RT-5 [Unit -2]

1. Which of the cyclins have/has essential functions in Sphase of cell cycle? a. A-type b. B-type. c. D-type d. Both B- and D-types. 2. During gamete participates during a. Prophase-I b. Prophase-II c. Metaphase-I d. D Anaphase-II 3. a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. formation, the enzyme recombinase

9. a. b. c. d.

Na - K+ pump is Symporter Antiporter ABC Transporter Permease

10. Which one of the following groups of antimicrobial agents does not act by inhibiting protein synthesis? a. quinolones b. tetracyclines c. aminoglycosides d. macrolides 11. Gas vesicles in bacteria a. Help move cells to optimal nutrient levels. b. Store oxygen for growth anaerobically. c. Are bounded by a lipid bilayer membrane. d. Are bounded by a membrane impervious to gas. 12. Magnetostomes in bacteria a. help cells attach to metal objects. b. help cells to magnetically attach to each other. c. help cells to float on the surface of fresh water ponds. d. help cells to orient in the earth's magnetic field. 13. Which of the following statement is true? A. Chromosomes are membrane bound and are stable in entire life span of a cell. B. If barr body is formed in female, no genes from father will be expressed in the child. a. Only A b. Only B c. Both A and B d. None of these. 14. Active site of Topoisomerase I contains a. Tyrosine b. Tryptophan c. Glycine d. Fe+3 ions 15. What is facilitated diffusion? a. A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration without the assistance of an integral protein b. A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration with the assistance of an integral protein c. An active transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration with the assistance of an integral protein d. A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration with the assistance of an integral protein 16. What is the function of the nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane?

Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in Mitotic prophase Mitotic metaphase Meiotic metaphase Meiotic prophase cdK-2 exerts its effect during which stage of cell cycle G1 phase S phase G2 phase M phase

5. During prokaryotic cell division, two chromosomes separate from each other and distribute into the daughter cells by a. a mitotic spindle. b. Repellent forces. c. Attachment to separating membrane regions. d. All of the above 6. A poikilothermic organism living in the Arctic would have, compared to that organism living in the temperate climate zone, a plasma membrane richer in a. Saturated fatty acid b. Long chain fatty acids c. Protein d. Unsaturated fatty acids 7. Ionophores are small hydrophobic molecules that can partition into the lipid bilayer and increase their permeability to specific inorganic ions. Which of the following is a channel forming ionophore? a. Valinomycin. b. Actinomycin. c. Gramicidin A. d. Nicin. 8. Among the following' which ions are not us e d in active transporta. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca++ d. CI-

a. The cytoplasmic membrane does not have a nonpolar part. b. The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane prevents extracellular fluid from leaving the cell and intracellular fluid from entering the cell. c. The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane is hydrophobic and prevents extracellular fluid from entering the cell and intracellular fluid from exiting the cell. d. The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane is to position organelles within the cell. 17. Cholera, a disease caused by a bacterial infection of Vibrio cholerae, results in severe diarrhea leading to dehydration. A toxin released by the bacterium causes the release of chloride ions (Cl-) from cells lining the small ntestines and inhibits the uptake of sodium ions (Na+) by these cells. This results in dehydration because a. Lumen becomes hypoosmotic as compared to cells lining the intestine b. High Na+ and Cl- activates the aquaporins on the membrane of nephrons c. High Na+ in the lumen causes suppression of release of ADH d. Lumen becomes hyperosmotic as compared to cells lining the intestine 18. Which of the following statements about tandem repetitive DNA are correct? a. STRs are the same as microsatellite DNA. b. VNTRs are not a type of minisatellite DNA. c. Tandem means two repeats next to each other. d. It is usually classified according to the number of repeats. 19. Predict how a lacI S mutant would be affected by the construction of a merodiploid that has a second normal copy of the lacI gene. a. The lac genes would be expressed efficiently only in the absence of lactose. b. The lac genes would be expressed efficiently only in the presence of lactose. c. The lac genes would be expressed continuously. d. The lac genes would never be expressed efficiently. 20. Negatively charged phosphate groups in the DNA backbone must be neutralized in order for folding of DNA to occur. In bacterial DNA, this charge neutralization is carried out by small positively charged molecules called polyamines. What proteins carry out this same function in eukaryotic cells? a. Transcription factors b. High mobility group proteins (HMG-1) c. Histones d. Scaffold proteins 21. There are five major types of histones in eukaryotic cells. One of these is not part of the structure of nucleosomes and is thought to participate in forming the 30-nm condensed chromatin fiber. Which histone is this? a. H1 b. H2A and B c. H3

d. H4 22. Which of the following regarding kinesin is correct a. Many kinesin molecules move along a single protofilament of a microtubule at a velocity proportional to the ATP concentration b. A single kinesin molecule moves along a single protofilament of a microtubule at a velocity proportional to the GTP concentration c. Many kinesin molecules moves along a single protofilament of a microtubule at a velocity proportional to the ADP concentration d. A single kinesin molecule moves along a single protofilament of a microtubule at a velocity proportional to the ATP concentration. 23. Dynactin is a. A type of actin monomer b. An adapter protein bridging dynein and cargo. c. A motor protein of dynein. d. A cargo carried by dynein in nerve cell 24. RCC1 is a. GAP protein in cytosol b. GEF in nucleus c. GEF in cytosol d. GAP in Nucleus 25. Centromere consists of a histone variant called a. CENP-E b. CENP-B c. CENP-A d. CENP-D 26. SUV39H1 is an example of a. Acetyl transferase b. Demethylase c. Deacetylase d. Methyl transferase 27. Assimilatory sulfate reduction involves a. formation of phosphoadenosine 5-phosphosulfate b. Direct binding of Sulphur to serine. c. Release of sulphur from organic substances. d. Addition of sulphur to cysteine 28. Cyanide binds to at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the a. Mitochondria. b. lysosomes. c. ribosomes. d. Endoplasmic reticulum. 29. Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system? a. nuclear envelope b. plasma membrane c. chloroplast d. ER 30. The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by a. the physical separation of most membranes from each other.

b. the transportation of membrane lipids among the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles. c. the function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components. d. the modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination. 31. Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? a. the endoplasmic reticulum b. the Golgi apparatus c. the lysosome d. mitochondria 32. Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system? a. It is a static structure. b. Its structure is not derived from the ER or Golgi. c. It has too many vesicles. d. It is not involved in protein synthesis. 33. Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to a. form cleavage furrows during cell division. b. migrate by amoeboid movement. c. separate chromosomes during cell division. d. extend pseudopods. 34. If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction? a. microvilli, alveoli, and glomeruli: cellular projections that increase surface area b. all ducts, such as those from salivary or sebaceous glands, that transport fluids c. sperm, tissues that contain flagella or cilia larynx, and trachea: cells and d. phagocytic cells and white blood cells that exhibit amoeboid movement 35. Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated with cytochalasin D will still be able to a. form cleavage furrows. b. contract muscle fibers. c. extend pseudopodia. d. move vesicles around the cell. 36. Which of the following have overall negative charge a. Phsophatidic acid b. Phosphotidyl choline c. Phosphotidyl Serine d. Phosphotidyl ethanolamine

37. Placing phospholipids into an aqueous solution immediately results in their forming a lipid bilayer. What is the driving force causing this ordered arrangement? a. The phospholipids are very ordered in water, and gain freedom of movement by forming a bilayer. b. Water, when associated with lipids, is forced into an ordered arrangement with fewer hydrogen bonds. Forcing lipids into a bilayer gains freedom of movement for the water. c. Phospholipids have a strong affinity for other phospholipids, leading to self assembly. d. Proteins associated with membranes show non-covalent interactions with each other resulting in formation of a bilayer. 38. Co-transport of nutrients across the intestinal cell membranes is an active process that can move glucose against a concentration gradient. The energy requiring step for cotransport is: a. The Na+K+ATPase that pumps Na+ from the cell into the lumen of the intestine. b. The permease that allows glucose and Na+ into the cell requires ATP. c. The permease that pumps glucose from the cell into the blood requires ATP. d. The Na+K+ ATPase that pumps Na+ from the cell into the blood, maintaining low Na+ levels in the cell. 39. Coral in the ocean grows by budding, where the new organism grows out of the old one by mitosis. This form of replication is an example of: a. meiosis to produce a zygote b. asexual reproduction c. sexual reproduction d. gamete formation 40. The inducer in lac operon: a. combines with a repressor and prevents it from binding to the promoter b. combines with a repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator c. binds to the promoter and prevents the repressor from binding to the operator d. binds to the operator and prevents the repressor from binding at this site e. binds to the termination codons and allows protein synthesis to continue 41. The Thompson seedless grape is triploid, with three copies of each chromosome. Which phase of the cell cycle would you expect triploid cells to be unable to complete. a. meiosis I b. S c. meiosis II d. G2 42. Tumor-promoting agent thapsigargin inhibit which of the following pump A. Plasma membrane calcium pump B. The sarcoplasmic calcium pump

C. a. b. c. d.

endoplasmic reticulum calcium pump A only B and C B only A and C

F. Transposable elements spread more effectively in bacterial plasmids than in bacterial chromosomes. a. A, B and C b. D, E and F c. A and D d. B and F 47. Which of the following DOES NOT lead to activation of CDK1? a. Binding of cyclin B to cdk1 b. Phosphorylation of threonine 161 c. Phosphorylation of tyrosine15. d. Catalytic activity of cdc25 which removes the phosphate from tyrosine 15 48. Two of the following statements represent evidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts are derived from endosymbiotic bacteria. The other three are incorrect. Paying attention to the details of each statement, decide which are correct. A. Phylogenetic analyses place mitochondrial genes within the alpha-proteobacteria. B. Both organelles have a bacterial-like circular chromosome with abundant histone proteins. C. Both organelles are approximately the size of a bacterial cell. D. Phylogenetic analyses place chloroplast genes within the archaea. a. B and D b. A and C c. A and D d. B and C 49. Four of the following statements correctly describe signs of lateral gene transfer of a particular gene? A. A GC to AT ratio that is unusual for the host species. B. Usage of codons that are uncommon in the host species. C. Presence of nearby transposase genes or viral insertion sequences. D. Location of the gene near the centromere. E. Phylogenetic analysis that assigns the gene to another clade. F. Occurrence of methylation that silences the gene. a. A, B, C and E b. B, C, D and F c. A, C, E and F d. A, D, E and F. 50. An experiment is designed to study the mechanism of sucrose uptake by plant cells. Cells are immersed in a sucrose solution, and the pH of the solution is monitored with a pH meter. Samples of the cells are taken at intervals, and the sucrose in the sampled cells is measured. The measurements show that sucrose uptake by the cells correlates with a rise in the pH of the surrounding solution. The magnitude of the pH change is proportional to the starting concentration of sucrose in the extracellular solution. A metabolic poison known to block the ability of cells to regenerate ATP is found to inhibit the pH changes in the extracellular solution. Based on this information which of the following statements would you predict is correct?

43. Following are statements regarding X chromosome inactivation/lyonization. A. In totality, men and women have equal number of active X chromosomes. B. All the cells in the female body have 1 Barr body inactivated by a random process C. If a cell has XXX chromosomes, two Barr bodies may be seen but if a cell has XXY chromosome, 1 Barr body is seen D. All the genes on the inactivated X chromosome are switched off. Which among the above statements are INCORRECT? a. A and C b. B only c. B and D d. C only 44. Which among the following is true about nitrogen fixation? a. nifE, nifN, nifB and nifV codes for the synthesis of the ironmolybdenum cofactor (FeMoco) of nitrogenase. b. Nodulation (Nod) factors are signaling molecules produced by nitrogen fixing plants known as rhizobia during the initiation of nodules on the root of legumes. c. Nodulin genes present in bacteria produces legmemoglobin. d. Nodulin genes produce auxin, gibberellins and cytokinin-like substances. 45. Oubain and palytoxin inhibit Na -K pump by a. Oubain converts the pump to nonspecific ion channel by locking them in conformation which is accessible on both sides; while palytoxin fix the pump in the corformation that is open to the cytosol. b. Oubain binds preferentially to the form of pump that is open to extracellular side, locking 2 Na+ ions and preventing conformation change; while palytoxin convert the pump to non-specific ion channel. c. Oubain converts the pump to nonspecific ion channel by locking them in conformation which is accessible on both sides; while palytoxin fix the pump in the corformation that is open to the extracellular side. + + d. Oubain and palytoxin arenot the inhibitors of Na -K pump but are the inhibitors of Cl channels. 46. Which among the following statements among about transposons are correct? A. Transposable elements are found in greatest density in heterochromatin near the telomere. B. Transposable elements will be favored by natural selection when they spread efficiently with high fitness cost to their hosts. C. Transposable elements spread more effectively in organisms that reproduce asexually. D. Transposable elements can cause knock-out mutations. E. Transposable elements are an example of "selfish genes."
+ +

a. Hydrogen ion movement is the result of facilitated diffusion. b. Sucrose moving through the membrane forces hydrogen ions in to the cell c. Sucrose and Hydrogen ions are transported in opposite directions across the membrane d. Sucrose transport is the result of a hydrogen ion contransporter 51. Following are statements concerning role of rafts in signal transduction: A. They form concentrating platforms for receptor molecules and signaling complexes B. They are involved in IgE signaling in allergic immune response C. Immunoelectron microscopy can be used as a technique to determine raft location D. Calveolae are a type of raft involved in endocytosis via clathrin coated pits Which of the following statements are true? a. A and D only b. A, B and D only c. A, C and D only d. A, B, C and D 52. There is a growing body of evidence that acetylation of histone N-termini in specific chromosomal regions contributes to gene control by regulating the binding of histones to DNA and regulation of the folding state of chromatin. The extent of histone acetylation is correlated with the relative resistance of chromatin DNA to digestion by nucleases. Which combination of histone acetylation state and DNAse 1 resistance is characteristic of actively transcribed regions of chromatin? a. Little or no histone acetylation, highly resistant to DNAse 1 b. Little or no histone acetylation, highly sensitive to DNAse 1 c. High level of histone acetylation, highly resistant to DNAse 1 d. High level of histone acetylation, highly sensitive to DNAse1 53. Gene regulation can only be fully understood in the context of cellular physiology and/or development. The fact that the lactose operon is off when repressor protein is bound to the operator DNA sequence only takes on significance when we understand the effect that the disaccharide lactose has on this operon. When lactose is taken up by bacterial cells, it is converted to allolactose. How does allolactose activate the lactose operon? a. Allolactose is converted to the very effective inducer IPTG which binds to repressor protein to inactivate it. b. Allolactose is converted to the very effective inducer IPTG which binds to repressor protein to activate it. c. Allolactose binds to repressor protein directly and inactivates the repressor. d. Allolactose binds to repressor protein directly and activates the repressor.

54. Below are the two steps of assimilatory sulphate reduction

What A and B are? a. A: AcetylCoA CoA; B: H2S aceate b. A: Malonyl CoA CoA; B: H2S malate c. A: CoA AcetylCoA; B: H2S aceate d. A: AcetylCoA CoA; B: aceate H2S 55. Which of the following antibiotics are bactericidal and bacteriostatic? A. Ampicillin, B. Clindamycin C. Erythromycin D. Cephalosporin a. A and D are bacteriostatic, B and C are bactericidal. b. A and D are bactericidal; B and C are bacteriostatic. c. A and C are bactericidal; B and D are bacteriostatic d. A and C are bacteriostatic; B and D are Bacteriocidal. 56. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about separation centromere in anaphase? A. APC-CDC20 cleaves Securin, separase is activated and cleaves scc1 B. APC-CDH1 cleaves securin and activates separase cleaving scc3 C. APC-CDC20 ubiquitinates securin for proteasomal degradation; activating separase which cleaves scc1 of cohesin. D. APC-CDC20 ubiquitinates securin for proteasomal degradation; activating separase which cleaves scc1 of condensin. a. A and B b. A, B and D c. C only d. D only 57. The role played by SeqF and EzrA in regulation of Z-ring assembly is a. SeqF is a negative regulator and EzrA is a positive regulator; both regulate the polymerization of FtsZ. b. SeqF and EzrA are positive regulators; both regulate the polymerization of MreB. c. SeqF is a positive regulator and EzrA is a negative regulator; both regulate the polymerization of FtsZ. d. SeqF and EzrA are negative regulators; both regulate the polymerization of MreB 58. The genome is a store house of surprises and mysteries. It has many conserve regions, some actively changing regions, introns , exons and many repeats. The nature has been selecting the genes and creating new genes and alleles. Which of the following is true regarding the conserved sequences and their evolution?

A. The regions of genome evolve more slowly which have conserved sequences B. The negative selection helps to protect the most important genes and thus does not follow natural law of evolution. C. The Positive selection / Darwin selection promotes speciation and thus it causes changes in conserved sequences. D. The non functional sequences evolve slowly than the normal functional genes. a. Only A b. Both A and B c. Both B and C d. A, B and D only 59. Several unconventional myosins are localized at various sites within the hair cells of inner ear. The precise role of these various motor proteins is still unclear. Mutation in myosin VII are the causes of usher 1B syndrome. The effect of mutated hair cells , which cannot produce hair in inner ear would be a. A deaf mice b. A dumb mice c. A black mice d. Mice with no motor functions 60. Approximately 5% of the present human genome consists of segmental duplications that have arisen during the past 35 million years. How do you suppose researchers are able to estimate how long it has been since a particular region of a chromosome was duplicated? a. By estimating the gene duplicates numbers and amount of gene b. By estimating the gene products and mutations in the rRNA c. By analysing the conserved rRNA regions d. By estimating the rate of duplication and analyzing the rates before and after the duplication event. 61. A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, a. Chloroplasts and peroxisomes. b. Peroxisomes and chloroplasts. c. Chloroplasts and mitochondria. d. Mitochondria and peroxisomes. 62. Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transports mechanism, is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells? a. phagocytosis b. active transport pumps c. exocytosis d. facilitated diffusion 63. The sodium-potassium pump in animal cells requires cytoplasmic ATP to pump ions across the plasma membrane. When the proteins of the pump are first synthesized in the

rough ER, what side of the ER membrane will the ATP binding site be on? a. It will be on the cytoplasmic side of the ER. b. It will be on the side facing the interior of the ER. c. It could be facing in either direction because proteins are properly reoriented in the Golgi apparatus. d. It doesn't matter, because the pump is not active in the ER. 64. The sputum (fluid coughed up from the lungs) of many smokers contain cells with mutations (errors) in the genes for p53. The smoking induced mutations appear to be an early signal showing that cancer of the lungs will follow. What is the likely relationship between early p53 mutation and the development of lung cancer? a. p53 with a mutation directly stimulates the growth of cancer cells. b. Mutations in p53 would prevent abnormal cells from dying by apoptosis. c. Mutant p53 triggers the M phase of the cell cycle leading to abnormal cell division. d. p53 causes a cell to enter G0, blocking cell division. 65. Oral rehydration therapy saves the lives of millions of victims of cholera and other diarrhea-producing diseases. This therapy, which requires feeding dilute salts and glucose, is successful because: a. bacterial damage to intestinal transport of ions is reversed by glucose b. the active transport of glucose and sodium from the cell to the intestine is still intact c. the secondary active transport or co-transport systems of the intestine are still functioning d. the dilute salts and glucose cause removal of excess water from the body e. the dilute salts and glucose are hypotonic to the diarrhea-causing bacteria. 66. An E. coli strain that is lac Z is conjugated with E. coli cells c+ carrying an F' plasmid with the Plac O lac Z DNA sequence on c the episome. The O is a mutation of the lactose operator that is no longer able to bind the lac I gene product which codes for + the lac repressor. How would the expression of the lac Z be regulated in the resulting cells that are diploid for the lactose regulatory region and the lac Z gene? a. normal regulation of lactose metabolism. + b. constitutive expression of lac Z . + c. inability to synthesize the lac Z gene product, -galactosidase. + d. lac Z gene is inducible, but unable to be repressed by high glucose. e. no synthesis of the lac I gene product, the lac repressor. 67. When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that a. the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together. b. water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured.
-

c. hydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on freezing. d. the carbon-carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken. e. the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point. 68. The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? a. Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. b. Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. c. Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. d. All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function. 69. The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably concluded that a. at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope. b. the nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system. c. the nuclear envelope is physically separated from the endoplasmic reticulum. d. small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope. 70. Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? a. Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system. b. The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. c. Proteins that are secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. d. In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell. ---END---