It is said to be the seat of womans sexual arousal and orgasm. d. Its equivalent in the male reproductive organs is the testes. 99. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent? a. Multiparous women b. After menopause c. Before menopause d. Nulliparous woman

100.In a woman who has given birth several times already, you expect which of the following organs to be more prominent: c. Hymen d. Labia minora c. Fossa navicularis d. Fourchette

Good Luck and God Bless