CRT I (Advance) Question

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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST
(Set I)

Paper 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
You ar e not al l owed t o l eave t he Exami nat i on Hal l bef or e t he end of
t he t est .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-B
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 to 09) contains 09 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (10 13) contains 4 Assertion-Reasoning (multiple choice questions) which have
only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and
1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (14 19) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +4 marks for
correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B (1 03) contains 3 Matrix Match Type (4 4 Matrix) questions containing statements
given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the
second column. Each question carries +6 marks for all correct answer. There is no negative
marking.

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AITS-CRT(Set-I)-Paper-2-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/13

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1

= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23

Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

AITS-CRT(Set-I)-Paper-2-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

3
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. An electron is released from rest at one point in a uniform electric field and travels a distance of
10 cm in 10
-7
seconds. Potential difference across the points is
(A) 11.375 volts (B) 10 volts
(C) 5 volts (D) 5.7 volts

2. A metal block of mass m is placed on a smooth metallic plane in support with
string as shown in diagram. If, after long time due to corrosion, the contact
surface becomes rough with coefficient of friction , then friction force acting
on the block will be
(A) mgcos (B) mgsin
(C) mg (D) None

m

3. A string of mass m and length l is hanging from ceiling as shown in the
figure. Wave in string move upward.
A
v and
B
v are the speed of wave
at A and B respectively. Then
B
v is
(A)
A
3v (B)
A
v
(C) <
A
v (D)
A
2v
A
B
3
4
L
4
L

Rough work


4
4. Which of the following is correct about principle of conservation of momentum?
(A) Conservation of momentum can be applied only in absence of external forces
(B) Conservation of momentum can be applied only during collisions of bodies
(C) Conservation of momentum can be applied in a process even in the presence of external
forces
(D) Conservation of momentum is not applicable in rocket propulsion

5. A snapshot of a petrol engine is given in which piston is
moving downwards with velocity 40 3m/ s. Find the
angular velocity of the shaft.
(A) 400 rad/s
(B) 300 rad/s
(C) 200 rad/s
(D) 500 rad/s

40 3m/ s
30
120
10 3 cm

6. A particle of mass m moves in the potential shown in the
figure. The particle has energy E. The period of the motion
the particle is
(A)
2
m 2E
2 2
k mg
+
(B)
2
m 2E
2
k mg
+
(C)
2
m 2E
2
k mg
+
(D)
2
m 2E
k mg
+

2
1
U kx
2
=
U = mgx
x > 0
x < 0
x
U

Rough work


5

7. A electron is projected normally from the surface of a sphere with
speed v
0
in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of
the paper such that its strikes symmetrically opposite on the sphere
with respect to the x-axis. Radius of the sphere is a and the
distance of its centre from the wall is b. What should be magnetic
field such that the charge particle just escapes the wall
(A)
0
2 2
2bmv
B
(b a )e
=
(B)
0
2 2
2bmv
B
(a b )e
=

wall
B
v0
a
b
x

(C)
2 2
0
(a b )
B
2bmv
= (D)
2 2
0
me(b a )
B
2bmv
=

8. A particle with positive charge Q and mass m enters a magnetic field of
magnitude B, existing only to the right of boundary YZ. The direction of
the motion of the particle is perpendicular to the direction of B. Let
m
T 2
QB
| |
=
|
\ .
. The time spent by the particle in the field will be
(A) T (B) 2T
(C)
2
T
2
+ | |
|
\ .
(D)
2
T
2
| |
|
\ .

B
m
Q
Y
Z

9. If net external torque, about a point, acting on the system is zero, then we can surely say
(A) Kinetic energy of the system remains constant
(B) Mechanical energy of the system remains constant
(C) Torque of Internal forces is zero
(D) Momentum of system will remain constant.
Rough work


6
Assertion - Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT-1
(Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

10. STATEMENT-1:
Statement -1: Bulk modulus in an adiabatic process is greater than bulk modulus in an isothermal
process.
and

STATEMENT-2:
Heat is exchanged freely in an isothermal change, but not in an adiabatic change.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

11. STATEMENT-1:
On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same
rate in both cases.

and

STATEMENT-2:
Electric field due to charge is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge
Statement-1.
Statement-1.
Rough work


7

12. STATEMENT -1: In given PV diagram, the process AC is
isothermal, then process AD is adiabatic.

and
STATEMENT -2: The slope of adiabatic process is more
than that of isothermal process.

P
V
A
B
C
D

Statement-1.
Statement-1.

13. STATEMENT-1:
A beam of white light passing through a hollow prism gives no spectrum.

and
The refracting faces of hollow prism then act as plates so rays of all colours of white light deflect
by the same amount.
Statement-1.
Statement-1.
Rough work

8
Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

Consider the siphon tube discharging a liquid of specific gravity 1 from
a reservoir as shown in diagram.

14. Velocity of liquid through the siphon equals
(A) 10 m/s (B) 15 m/s
(C) 5 m/s (D) zero

15. Pressure at Q equals
(A) 28 k Pa (B) 35 k Pa
(C) 42 k Pa (D) None

Q
P
S
1.5m
1m
R
4m

16. Pressure at R equals
(A) 30 k Pa (B) 50 k Pa
(C) 40 k Pa (D) None
Rough work


9

A long thin vertical wire has positive charge per unit length and a current I in the wire. A charged
particle moves with speed u in a straight-line trajectory, parallel to the wire and at a distance r from the
wire. Assume that the only forces on the particle are those resulting from the charge on the wire and the
current in the wire.

17. Suppose that the current in the wire is reduced to I/2. Which of the following changes are
necessary if the particle is to remain in the same trajectory
(A) doubling the charge per unit length in the wire
(B) doubling the charge on the particle
(C) doubling the speed of the particle
(D) introducing an additional magnetic field parallel to the wire.

18. The particle is later observed to move in a straight-line trajectory parallel to the wire but a
distance 2r from the wire. If the wire carries a current I and charge per unit length is still , the
speed of the particle is
(A) 4u (B) 2u
(C) u (D) u/2

19. If the charge particle has mass m, and suddenly charge on the wire is disappeared. The initial
radius of curvature of the path followed by particle is
(A)
0
2 rum
R
qI
(B)
0
qI
R
2 rum

(C)
0
qmI
R
2
=
(D) None
Rough work

10
SECTION - B

Matrix Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. In Column I, some statements or expressions related to first law of thermodynamics are given
and corresponding processes are given in Column II. Match the entries of Column I with that of
Column II:
Column I Column II
(A) Work done by the system on surroundings
can be non-zero in
(p) Adiabatic process
(B)
v
dU nC dT = is valid for (q) Isothermal process
(C) dU is zero for (r) Isothermal expansion process
(D) dQ nCdT = is non-zero for (s) Polytropic process
(t) Isochoric process

2. A closed vessel contains a mixture of two diatomic gases A and B. Molar mass of A is 16 times
that of B and the mass of A contained in the vessel is 2 times that of B. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(A) Ratio of Average KE per molecules of A to that
of B.
(p) 4
(B) Ratio of root mean square value of translational
velocity of B to that of A.
(q) 8
(C) Ratio of pressure exerted by B over the walls of
container to that by A.
(r) 1
(D) Ratio of No. of molecules of B in the container to
that of A.
(s) 2
(t) Zero
Rough work

11

3. From the top of a tower of height 10 m
a ball is thrown at t = 0 at 30
o
with
horizontal as shown so that it falls
(at t = t
1
) on a plank of same mass but
negligible thickness. The co-efficient of
friction between the plank and the
ground is
3
6
and the co-efficient of
friction between the ball and the plank
is
1
3
. Ratio of velocity of approach to
velocity of separation along the normal
of plank is 3. At t = t
2
the ball collides
with the plank second time. Then
match the correct. [Take g = 10m/s
2

and neglect the duration of collision]

Column I Column II
(A)

Distance travelled (in meter) by the plank between time
interval t
1
to t
2

(p) zero
(B)

The magnitude of the horizontal displacement of the ball
(in meter) between time interval t
1
to t
2
.
(q)
5
8 3

(C) Speed (in m/sec) of plank just after the instant t = t
1
. (r)
5
2 3

(D)

Horizontal component of velocity (in m/sec) of the ball just
after the instant t = t
1
.
(s)
5
3

(t)
10
3

Rough work

10 m/s
10m
x
ground
30
o

12
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Orthoaminophenol, on treatment with CH
3
COOH, forms
(A)

(B)
N
O OH

(C)
OH
NH CH
3
(D)
O
N
CH
3

2. Acetic anhydride, on heating forms
(A) Ketone (B) Aldehyde
(C) Acid (D) ester

3. In Benzoin condensation, which of the following intermediate can be generated?
(A) CHO
OH
Ph
Ph

(B)
OH
H
Ph
Ph
O
(C)
OH
CN
Ph
O
-
H
Ph

(D)
OH
CN
Ph
CN
OH
Ph

Rough work


13
4. Benzaldehyde, on treatment with NH
3
, forms hydrobenzamide. The number of optical isomers of
hydrobenzamide is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 6

5.
(a x)
Rate of
reaction

a is initial concentration of reaction x is concentration of
product after time t. This graph represents
(A) Zero order reaction (B) First order reaction
(C) Second order reaction (D) Third order reaction

6. Softening of hard water is done by using sodium aluminium silicate (Zeolite). This causes
(A) Adsorption of Ca
2+
and Mg
2+
ions of hard water replacing Na
+
ions
(B) Adsorption of Ca
2+
and Mg
2+
ions of hard water replacing Al
3+
ions
(C) Both true
(D) None is true

7. On heating in a closed vessel,
2 4
N O shows following equilibria.
( )
2 4 2
2 ; 640 775
p
N O NO k mmHg at K =
ZZX
YZZ

Calculate % dissociation. If equilibrium pressure is 160 mm Hg. Also calculate the pressure
required for 50% dissociation.
(A) 750 mm Hg (B) 760 mm Hg
(C) 770 mm Hg (D) 780 mm Hg
Rough work


14
8. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN)?
(A) It is hygroscopic is nature (B) It is explosive
(C) It is used as fertilizer (D) It is soluble in water

9. Which of the following express the spontaneity of chemical reaction?
(A)
total
S 0 (B)
total
S 0 >
(C)
total
S G = (D)
total
T S G >

Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion)
and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

10. STATEMENT-1: Decrease in free energy during the process under constant temperature and
pressure provides a measure of its spontaneity.
and
STATEMENT-2: A spontaneous change must have +ve sign of
system
S .
Statement-1.
Statement-1.

11. STATEMENT-1: Nucleous does not contain free electro, yet it emits -particle.
and
STATEMENT-2: At high n/p ratio, one neutron suppose to give 1 proton and 1 e
().
Statement-1.
Statement-1.
Rough work


15
12. STATEMENT-1: The rate of chlorination of benzene and hexadutero benzene are different in
presence of AlCl
3
.
and
STATEMENT-2: The C-deuterium bond is stronger than that of C-H bond but in the above
reaction no bond between C H or C D is broken in rate determination step.
Statement-1.
Statement-1.

13. STATEMENT-1: Zeises salt is a -bonded organometallic compound.
and
STATEMENT-2: Zeises salt contain C
2
H
4
molecules as one of the ligand.
Statement-1.
Statement-1.
Rough work


16
Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.


The electrochemical series is the arrangement of various electrode systems in the increasing order of
their standard reduction potentials. It has several important features. On moving from the top to the
bottom in the series, tendency to gain electrons, i.e., to get reduced increases. The electrode systems
having negative values of standard reduction potentials act as anode when connected to a standard
hydrogen electrode, while those having positive values act as cathode.

14. HCl can not be stored in an aluminium vessel because
(A)
3+
Al /Al
E is much smaller than
2
/
E
H H
+
. (B) Al is a highly reactive metal.
(C) HCl is an oxidizing acid. (D) All of these

15. If
3+
/
E 0.34
Cu Cu
= V and
3+
/
E 0.8
Ag Ag
= V, predict whether the reaction given below is feasible
or not?
Cu
2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s) Cu(s) + 2Ag
+
(aq)
(A) Feasible. (B) Not feasible.
(C) Feasible at high temp. (D) Feasible on increasing the conc. of Ag+(aq).

16. If
2+
/
E 0.44
Fe Fe
= V and
+2
/
E 2.37
Mg Mg
= V,
2+
/
E 0.34
Cu Cu
= + V and
+
/
E 0.80
Ag Ag
= + V,
the correct order in which the metals displace each other is
(A) Ag > Cu > Fe > Mg (B) Fe > Cu > Ag > Mg
(C) Fe > Ag > Cu > Mg (D) Mg > Fe > Cu > Ag
Rough work


17

Amines can be produced by selective reduction of nitro compounds. A mixture of (Sn + HCl) acts as a
good reducing agent which converts nitro benzene to aniline. Diazotisation takes place when aniline is
treated with a mixture of NaNO
2
and conc. HCl. A large number of aromatic compounds can be prepared
from diazonium salt e.g. on hydrolysis it produces a hydroxyl group.

17. Nitration of aniline in strongly acidic medium, results in the formation of m-nitroaniline also. This is
because
(A) Amino group is meta orienting during electrophilic substitution reaction.
(B) Nitro group goes away to the meta position irrespective of the substituents.
(C) Nitration of aniline is a nucleophilic substitution reaction in strongly acidic medium.
(D) In strongly acidic solution aniline is present as anilinium ion.

18. Identify the product in the following sequence

NH
2
Br
Br
Br
(i)
NaNO
2
/conc.HCl (0 5 )
(ii) H
3
PO
2
?

(A) 3, 4, 5-tribromobenzene (B) 1, 2, 3-tribromobenzene
(C) 2, 4, 6-tribromobenzene (D) 3, 4, 5-tribromophenol

19. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives:
(A) N-phenyl hydroxyl amine (B) Nitrosobenzene
(C) Aniline (D) p-hydroxyaniline
Rough work


18
SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)


p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. Match the following
Column I Column II
(A) Poling (p) Titanium
(B) Cupellation (q) Copper
(C) Electro-refining (r) Silver
(D) Van Arkel method (s) Zirconium
(t) Zn
Rough work


19

2. Match the following

Column I Column II

CH
2
CH
2
Cl
CH
3
O
(A)

(p) S
N
1

Cl
(B)
alc .KOH

(q) S
N
2

Cl
(C)
H
2
O / OH

(r) E
1

OH
(D)
H

(s) E
2

(t) E1cb

3. Match the Column-I with Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
(A) Fehlings solution (p) FeSO
4
+ H
2
O
2

(B) Fentons reagent (q) Conc. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl
2

(C) Etards reagent (r) CuSO
4
solution + sodium
potassium tartrate
(D) Lucas reagent (s) CrO
2
Cl
2

(t) Used for test the nature of alcohols
Rough work


20
M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III

SECTION A
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If the equation (a 2)(x [x])
2
+ 2(x [x]) + a
2
= 0 has no integral solution and has exactly one
solution in (2, 3), then (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) a (0, 1) (B) a (2, 3)
(C) a (2, 1) (D) none of these

2.
2
(2 x)dx
(x x 1)
+
+ +
is equal to
(A)
x
x x 1 + +
+ c (B)
2x
x x 1 + +
+ c
(C)
1
x x 1 + +
+ c (D) none of these

3. If g(x) is a differentiable real valued function satisfying g(x) 3g(x) > 3 x 0 and g(0) = 1
then g(x) + x for x > 0 is
(A) increasing function of x (B) decreasing function of x
(C) data insufficient (D) none of these

4. If a variable straight line x cos + y sin = p, which is a chord of the hyperbola
2 2
2 2
x y
1
a b
= (b >
a), subtend a right angle at the centre of the hyperbola, then it always touches a fixed circle
whose radius is
(A)
ab
b 2a
(B)
a
a b

(C)
2 2
ab
b a
(D)
( )
ab
b b a +

Rough work


21
5. If
z 6
z 8
= 1, then the value of x R, where z = x + i

3 2i 2 i
2i 2 4 3i
2 i 4 3i 7
+

+
is
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) can't be determined

6. The area bounded by the curve f (x) = cos
1
(cos x), 0 x 2 with the tangent to the curve
f (x) = |cos x| at x = is
(A) ( + 1)
2
(B) ( 1)
2

(C)
(2 1)( 1)
2

(D)
(2 1)( 1)
2
+

7. If
( )
2cosx 2 sinx 7 m 1 + + = holds then
(A) greatest negative integral value of m is 1 (B) least positive integral value of m is 5
(C) no such m exists (D) m [ 7, 1) (1, )

8. The solution of differential equation (x cot y + ln cos x) dy + (ln sin y y tan x)dx = 0
(A) (sin x)
y
(cos y)
x
= c (B) (sin y)
x
(cos x)
y
= c
(C) (sin x)
y
(sin y)
x
= c (D) (cot x)
y
(cot y)
x
= c

9. If m is selected at random from set {1, 2, , 10} and the probability that the quadratic equation
2x
2
+ 2mx + m + 1 = 0 has real roots is
(A)
1
8
(B)
1
9

(C)
4
5
(D)
1
2

Rough work


22
Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion)
and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

10. Consider the circle having a diameter AB and a point P lying in the exterior region of the circle, on
the line AB. From point P a tangent is drawn to the circle at point T, if M be the foot of
perpendicular from T upon AB, G be the centre of the circle and N be a point on the line AB which
divides the segment AB in the ratio PA : PB internally then
STATEMENT 1: PG > PM > PN
STATEMENT 2: A.M. > G.M. > H.M.
(A) Both the statements are true and Statement 2 is correct explanation of Statement 1
(B) Both the Statements are true and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(D) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

11. STATEMENT 1: a + b + c + d + e = 8 and a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
+ d
2
+ e
2
= 16, where a, b, c, d, e are
positive non-negative real numbers, then e
16
0,
5
(
(

.
STATEMENT 2:
2 2 2 2 2
a b c d a b c d
4 4
+ + + + + + | |

|
\ .
.

12. STATEMENT 1: The equation log
3
(5 + 4log
3
(x 1)) = 2 has only one solution.
STATEMENT 2:
3 3
log x log 2
2 x = ; x 0.

13. STATEMENT 1: The order of differential equation of family of circles touching both the axes is 1.
STATEMENT 2: The order of differential equation is equal to the number of arbitrary constants.
Rough work


23
Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.


Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
f(x) is continuous and differentiable function.
Given f(x) takes values of the form I where I
denotes set of whole numbers whenever x = a or b;
otherwise f(x) takes real values. Also f(c) =
3
2
and
|f(a)| |f(b)|.

a
y = f(x)f(x)
c
b
x

14. The number of rational values that f(a) + f(b) + f(c) can take is / are
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5

15. The number of values that (f(a))
2
+ (f(b))
2
+ (f(c))
2
can take is
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 7

16. The possible number of triplets (f(a), f(b), f(c)) is / are
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 6
Rough work


24

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let P be a point in the plane of ABC such that the triangles PAB, PBC, PCA all have the same perimeter
and the same area.

17. If P lies inside the ABC, then ABC
(A) must be equilateral (B) may not be equilateral
(C) must be right angled (D) none of these

18. If P lies outside the ABC, then ABC
(A) must be equilateral (B) may not be equilateral
(C) must be right angled (D) none of these

19. If P lies outside the ABC, then the quadrilateral formed by A, B, C and P is necessarily
(A) rectangle (B) square
(C) rhombus (D) none of these

SECTION B
Matrix Match Type

p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. Let f: R R and g: R R be functions such that f(g(x)) is a one-one function. Match the
following:
Column I Column II
(A) Then g(x) (p) Must be one-one
(B) Then f(x) (q) May not be one-one
(C) If g(x) is onto then f(x) (r) May be many one
(D) If g(x) is into then f(x) (s) Must be many-one
Rough work


25
2. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(A) The number of solution of
x sinx
in[ , ]
2 cosx 4
+ =
(p) 1
(B) The number of solution of equation

( ) ( )
1 2 1 2
sin | x 1| cos | 2x 5 |
2

+ =
(q) 0
(C) The number of solution of x
4
2x
2

2
sin
2
x + 1 = 0
(r) 3
(D) The number of solution of x
2
+ 2x + 2 sec
2
x + tan
2
x = 0 (s) 2

3. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(A) Number of distinct terms in the expansion of (y z)
16
(p) 17
(B) Number of terms in the expansion of

( ) ( )
6 6
2 2
x x 1 x x 1 + +
(q) 97
(C) The number of irrational terms in
( )
100
6 8
5 2 +
(r) 4
(D) The value of
( )
6
2 1
(
+
(

,
(where [.] represents greatest integer function) is
(s) 197
Rough work

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= 1, then the value of x R, where z = x + i

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