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RBI ( Asst. ): MOCK TEST - XI

No. of Questions : 200
Name of Student : ____________________________

Time : 2:00 hrs

H.T.No : ____________________________

Read the directions (given below) carefully.

1. This Booklet contains four tests as follows : 140 Test I - Reasoning Q.Nos. Test II - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos. 4180 Test III - English Language Q.Nos. 81120 Test IV - Computer Aptitude Q.Nos. 121160 Test IV - General Awareness Q.Nos. 161200 You will be given an aggregate time of 2:00 hours to answer all the four tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify on each of the four tests separately. Tests of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and General Awareness are printed in English. The English version on the right hand side page. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. 5. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet (given along with the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating your answers. Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering 200 questions. Use 200 answer spaces for answering the 200 questions given in this booklet. Do not open the booklet Until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it to open the booklet. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet.

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BASHA SIR
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RBI ( Asst.) : MOCK TEST - 11
TEST - I : TESTOF REASONING 1. JM is related to PS in the same way as BE is related to __ ? (1)HJ 2. (2) HK (3) IL (4) JM (5) None of these

Howmanymeaningful English words can bemade with the letters ELRU using each letter only once in each word ? . (1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three

3.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Plastic (2) Nylon (3) Polythene (4) Terelyn (5) Silk

4.

In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is MEAN written in that code ? (1) 5216 (2) 3126 (3) 3216 (4) 9126 (5) None of these

5.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Blue (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) Violet (5) Black

6.

Howmany such pairs of letters are there in the word STORM each of which-has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? (1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three

7.

The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53261489 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on.Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement ? (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these

8.

What should come next in the following letter series ? MLKJIHGFMLKJIHGMLKJIHMLKJI (1) K (2) N (3) H (4) M (5) None of these

9.

In a certain code DENIAL is written as MDCMBJ. How is SOURCE written in that code ? (1) TNRFDS (2)RNTFDS (3) TNRSDF (4) TRNDBQ (5) None of these

10. M is sister of D. R is brother of D. F is father of M and T is mother of R. How is D related to T ? (1) Brother (2) Son (3) Daughter (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

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DIRECTIONS (11-15): In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. 11. Statements Conclusions (1) None follows 12. Statements Conclusions (1) Only I follows 13. Statements Conclusions . (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) All I, II and III follow 14. Statements Conclusions (1) None follows 15. Statements Conclusions (1) None follows : Some towns are villages. : I. Some hamlets are villages. (2) Only I follows : Some rivers are hills. : I. Some buses are rivers. (2) Only I follows Some villages are lanes. II. Some lanes are towns. (5) None of these : All stamps are packets. : I. Some tubes are stamps. (2) Only I follows Some packets are buckets. II. Some buckets are stamps. All buckets are tubes. III. Some tubes are packets. (5) Only II and III follow

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows

: All machines are crowns. : I. Some bottles are crowns. (2) Only II follows : All rooms are hotels.

All crowns are tablets.

Some tablets are bottles.

II. Some tablets are machines. III. Some bottles are machines. (4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these All buildings are mountains. Ill. Some mountains are rooms.

(3) Only III follows

All hotels are buildings.

: I. Some mountains are hotels. II. Some buildings are rooms.

Some lanes are hamlets. III. Some hamlets are towns. (5) Only I and II follow

(3) Only II follows No hill is taxi.

(4) Only III follows

All taxis are buses. III. No bus is river. (5) Only either I or III follows

II. Some taxis are rivers.

(3) Only III follows

(4) Only II follows

DIRECTIONS (16- 20): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: E % 3 R 5 # A 6 B I J @ 2 9 H U 4 M 1 * F 7 $ W 8 P N D

16. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ? 35A (1) 7WP (2) 7W8 l@9 (3) $8N 4M* (4) FWP ? (5) None of these

17. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement ? (1) (2)@ (3) 3 (4) P (5) None of these

18. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately;preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol ? (1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three

19. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ? (1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) 4 U (2) 8 W P (3) 6 B A (4) R 3 5 (5) H 9 U

DIRECTIONS (21-25): In the following questions, the symbols@, , $,% and # are used with the following meanings illustrated. P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. P # Q means P is not smaller than Q. P @ Q means P is not greater than Q. P % Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q. P Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

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In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true. 21. Statements Conclusions (1) None is true 22. Statements Conclusions : B % H, H $ E, E @ K : I. K$H II. K$B III. EB (3) Only II is true (4) Only I is true (5) Only I and III are true

(2) Only III is true : M # W, W % N, N $ B : I. N % M II. NM

III. M $ B (2) Only either I or III is true (5) None of these (3) Only either I or II and III are true

(1) Only either I or II is true (4) Only III is true 23. Statements Conclusions (1) None is true 24. Statements Conclusions (1) None is true 25. Statements Conclusions (1) None is true : MT, T#J, J$K : I. KT II. MJ

III. K @ M (3) Only II is true (4) Only I is true (5) Only I and II are true

(2) Only III is true : F # N, N D, D @ R : I. D # F (2) Only I is true : W@F, F$M, MD : I. D $ F (2) Only I is true II. R$N

III. R $ F (3) Only II is true (4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true

II. WM

III. F $ D (4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true

(3) Only II is true

DIRECTIONS (26 - 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. H is fourth to the left of B and second to the right of F. A is third to the left of C who is not an immediate neighbour of F.G is second to the left of A. D is second to the right of E. 26. Who is third to the left of A ? (1) C (2) F (3) B (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

27. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of E ? (1)DH (2)HC (3) CA (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

28. Who is to the immediate right of B ? (1) D (2) E (3) F (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

29. Who is to the immediate right of H ? (1) E (2) C (3) H (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

30. Who is to the immediate right of F ? (1) H (2) A (3) G (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

DIRECTIONS (31-35): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the .group of letters, mark (5) i.e. None of these as your answer. Letter : F 6 P 5 M 4 R * E 8 K 1 D 2 A I 7 H 3 T $ U @ J % W 9

Digit/Symbol : Conditions :

(i) If the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels both are to be coded as the code for the last letter. (iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

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31. MUPRKE (1) 4@5*18 32. HMUIWA (1) 34@79 33. DAHITJ (1) 237$% 34. AJFIKD (1) 1%672 35. EWMAPH (1) 89453 (2) 39458 (3) 89458 (4) 89453 (5) None of these (2) %671 (3) 2%671 (4) 2%6712 (5) None of these (2)%37$% (3)%37$2 (4) 237$2 (5) None of these (2) 34@793 (3) 4@79 (4) 4 793 (5) None of these (2) 8@5*14 (3) 8@5*18 (4) 4@5*14 (5) None of these

DIRECTIONS (36 - 40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History, Geography and Philosophy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also has a favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey,Volleyball, Badminton, Table Tennis and Basketball, not necessarily in the same order. R likes Philosophy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football likes English.Ts favourite sport is not Badminton or Table Tennis. V does not like either History or Biology.The one whose favourite sport is Basketball does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite sport is Volleyball. S likes Geography. Qs favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and his favourite sport is not Basketball. Ps favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is Badminton does not like Biology. 36. Who likes History ? (1) P (2) R (3) Q (4) V (5) Data inadequate

37. Whose favourite sport is Basketball ? (1) S (2) W (3) Q (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

38. Which subject does T like ? (1) Biology (2) Physics (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

39. What is Qs favourite sport ? (1) Cricket (2) Table Tennis (3) Football (4) Badminton (5) None of these

40. Which subject does P like ? (1) History (2) Biology (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

TEST - II : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 41. In howmany different ways can the letters of the word INCREASE be arranged ? (1) 40320 (2)10080 (3) 64 (4)20160 (5) None of these

42. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 8,400/@12.5 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ? (1) Rs.4205.62 (2) Rs.2584.16 (3) Rs.3560.16 (4) Rs.3820.14 (5) None of these

43. What is the area of a circle whose circumference is 1047.2 metres ? (1) 87231. 76 sq.mts. (2) 851 42.28 sq.mts. (3) 79943.82 sq.mts. (4) 78621. 47 sq.mts. (5) 69843.23 sq.mts.

44. The ratio of the ages of a father and son is 1 7 : 7 respectively. 6 years ago the ratio of their ages was 3 : 1 respectively. What is the fathers present age ? (1) 64 (2) 51 (3) 48 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

45. Karan starts a business by investing Rs.60,000/-. 6 months later Shirish joins him by investing Rs.1 ,00,000/-. At the end of one year from the commencement of the business, they earn a profit of Rs.1 ,51 ,800/-. What is Shirishs share of the profit ? (1) Rs.55,200/(2) Rs.82,800/(3) Rs.62,500/(4) Rs.96,600/SSC RRB

(5) None of these

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DIRECTIONS (46 - 50): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 46. 4 6 18 49 (2) 201 72 108 (2) 108 54 300 (2) 1220 27 (2) 218 68 (2) 129 102 64 1220 162 243 201 1011 (3) 18 366 (3) 162 3674 (3) 300 125 (3) 125 129 (3) 145 145 (4) 102 218 (4) 343 154 (5) None of these 7350 (4) 54 343 (5) None of these (5) None of these (4) 243 (5) None of these (4) 49 (5) None of these

(1) 1011 47. 48 (1) 72 48. 2 (1) 3674 49. 8 (1) 27 50. 19 (1) 154

DIRECTIONS (51 - 55): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow : PERCENTAGEOFMARKSOBTAINED BY SIX STUDENTS IN SIX DIFFERENT SUBJECTS Subject Student A B C D E F Maths (out of 150) 74 64 72 78 82 68 English (out of 75) 68 72 84 82 64 72 Science (out of 125) 62 82 78 64 84 74 Hindi (out of 50) 68 68 66 70 72 74 Social Studies (out of 100) 81 63 77 69 65 83 Marathi (out of 25) 74 66 70 84 60 80

51. If to pass in the exam, aminimum of 54 marks in English and minimum 93 marks in Science are required, how many students passed the exam ? (1)One (2) Four (3)Two (4) Three (5) None of these

52. Which student scored the highest marks in all subjects together ? (1) F (2) E (3) B (4) C (5) None of these

53. What are the averagemarks obtained by all students together in Hindi ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 35.02 (2) 32.68 (3) 31.33 (4) 30.83 (5) None of these

54. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by F in all subjects together ? (1) 74 (2) 72 (3) 75 (4)78 (5) None of these

55. What are the total marks obtained by B in Maths and Social Studies together ? (1) 153 (2) 159 (3) 146 (4) 149 (5) None of these DIRECTIONS (56 - 60): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow. NUMBEROF STUDENTS (IN LAKHS) STUDYING IN VARIOUS STANDARDS IN DIFFERENT STATES Standard V VI VII VIII IX X State P 2.5 2.8 4.3 2.9 4.1 4.3 Q 3.2 2.9 4.1 3.0 3.6 2.7 R 2.3 3.2 3.8 3.5 2.9 3.7 S 4.8 2.4 3.6 3.4 3.4 4.3 T 3.1 3.9 4.7 4.0 3.4 4.0 U 3.3 4.2 2.7 4.1 3.6 3.8

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56. Which standard has the highest total number of students from all states together ? (1) VII (2)VIII (3)X (4) IX (5) None of these

57. What is the total number of students studying in Standard VII from StateR and Standard VIII from State S ? (1) 7200000 (2)680000 (3)72000 (4) 6800000 (5) None of these

58. What is the respective ratio of number of students studying in Standard VI of State P to those studying in Standard X of State U ? (1) 7/8 (2)14/19 (3) 6/ 7 (4) 12/ 13 (5) None of these

59. Number of students studying in Standard IX of State T form what percent of total number of students from that State ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 16.84 (2) 12.95 (3) 14.72 (4) 15.34 (5) None of these

60. What is the average number of students studying in Standard V from all states together ? (1) 1800000 (2) 3200000 (3) 180000 (4) 320000 5) None of these

61. 124 + 56 1.5-12 = ? (1) -1890

2 2

(2) 252

(3) 230

(4) 196

(5) None of these

62. (21 .35) +(12.25) = ? (1) 171.4125 (2) 605.885 (3) 604.085 (4) 463.8125 (5) None of these

63. (46351 -36418-4505) ? =1357 (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) None of these

64. 378.35 + 478 12.5 = ? (1) 508.268 (2) 416.59 (3) 425.28 (4) 68.508 (5) None of these

65. 74844 42 ? = 5850 (1) 34 (2) 42 (3) 22 (4) 54 (5) None of these

66. (2640 48) (2240 35) = ? (1) 3520 (2) 3515 (3) 3495 (4) 3490 (5) None of these

67. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ? (1) 14328 (2) 14438 (3) 13428 (4) 13248 (5) None of these

68. (98360 + 25845 36540) 2500 = ? (1) 36585 69. (2) 30082 (3) 32085 (4) 35066 (5) None of these

853 + ? 17 = 1000
(3)2499 (3) 32375 (4)16147 (4) 2545 (5) None of these (5) None of these

(1)2516 (2)2482 70. 35 + 1125 45 325 = ? (1) 18275 (2) 21625

71. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ? (1) 148 (2) 152 (3) 156 (4) 144 (5) None of these

72. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively.If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ? (1) 13 : 10 : 18 (2) 10 : 13 : 17 (3) 13 : 15 : 18 (4) Cannot be determined(5) None of these

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73. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 2335 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ? (1) 64 (2) 56 (3) 106 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

74. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonalis monthly income ? (1) Rs. 42,500 (2) Rs. 38,800 (3) Rs. 40,000 (4) Rs. 35,500 (5) None of these

75. There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second number is 300 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 265. Which is the larger number ? (1) 24 (2) 39 (3) 85 (4) 74 (5) None of these

76. 21 binders can bind 1400 books in 15 days. Howmany binders will be required to bind 800 books in 20 days ? (1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) None of these

77. Prathik sold a music system to Karthik at 20% gain and Karthik sold it to Swasthik at 40% gain.If Swasthik paid Rs. 10,500/- for the music system, what amount did Prathik pay for the same ? (1) Rs.8,240/(2) Rs.7,500/(3) Rs.6,250/(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

78. The average monthly income of a family of four earning members was Rs. 15,130. One of the daughters in the family got married and left home, so the average monthly income of the family came down to Rs. 14,660.What is the monthly income of the married daughter ? (1) Rs. 15,350 (2) Rs. 12,000 (3) Rs. 16,540 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

79. Farah gotmarried 8 years ago. Today her age is 1 2/7 times her age at the time of her marriage.At present her daughters age is one-sixth of her age.What was her daughters age 3 years ago ? (1) 6 years (2) 4 years (3) 3 years (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

80. If 25a + 25b = 115, then what is the average of a and b ? (1) 4.6 (2) 2.5 (3) 4.5 (4) 3.4 (5) None of these

TEST - III : TEST OF ENGLISH Directions(Q. 81-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Bhaskar was a wealthy, wordly wise merchant. On his deathbed, he called his only son, Nakul, and gave him some advice. When you do business and travel to an unknown land, make sure you know the local culture well. Try to gain as much information as you can. This and presence of mind will come to your rescue. Bhaskar died a few days later and Nakul began looking after the business. Once, he travelled by ship to a distant country where he stayed at an inn. He began talking to the owner and ended up telling him all about his life and the business had come to conduct. The following day, Nakul was heading to the bustling market when a one armed man rushed up to him and said, Your father took one of my arms as a loan. You must return it to me. Not knowing what to do, Nakul asked the man to meet him the next day. A little later, a woman came upto Nakul and said, Your father married me and would send me money every month. This responsibility is now yours. Again Nakul asked for a days respite and walked on. On the way he stopped at a tavern and ate breakfast. While paying for his meal the owner said, The only payment I want is for you to make me happy. Though he had to pay only two coins, Nakul gave the man five, but the man still maintained that he was unhappy. That evening Nakul met a man who invited him to a game of dice. Unaware they were playing with a trick dice, he lost every game. The winner set him an unusual condition, Drink all the water in the sea or give me all the goods on your ship. Nakul said he would give him his decision the next day. That night as Nakul lay on his bed, he remembered his fathers words, In a foreign land only your wits will come to your aid.

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The next morning, as soon as he reached the marketplace, the one armed man appeared. Nakul smiled when he saw him and said, My father took many such loans and our house is full of hands. I shall take your other arm, find the matching one and repay you. The man ran away petrified. He then approached the woman who claimed to have been married to his father. My father was wrong not to tell us about you. Come home with me and help my mother in the fields. The woman left without a word. Next, Nakul went to the tavern and standing outside shouted, Hail the King ! Your king is great ! I am happy to hear you say that, was the only response the tavern owner could give. If you are happy, continued Nakul, I have paid for my meal. Nakul then sought out the man who had won at dice the previous night. I shall gladly drink all the water in the sea provided you bring me the water in jugs. The man made a quick getaway when he heard this. Nakul returned home after conducting much business. He was far richer in wisdom too. 81. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ? (1) Nakul preferred sailing to working in the fields with his mother. (2) Bhaskars second wife was a greedy woman. (3) Bhaskar did not have faith in Nakuls ability to successfully run the business. (1) None (2) Only (1) (3) Both (1) & (3) (4) Both (2) & (3) (5) Only (2)

82. Why did Nakul visit a far-away country ? (1) It was his fathers final request (3) To mee some of his fathers acquaintances (2) To acquire knowledge about a different culture (4) To trade and do business (5) None of these

83. How did Nakul manage to deal with the people who tried to swindle him ? (1) His father provided him with the solution in a dream. (3) He gave into their demands and paid them off. (1) None (2) Only (2) (3) Only (3) (4) Both (1) & (2) (5) None of these (2) He threatened them with dire punishment.

84. Why wasnt Nakul able to win any of the games while gambling ? (1) He was not a skilful player (3) The other players were cheating with a trick dice (5) None of these 85. Which of the following best describes the one armed mans reaction when he met Nakul for the second time ? (1) He was upset because Nakul refused to honour the debt his father owed him (2) He was angry at Nakul for laughing at his plight (3) He was frightened since Nakul had threatened to cut-off his remaining arm (4) He was worried about what action Nakul would take against him for trying to cheat him (5) He admired Nakul for outwitting him. 86. Why did Nakul confide in the innkeeper ? (1) The innkeeper was an old friend of his father (2) He was drunk and unaware he was confiding in a stranger (3) He was still upset by his fathers death and wanted to talk to someone (4) By confiding in the innkeeper he hoped to get information about the local customs (5) None of these 87. Why did Nakul pay the tavern owner five coins instead of two ? (1) Not being familiar with the foreign currency he made a mistake (3) He left a tip to show his appreciation for a good meat (4) He thought the extra money would make the innkeeper happy (5) He wanted to create a favourable impression (2) Nakul did not have the exact change (2) He was distracted while playing (4) He was not well versed with local rules

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88. Which of the following can be said about Nakuls father ? (1) He was adventurous and had travelled all over the world (2) He was rich and experienced in the ways of the world

(3) He was prosperous because he had duped a lot of people (4) He favoured Nakul among all his children (5) He was poor and knew about various cultures 89. Why did Nakul have a good opinion of the King of the faraway country ? (1) He encouraged trade and his subjects were prosperous. (2) He ensured that visitors were treated with hospitality. (3) There were many facilities for entertainment there. (1) Only (1) (2) Only (2) (3) Both (1) & (3) (4) Only (3) (5) None of these

90. What was Nakuls overall experience in the far-away country ? (1) It was an unpleasant one and he decided it would be his last trip (2) It was a profitable one and he learnt a lot (3) It was stressful and he was glad to return home (5) None of these Directions(Q. 9193) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in EANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 91. conduct (1) behaviour 92. respite (1) stop 93. unknown (1) undecided (2) anonymous (3) renowned (4) unidentified (5) unfamiliar (2) part (3) delay (4) rest (5) relax (2) handle (3) action (4) habits (5) guide (4) It was sad since people kept recounting memories of his father

Directions(Q. 9495) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 94.appeared (1) evaporated 95.matching (1) duplicate (2) dissimilar (3) original (4) identical (5) single (2) died (3) invisible (4) vanished (5) faded

Directions(Q. 96100) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (5), i.e., All Correct. 96. To find a solution (1) to the problem, we met (2) daily after work and contributed (3) our ideals. (4) All Correct (5) 97. After the presentation (1) it was clearly (2) that they were not interested (3) in financing (4) the project. All Correct (5) 98. In my opinion it will be difficult (1) to persuade (2) the employees to accept (3) these changes (4) in the rules. All Correct (5) 99. This is the first time that he has been selected (1) to give a speech (2) at the anual (3) conference. (4) All Correct (5) 100. Inspite of my attempts (1) to encourage (2) him to continue (3) studying (4) he decided to take up a job All Correct (5) Directions(Q. 101105) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) At seventy-eight her fingers became too stiff to hold a needle so she began painting. (2) I decided to tell this boy the story of Ann Moses. (3) She began a career at eighty, so if you believe in yourself anything is possible. I ended. (4) At the age of twenty-seven, a boy was discouraged about his career.

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(5) She struggled hard to raise five children by doing embroidery and working on a farm. (6) She went on to paint over 2,000 pictures which became famous. 101. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) (5) (5) (6)

102. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) (5) (5)

103. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) (5) (5)

104. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) (5) (5) (6)

105. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (5) (5) (6)

Directions(Q. 106110) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. No Error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.) 106. It is sad that in (1) / our country education is (2) / available only to those (3) / whom can afford it. (4) No Error (5) 107. I was determined (1) / to learn everything (2) / I could from the people (3) / off the village. (4) No Error (5) 108. During the holidays (1) / I am often worked (2) / in my uncles shop to (3) / earn some pocket money. (4) No Error (5) 109. Most banks did not taken (1) / her plan to set up (2) / a factory in (3) / the area seriously. (4) No Error (5) 110. Every year we have (1) / a function where (2) / the children of our staff (3) / is awarded scholarships. (4) No Error (5)

Directions(Q. 111120) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. I was born and (41) up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to (42) the rice that we grew. (43) the better quality white rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the (44) quality red rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had (45) money in the house, so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for (46) of us she would use the red rice. I was (47) by her behaviour. One day, I asked her why she did this ? She (48) and said something I will never forget. (49) whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second best. (50) director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me. 111. (1) raised 112. (1) pick 113. (1) Instead 114. (1) less 115. (1) plenty 116. (1) all 117. (1) puzzled 118. (1) pleased 119. (1) remember 120. (1) when (2) adopted (2) save (2) While (2) worse (2) vast (2) remaining (2) confusing (2) shouted (2) pray (2) since (3) grown (3) supply (3) Yet (3) defective (3) lots (3) gathering (3) worrying (3) smiled (3) memorise (3) only (4) brought (4) cultivate (4) Therefore (4) inferior (4) sufficiently (4) none (4) frightened (4) advised (4) think (4) perhaps (5) grew (5) store (5) For (5) best (5) much (5) those (5) angry (5) hugged (5) appeal (5) as

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TEST - IV : COMPUTER APTITUDE 121. Which computer has been designed to be as compact as possible? 1) Mini 4) Mainframe 2) Super computer 5) None of the above 3) Micro computer

122. The symbols used in an assembly language are 1) Codes 4) Literals 123. Portrait and Landscape are 1) Page Orientation 4) Margin type 2) Paper Size 5) All of the above 3) Page Layout 2) Mnemonics 5) All of the above 3) Assembler

124.Any storage device added to a computer beyond the immediately usable main storage is known as 1) Floppy disk 4) Punched card 2) Hard disk 5) Magnetic Tape 3) Backing store

125. Which output device is used for translating information from a computer into pictorial form on paper 1) Mouse 2) Plotter 3) Touch panel 4) Card punch 5) Keyboard

126.A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of existing or hypothetical systems is 1) Data transmission 4) Data processing 2) Data flow 5) Data validation 3) Data capture

127. Which access method is used for obtaining a record from a cassette tape? 1) Direct 128. Find the ODD one. 1) JAVA 2) Cobol 3) Fortran 4) Linux 5) ADA 2) Sequential 3) Random 4) ISAM 5) VSAM

129. In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for: 1) Basic Intuitive Output Set 3) Basic Input Output System 2) Basic Input Organizational System 4) Basic Industry Operating System 5) Basic Input Output Set

130. Any and every command can be found on the 1) Drawing toolbar 2) Formatting toolbar 3) Standard toolbar 4) Menu bar 5) View toolbar

131. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an existing presentation? 1) File, add a new slide 2) Insert, new slide 3) File, open 4) File, new 5) None of the above

132. Which of the following items are examples of storage devices? 1) Floppy disks 2) CD-ROMs 3) Tape devices 4) Hard Disk 5) All of the above

133. The original ASCII code used .... bits of each byte, reserving that last bit for error checking 1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) 16

134.A name or number used to identify a storage location is called 1) A byte 2) A record 3) An address 4) An instruction 5) All of above

135. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is .... and storage is ..... 1) temporary, permanent 136. Offline device is 1) A device which is not connected to CPU 3) A direct access storage device 2) A device which is connected to CPU 4) An I/O device 5) None of the above 2) permanent, temporary 3) slow, fast 4) big, Small 5) None of the above

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137.Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located? 1) Memory address register 4) Program counter 2) Memory data register 5) Flag Register 3) Instruction register

138. Numbers in table columns are usually... 1) right-aligned 2) left-aligned 3) justified 4) centered 5) None of the above

139. Most Web sites have a main page known as ........, which acts as a doorway to the rest of the Website pages. 1) search engine 2) home page 3) browser 4) URL 5) Domain

140. A software program that extends the capabilities of your browser in a specific way is known as 1) Plugin 2) Browser software 3) Cookies 4) Applets 5) None of the above

141. Internet is example of 1) LAN 2) MAN 3) WAN 4) SAN 5) CAN

142. Mechanism to protect private network from outside attack is 1) Firewall 2) Antivirus 3) Digital Signature 4) Formatting 5) Tunneling

143. A (n) ____ program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way. 1) Interpreter 2) High-level 3) Compiler 4) COBOL 5) Executable

144. Which of the following is true about URL? 1) It is a computer program 2) It is a type of Programming object

3) It is the address of a document or page on the World Wide Web 4) It is an acronym for Unlimited Resources for Listening 145.Universal Product Code (UPC) is a _ 1) Scanner 2) Hardware Equipment 3) Antivirus 4) Graphics Adapter 5) Barcode system 5) It is a piece of hardware

146. Facsimile Transmission Machine is popularly known as: 1) ATM 2)Scanner 3) Fax Machine 4) Format Machine 5) None of these

147. The main folder on a storage device is called _____ 1) Root Directory 2) Interface 3) Device driver 4) Platform 5) Main directory

148. To protect the computer from hacker intrusions, ____ must be installed. 1) Firewall 2) Mailer 3) Script 4) Yahoo Messenger 5) None of these

149. Which of the following is used to read handwritten or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory? 1) Printer 2) Laser beam 3) Scanner 4) Touchpad 5) None of these

150.A program designed to destroy data on the computer which can travel to infect other computers is called a ____ 1) Hurricane 2) Infector 3) Disease 4) Virus 5) None of these

151. The easiest way to select text is to left click the mouse and _____ 1) Hold the Shift key 2) Hold the Ctrl key 4) Drag Over the words you want to highlight 5) None of these 3) Move the mouse

152. Which part of the URL http://www.rbi.org.in will specify the rules to be followed when accessing a file? 1) http:// 2) www 3) rbi 4) .in 5) rbi.org.in

153. Moving the page around to view all the pages in the document on the screen is referred to as: 1) Surfing 2) Navigating 3) Hyperlink 4) Scrolling 5) Browsing

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154. Which of the following is the short-cut key to close an active tab of a browser? 1) Alt + F4 2) Ctrl + C 3) Ctrl + F4 4) Shift + C 5) Ctrl + W

155. The Title and Page number of a document can be displayed using which of the following options? 1) Insert table 2) Spelling and Grammar 3) Header and Footer 4) Thesaurus 5) File

156. Which of the following is the advantage of Assembly language over Machine language? 1) Easy to use 2) Easy to understand 3) Easy to modify 4) Only 1 and 3 5) All the above

157. Pop-ups are a form of ..... on the World Wide Web? 1) Instant Messaging 2) Search Engines 3) Browsers 4) Mark-up Languages 5) Online Advertising

158. Which of the following is not used to align text in a document? 1) Left 2) Right 3) Center 4) Diagonal 5) Justify

159. ....... is a combination of text, audio, still images, animation, video. 1) Multiplexer 2) Multiplier 3) Multimedia 4) Multiuser 5) None of these

160. In order to change page margins in a word document: 1) Drag the scroll box on the scroll bars 3) Right Click on the ruler 2) Delete the margin boundaries on the ruler 4) Drag the margin boundaries on the ruler TEST - V : GENERAL AWARENESS 161. Who has been appointed as the next Chief Justice of India? (He succeeds Justice Altamas Kabir on July 19, 2013) 1) Justice G.S.Singhvi 2) Justice R.M.Lodha 3) Justice H.L.Dattu 4) Justice P.Sathasivam 5) Justice Anil Dave 162. Which country won the FIFA Confederations Cup for the fourth time by beating Spain 3-0 in the final at the Maracana stadium in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil on June 30, 2013? 1) Brazil 2) Mexico 3) Italy 4) Uruguay 5) Argentina 163. Which of the following countries became the 28th member of the European Union (EU) on July 1, 2013? 1) Albania 2) Kosovo 3) Macedonia 4) Croatia 5) Bosnia-Herzegovina 164. Queen Beatrix abdicated the throne in favour of her son Prince Willem-Alexander in April 2013. She was the queen of which of the following countries for 33 years? 1) Norway 2) Sweden 3) UK 4) Spain 5) Netherlands 165. Abdul Hamid became the President of which of the following countries in April 2013? 1) Pakistan 2) Bangladesh 3) Maldives 4) Iran 5) Libya 166. Which of the following pairs of Books and Authors is mismatched? 1) Six Suspects---Vikas Swaroop 2) White Tiger---Arvind Adiga 3) The Three Mistakes of My Life---Chetan Bhagat 4) The Audacity of Hope---Bill Clinton 5) Sea of Poppies---Amitav Ghosh 167. India is not a member of? 1) Commonwealth 2) SAARC 3) NAM 4) APEC 5) WTO 168. Zimbabwe was earlier known as? 1) Gold Coast 2) Ivory Coast 3) Southern Rhodesia 4) Persia 5) None of these 169. Biosphere reserves are areas to preserve? 1) Grasslands 2) Agricultural produce 3) Atmospheric balance 4) Genetic diversity 5) None of these 170. Inflation is based on 1) Consumer Price Index 2) Wholesale Price Index 3) Rural Labour Consumer Price Index 4) Industrial Workers Consumer Price Index 5) None of these 171. The Central Institute of Indian Languages is situated in 1) Hyderabad 2) Mysore 3) Ujjain 4) Varanasi 5) Ranchi 5) None of these

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172. The currency of Cambodia is 1) Riel 173. Bar is a unit of 1) Force 2) Energy 3) Pressure 4) Frequency 5) None of these 174. Which of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN? 1) Cambodia 2) Malaysia 3) Singapore 4) South Korea 5) Indonesia 175. Parimarjan Negi is associated with 1) Badminton 2) Snooker 3) Chess 4) Archery 5) Table Tennis 176. Who was the first Law Minister of India? 1) T.Krishnamachari 2) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar 3) Sardar Vallabhai Patel 4) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 5) None of these 177. Who is the author of the book 'The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes'? 1) Sir C.V.Raman 2) J.V.Narlikar 3) S.Chandrasekar 4) H.J.Bhabha 5) Vikram Sarabhai 178. Which of the following is a cricket related term? 1) Push in the back 2) Scissor kick 3) Hook 4) Smash 5) Dribble 179. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance term? 1) Current Account 2) Pay order 3) Par value 4) Short position 5) Infringement 180. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music? 1) Saraswati Samman 2) Vyas Samman 3) Tansen Samman 4) Jnanpith Award 5) Moortidevi Award 181. Which of the following is a major Jute producing state? 1) Kerala 2) Karnataka 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) West Bengal 182. The Radcliffe Line is a boundary demarcation line between? 1) India and China 2) Russia and China 3) Russia and Afghanistan 4) Pakistan and Afghanistan 5) India and Pakistan 183. Which of the following is not a Tiger Reserve in India? 1) Kanha 2) Sariska 3) Sunderbans 4) Kaziranga 5) Keoladeo Ghana National Park 184. Which city hosted the three-day International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Ministerial Conference on Nuclear Energy in June 2013? 1) Tokyo 2) Vienna 3) Saint Petersburg 4) New Delhi 5) Tehran 185. Who was named as the most powerful celebrity by Forbes magazine on June 26, 2013? 1) Oprah Winfrey 2) Lady Gaga 3) Steven Spielberg 4) Beyonce 5) Madonna 186. India won the ICC Champions Trophy defeating England by five runs in the final in Birmingham on June 23, 2013. Who was named Player of the Tournament? 1) Virat Kohli 2) Ravindra Jadeja 3) Shikhar Dhawan 4) R.Ashwin 5) Ravi Bopara 187. Kevin Rudd was sworn in as the new Prime Minister of which of the following countries on June 27, 2013? 1) UK 2) Canada 3) Sweden 4) Australia 5) New Zealand 188. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution is in the news again. It confers special status on? 1) Assam 2) Nagaland 3) Punjab 4) Arunachal Pradesh 5) J & K 189. Presidential elections were held in Iran on June14, 2013. The term of Iran President is? 1) 2 years 2) 3 years 3) 4 years 4) 5 years 5) 6 years 190. Which of the following is a non-cash transaction product? 1) ATM card 2) Credit card 3) Debit card 4) Both 1 and 2 5) All 1, 2and 3 191. Institutions that offer a wide range of financial services under one roof are referred to as? 1) Multinationals 2) Market regulators 3) Brand promoters 4) Financial supermarkets 5) None of these 192. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman? 1) Irrigation 2) Rural roads 3) Rural housing 4) Rural water supply 5) Rural employment 193. 'Dirham' is the currency of 1) Malta 2) Iran 3) Morocco 4) Libya 5) Turkey 2) Rupiah 3) Shekel 4) Baht 5) Kyat

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194. Minimum support prices of crops are recommended by the 1) Planning Commission 2) Finance Commission 3) Farmers Commission 5) National Development Council 4) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

195. The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is situated in? 1) Hyderabad 2) Chennai 3) Mumbai 4) Delhi 5) Kolkata 196. Which of the following states is a member of the 'Seven Sisters'? 1) Bihar 2) Jharkhand 3) Tripura 4) West Bengal 5) Odisha 197. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the Security Council of the United Nations Organization? 1) China 2) USA 3) Japan 4) UK 5) France 198. Which of the following books is written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam? 1) The Transparent Mind 2) A Brief History of Time 3) Indian Modernity 4) India Unbound 5) None of these 199. 'Hertz' is a unit of 1) Velocity 2) Wavelength 3) Frequency of sound waves 4) Magnetic field 5) None of these 200. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories? 1) Government service 2) Community leadership 3) Journalism 4) Public service 5) Music

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