IAMS

2004
MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)
1. A patient with Chromosome 11 defect with aniridia, mental retardation, and mass per abdomen is suffering from which of the following: a. Nephroblastoma b. Retinoblastoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Neuroblastoma Rosette shaped cataract is seen in which of the following: a. Steroid therapy b. Myotonic dystrophy c. Wilsons disease d. Blunt injury RU486 is a. Estrogen agonist b. Estrogen antagonist c. Progesterone agonist d. Progesterone antagonist Drug of choice for toxoplasmosis is: a. Sulfa drugs b. Cepholaxin c. Tinidazole d. Cefataxime The drug used for prophylaxis for unimmunized contact with exposure to a patient with whooping cough is: a. Erythromycin b. Rifampicin c. Penicillin d. Sulfonamides Which of the following is atypical in a patient suffering from multiple sclerosis: a. Lancinating pain b. Aphasia c. Visual loss d. Ataxia Seat belt injury can cause which of the following: a. Head injury b. Duodenal injury c. Windscreen injury with head going through d. Chest injury In revised scoring for trauma all of the following are used except: a. Pulse rate b. Respiratory rate c. Systolic BP d. Glasgow coma score 9.

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

All of the following are true about endothelium derived relaxing factor except: a. It is synthesized from arginine b. Chemically it is nitric oxide c. Acts by stimulating adenilyl cyclase d. Deficiency leads to hypertension Following fractures can be easily repaired except: a. Guillotine injury b. Thumb separation c. Phalangeal avulsion in child d. Avulsion due to crush injury Which of the following drugs act on translation in eukaryotic cells: a. Tetracycline b. Puromycine c. Erythromycin d. Aminoglycoside A 35-year-old female presented with passage of brownish red blood per vagina and she also has one episode of hemoptysis. There is past history of abortions. Chest x-ray was very significant, she is most likely suffering from: a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Choriocarcinoma d. Cervical cancer A female patient presented with DIC and bleeding from gums, which type of leukemia is known to present in such a way: a. ALL, type 3. b. AML-M6 c. AML-M7 d. AML-M3 A patient presents with fatigue and bleeding and peripheral smear showed abnormal lymphocytes. Pathologist orders for a test called TRAP test which comes positive, diagnosis is: a. CLL b. AML c. Hairy cell leukemia d. Lymphoma All of the following are true regarding CLL except: a. Most indolent leukemia b. Usually ends as blast crisis c. Smudge cells are seen in peripheral smears. d. Associated with 13 q anomalies. Cortical mastoidectomy is mandatory for: a. CSOM-safe type b. Acute coalescent mastoiditis c. Glomus jugulare d. Tubal dysfunction

10.

2.

11.

3.

12.

4.

5.

13.

6.

14.

7.

15.

8.

16.

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17. Distorted cone of flight is seen in which of the following: a. Early retraction b. Anterior inferior perforation c. Acute otitis media d. Bullous myringitis 18. False negative Rinnes test in a clinical examination strongly suggests: a. Profound conductive deafness b. Normal ear. c. Profound sensory neural deafness d. Mixed hearing loss. 19. CD3 surface marker is present on: a. T-cell b. B-cell c. Macrophagus d. Neutrophils 20. Regarding HLA all of the following are true except: a. HLA I is present on all cells. b. HLA II is present on B cells monocytes and activated T-cells c. HLA I is coded from chromosome 6 region d. They are surface glycoproteins. 21. Which of the following is true about golgi tendon organ: a. It is stimulated by muscle stretching b. Impulses from it are transmitted through 1a fibers c. It is responsible for myotatic reflex. d. Responsible for inverse myotatic reflex. 22. Which of the following is true about withdrawal reflex a. It is a monosynaptic reflex b. Impulses gets transmitted from sensory directly to motor c. It is tested using noxious stimuli d. It is one of the slow voluntary reflexes. 23. Rapid large amount of blood transfusion is associated with all of the following except: a. Hypothermia b Hypokalemia c. Acidosis d. DIC 24. Normal anion gap with hyperkalemia is seen in a. Type 1 RTA b. Type 2 RTA c. Type 4 RTA d. Ammonium chloride ingestion

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

25. Fractional excretion of sodium is 1.3 in a patient presenting with ARF, diagnosis is: a. Acute glomerulonephritis. b. Acute prerenal failure c. Obstructive uropathy d. Acute tubular necrosis 26. Characteristic features of neonatal tetanus includes: a. Opisthotonus b. Trismus c. Normal sensorium during spasms d. Neck stiffness 27. The normal aqueous flow across pupil is: a. 2.5 micro l/minute b. 1 micro l/minute c. 1 ml/minute d. 2.5 m./minute 28. All of the following about acute pancreatitis are true except: a. Fluid collection in the third space with resulting hypotension b. Hypoxia may be seen c. Hypercalcemia d. Stricture of the colon due to scarring 29. Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is associated with all of the following except: a. Churgs Strauss syndrome b. Macroscopic polyangitis c. Wegeners glomerulonephritis d. Paucimmune mediated crescentic glomerulonephritis 30. True about eosinophilic syndrome is all of the following except: a. Eosinophils > 1500 b. IgM antibodies against Wucherria Bancrofti c. Absence of microfilaria d. Lasting for > 6 months 31. True about deep vein thrombosis is: a. Pallor of limb b. Cellulitis c. High fever d. Sometimes there are absence of signs and symptoms. 32. True about regional anesthesia are all of the following except: a. It is preferred in cardiovascular risk patients. b. Causes increased BP c. Respiratory obstruction d. Postop analgesia is better

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2004
33. Disadvantages of epidural analgesia include: a. Hypertension b. Muscle relaxation is poor c. Retention requiring catheterization d. Higher thoracic and lumbar incision cannot be used 34. A child presented with generalized edema with urine showing presence of protein and normal specific gravity, he showed marked improvement with steroids, diagnosis is: a. Acute tubular necrosis b. Protein energy malnutrition c. Minimal change disease d. Acute Glomerulonephritis 35. A woman was found to have a 4 cm nodule over the uterus, which over 4 years doubled in size. She is otherwise normal. The nodule is a. Malignant tumor b. Benign tumor c. Infective lesion d. Degenerative lesion 36. In term pregnancy normal uterine blood flow is: a. 1000 ml/minute b. 600 ml/minute c. 300 ml/minute d. 150 ml/minute 37. In normal pregnancy: a. Both heart rate and BP increased. b. BP increases and heart rate decreases c. BP decreases and heart rate increases d. Both BP and heart rate decreases 38. Drug of choice to treat endometriosis in a symptomatic young female is: a. RU486 b. Clomiphene Citrate c. Estradiol d. Danazol 39. Substances secreted from seretoli cells includes all of the following except: a. Inhibin b. Estradiol c. Androgen binding protein d. Androgen 40. Internal carotid nerve is a branch of: a. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Superior cervical ganglion d. Sympathetic ganglion 41. Southern blot is used in the diagnosis of: a. Gross DNA rearrangements b. Point mutations in DNA c. RNA deletions. d. Chromosomal abnormalilties.

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

42. Stippling during entry wound of firearm injuries is due to: a. Soot particles b. Gun powder deposition c. Burning of hair due to flame d. Broken pieces of bullet 43. Wernier reids index is used for: a. Placenta Previa b. Vasa previa c. Aburptioplacenta d. Rupture of marginal sinus 44. In criles radical neck dissection, which of the following is not done: a. Resection of accessory nerve b. Sternocleidomastoid muscle removal c. Incision over carotid bulb d. Submandibular gland resection 45. True about Warthins tumor is: a. It shows cold spot on Tc99 scan b. It is a solid tumor c. Commonly effects submandibular gland d. Histology shows epithelial columnar cells with eosinophilic staining 46. Attachment to the oblique line on the thyroid cartilage is by all of the following except: a. Cricothyroid b. Thyrohyoid c. Inferior constrictor d. Thyroaretenoid 47. Recurrent dislocation of patella is seen in all of the following conditions except: a. Genovarum b. Genovalgum c. Short muscle tendons d. High patella 48. True regarding gluteus maximus is all of the following except: a. It takes origin from ileum, coccyx, and sacrum b. Insertion of a major portion is into ileal tibial band c. It is a powerful hip extensor d. Supplied by gluteus medius and minimus. 49. The apoprotein for LDL is: a. Apo A and Apo C b. B48 c. B100 d. Apo AI 50. Erythema migrans is seen in: a. Borreliosis b. Mycoplasma infection c. Rheumatic fever d. Ricketsial infection

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2004
51. Streptococci is known to cause all of the following except: a. Erysepelas b. Carbuncle c. Pustule d. Psoriasis 52. The following diseases are amenable to eradication except a. Measles b. Polio c. Leprosy d. Tetanus 53. Posterior staphyloma is associate with: a. Corneal ulcer b. Iridocyclitis c. Pathological myopia d. Choroiditis 54. Hypertensive iridocyclitis is due to: a. Hypertension causing iridocyclitis b. It is glaucoma secondary to iridocyclitis c. Rubeosis iridis d. Iridocyclitis in hypertensives 55. Pathological feature in myopia include: a. Thickened lens fiber. b. Irregular cornea c. Failure of accommodation reflex d. Increased anteroposterior diameter 56. What is the percentage of hemoglobin less than to diagnose anemia of pregnancy a. 9 mg/dL b.8 mg/dL c..10 mg/dL d.11 mg/dL 57. Passage of decidual cast is seen in: a. Threatened abortion b. Inevitable abortion c. Tubal pregnancy d. Habitual abortion 58. All of the following are true about treatment in congestive cardiac failure except: a. Inotropics like cardiac glycosides can be used. b. Amiadarone is used c. ACE inhibitors are used d. Diuretics can be used 59. Pseudobubo is seen in: a. granuloma venerum b. lymphogranuloma venerum c. chancroid d. syphilis 60. All of the following drugs are mydiatrics except: a. Cyclopentolate b. Tropicamide c. Homatropine d. Timolol maleate

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

61. Which of the following are immunosuppressive drugs: a. Levamazole and BCG b. Azithromicin and tetracycline c. Cyclosporin and glucocorticoids d. Cephalexin and netilamycin 62. Type 1 lepra reaction is associated with all of the following except: a. Erythematous lesions b. Axonal cell death c. It is seen in borderline lepromatous lesions d. There is multiplication of M. leprae 63. Which of the following areas is preserved in modified radical mastectomy (Pateys): a. Nipple b. Areola region c. Uneffected breast tissue d. Pectoralis major 64. All of the following extraocular muscles arise from the apex of orbits except: a. Inferior oblique b. Medial rectus c. Lateral rectus d. Superior oblique 65. All of the following are true about Teitz syndrome except: a. Costochondral swelling b. Acute chest pain c. Woman around 40 years d. Pain worsened on coughing and sneezing. 66. All of the following are true about Balints syndrome except: a. Simultagnosia b. Optic ataxia c. ocular apraxia d. Dysgraphia 67. About autosomal dominant inheritance all are true except a. it is expressed in homozygous state b. one parent is affected c. 50% of children affected d. Offspring of a nondiseased child of a diseased parent will not have the mutant gene 68. In a decomposing body all of the following are seen except: a. Luminiscent protein b. Maggot infestation c. Acute yellow atrophy of the liver d. Gas production

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2004
69. Glucose synthesis from the fatty acids does not occur due to the irreversible enzymes involving: a. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coa b. Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate c. Conversion of PEP to pyruvate d. Conversion of oxaloacetate to PEP 70. True about gene therapy is: a. It is tried in cystic fibrosis b. Gene is a drug c. Nucleic acid is used to cause change in genetic repertoire d. Genetic engineering refers to cloning and expression of human genes. 71. Deep dermal burns refer to: a. White skin or charred skin b. All dermal regions being affected c. Partial dermis is destroyed d. Destruction of dermis with preservation of appendages 72. True about Haldane effect is: a. Oxygen dissociation with fall of pH b. Carbondioxide release with decreased PaO2 c. _Carbondioxide release at increased PaO2 d. Oxygen release with increased PaCo2 73. True about G-protein coupled receptors is: a. They are bidirectional receptors causing stimulation of adenilyl cyclase b. Classified separately from serpentine receptors c. On stimulation cause intracellular receptor activation due to lipid soluble drugs. d. They are same as gamma amino butyric acid receptors 74. All of the following are true about anemia in chronic disorders except: a. Increased transferring level b. Decreased serum iron c. Microcytic hypochomic anemia d.

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

Increased ferritin level 75. Adrenal steroids are sometimes used in: a. Premature labor. b. Mendelson syndrome c. Septicemia d. All of the above. 76. All of the following are seen with adenoid facies except: a. High arched palate b. Subnormal intelligence c. Dull blank face. d. Persistent mouth breathing 77. All of the following are common causes of pleural effusion in patients who are HIV positive is except a. TB b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Parapneumonic effusion d. Kaposi sarcoma 78. AIDS is associated with all of the following cancers except: a. Invasive cervical cancer b. Small cell carcinoma of the lung c. Primary CNS lymphoma d. Kaposi sarcoma 79. Conventional contraceptives include: a. Copper T b. Nirodh c. Emacrynil d. Depot Medroxy progesterone 80. Thrombocytopenia is seen in all of the following except a. Henoch schonlien purpura b. TTP c. DIC d. ITP 81. Physiological chill is seen in which stage of labor? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 82. Mood disorders after two weeks of pregnancy are seen in: a. Sheehan syndrome b. Puerperal psychosis c. Postnatal blues d. Postnatal depression

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2004
83. Which of the following immunogobulins can cross placenta a. Ig G b. Ig M c. Ig A d. Ig D 84. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus a. 7days b. 10days c. 14days d. 18days 85. Most common site of ganglion is: a. Phalanges b. Palm c. Dorsal aspect of wrist d. Volar aspect of wrist

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

91. Cuneous and procuneous are separated by: a. Calcarine fissure b. Cingulate sulcus c. Central fissure d. Postcentral sulcus 92. Satellite lesions in malignant melanoma are due to a. Direct spread of tumor b. Tumor emboli c. Lymphatic permeation d. Metastasis 93. True about use of laryngeal mask is: a. It is more traumatic than endotracheal tube b. Can be used in not starved patients c. Can be used with NG tubes d. Prevent aspirations. 94. Dendritic corneal ulcer is caused due to: a. Adeno virus b. Candida albicans c. Herpes d. Pneumococci 95. Refractory hoarseness in chronic smokers should lead one to suspect a. Bilateral vocal cord nodule b. Early glottic carcinoma c. Right RCN palsy d. Chronic nonspecific laryngitis 96. The patients with ascitis, had ascitic protein > 2.5 mg and SAAG > 1.1, diagnosis is: a. Cirrhosis of liver b. Malignancy c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Nephrotic syndrome 97. Osmotic diuresis can be caused due to: a. Increased water intake b. Decreased ADH c. Unabsorbable solutes in renal tubules d. Increased salt intake 98. Test used to check for coagulation is: a. BT b. Clot retraction time c. CT d. PT 99. Rotation of head causes stimulation of which of the following: a. Utricle

86. Superior radioulnar joint is a type of: a. Condylar joint b. Hinge joint c. Ellipsoid joint d. Pivot joint 87. Which of the following is rare in tetralogy of fallot: a. Bacterial endocarditis b. Polycythemia c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Cerebral thrombosis 88. Each of the follwing pathogens are obligatory intracellular except a. Mycoplasma b. Chlamydia c. Rickettsia d. Viruses 89. Angular conjunctivitis is caused due to: a. Pneumococci b. Moraxella c. Gonococci d. Adeno virus 90. Falciparum malaria is known to cause severe complications due to: a. Cytoadherence b. Immune reaction c. Affects young erythrocytes and reticulocytes d. All of the above.

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2004
b. Maccule c. Semicircular canals d. Organ of corti 100.True about alkaline phosphatase are all of the following except: a. Low level in infants b. Normal level in healing fractures c. Normal level is 413 KA units d. Increased in hepatobiliary disorders 101.True about clearance is: a. Biologically that amount of fluid free from drug reflecting elimination. b. Poor index of elimination c. Equal to the amount consumed d. Is equal to amount of drug distribution 102.All of the following are true about TB spine except: a. Distruction of intervertebral disc with damage to adjacents vertebra b. Heals with fibrous ankylosis c. Paraspinal abscess are usual d. Anterior collapse of vertebra causes kyphosis. 103. Which of the following has slowest conduction a. A alpha b. A gamma c. B fibres d. C fibres 104. Steady state is said to be achieved when: a. Elimination is zero. b. Availability of drug equals elimination c. After 10 half lives d. After all the drug is absorbed from GIT

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

106. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium is associated with: a. Increased oxalates in intestine b. Increased phosphates c. Hypoparathyroidism d. 125 dihydroxy cholecalciferol 107. Decreased calcium intake is associated with all except: a. Increased bone mobilization of calcium b. Decreased reabsorption from renal tubules c. Decreased calcitonin d. Increased parathormone 108. The patient presenting with short stature, gynecomastia, azoospermia, is suffering from: a. Gonadal dysgenesis b. Klienfelters syndrome c. XX male d. Noonan syndrome 109. Length of duodenum is: a. 10 cm b. 15 cm c. 20 cm d. 5 cm 110. True about nosocomial infection is: a. Infection that spreads from the nose of the patient b. It occurs due to aspiration of gastric contents c. It is decreased by H2 blockers d. Sucralfate has no effect on nosocomil infection 111. All of the following are used in depression except: a. SSRIs b. MAO inhibitors c. Tricyclic antidepressants d. H2 blockers 112. Theory about the role of dopamine in schizophrenia is based on: a. Antipsychotics are tightly bound to postsynaptic D2 receptors b. Antipsychotics traditionally binds D1, D2, D3 receptors. c. Increase in Dopamine metabolism causes increased VMA, which is known to cause psychosis d. Dopamine causes increased metabolism of epinephrine 113. Measurement of serum ACE levels is done in diagnosis of:

105. Nasal swabs are collected in which of the following deaths: a. Cocaine overdose b. Drowning c. Asphyxia d. Strangulation

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2004
a. b. c. arthritis Renal cell carcinoma 114. In which of the following causes of polycythemia is the serum erthropoeitin extremely low a. Dehydration b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Polycythemia Vera d. High altitude 115. True about passive immunity is: a. Maternal antibodies transferred through placenta b. Infusion of antibodies. c. Lymphocyte transfusion d. All of the above. 116. A screening test defers from diagnostic test by: a. Lesser physician involvement b. Inexpensive c. Wide applicability d. All the above 117. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following a. Pyridoxine b. Thiamine c. Vitamin B12 d. Riboflavin 118. In autoclaving the bacilli used to check for effectiveness of temperature is: a. Cl.tetani b. Cl.Welchi c. Bacillus anthracis d. Bacillus stearothermophilus 119. All the following are seen in hypothyroidism in children except: a. Constipation b. Dull appearance c. Cold intolerance d. Alertness 120. Adult hypothyroidism can manifest clinically as: a. Anxiety b. Diarrhea c. Absent ankle jerks d. Carpal tunnel syndrome 121. Case control studies are evaluated by using which of the following: a. Sensitivity b. Specificity d. 122. The maintenance dose of digoxin is (mcg=micrograms) a. 0.25 mcg/day b. 250 mcg/day c. 25 mcg/day d. 2.5 mcg/day 123. Filiarisis is spread by all except: a. Culex fatigans b. Aedes Egypticus c. Mansoniodes d. Musca Domestica 124. Mantoux test should be read based on: a. Erythema b. Induration c. Both d. None 125. Immune response in tuberculosis is mainly: a. Humoral b. Cellular c. Alternate pathway d. Common pathway of compliment 126. The ATT drug acting on persisters is: a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Pyrazinomide d. Ethanbutol 127. True about Kochs postulates is: a. Hypothesis that TB is autoimmune disease b. First theory on infection c. Theory that suggests that TB is caused by tubercle bacilli d. Explains disease mechanism of gram negative bacilli only 128. All of the following are true about tuberculosis except: a. Discovered by Theodore Kocher b. Grows well at 370 centigrade c. No pigment production d. Stains with ZN stain. 129. TB bacilli was discovered by: a. Luvenhook b. Luis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Thomas Harvey 130. One of the first physicians in ancient India who lived during 800 B.C. is Hypertension Sarcoidosis Rheumatoid c. d.

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

Relative risk Odds ratio

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2004
a. b. c. d. Susrutha Vagabhata Athreya Charaka

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

c. Biparietal d. Suboccipitobregmatic 138. True about pemphigus is all except: a. Acantholysis is seen b. Tense bullae are seen c. Bulla spread sign is positive d. IgG antibodies may be seen or immunofloroscence 139. If bilateral carotid arteries are ligated prior to carotid sinus, the animal would show which of the following: a. Increased BP and heart rate b. Decreased BP and heart rate c. Increased BP, decreased heart rate d. Decreased BP, increased heart rate 140. In a patient with severely damaged aortic valves having friable vegetation is suffering from infection due to: a. Streptococcus pneumonia b. Streptococcus Viridians c. Streptococcus feacalis d. Staphaureus 141. Which of the following is consistent with decreased TSH and increased T3 a. Graves disease b. Secondary hypothiroidism c. Tertiary hypothyroidism d. Iodine deficiency 142. Non-pitting edema is seen in all the following except: ( question as appeared in the exam-not a compilation error) a. Congestive cardiac failure b. Hypothyroidism c. Chronic renal failure d. Hypoalbuminemia 143. In a patient with recessive disorder, true is: a. 25% inheritance in offspring b. It is manifest in heterozygous state c. Genotype can be easily recognized clinically. d. Only females are affected 144. Oxidative deamination in liver is done for which of the following a. Aspartate

131. A patient with lung abscess requires all the following sputum examinations except: a. Culture on aerobic media b. Culture in anaerobic media c. ZN stain d. Gram stain 132. Retinal detachment occurs with separation of: a. Retina from choroids b. Pigment clear from neurosensory retinal layer c. Inner plexiform layer from limiting membrane d. Ganglion layer from plexiform layer 133. One of the first signs seen in Volkmanns ischemic contracture is: a. Pulselessness b. Palor c. Pain d. Paralysis 134. Right testicular vein drains into: a. Right renal vein b. Internal iliac vein c. Inferior vena cava d. Left renal vein 135. Endoscopic surgery has shown good results in which of the following: a. Transnasal surgeries b. Chronic sinusitis c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma d. Angiofibroma 136. The artery of epistaxis is: a. Septal branch of labial artery b. Sphenopalatine artery c. Ethmoidal branch d. Septal branch of palatine artery 137. What is the diameter of engagement in face presentation a. Mentovertical b. Submentobregmatic

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b. Glutamine c. Valine d. Glycine 145. Which of the following is true a. Labetolol is a both a Alpha and Beta adrenergic blocker b. Nodalol is known for its short duration of action c. Atenolol is preferred in bronchoconstriction d. Sotalol is Beta 2 antagonist 146. True about sympathomimetics is a. Phenylephrine is a mydriatic and a good nasal decongestant b. Dopamine and dobutamine have a role in cardiac shock c. Isoprenaline is used in cardiac arrest d. Norepinephrine causes raised BP 147. Which of the following is a method for refuse disposal and also soil conserver a. Drainage b. Composting c. Trench d. River outflow 148. Commonest skin manifestation in HIV infected patients is: a) Kaposis Sarcoma b) Sebhorriec dermatitis c) Pyoderma gangrenosum d) Atopic dermatitis 149. In autosomal dominant inheritance which of the following reasons explains the patient developing a disorder with unaffected parent a. Environmental influence b. New Mutations c. Decreased penetration in one of the diseased parents d. All of the above 150. In X linked dominant inheritance which of the following is true a. 50 % of the offspring may be affected b. Only females are affected c. Females are more affected then males d. All of the above

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

151. Best (specific) assessment of foetal well being is by a. Biophysical profile b. Oxytocin challenge test c. Non stress test d. Urinary estradiol estimation 152. Pregnancy can now be best confirmed by a. Serum HCG b. Ultrasound c. Estradiol d. Urine HCG 153. Mid day meal contains proteins and calories in what proportions a. proteins and calories b. proteins and 1/3rd calories c. 1/3rd proteins and 1/3rd calories d. 2/3rd calories and 1/3rd proteins 154. Which of the following is a T cell malignancy a. CML b. Hodgkins disease c. Mycosis fungoides d. Burkits lymphoma 155. In which part of female tract does fertilization occurs. a. Medial part of fallopian tube b. Lateral part of fallopian tube c. Cervico-uterine junction d. Cornu 156. KF rings are found in a. Heamochromatosis b. Wilsons disease c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Rheumatoid arthritis

157. PQLI would include all of the following except a. IMR b. MMR c. Life expectancy at 1 year d. Literacy rate 158. Most labile vaccine is a. OPV b. Measles c. BCG d. DPT 159. Accole forms are seen in a. P. vivax b. P. falciparam c. P. malraie d. P. ovale 160. Genital tuberculosis affects predominantly a. Uterus

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10

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2004
b. Ovary c. Fallopian tubes d. Cervix 161. Osmotic fragility is decreased in: a) Hereditary spherocytosis b) Thallesemia c) Autoimmune heamolytic anemia d) Ovalocytosis 162. Only abductor of vocal cords is a. Posterior cricoarytenoid b. Inter arytenoid c. Lateral crico arytenoid d. Cricothyroid 163. All the follwing cause a right shift of oxyhemoglobin curve except a. Increased 2,3 DPG b. Chronic anemia c. Fever d. CO poisoning 164. The femoral canal is lined medially by which of the following ligaments a. Pectineal b. Lacunar c. Inguinal d. Femoral 165. Wernickes encephalopathy occurs in which of the following conditions a. Preeclampsia b. Hyperemesis gravidarum c. Hypertension d. All of the above 166.In a lady presenting with preeclampsia all of the following drugs can be used in treatment except a. Labetalol b. Methyl dopa c. Enalapril d. Hydralizine 167. In revised scoring for trauma all of the following can be seen except: a. Pulse rate b. Respiratory rate c. Systolic BP d. Glasgow coma score 168. Rapid large amount of blood transfusion is associated with all of the following except: a. Hypothermia b Hypokalemia c. Acidosis d. DIC 169. True about Warthins tumor is: a. It shows cold spot on Tc99 b. It is a solid tumor c. Commonly effects submandibular gland d.

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

Histology shows epithelial columnar cells with eosinophilic staining 170. Angular conjunctivitis is caused due to: a. Pneumococci b. Moraxella c. Gonococci d. Adeno virus 171. Test used to check for coagulation is: a. Bleeding Time b. Clot retraction time c. Clotting Time d. Prothombin Time 172. All of the following are true about Hirshsprung disease except a. The diseases portion is dilated b. The diseased portion is aganglionic c. There is deficiency of VIP production d. The cells are hypersensitive to VIP 173. Health for all by 2000 refers to a. Attainment of the highest possible health standards by all the people b. No disease anywhere c. Everyone is educated d. All of the above 174. In which of the following disease does prevention from the main part of treatment a. Rheumatic heart disease b. Leprosy c. Sexually transmitted disease d. Tuberculosis 175. All of the following diseases are amenable to eradication except a. Measles b. Polio c. Leprosy d. Mumps

176. All of the following are caused by viruses except a. Measles b. Pertusis c. Mumps d. Polio 177. Which of the following organism is capsulated a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Candida albicans d. Epidermophyton 178. which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) large cell carcinoma c) small cell carcinoma d) Adenocarcinoma

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Tel: 011-2615 4949; 2615 3939; 2614 0909; 2585 3500; 2582 7397 Visit: www.iamsonline.com; www.pgcoaching.org

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IAMS
2004
179. In term pregnancy normal uterine blood flow is: a. 600 ml/minute b. 300 ml/minute c. 150 ml/minute d. 1000 ml/minute 180. In normal pregnancy: a. Both heart rate and BP increased. b. BP increases and heart rate decreases c. BP decreases and heart rate increases d. Both BP and heart rate decreases

MAHE, 2004 (28th March, 2004)

IAMS
Tel: 011-2615 4949; 2615 3939; 2614 0909; 2585 3500; 2582 7397 Visit: www.iamsonline.com; www.pgcoaching.org

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