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Test: Final Test 66

PART - 1 Q No. 1. Maxillary artery is divided into three parts by one of the following muscles: (1) Upper head of lateral pterygoid (2) Lower head of lateral pterygoid (3) (4) Answer: Lower head of lateral pterygoid Deep head of medial pterygoid Lower head of medial pterygoid

Explanation:

Q No. 2. Which limb defect is correctly matched with its definition? (1) meromelia ____ complete absence of one or more extremities (2) phocomelia _____ all segments of extremities are present but abnormally short amelia _____ long bones are absent, and small hands or feet are attached to the trunk by short, (3) irregular bones (4) cleft hand (lobster claw deformity) ______ absent third metacarpal, fusion of digits 1-2 and 4-5 Answer: cleft hand (lobster claw deformity) ______ absent third metacarpal, fusion of digits 1-2 and 4-5

Explanation: Amelia is the complete absence of one or more extremities while meromelia is the partial absence of one or more extremities. All segments of extremities are present but abnormally short in micromelia. In phocomelia, long bones are absent, and small hands or feet are attached to the trunk by short, irregular bones. Q No. 3. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome?

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Acrocentric Telocentric Submetacentric Metacentric

Acrocentric

Explanation:

Q No. 4. The following statements concerning the blood supply to the heart are correct except which? (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery descends in the anterior interventricular groove and passes around the apex of the heart. The coronary arteries are branches of the ascending aorta. It can be classified as functional end arteries The right coronary artery supplies both the right atrium and the right ventricle. The circumflex branch of the left coronary artery descends in the anterior interventricular groove and passes around the apex of the heart. Arrhythmias (abnormal heart beats) can occur after occlusion of a coronary artery.

Explanation:

Q No. 5. The following structures receive innervation from branches of the pudendal nerve except which? (1) Labia minora (2) (3) (4) Urethral sphincter The posterior fornix of the vagina Ischiocavernosus muscles and Skin of the penis or clitoris

Answer: The posterior fornix of the vagina

Explanation:

Q No. 6. All of the following statements regarding vas deferens are true except: (1) The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla (2) (3) (4) Answer: It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine lt passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum

Explanation: There is no peritoneal layer between vas deferens and the bladder. Q No. 7. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except? (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Flexor carpi radialis Median Nerve Flexor pollicis longus Flexor carpi radialis Flexor digitorum superficialis

Explanation:

Q No. 8. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except: (1) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (2) (3) (4) Answer: Vascular sinus B cells Antigen presenting cells Vascular sinus

Explanation: Vascular sinuses are seen in red pulp of spleen. Q No. 9. The following statements are true about the heart EXCEPT (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: It is sensitive to touch, heat and cold T1 and T2 spinal segments are involved in the radiation of pain to the left arm in ischaemic heart disease Cardiac pain is not felt in the heart Pain impulses from the heart travel through the sympathetic fibres It is sensitive to touch, heat and cold

Explanation:

Q No. 10. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following nerves is NOT correctly matched with its distribution? frontal nerve ______ skin of forehead, scalp,eyelid, and nose supraorbital nerve _____ skin of foreheadas far as vertex supratrochlear ______ skin in middle of forehead lacrimal _____ skin on dorsum of nose

lacrimal _____ skin on dorsum of nose

Explanation:

Q No. 11. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Spinal arteries supplying the vertebrae are branches of the: vertebral and ascending cervical arteries in the neck posterior intercostal arteries in the lumbar region subcostal and lumbar arteries in the pelvis iliolumbar and lateral and medial sacral arteries in the thorax

vertebral and ascending cervical arteries in the neck

Explanation:

Q No. 12. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Diaphragm develops from all except: Septum transversum Dorsal mesocardium Pleuroperitoneal membrane Cervical myotomes

Dorsal mesocardium

Explanation:

Q No. 13. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All of the following statements concerning the sinoatrial node are correct EXCEPT: It is located near the superior end of the sulcus terminalis. It is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. It is avascular. It is specialized cardiac muscle fiber.

It is specialized cardiac muscle fiber.

Explanation:

Q No. 14. (1) (2) (3) (4)

All the following are true regarding air in the pleural cavity (pneumothorax) except Allows intrapleural pressure to rise to atmospheric pressure Increases the functional residual capacity Leads to a slight outward movement of the chest wall Reduces vital capacity

Answer: Increases the functional residual capacity

Explanation:

Q No. 15. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Lacrimation is affected in injury to: Greater petrosal nerve Nasocilliary nerve Palatine nerve Ophthalmic nerve

Greater petrosal nerve

Explanation:

Q No. 16. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Insulin increases glucose uptake in the liver via GLUT 4 GLUT 1 GLUT 5 Glucokinase

Glucokinase

Explanation: Insulin stimulates glucokinase in the liver (glucokinase converts glucose into glucose - 6 phosphate) and thus favours the diffusion into the liver cell. In tissues such as the skeletal muscle, adipose tissue and heart, insulin increases glucose uptake via GLUT 4. Q No. 17. (1) (2) The rate of B.E.R. is minimum in Stomach Duodenum

(3) (4) Answer: Stomach

Caecum Sigmoid

Explanation:

Q No. 18. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which physiologic principle can explain the 'phantom limb' ? Weber Fechner law Bell Megendie law Law of projection Muller's doctrine

Law of projection

Explanation:

Q No. 19. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Melatonin is associated with all the following except Vomiting Pituitary gland secretion Sleep mechanism Jet lag

Pituitary gland secretion

Explanation: Melatonin is synthesized from serotonin in the pineal gland. It plays a role in sleep mechanism. It may decrease gonadotropic hormone secretion (from the anterior pituitary). Melatonin shows diurnal variation; its secretion is increased in the dark. Q No. 20. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Adenosine Coronary vasodilatation is caused by Direct effect of sympathetic stimulation Adenosine Hypocarbia All of the above

Explanation:

Q No. 21.

Rapid infusion of saline causes tachycardia. This is known as

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Cushing's reflex CNS ischaemic response Bainbridge reflex Bezold-Jarisch reflex

Bainbridge reflex

Explanation:

Q No. 22. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All the following cause bronchoconstriction except Substance P Cholinergic stimulation Cool air Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

Explanation:

Q No. 23. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The haematocrit of venous blood is 3% less than arterial blood 10% less than arterial blood 10% more than arterial blood 3% more than arterial blood

3% more than arterial blood

Explanation:

Q No. 24. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Increased

In cold temperature, thyroxine secretion is Increased Decreased No change None of the above

Explanation:

Q No. 25. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 6 hours

The average half-life of a neutrophil in the circulation is 6 hours 4 days 120 days 60 days

Explanation:

Q No. 26. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Parahaemophilia is due to deficiency of factor IX XII VIII V

Explanation: Parahaemophilia is due to deficiency of factor V. Q No. 27. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 5 nm size with positive charge Permeability of a particle across the glomerular basement membrane will be maximum for 5 nm size with negative charge 5 nm size with positive charge 6 nm size with negative charge 6 nm size with positive charge

Explanation: The glomerular basement membrane is freely permeable to particles with less than 4 nm size and is impermeable for particles with greater than 8 nm size. Further, the glomerular basement membrane has fixed negative charges (due to the presence of sialoproteins). Therefore, it favours the filtration of positively charged particles. Q No. 28. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to: Nitrogen inhibitis dismutase enzyme Increase production of nitrous oxide Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane Decrease in oxygen free radicals

Explanation:

Q No. 29. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with? Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P. Independent of corticothalamic inputs Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors Essetially silent in sleep

Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P.

Explanation:

Q No. 30. (1) (2)

True regarding myocardial O2 demand? Inversely related to heart rate Has constant relation to external cardiac work

(3) (4) Answer:

Correlates with duration of systole Is negligible at rest

Correlates with duration of systole

Explanation:

Q No. 31. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A two year old child with fare skin, blue eyes, Hyperactivity, and occasional seizures, with urine turning green on ferric chloride test, the diagnosis is: Phenylketonuria Alkaptonuria Multiple carboxylase deficiency Glutaric aciduria

Phenylketonuria

Explanation:

Q No. 32. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

False about Heme synthesis: Occurs in the liver and bone marrow. Iron inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase. Glutathione reductase requires NADPH for its action.

Iron inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase.

Explanation:

Q No. 33. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is autosomal dominant porphyria? Erythropoietic uprotoporphyria Acute intermittent porphyria Porphyria cutanea tarda Protoporphyria

Acute intermittent porphyria

Explanation:

Q No. 34. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All the following reactions generate ATP with the help of ETC except: Succinate dehydrogenase Malate dehydrogenase Glyceraldehyde 3 PO4 dehydrogenase Pyruvate kinase

Pyruvate kinase

Explanation:

Q No. 35. (1) (2)

Each glucose chain in a glycogen molecule contains : 13 glucose residues 10 glucose residues

(3) (4) Answer:

15 glucose residues 20 glucose residues

13 glucose residues

Explanation:

Q No. 36. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following enzymes is used to monitor deficiency of thiamin: Pyruvate dehydrogenase ( ketogluterate dehydrogenase Transketolase All of the above

Transketolase

Explanation:

Q No. 37. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Marker for Endopolasmic reticulum is: Na - K ATPase LDH Glutamate dehydrogenase Glucose - 6- phosphatase

Glucose - 6- phosphatase

Explanation:

Q No. 38. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Activity of which of the following enzyme increase in alcoholism? Lactate dehydrogenase Acid phosphatase Alkaline phosphatase Gamma-glutamyltransferase

Gamma-glutamyltransferase

Explanation:

Q No. 39. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase: Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin Is inhibited by alpha-amanitin Specifically recognizes the promoter site Is part of the core enzyme

Specifically recognizes the promoter site

Explanation:

Q No. 40. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Glycerol

All the following are constituents of ganglioside molecule, EXCEPT: Glycerol Sialic acid Hexose sugar Sphingosine

Explanation:

Q No. 41. (1) (2) (3)

Histone acetylation causes? Hyperchromatin Euchromatin formation Methylation of cystine

(4) Answer:

Dna replication

Euchromatin formation

Explanation:

Q No. 42. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Triplet DNA is formed due to Hoogsteen base pair Palindromic sequences Mutiple pyrimidine repeats Multiple Guanidine triplet repeats

Hoogsteen base pair

Explanation:

Q No. 43. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: FRAP

Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by FISH FRAP Confocal microscopy, Electron microscopy

Explanation:

Q No. 44. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following process in a vector is used to increasethe yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis? Promoter induction Genes for protease inhibitors Translation initiation signals Translation and transcription termination signals

Answer: Promoter induction

Explanation:

Q No. 45. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Flopy infant may be due to all except werdning Hoffman disease myopathy sepsis edward syndrome(trisomy -18)

edward syndrome(trisomy -18)

Explanation: hypertonia is seen in Edward. Q No. 46. (1) (2) (3) Masaoka Staging System is used for neurofibroma lymphoma angioma

(4) Answer: thymoma

thymoma

Explanation: Masaoka Staging System is for Thymomas Q No. 47. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: LFA-1 ICAM-1 bind to VLA-4 LFA-1 both none

Explanation: ICAM-1 bind.beta2 integrin,LFA1,MAC1 Q No. 48. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: diastase positive,PAS positive Glycogen is diastase sensitive,PAS negative diastase negative,PASnegetive diastase neegetive,PAS positive diastase positive,PAS positive

Explanation:

Q No. 49. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Variant of Giant cell tumor is? Ossifying fibroma Non ossifying fibroma Osteosarcoma Chondroblastoma

Non ossifying fibroma

Explanation:

Q No. 50. (1) (2)

Caspase-9 involved in which path way of apoptosis intrisic extrinsic

(3) (4) Answer: intrisic

both none

Explanation:

Q No. 51. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A 10-year-old boy died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except: Ashoff nodules Rupture of chordae tendinae McCallum patch Fibrinous pericarditis

Rupture of chordae tendinae

Explanation:

Q No. 52. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is associated with psychosis anti-RNP anti ribosomal-P anti -Ro antineoronal antibody

anti ribosomal-P

Explanation:

Q No. 53. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma except Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH Wilson disease Citrullinemia galactosemia

galactosemia

Explanation:

Q No. 54. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Cylin -D Amplification associated with breast cancer burkit lymhoma mantle cell lymphoma SCLL

breast cancer

Explanation:

Q No. 55. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: K-ras

The commonest gene mutation occurs in pancreatic ca is CDKN2A P16 K-ras DPC4

Explanation:

Q No. 56. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following is the proper cytogenetic notation for a female with Down syndrome mosaicism? 46,XX,+21/46,XY 47,XY,+21 47,XXX/46,XX 47,XX,+21/46,XX

Answer: 47,XX,+21/46,XX

Explanation:

Q No. 57. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Myocarditis is not seen in Toxoplasmosis Chagas disease Trichinosis Strogyloidosis

Strogyloidosis

Explanation:

Q No. 58. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Gamma gandy body is found in all except cirrhosis with portal hypertension sickle cell anemia CML hereditery spherocytosis

hereditery spherocytosis

Explanation:

Q No. 59. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Cells with multilobated nuclei ("flower" cells) are frequently observed in anaplastic large cell lymphoma sezary syndrome adult t-cell lymphoma large granular lymphocytic leukemia

adult t-cell lymphoma

Explanation:

Q No. 60. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Risk factor for colorectal cancer is streptococcus fecalis mycobacterium bovis streptococcus bovis Enterococci

streptococcus bovis

Explanation:

Q No. 61. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Primitive streak is initiated and maintained by Nodal gene hi BMP4 FGF Brachyury gene

Nodal gene

Explanation:

Q No. 62. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Apoptic cells can be identified by binding of special dye VON KOSSA CONGO RED ANNEXIN-V OIL RED-O

ANNEXIN-V

Explanation: staining is commonly used to identify apoptotic cells Q No. 63. (1) (2) (3) (4) Autosomal dominance inheritance is characterized by all of the following except: It affects individuals in every generation & There is a 50% chance of transmission It has a high spontaneous mutation rate It affects males more commonly than females Phenotypically normal parents do not transmit the disease to the child

Answer: It affects males more commonly than females

Explanation: All others are very typical of autosomal dominant inheritance. The sex ratio should be equal. Often the parents are not affected because the disease is a spontaneous mutation in the child. Neurofibromatosis is an example of an autosomal dominant disease. Q No. 64. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: X-linked dominant A disease affecting all of the daughters but none of the sons of an affected father, and 50% of the sons or daughters of an affected mother, is most likely: X-linked recessive X-linked dominant Mitochondrial deletion syndrome Autosomal recessive

Explanation: This is the classic pattern of an X-linked dominant condition. These are rare conditions, which include hypophosphatemic rickets and incontinentia pigmenti (IP). IP is lethal to the male fetus and thus no males are born alive with this disorder Q No. 65. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Acute ingestion of more than 150-200 mg/kg (children) or 7 g total (adults) What is the toxic dose of paracetamol for which N- acetylcysteine is required Acute ingestion of more than 25-75mg/kg (children) or 3g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 50-100 mg/kg (children) or 4 g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 100-125 mg/kg (children) or 5 g total (adults) Acute ingestion of more than 150-200 mg/kg (children) or 7 g total (adults)

Explanation:

Q No. 66. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The maintenance dose of theophyline in Apnea of prematurity is 1mg/kg.dose thrice a day 2mg/kg /dose thrice a day 10mg/kg/dose thrice a day 5mg/kg twice a day.

2mg/kg /dose thrice a day

Explanation:

Q No. 67. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A pt was brought to emergency in pulseless codition.One junior resident started CPR.One onduty sister pushed a single dose of adrenaline . The dose of this drug in a pt of caridac arrest is: 0.01 mg/kg OF 1: 10,00 0.1 mg/kg OF 1: 10,000 0.01 mg/kg of 1: 10,000 solution No need .Give One vial stat( I.V.)

Answer: 0.01 mg/kg of 1: 10,000 solution

Explanation: cardiac arrest, symptomatic bradycardia , hypotention, Dose - 0.01 mg/kg ( 0.1ml/kg of 1 10,000 solution) Q No. 68. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Lamotrigine The chances of severe life-threatening skin reactionssuch as Stevens-Johnson syndrome are greatest with which of the following anticonvulsant medications? Phenobarbital Gabapentin Carbamazepine Lamotrigine

Explanation: The Skin lesion is Stevens-Johnson syndrome. In additionto lamotrigine, phenobarbital and carbamazepine are also associated with an acute drug hypersensitivity syndrome involving skin, mucous membranes, and the liver. Q No. 69. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 0.1-0.2 mg/kg A baby was admitted with c/o tachycardia ,lethergy,sweating.ECG feature suggests Supraventricular tachycardia .One junior resident planned to give the drug by intravenous route.What is the dose of this drug ? 0.1-0.2 mg/kg 0.01-0.02 mg/kg 1-2 mg/kg 10-mg/kg

Explanation:

Q No. 70. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The baby was brought by mother with c/o constipation and protruded tongue.The baby was investigated for this presntation and was started with thyroxine replacement. Overtreatment with thyroxine may risk Long QTc craniosynostosis Diarrhoea Hirsutism

craniosynostosis

Explanation:

Q No. 71. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Pregabalin

A 56-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes was given a GABA analog for the treatment for neuropathic pain. She was most likely given Amitriptyline Capsaicin Pregabalin Carbamazepine

Explanation:

Q No. 72. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Deferasirox -all are true except Deferasirox is a tridentate chelator with a high affinity for iron and low affinity for other metals, eg, zinc and copper. Given in intravenous route In the circulation, it binds iron, and the complex is excreted in the bile. Deferasirox was recently approved for the oral treatment of iron overload caused by blood transfusions, a problem in the treatment of thalassemia

Answer: Given in intravenous route

Explanation:

Q No. 73. (1) (2) (3) (4)

The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except Ketamine. Ondansetron. Propofol. Dexamethasone

Answer:

Ketamine.

Explanation:

Q No. 74. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are true about exenatide except? Glucagon like peptide analogue Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus Administered subcutaneously Decreases glucagon secretion

Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus

Explanation:

Q No. 75. (1) (2) (3)

Hypothermia is used in all except : Neonatal asphyxia Cardiac surgery Hyperthermia

(4) Answer: Arrylhmia

Arrylhmia

Explanation:

Q No. 76. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Kidney stones is formed by Bumetanide Spironolactone Torsemide Triamterene

Triamterene

Explanation:

Q No. 77. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is false regarding Echinocandins: Available only as intravenous formulation Effective against cryptococcal infections Prevents synthesis of fungal cell wall Used in the treatment of disseminated candidiasis

Effective against cryptococcal infections

Explanation:

Q No. 78. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following statements regarding Aliskiren is True: It produces dose dependent reduction in plasma renin activity It inhibits renin secretion Both A and B None of the above

Answer:

It produces dose dependent reduction in plasma renin activity

Explanation:

Q No. 79. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Weight gain is least with which of the following atypical antipsychotic: Clozapine Ziprasidone Olanzapine Risperidone

Ziprasidone

Explanation:

Q No. 80. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Varenicline is used in the treatment of: Opioid addiction Smoking cessation Obesity Alcoholism

Smoking cessation

Explanation:

Q No. 81. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is wrong match in metabolizing CCB-CYP3A Carvedilol - CYP2 D6 Simvastatin - glucoronide conjugation Digoxin -p glycoprotein

Simvastatin - glucoronide conjugation

Explanation:

Q No. 82. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Clofarabin is a Alkylating agent Anti metabolite Antibiotic Cell cycle non specific agent

Anti metabolite

Explanation:

Q No. 83.

Which one of the following is a FDA-approved drug for newly diagnosed glioblastoma multiformae (GBM) in combination with radiotherapy

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Temsirolimus Busalphan Temozolamide Thalidomide

Temozolamide

Explanation:

Q No. 84. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Abacavir is a nucleoside transcription inhibitor that carries which side effect unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? Fanconi's anemia Hypersensitivity reaction Lactic acidosis Lipoatrophy

Hypersensitivity reaction

Explanation:

Q No. 85. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which one of the following statements is faise regarding vincristine? It is an alkaloid Its use is associated with neurotoxicity It does not cause alopecia It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukemia

It does not cause alopecia

Explanation:

Q No. 86. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A 16-yr-old boy is suspected of having legionellosis. Which of the following is the most useful test for prompt diagnosis of Legionella pneumonia? Culture of respiratory secretions Detection of antigen in respiratory secretions Detection of antigen in urine Serologic testing for IgM antibodies

Answer: Detection of antigen in urine

Explanation:

Q No. 87.

A 4-wk-old infant has the history of gagging and gasping episodes of acute onset, with mild cough and rhinorrhea. The infant is afebrile and appears well, and findings on lung auscultation are normal. Complete blood count reveals hemoglobin 12.0 gm/dL, WBC count 42,000/mm3 (10% neutrophils, 3% monocytes, 87% lymphocytes), and platelet count 650,000/mm3. The most likely etiologic agent of this illness is: Chlamydia trachomatis Rhinovirus Bordetella pertussis Group B streptococci

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Bordetella pertussis

Explanation: Leukocytosis (15,000-100,000 cells/mm3) due to absolute lymphocytosis is characteristic in the catarrhal stage of pertussis Q No. 88. A 12-yr-old boy presents to the emergency department with a nail puncture wound of his foot. The injury occurred 1 hr ago in a school play yard. His wound is cleansed and debrided. His last tetanus immunization was at age 4 yr, as confirmed in his medical records. Which of the following is recommended? Tetanus vaccination alone Tetanus vaccination plus tetanus immune globulin Td None of the above: no immunization is necessary

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Td

Explanation: A tetanus toxoid booster (preferably Td) is given to all persons with any wound if their tetanus immunization status is unknown or incomplete. A booster is given to injured persons who have completed their primary immunization series if (1) the wound is clean and minor but more than 10 yr have passed since the last booster, or (2) the wound is more serious and more than 5 yr have passed since the last booster. With delayed wound care, active immunization should be started at once Q No. 89. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Sweet-smelling odor All of the following may be clues to anaerobic infection except: Pus that shows no growth on routine laboratory testing Highly variable morphology of organisms seen on Gram stain Sweet-smelling odor Gas formation in tissues

Explanation: Anaerobic infections should be suspected with foulsmelling pus, which is present in half of anaerobic infections. In addition, the culture may be negative if the specimen is not handled properly under anaerobic conditions Q No. 90. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Fever Manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia include all of the following except: Fever Conjunctivitis Cough Tachypnea

Explanation:

Q No. 91. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All of the following are requirements for the diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis except: Asthma Immediate cutaneous reactivity to Aspergillus fumigatus antigens by RAST Peripheral eosinophilia Pulmonary hyperinflation and hilar lymphadenopathy

Pulmonary hyperinflation and hilar lymphadenopathy

Explanation: Hyperinflation due to air trapping is not always noted with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, nor is hilar lymphadenopathy. The inflammatory response does not necessarily produce either of these lesions. Q No. 92. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Sporothrix schenckii A 4-yr-old girl develops nodular lymphangitis after being bitten by a cat. The most likely etiologic agent is: Mycobacterium marinum Nocardia brasiliensis Pasteurella multocida Sporothrix schenckii

Explanation:

Q No. 93. (1) (2) (3)

All of the following may be manifestations of parvovirus B19 infection except: Facial rash ("slapped-cheek" appearance) Lacy, reticulated rash over the trunk and proximal extremities Arthritis

(4) Answer:

Transient reversal of the CD4:CD8[HBJ3] ratio

Transient reversal of the CD4:CD8[HBJ3] ratio

Explanation: The rash occurs in three stages, which are not always clinically distinguishable. After the initial "slapped-cheek" appearance, the rash spreads to become a lacy, reticulated rash over the trunk and proximal extremities. Arthritis and arthralgia are much more common in adults, especially in females, than in children. The transient arrest of erythropoiesis is usually clinically silent in previously healthy persons. Q No. 94. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Kaposi sarcoma All of the following tumors are associated with Epstein-Barr virus except: Burkitt lymphoma Kaposi sarcoma Leiomyosarcoma Lymphoproliferative disease in immunocompromised persons

Explanation: EBV is associated with several malignancies, including nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin disease, and lymphoproliferative diseases and leiomyosarcomas in immunocompromised persons. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with HHV-8.) Q No. 95. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Naegleria infection An 8-yr-old child presents with meningitis and encephalitis of acute onset in late summer after swimming in a pond of stagnant water. The most likely etiology is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection Herpes simplex virus infection Mucor infection Naegleria infection

Explanation:

Q No. 96. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Syphilis

The radiologist calls to report that a plain x-ray that you ordered to evaluate a hip-click shows periostitis. This finding suggests congenital infection by which of the following agents? Cytomegalovirus and rubella virus Toxoplasma gondii Syphilis Herpes simplex virus

Explanation: Periostitis, occurring in the long bones, is most typical of congenital syphilis. Osteochondritis is a common finding in congenital cytomegalovirus, rubella, and syphilis infections Q No. 97. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Removal of the central line and amphotericin B therapy The recommended treatment of a central line infection due to Candida is: Amphotericin B therapy Flucytosine therapy Removal of the central line and amphotericin B therapy Removal of the central line and flucytosine therapy

Explanation:

Q No. 98.

The microbiology laboratory calls to report that an organism has been detected in a blood culture, and the rapid germ tube test is positive. Which of the following organisms has been identified?

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Aspergillus Candida albicans Candida krusei Cryptococcus

Candida albicans

Explanation:

Q No. 99.

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

An otherwise healthy 5-yr-old girl presents with focal back pain of insidious onset. Her father is a pigeon fancier, and the child helps him care for the pigeons. Her past medical history is also remarkable for an episode of "bronchitis" 1 yr ago. A plain film of the back reveals destruction of the T8 vertebral body. The most likely diagnosis is: Aspergillosis Blastomycosis Cryptococcosis Histiocytosis

Cryptococcosis

Explanation:

Q No. 100. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A 17-yr-old boy with cystic fibrosis develops recurrent bronchospasm and transient pulmonary infiltrates. Laboratory testing reveals mycelia in the sputum, and a peripheral eosinophilia. The most likely causative organism is: Burkholderia cepacia Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Aspergillus Malassezia furfur

Answer: Aspergillus

Explanation: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis complicates chronic pulmonary disease in approximately 10% of persons with cystic fibrosis. Q No. 101. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Snuffles All of the following are characteristic manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome except: Snuffles Intrauterine growth retardation Cataracts Structural cardiac defects

Explanation: Congenital rubella affects virtually all organ systems. Snuffles is a sign of congenital syphilis Q No. 102. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Aphthous stomatitis All of the following may be manifestations of enterovirus infection except Aseptic meningitis Herpangina Hand, foot, and mouth disease Aphthous stomatitis

Explanation: Infections due to enteroviruses have a wide spectrum of clinical manifestations. Herpangina is usually caused by echovirus type 9. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is usually caused by coxsackievirus A16. Diarrhea is probably less common than istaught.

Q No. 103.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome Kawasaki disease Toxic shock syndrome Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

Explanation:

Q No. 104. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Inclusion bodies seen in Lymphogranulona venereum is known as Halbertaedter Prawazek (HP) bodies. Levinthal-Cole-Lille (LCL) inclusion bodies. Bollinger body Miyagawa corpuscles.

Miyagawa corpuscles.

Explanation:

Q No. 105. (1) (2) (3) (4)

An intern got pricked during ward duties. He had received full vaccination course for Hepatitis B 3 yrs back and now he want to see the anti Hbs Ab in his blood. The protective level of Ab are

Answer:

Explanation:

Q No. 106. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with: Nitric acid. Oxalic acid. Carbolic acid. Acetic acid

Carbolic acid.

Explanation:

Q No. 107. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The following documents are exceptions to oral evidence in court except: Postmortem reports. Dying declaration. Reports of Mint Officers. Chemical Examiner's reports.

Postmortem reports.

Explanation:

Q No. 108. (1) (2)

Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown: Between 12-24 hours Between 2-3 days

(3) (4) Answer:

Between 4-5 days Between 5-7 days

Between 2-3 days

Explanation:

Q No. 109. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Pure aryans have which type of skull : Mesaticephalic Brachycephalic Dolicocephalic None of the above

Dolicocephalic

Explanation:

Q No. 110. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Elliptical,

Double edge sword produces which type of wound Triangular, Elliptical, Wedge shape, Oval.

Explanation:

Q No. 111. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Tribadism

Lesbianism is also called as Tribadism Eonism Sodomy Onanism

Explanation:

Q No. 112. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Holland

Euthanasia is legalized in Holland USA UK All

Explanation:

Q No. 113. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: hypoxia

Gordon classification is for type of Spine fracture hypoxia Intracranial hemorrhage Firearm

Explanation:

Q No. 114. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Glass jaw is seen with Phosphorus Iodine Chlorine Sulphonamide

Answer: Phosphorus

Explanation:

Q No. 115. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Thalium

Hair loss is a major sign of poisoning by:

Iron Arsenic Thalium Antimony

Explanation:

Q No. 116. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: phase 6

As per WHO, H1NI influenza pandemic is in which phase? phase 3 phase 4 phase 5 phase 6

Explanation:

Q No. 117. (1) (2) (3) (4)

IQ of 98 is what level of intelligence Idiot Normal Superior Near genius

Answer: Normal

Explanation:

Q No. 118. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: ++ (2+)

Under RNTCP sputum sample slide with 3 AFB per oil immersion field will be reported as: scanty + (1+) ++ (2+) +++ (3+)

Explanation:

Q No. 119. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Recommended dose of Oseltamavir for a 9 month old baby for treating swine flu is: 2 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 2.5 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 3 mg/ kg twice daily for five days 3.5 mg/ kg twice daily for five days

3 mg/ kg twice daily for five days

Explanation:

Q No.

What should be the maximum size of openings in a mosquito net?

120. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 0.0475 inch in diameter 0.0475 inch in diameter 0.0475 cm in diameter 0.475 inch in diameter 0.475 cm in diameter

Explanation:

Q No. 121. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 1954

Prevention of food adulteration act was enacted in: 1964 1954 1974 1984

Explanation:

Q No. 122. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is included as "proximate principles" of nutrition? Iron Vitamin A Carbohydrate Calcium

Carbohydrate

Explanation:

Q No. 123. (1) (2) (3) (4)

The "water act" passed in 1974 deals with: Provision of adequate drinking water Prevention of water pollution Provision of adequate irrigation water Provision for digging of wells

Answer: Prevention of water pollution

Explanation:

Q No. 124. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 4.5

An Anganwadi centre functions for how many hours a day? 3.5 4.5 6 4

Explanation:

Q No. 125. (1) (2) (3) (4)

As per the juvenile justice act, a juvenile is defined as:

Answer:

Explanation:

Q No. 126. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

"RHIME" is: A form of verbal autopsy A mode of imparting non formal education A method of behaviour therapy A new hormonal contraceptive

A form of verbal autopsy

Explanation:

Q No. 127. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 70%

As per NFHS 3 data, what is the prevalence of anaemia in children 6 to 59 months: 50% 60% 70% 80%

Explanation:

Q No. 128. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 8

What is the total number of goals in the Millennium Development Goals : 20 10 8 6

Explanation:

Q No. 129. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 6%

What is the minimum recommended consumption level of PUFA by the WHO/ FAO expert group on diet, nutrition and prevention of chronic diseases: 5% 6% 8% 10%

Explanation:

Q No. 130. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following age group comprises the young age dependant population?

Explanation:

Q No. 131. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Cat IV

A tuberculosis patient with only rifampicin resistance will be treated under which category as per RNTCP 2010 guidelines? Cat I Cat II Cat III Cat IV

Explanation:

Q No. 132. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is not a criteria for neonatal tetanus elimination:

Explanation:

Q No. 133. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

What is Sanchol: Hormonal contraceptive Cholera Vaccine Nutritional supplement Pesticide

Cholera Vaccine

Explanation:

Q No. 134. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: MMR

Thrombocytopenia is adverse reaction of which vaccine BCG DPT MMR Hep B

Explanation:

Q No. 135. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Under "SABLA" scheme implemented under ICDS, the beneficiaries comprises of the age group:

10-19 years 11-15 years 11-18 years

Answer: 11-18 years

Explanation:

Q No.

Samters triad includes all except

136. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Nasal polyp Bronchial asthma Situs inversus Salycylate sensityvity

Situs inversus

Explanation:

Q No. 137. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Ortners syndrome is Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve + cardiomegaly Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve + lung hamartoma Paralysis of phrenic nerve + cardiomegaly Paralysis of phrenic nerve + GERD

Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve + cardiomegaly

Explanation:

Q No. 138. (1) (2)

All are true about Henneberts Sign except It is a positive fistula sign in the absence of fistula Seen in congenital syphilis

(3) (4) Answer:

It is due to excessive mobile stapes It is also positive in tuberculosis

It is also positive in tuberculosis

Explanation:

Q No. 139. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 1.3:1

Lever ratio between the handle of malleus and long process of incus is 1:2 1.1:1 1.3:1 1.5:1

Explanation:

Q No. 140. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Mc Govern's technique is used in the management of Nasal synechiae Unilateral choanal atresia Bilateral choanal atresia CSF rhinorrhoea

Answer: Bilateral choanal atresia

Explanation:

Q No. 141. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Acoustic neuroma involves Superior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve Auditory part of 8th cranial nerve 7th cranial nerve Inferior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve

Inferior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve

Explanation:

Q No. 142. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Steeple sign is seen in Croup AC Epiglotitis Normal variant All of the above

All of the above

Explanation:

Q No. 143. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Nerve of the pterygold canal Is also known as Arnolds nerve Vidian nerve Nerve of Kuntz Criminal nerve of grassi

Vidian nerve

Explanation:

Q No. 144. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: false cords

Dysphonia plica ventricularis is a condition in which voice is produced by true cord false cords arytenoids oesophagus

Explanation:

Q No. 145. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Krauses node -which is true ? Most superior node of lateral group of retropharyngeal node Enlargement of these node compresses on CN IX,X,XI Nodes situated in optic foramen Nodes situated behind the clavicle

Nodes situated in optic foramen

Explanation:

Q No. 146. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 10mm

Radius of curvature of the anterior surface of an adult crystalline lens with accommodation at rest is 7 mm 8mm 9mm 10mm

Explanation:

Q No. 147. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Is a sweat gland Glamd of mall gland of zeus Merbromin gland all of the above

Glamd of mall

Explanation:

Q No. 148. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 2yrs

Adult size of the cornea is attained by the age of 2yrs 3yrs 5yrs 9yrs

Explanation:

Q No. 149. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Circulars iritis major is formed by the anastomoses of long posterior ciliary arteries with short posterior ciliary arteries Anterror ciliary with short posterior ciliary Long posterior ciliary with anterior ciliary Long posterior ciliary with anterior conjunctival artery

Answer:

Long posterior ciliary with anterior ciliary

Explanation:

Q No. 150. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 5.5mm

Diameter of the macula lutea is 1.5 3.5 4.5 5.5mm

Explanation:

Q No. 151. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

See saw nystagmus all are true except: Pendular Nystagmus eye elevates and extorts causes include parasellar tumour bitemporal hemianopia

eye elevates and extorts

Explanation:

Q No. 152. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: AR

Most common form of inheritance of retinitis pigmentosa is AD AR X-linked Sporadic

Explanation:

Q No. 153. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Inverted purikinje image are seen on Anterior surface of cornea Posterior surface of cornea Anterior surface of lens Posterior surface of lens

Posterior surface of lens

Explanation:

Q No. 154. (1)

"Crumbled chesse and ketchup" or "pizza pie" appearance is seen in HIV

(2) (3) (4) Answer:

Cytomegalavirus Toxoplasmosis Herpes simplex

Cytomegalavirus

Explanation:

Q No. 155. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 3D

Alteration of 1 mm in axial length of the eye results in ametropis of many diaptress 1D 2D 3D 4D

Explanation:

Q No. 156. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The common associated changes in alports syndrome include all except platelet defect Proteinuria is frequently seen in males Haemolytic anaemia leiomyomatosis of esophagus

Haemolytic anaemia

Explanation:

Q No. 157. (1) (2) (3)

An epileptic syndrome ,manifestation by aphasia,along with regression of milestone dandy walker syndrome refsum disease tuberous sclerosis

(4) Answer:

landou klefner syndrome

landou klefner syndrome

Explanation:

Q No. 158. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are true except about lab finding of dengue fever electrocardiogram may show sinus tachycardia Mild acidosis, increased transaminase values, hypoproteinemia

electrocardiogram may show sinus tachycardia

Explanation:

Q No. 159. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Regarding prasugrel, a newer antiplatelet drug it is an 5-HT2A antagonist it is shortacting is a prodrug exhibits high inter-individual variablity in platelet response

is a prodrug

Explanation:

Q No. 160. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: fever.

In Brugada syndrome VF episodes are precipitated most with exercise. catecholamines. quinidine. fever.

Explanation:

Q No. 161. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following investigation has the highest sensitivity for diagnosing myocarditis CK-MB isoform Indium -111 antimyosin scintigraphy myocardial biopsy echocardiography

Indium -111 antimyosin scintigraphy

Explanation:

Q No. 162. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A 5-day-old appropriate-for-gestational age male presents with tachypnea, poor feeding, and lethargy. On examination, the neonate appears in shock with hypotension, pallor, and poor capillary refill. Among the following, which is the most likely diagnosis? tetrology of Fallot tricuspid atresia transposition of the great vessels hypoplastic left heart syndrome

Answer: hypoplastic left heart syndrome

Explanation: Hypoplastic left heart syndrome typically presents within the first few days to weeks of life with tachypnea, lethargy, and poor feeding. The condition of the neonate worsens dramatically with closing of the PDA. Cyanosis may not be obvious initially, but patients develop a grayish blue color of the skin which results from a mix of cyanosis and hypoperfusion. As the PDA closes, progressive shock will develop. The other cyanotic heart lesions listed are more likely to present with cyanosis and tachypnea rather than shock

Q No. 163. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The primary biochemical lesion in homozygotes with familial hypercholesterolemia the loss of apoprotein B the malfunctioning of acyl CoA cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT) the functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for low density lipoproteins the increased production of low density lipoproteins

the functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for low density lipoproteins

Explanation:

Q No. 164. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of infective endocarditis antiphase I IgG antibody titer for Coxiella brunetti > 1:800 new partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve single positive blood culture for coagulase negative staphylococci rheumatoid factor

rheumatoid factor

Explanation:

Q No. 165. (1) (2) (3) (4)

DNA microsatellite - best description Single locus 2 - 4 base pairs repeats DNA fragments CAG repeat poly A tailing

Answer: Single locus 2 - 4 base pairs repeats

Explanation:

Q No. 166. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Changes least likely with familial colonic cancer APC gene mutation DNA repair gene mutation Chromosomal translocation Microsatellite instability

Chromosomal translocation

Explanation:

Q No. 167. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A newborn is presented with what appear to be large pupils that do not constrict to light. There is no family history of similar ocular findings. An appropriate study to be performed in the future is: CT scan of the head and orbit Visual evoked potentials Renal ultrasound study Cocaine test

Answer: Renal ultrasound study

Explanation: In aniridia, the pupils look large and nonreactive. Because children so affected are at risk for Wilms tumor, renal ultrasound study is indicated.

Q No. 168. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: HSV- 2

Mollatet's meningitis is associated with which of the following viral infection : Measles CMV HSV- 2 Polio virus

Explanation:

Q No. 169. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Inverted champagne bottle muscle atrophy occurs in ? Duchenne Muscle dystrophy Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Peroneal Muscle atrophy Progressive Muscular Atrophy

Peroneal Muscle atrophy

Explanation:

Q No. 170. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: TIA

ABCD2 Scoring system is used in

stroke TIA Dementia MCI (Minimum cognitive impairment)

Explanation:

Q No. 171. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Oral drug recently approved for treatment of multiple sclerosis is glatiramer alemtuzumab Fingolimod metothrexate

Answer: Fingolimod

Explanation:

Q No. 172. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: DMD

Steroids can be given in which of the following muscular dystrophy LGMD DMD FSMD myotonic

Explanation:

Q No. 173. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

REM sleep disorder is associated with which disease in future: alzemier's disease parkinsonism motor neuron disease huntington's chorea

parkinsonism

Explanation:

Q No. 174. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Mutations in the glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene associated with Gaucher's disease are also associated with an increased risk of Idiopathic Parkinsonism Alzheimers Wilson disease Halloverdan spatz

Idiopathic Parkinsonism

Explanation: Mutations in the glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene associated with Gaucher's disease are also associated with an increased risk of idiopathic PD. Again the mechanism is not precisely known, but it is noteworthy that it is associated with altered autophagy and lysosomal function, suggesting that mutations in this gene might also impair protein clearance leading to PD.

Q No. 175. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Face of Giant Panda" on MRI is classically seen in Wilsons disease hallervorden-spatz disease Neuroacantocytosis sturge weber syndrome

Wilsons disease

Explanation:

Q No. 176. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following antibiotics has the weakest association with the development of Clostridium difficile- associated disease? Ceftriaxone Ciprofloxacin &Moxifloxacin Clindamycin Piperacillin/tazobactam

Piperacillin/tazobactam

Explanation:

Q No. 177. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All of the following statements regarding Kawasaki disease are true except: It occurs in outbreaks Exposure to an affected patient greatly increases therisk of the disease Asian children have the highest risk 80% of patients are younger than 5 yr of age

Exposure to an affected patient greatly increases therisk of the disease

Explanation:

Q No. 178. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 50%

A 6-yr-old girl is diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. In advising her parents about the probability of persistence of active disease into adulthood, you cite which of the following? All symptoms will resolve by age 21 5-10% 50% 90% 99%

Explanation:

Q No. 179. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Clubbing is a feature of all the following except Aortic dissection Tricuspid atresia Fungal endocarditis Pulmonary AV fistula

Aortic dissection

Explanation:

Q No. 180. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is the correct statement regarding JVP findings? Cannon 'a' wave: Tricuspid regurgitation Rapid, deep 'y' descent: tricuspid regurgitation Giant c wave: tricuspid stenosis Increased JVP with prominent pulsations: SVC obstruction

Rapid, deep 'y' descent: tricuspid regurgitation

Explanation:

Q No. 181. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following, except: Large VSD with pulmonary hypertension Small muscular VSDs Tricuspid regurgitation with no pulmonary hypertension Aortic stenosis

Aortic stenosis

Explanation:

Q No. 182. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is true regarding ARDS?

Explanation:

Q No. 183. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All the following are associated with a decreased sense of smell except head trauma HIV infection influenza B infection parainfluenza virus type 3 infection

influenza B infection

Explanation:

Q No. 184. (1) (2) (3)

All of the following statements regarding congenital neuromuscular disorders are true except: Most are hereditary Most are nonprogressive conditions The definitive diagnosis is best made by electromyography (EMG)

(4) Answer:

Diagnosis for some disorders may be confirmed by genetic analyses of lymphocytes

The definitive diagnosis is best made by electromyography (EMG)

Explanation:

Q No. 185. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: t (8;21)

Granulocytic sarcomas are associated with which cytogenitic abnormality t (8;21) t (15;174) inv (16 del (5q)

Explanation:

Q No. 186. (1) (2) (3)

Deficiency of which molecule causes hypercholesterolemia manganese molybdenum lead

(4) Answer: manganese

vanadium

Explanation:

Q No. 187. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is associated with all of the following Except: Short P-R interval Slow upstroke of QRS complex Renal tubular acidosis Ebstein anomaly

Renal tubular acidosis

Explanation:

Q No. 188. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The drug of choice of SSPE is adenosine piracetam isoprinosine co -enzymee -Q

isoprinosine

Explanation:

Q No. 189. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Disorders associated with complete heart block include all of the following Except: Maternal systemic lupus erythematosus Kearns-Sayre syndrome Rheumatoid arthritis Cardiac rhabdomyoma

Rheumatoid arthritis

Explanation:

Q No. 190. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All of the following statements regarding hereditary spherocytosis are true Except: Individuals with hereditary spherocytosis may be asymptomatic without anemia The newborn with hereditary spherocytosis may present with anemia and hyperbilirubinemia severe enough to require phototherapy and exchange transfusions Isoimmune hemolytic anemia due to ABO incompatibility may mimic hereditary spherocytosis Splenectomy does not eliminate most of the hemolysis of hereditary spherocytosis

Splenectomy does not eliminate most of the hemolysis of hereditary spherocytosis

Explanation:

Q No. 191.

A 4-yr-old girl has experienced progressive loss of ambulation over a 2-yr period. On examination, the child is apathetic and uninterested in hersurroundings. She has horizontal nystagmus and optic atrophy. Her voice is dysarthric. She is hypotonic, and her deep tendon reflexes are absent. A sibling died at the age of 6 yr with a similar history. The motor nerve conduction velocities show marked slowing, and computed tomography (CT) of the head shows diffuse symmetric attenuation of the

cerebral and cerebellar white matter. The most likely diagnosis is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Metachromatic leukodystrophy Multiple sclerosis Metachromatic leukodystrophy GM2 gangliosidosis (Tay-Sachs disease) Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis

Explanation: Metachromatic leukodystrophy is a familial degenerative disease affecting both the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system white matter? hence the loss of deep tendon reflexes with CNS symptoms.

Q No. 192. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: copper

Osteoporosis, neutropenia, neurologic symptoms, depigmentation of hair and skin is seen in deficiency of copper chromium selenium molybdenum

Explanation:

Q No. 193. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Causes of spherocytosis include all except thermal injury, clostridial septicemia with exotoxemia, Wilson diseas splenectomy

splenectomy

Explanation:

Q No. 194. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Cardiac manifestations of Kawasaki ds are all except: CHF Pericarditis Coronary artery aneurysm Valve stenosis

Valve stenosis

Explanation:

Q No. 195. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Probable cure of Eisenmenger Syndrome Heart transplantation Lung transplantation Heart- Lung transplantation Bypass Grafting

Answer: Heart- Lung transplantation

Explanation:

Q No. 196. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Causes of large for date baby are all except congenital Hypothyroid constitutional Beckweith-wiedmann syndrome William syndrome

William syndrome

Explanation:

Q No. 197. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Severe vitamin C deficiency may result in all except degeneration of skeletal muscles, cardiac hypertrophy, bone marrow depletion, adrenal hyperplasia

adrenal hyperplasia

Explanation:

Q No. 198. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: meningitis

All are poor prognostic factor of meningococcemia except purpura fulminans meningitis low ESR acidosis

Explanation:

Q No. 199. (1) (2) (3) (4)

All are true about Duchene muscular dystrophies except in terminal stages of the disease, the serum CK value may be considerably higher than it was a few years earlier Other lysosomal enzymes present in muscle, such as aldolase and aspartate aminotransferase, are also increased but are less specific. Cardiac assessment by echocardiography, electrocardiography (ECG), and radiography of the chest is essential and should be repeated periodically Electromyography (EMG) shows characteristic myopathic features but is not specific for Duchenne muscular dystrophy. No evidence of denervation is found. Motor and sensory nerve conduction velocities are normal

Answer: in terminal stages of the disease, the serum CK value may be considerably higher than it was a few years earlier

Explanation:

Q No. 200. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Craniosynostasis with autosomal recessive condition is seen in Apert syndrome Crouzon disease Carpenter syndrome Pfeiffer syndrome

Carpenter syndrome

Explanation:

Q No.

Stage -2 HIE.What is the charecteristic finding?

201. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: lethergy Hyper alert Sympathetic overactivity lethergy Absent dolls eye

Explanation:

Q No. 202.

A 6-wk-old girl has had feeding problems, hypotonia, and emesis for 3 wk. During the last week she developed an erythematous exfoliative generalized rash and partial alopecia. Laboratory data reveal metabolic acidosis, ketosis, and hyperammonemia. The treatment of the patient is best accomplished

by administration of: (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Biotin Biotin Vitamin B1 Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12

Explanation: Treatment with biotin will result in rapid improvement. Biotin is an important cofactor for the fourcarboxylase enzymes in this disorder

Q No. 203.

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Moyamoya disease A brain tumor Neurocysticercosis A brain abscess

A brain abscess

Explanation: This young girl has tetralogy of Fallot and a brain abscess resulting in part from the right-to-left cardiac shunt. Predisposing factors for brain abscesses in other patients include chronic otic and sinus infections. Q No. 204. Hoarseness or aphonia caused by paralysis of the laryngeal nerve is a characteristic sign of which deficiency?

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: B1

B1 B2 B6 B12

Explanation:

Q No. 205. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: klebsiella

Bulging fissure sign is thought to be characteristic of which pneumonia? s.aureus pseudomonas millediosis klebsiella

Explanation:

Q No. 206.

Alexis Carrel was conferred Nobel Prize for his contribution towards?

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Thyroid Diseases Cardiac Surgery Vascular Surgery Organ Transplantation

Vascular Surgery

Explanation:

Q No. 207. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome(SIRS)

Explanation:

Q No. 208. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Cassava

Vegetable inflicted as causing Tropical Chronic Pancreatitis in people of lower socioeconomic status is Beet root Bitter Guard Cassava Broccoli

Explanation:

Q No. 209. (1) (2) (3)

Positive Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage include all except

(4) Answer:

Explanation:

Q No. 210. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are features of Refeeding Syndrome Except: Hypo calcaemia Hypo phosphataemia Hypo magnesaemia Hypo natraemia

Hypo natraemia

Explanation:

Q No. 211. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

What is the common cause of post operative fever in a patient operated for abdominal aortic aneurysm r 48 hrs after surgery Atelectasis of lung Deep wound infection Deep vein Thrombosis Urinary tract infection

Atelectasis of lung

Explanation:

Q No. 212. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A polytrauma patient of 54 yrs is brought to your hospital emergency, he is opening his eyes on calling his name, withdraws his limbs to painful stimuli and is speaking confused. His GCS would be 12 11 13 9

Answer: 11

Explanation:

Q No. 213. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Classic Triad of pericardial tamponade/beck's triad include all except Venous pressure elevation increased arterial pressure muffled heart sounds decreased arterial pressure

increased arterial pressure

Explanation:

Q No. 214. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Indian forehead rhinoplasty done by Sushruta, described in sushrutha samhita is a type of myocutaneous flap osseomyocutaneous flap fasciocutaneous flap advancement flap

fasciocutaneous flap

Explanation:

Q No. 215. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Type of hernia most commonly associated with Congenital Dislocation of Hip Laugier's femoral hernia madyl's inguinal hernia Cloquet's hernia Narath's femoral hernia

Narath's femoral hernia

Explanation:

Q No. 216. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

According to Maastricht Classification of Non heart beating donors belong to category 2 are. cardiac arrest while brain dead dead on arrival at hospital awaiting cardiac arrest after withdrawal of support unsuccessful resuscitation in hospital

unsuccessful resuscitation in hospital

Explanation:

Q No. 217. (1) (2)

Gorlin's Syndrome is also known as Neurofibromatosis Xeroderma pigmentosum

(3) (4) Answer:

Naevoid basal cell carcinoma malignant melanoma

Naevoid basal cell carcinoma

Explanation:

Q No. 218. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Most common type of soft tissue sarcoma found in childhood Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma Synovial sarcoma malignant fibrous histiocytoma dedifferentiated liposarcoma

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

Explanation:

Q No. 219. (1)

Lymph nodes lying anterior to anterior belly of digastric and superior to hyoid bone in neck belong to which lymph node station II B

(2) (3) (4) Answer: IA

II A IB IA

Explanation:

Q No. 220. (1) (2) (3) (4)

BIRADS 1 is given to a mammographic finding of benign finding suspicious abnormality probably benign finding negative finding

Answer: negative finding

Explanation:

Q No. 221. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: BRCA 2

Most common gene to be mutated in male breast cancer is PSA BRCA 1 BRCA 2 MSH 2

Explanation:

Q No. 222.

AMES clinical scoring system is used to risk stratify which group of patients

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

hurtle cell carcinoma anaplastic thyroid cancer parathyroid cancer oral cancer

hurtle cell carcinoma

Explanation:

Q No. 223. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are low grade salivary gland tumour except Adenoid cystic carcinoma Squamous Cell Carcinoma muco-epidermoid carcinoma Acinic Cell Carcinoma

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Explanation:

Q No. 224. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 100%

Likelihood of Medullary thyroid carcinoma developing in a patient with MEN 2 with mutation in RET protooncogene is 50% 70% 100% 75%

Explanation:

Q No. 225. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Following procedure is used for limb reduction in a case of lymphoedema of lower limb. Thompson Palma Lane Taheri

Answer: Thompson

Explanation:

Q No. 226. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Vit-A

All are risk factor for Bladar cancer except Cigarette smoking is believed to contribute to up to 50% of the diagnosed urothelial cancers Chronic cyclophosphamide exposure Phenacetin Vit-A

Explanation:

Q No. 227. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A63-year-old man underwent gastric resection for severe peptic ulcer disease. He had complete relief of his symptoms but developed "dumping syndrome." This patient is most likely to complain of which of the following? Gastric intussusception Repeated vomiting Severe diarrhea Severe vasomotor symptoms after eating

Severe vasomotor symptoms after eating

Explanation: Dumping syndrome is a symptom complex ocurring after gastric surgery. It is characterized by fatigue, abdominal distension, pain, and vasomotor symptoms caused by the rapid entry of food into the small intestine. Tachycardia, sweating, and feeling lightheaded after eating are symptoms patients may feel. There are two types of dumping syndrome, early and late

Q No. 228. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Protoscopy reveals nonbleeding grade I hemorrhoids and maroon stool and clots coming from the proximal colon. Which of the following is TRUE in the management of lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? Barium enema is a good tool in the early evaluation of massive GI bleeding. Technetium sulfur colloid has excellent sensitivity in localizing lower GI bleeding. Technetium sulfur colloid scan is useful because it may be repeated 24 hours later with single injection. Colonoscopy should be avoided in the evaluation of acute lower GI bleeding

Technetium sulfur colloid has excellent sensitivity in localizing lower GI bleeding.

Explanation:

Technetium sulfur colloid scans have the advantage of immediate availability but the patient must be bleeding when the isotope is injected as the isotope is quickly cleared by the reticuloendothelial system of the liver and spleen

Q No. 229. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Charecteristic feature of pagets cell is Eosinophilic cytoplasm Glycogen mass Multinucleated giant cell Abundant clear cytoplasm

Abundant clear cytoplasm

Explanation:

Q No. 230. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

TYLECTOMY literally means Excision of lymph node Excision of skin Excision of breast Excision of lump

Excision of lump

Explanation:

Q No. 231. (1) (2)

All are true about Pancreatic cancer except Cigarette smoking, obesity, appear to be risk factors Less clear, associations, have been observed for alcohol consumption,

(3) (4)

Helicobacter pylori is not associated with pancreatic cancer Epidemiologic association between diabetes mellitus and pancreatic cancer has also been demonstrated

Answer: Helicobacter pylori is not associated with pancreatic cancer

Explanation:

Q No. 232. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: stomach

Best flap for esophageal repair colon stomach jejunam ileum

Explanation:

Q No. 233. (1) (2) (3)

Percentage of patients with perforated peptic ulcer who show free gas under the diaphragm is a.100 b.90 c.75

(4) Answer: c.75

d.50

Explanation:

Q No. 234. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: b.Hilum

Spleniculi are seen in a.colon b.Hilum c.Liver d.Lungs

Explanation:

Q No. 235. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Medical stone dissolving therapy is used in all except Radio-opaque stone Radio-lucent stone Small stones Normal motility of the gall bladder

Radio-opaque stone

Explanation:

Q No. 236. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

M.C. stone formed in proteus infection of the UTI Triple phosphate stone Uric acid stone Cystine stone Calcium oxalate stone

Triple phosphate stone

Explanation:

Q No. 237. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Most common site of obstruction after prolonged TURP operation? Navicular fossa of urethra Bladder neck Membranous urethra Prostatic urethra

Prostatic urethra

Explanation:

Q No. 238. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A young lady presents with fever, dysuria and pain abdomen. Uncomplicated acute cystitis was diagnosed. Which among the following is not true? Nitrate test positive Urine culture revealing E.coli count < 103bacteria/ml 1 pus cell per 7 fields 1 bacilli per field

Urine culture revealing E.coli count < 103bacteria/ml

Explanation:

Q No. 239. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

In stab injury to abdomen, the momentum was visible outside, vitals - BP-110/70 mmHg. Pt is conscious, next step is Push omentum inside & local injury repair FAST CECT Laparotomy & repair

Laparotomy & repair

Explanation:

Q No. 240. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A patient presented with an abdominal viscera perforation with peritonitis and shock. Airway, breathing and IV fluids for circulation were taken care of. What is the next step of management? Shift the patient immediately to OT - do laparotomy & repair Shift the patient immediately to OT & do the laparoscopic repair Insert an abdominal drain under LA and then take up the patient for surgery Serum electrolyte abnormalities stabilised first & then definitive treatment is given.

Shift the patient immediately to OT - do laparotomy & repair

Explanation:

Q No. 241. (1) (2) (3)

Molar pregnancy is diagnosed in I trimester II trimester III trimester

(4) Answer: I trimester

IV trimester

Explanation:

Q No. 242. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Hydatidiform mole is characterized histologically by Hyaline membrane degeneration Hydropic degeneration of villous stroma Non proliferation of cytotrophoblast Non proliferation of syncytiotrophoblast

Hydropic degeneration of villous stroma

Explanation:

Q No.

Gestational trophoblastic disease with jaundice for treatment best drug is

243. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Methotrexate Adriamycin Actinomycin-D Cyclophosphamide

Actinomycin-D

Explanation:

Q No. 244. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Villi

Not a histological marker of choriocarcinoma Villi Cytotrophoblast Syncytiotrophoblast Bizarre nuclei

Explanation:

Q No. 245. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Commonly used grading abruption placenta Page Johnson Macafee Apt

Answer: Page

Explanation:

Q No. 246. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are causes of antepartum haemorrhage except Placenta previa Abruptioplacentae Circumvallete placenta Battledore placenta

Battledore placenta

Explanation:

Q No. 247.

Singers alkali denaturation test done with

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Maternal haemoglobin Fetal haemoglobin Amniotic fluid Matenal urine

Fetal haemoglobin

Explanation:

Q No. 248. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Fentoni

Which one of the following is not an operation for uterine invasion Osulaivan Haultain Spincecell Fentoni

Explanation:

Q No. 249. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

MC cause of secondary PPH Atonic uterus Retained placenta Iatrogenic injury Medical diseases

Retained placenta

Explanation:

Q No. 250. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 7-7.5

pH range of amniotic fluid at later weeks of gestation is 5.5-6 6-6.5 6.5-7 7-7.5

Explanation:

Q No. 251. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 99%

The percentage of water in liquor amni is 42% 64% 76% 99%

Explanation:

Q No. 252. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

In a patient of magnesium sulphate therapy , usually at what level patellar reflex disappears 6-8 mEq/L 10-12 mEq/L 12-14 mEq/L

10-12 mEq/L

Explanation:

Q No. 253. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which one of the following is not Eclampsia ( severe) Urine output more than 600ml Pulmonary edema 3+ protinuria Convulsions

Urine output more than 600ml

Explanation:

Q No. 254. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are seen in non immune hydrops fetalis except Pericardial effusion Large placenta Skin edema Ascites

Pericardial effusion

Explanation:

Q No. 255. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Haematocolpos causes Retention of urine Primary amenorrhoea Both of above None of the above

Both of above

Explanation:

Q No. 256. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Hobnail cells are seen in Hilus cell tumour Mesonephroid tumer Dysgerminoma Arrhenoblastoma

Mesonephroid tumer

Explanation:

Q No.

Size of ovarian cyst beyond which is considered to be malignant

257. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 7cm 2cm 5cm 7cm 10cm

Explanation:

Q No. 258. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

The best method for evaluation of CA cevix Clinical examination Pap smear Cervical biopsy Colcoscopic examination

Clinical examination

Explanation: Ref; Shaw 15ed/p- 403. Novaks 14 ed/ p- 412.

Q No. 259. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Menstrual abnormality associated with asherman syndrome is Menorrhagia Polymenorrhagia Oligomenorrhoea Amenorrhoea

Amenorrhoea

Explanation: Ref; Shaw 15 ed / p- 288. Q No. 260. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Shirodkar abdominal sling oper ation Treatment for young unmarried nulliparus with prolapse is Vaginal hysterectomy Le Forts operation Shirodkar abdominal sling oper ation Fothergills operation

Explanation:

Q No. 261. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

True regarding mallet finger is Avulsion of tendon at the base of the middle phalanx Avulsion of extensor tendon at the base of the distal phalanx Fracture of distal phalanx Fracture of the proximal phalanx

Avulsion of extensor tendon at the base of the distal phalanx

Explanation:

Q No. 262. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 50%

A 6-yr-old girl is diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. In advising her parents about the probability of persistence of active disease into adulthood, you cite which of the following? All symptoms will resolve by age 21 5-10% 50% 90%

Explanation: Approximately 45% of children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis will have active disease that persists into early adulthood. Q No. 263. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: central dislocation of hip In per rectal examination femoral head is palpable in Anterior dislocation of hip Posterior dislocation of hip Lateral dislocation of hip central dislocation of hip

Explanation: In per rectal examination femoral head is palpable in central dislocation o hip

Q No.

Associated conditions in infants with developmental dysplasia of the hip include all of the following

264. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Except: Breech position Metatarsus adductus Torticollis Muscular dystrophy in males

Muscular dystrophy in males

Explanation: DDH is most often seen in females and may be due to in utero position and laxity of ligaments. Q No. 265. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis A 14-yr-old tall afebrile girl presents with hip pain and an extremely rotated right leg. On examination, internal rotation is limited. The most likely diagnosis is: Legg-Calv-Perthes disease Diskitis Slipped capital femoral epiphysis Osgood-Schlatter disease

Explanation: External rotation, severe pain, and tall stature in an adolescent are important clues. In addition to pain, limitation of internal rotation of the leg is classic.

Q No. 266. (1) (2) (3) (4)

A 13-yr-old gymnast presents with back pain, reduced lumbar lordosis, and sacral kyphosis. The buttocks are flattened, and a step-off is felt in the lumbosacral region. Findings on neurologic examination are normal. The most likely diagnosis is: Spondylolisthesis with spondylolysis Spondylolysis Tethered cord Spina bifida occulta

Answer: Spondylolisthesis with spondylolysis

Explanation:

Q No. 267. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

First muscle affected in compartment syndrome: Flexor Digitorium sublimis Flexor Digitorium profundus Flexor Carpi ulnaris Flexor Carpi radialis

Flexor Digitorium profundus

Explanation:

Q No. 268. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Three point relation is used to differentiate Supracondylar fracture from fracture of: Medial epicondyle Lateral epicondyle Elbow dislocation All of the above

All of the above

Explanation: The 'Three-point relation of both epicondyles & olecranon at elbow joint is maintained in supracondylar fracture of humerus.

Q No. 269. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Chemically, Plaster of Paris (POP) is Calcium carbonate Calcium sulphate Anhydrous calcium sulphate Hemihydrous calcium sulphate

Hemihydrous calcium sulphate

Explanation: (Ref. Essential orthopedics by Maheshwari 2nd ed., 13) Q No. 270. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Teres major Not a component of Rotator cuff : Infraspinatus Teres major Subscapularis Supraspinatus

Explanation:

Q No. 271. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Central neuraxial anesthesia is not contra indicated in: Patient on Aspirin Patient on oral anticoagulant Pt on LV heparin

Answer:

Explanation:

Q No. 272. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Edratide

Noval drug used in Rx of SLE? Enfuvertide Edratide Ecallantide Exenatide

Explanation:

Q No. 273. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

A boy undergoes eye surgery under day care anesthesia with Succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking and develops muscle pain. What is the cause? Early mobilization Due to the effects of eye surgery Succinyl choline Propofol

Succinyl choline

Explanation:

Q No. 274. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Which of the following agent is not given intrathecally in children for caudal anesthesia? Remifentanil Morphine Butorphanol Fentanyl

Answer: Remifentanil

Explanation:

Q No. 275. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Contraindication for neuraxial blockade like epidural and spinal anesthesia all except IV LMWH Aspirin Oral anticoagulant

Answer: Aspirin

Explanation:

Q No. 276. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Esmolol

Which of the following is used for maintaining heart rate in the intraoperative period? Esmolol Metoprolol Procainamide Verapamil

Explanation:

Q No. 277. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

'Train of four' relates to? Malignant hyperthermia Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers Mechanical ventilation To check hemodynamic parameters

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Explanation:

Q No. 278. (1) (2)

Not true regarding sevoflurane: MAC is higher than isoflurane Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane

(3) (4) Answer:

Potency more than isoflurane Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane

Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane

Explanation:

Q No. 279. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which of the following is true regarding propofol? It is used in day care anesthesia It is contraindicated in porphyria Commercial preparation contain egg extract It does not cause airway irritation

It is contraindicated in porphyria

Explanation:

Q No. 280. (1) (2) (3) (4)

All regarding Mivacurium are true except Larger doses speed the onset of action Bronchospasm Flushing Hypertension

Answer: Hypertension

Explanation:

Q No. 281. (1) (2) (3) (4)

All are true except about Patch Tests Patch testing is designed to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the skin for twenty four hour The dressings are removed, and the area is examined for evidence of delayed hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., erythema, edema, or papulovesicles). This test is best performed by physicians with special expertise in patch testing and is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic dermatitis

Answer: In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the skin for twenty four hour

Explanation: Patch testing is designed to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected allergens is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the

skin for 48 h. The dressings are removed, and the area is examined for evidence of delayed hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., erythema, edema, or papulovesicles). This test is best performed by physicians with special expertise in patch testing and is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic dermatitis

Q No. 282. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 360

A Wood's lamp generates _____nm ultraviolet 360 400 420 480

Explanation:

Q No. 283. (1) (2) (3) (4)

a Wood's lamp will cause erythrasma (a superficial, intertriginous infection caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum) to show a characteristic ________colour white green ashleaf deep blue coral pink

Answer: coral pink

Explanation:

Q No. 284. (1) (2) (3) (4)

All are true about Tzanck Smear except A Tzanck smear is a cytologic technique most often used in the diagnosis of herpesvirus infections [herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)] . An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the edge of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade. The material is placed on a glass slide, air-dried, and stained with Giemsa or Wright's stain.. Multinucleated epithelial giant cells suggest the presence of HSV or VZV; culture or immunofluorescence testing must be performed to identify the specific virus

Answer: An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the edge of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade.

Explanation: A Tzanck smear is a cytologic technique most often used in the diagnosis of herpesvirus infections [herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)] ( An early vesicle, not a pustule or crusted lesion, is unroofed, and the base of the lesion is scraped gently with a scalpel blade. The material is placed on a glass slide, air-dried, and stained with Giemsa or Wright's stain. Multinucleated epithelial giant cells suggest the presence of HSV or VZV; culture or immunofluorescence testing must be performed to identify the specific virus

Q No. 285. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Spongiosis is__________edema of epidermis intercelluler intracelluler both inter & intra celluler cytoplasmic

intercelluler

Explanation:

Q No. 286. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Commonest psoriasis is plaque type inverse type guttate pustular

plaque type

Explanation:

Q No. 287. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Inverse psoriasis affects knee naval scalp none

naval

Explanation:

Q No. 288. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Wickhams striae is seen in psoriasis contact dermatitis lichen planus none

lichen planus

Explanation: Lichen planus (LP) is a papulosquamous disorder that may affect the skin, scalp, nails, and mucous membranes. The primary cutaneous lesions are pruritic, polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules. Close examination of the surface of these papules often reveals a network of gray lines (Wickham's striae). The skin lesions may occur anywhere but have a predilection for the wrists, shins, lower back, and genitalia (Fig. 53-5). Involvement of the scalp, lichen planopilaris, may lead to scarring alopecia, and nail involvement may lead to permanent deformity or loss of fingernails and toenails. LP commonly involves mucous membranes, particularly the buccal mucosa, where it can present a spectrum of disease from a mild, white, reticulate eruption of the mucosa, to a severe, erosive stomatitis. Erosive stomatitis may persist for years and may be linked to an increased risk of oral squamous cell carcinoma. Cutaneous eruptions clinically resembling LP have been observed after administration of numerous drugs, including thiazide diuretics, gold, antimalarials, penicillamine, and phenothiazines, and in patients with skin lesions of chronic graft-versus-host disease. Additionally, LP may be associated with hepatitis C infection. The course of LP is variable, but most patients have spontaneous remissions 6 months to 2 years after the onset of disease. Topical glucocorticoids are the mainstay of therapy.

Q No. 289. (1) (2) (3)

lichen planus associated with hepatitis_________ A B C

(4) Answer: C

Explanation:

Q No. 290. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: penicillin

All are responsible for Lichen planus except antimalarials gold thiazide penicillin

Explanation:

Q No. 291. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

All are the side effect of mirtazapine except Weight gain Somnolence Neutropenia Increased blood pressure

Increased blood pressure

Explanation:

Q No. 292. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Depression is associated with all except Patient with pancreatic cancer Chronic hepatitis C infection Chronic fatigue syndrome Diabetes insipidus

Diabetes insipidus

Explanation:

Q No. 293. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Therapeutic blood level of lithium is 0.8-1.2 meq/L 0.5-1meq/L 01.8-2 meq/L None

0.8-1.2 meq/L

Explanation:

Q No. 294. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: Lithium

Drug of choice o euphoric mania is Lithium Valproate Venlafaxine None

Explanation:

Q No. 295. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Which one is second generation antipsychotics? Aripiprazole Thiothixene Loxapine None

Aripiprazole

Explanation:

Q No. 296. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

Butter fly vertebrae is seen in Down's syndrome Allagille syndrome Wiliams syndrome None

Allagille syndrome

Explanation: Multisystem evaluation reveals posterior embryotoxon and axenfeld anomaly in eye, peripheral pulmonary stenosis on echo, butterfly vertebrae on skeletal survey. Liver biopsy had features of intrahepatic paucity of bile ducts compatible with Alagille syndrome

Q No. 297. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer:

CORNER SIGN is seen in Vit-D deficiency Vit-C def Vit-A def NONE

Vit-C def

Explanation:

Q No. 298. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: all

Features of osteosarcoma on x- ray is/are; moth-eaten appearance sunburst appearance Codman's triangle all

Explanation:

Q No. 299. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Garland pattern of calcifications is seen with hydronephrosis medullary sponge kidney polycystic kidney papillary necrosis

Answer: papillary necrosis

Explanation: Ring sign" on the pyelogram is pathognomonic of papillary necrosis and represents the radiolucent sloughed papilla surrounded by the radiodense contrast material in the calyx. CT may reveal papillary calcifications surrounding the central sinus complex in a "garland" pattern (Fig. 279-1). Transitional cell carcinoma may develop in the urinary pelvis or ureters as a late complication of analgesic abuse.

Q No. 300. (1) (2) (3) (4) Answer: 30%

Radiologic evidence of atlantoaxial subluxation occurs in ______ of patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis 10 % 20% 30% 50%

Explanation: